LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION
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INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the following
questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.
1. The observation of a person, place or thing, generallybut not
necessarilyin an unobtrusive manner.
A. casing B. surveillance
C. undercover operation D. cover operation
2. Surveillance involving the use of scientific device to enhance
hearing or seeing the subjects activities.
A. close surveillance B. open surveillance
C. loose surveillance D. technical surveillance
3. This is an investigation of an individual made upon the basis of
written information supplied by him on an official inquiry.
A. local agency check
B. national agency check
C. partial background investigation
D. complete background investigation
4. This letter represents that the source of intelligence
information is from tactical interrogation of captured enemy.
A. U B. V
C. W D. X
5. The intelligence operatives are being asked about his personal
experiences and observations while conducting intelligence operations.
A. news clipping B. liaison activities
C. de-briefing C. counter-intelligence
6. It is an important method of gathering intelligence data, and
this is an excellent source of highly valuable material.
A. news clipping B. liaison activities
C. de-briefing C. counter-intelligence
7. It is the permanent official chronological record of the
operations of the intelligence section, unit or agency.
A. intelligence journal B. intelligence workbook
C. situation map D. intelligence file
8. It is one of the principal activities of police intelligence
operations, and limited activities on this will usually produce a
limited intelligence product.
A. news clipping B. liaison activities
C. de-briefing D. counter-intelligence
9. It is in this phase of intelligence cycle in which information
becomes intelligence.
A. dissemination B. collection
C. processing D. direction
10. Are any person, things or actions from which information about
the criminals and subversives are derived.
A. collection agency B sources of information
C. pertinence factor D. pertinence consideration
11. The reliability of the source is highly reliable and the
accuracy of information is confirmed information what is the
evaluation rating of the information.
A. A-1 B. B-2
C. C-3 D. D-4
12. It is the granting of access to classified document or
information.
A. compartmentation B. need-to-know
C. cleared individual D. security officer
13. It is the term given to the requirement to those persons whose
official duty requires knowledge or possession of information or
intelligence.
A. compartmentation B. need-to-know
C. cleared individual D. security officer
14. A properly trained and cleared individual who assist the head of
the department in discharging the responsibilities of safeguarding
classified documents and materials.
A. intelligence operative B. undercover agent
C. security officer D. confidential agents
15. It is an information or material in which the unauthorized
disclosure of which would cause administrative embarrassment or
unwarranted injury.
A. restricted B. confidential
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C. secret D. top secret
16. It is not usually a major factor in prompting an individual to
furnish information, but it can be potent at times.
A. civic duty B. gratitude
C. self-serving reasons D. emotions
17. It is an individual who openly of secretly obtained or assist in
obtaining information for intelligence and counter-intelligence
purposes in exchange for some recompense, monetary or otherwise.
A. informants B. informer
C. confidential agents D. sources of information
18. It is the visual inspection of an area, installation or building
to determine its suitability for intelligence operational activities.
A. surveillance B. casing
C. stake out D. mustard plaster
19. It is a repetitive process in which intelligence are produced
from information.
A. intelligence cycle B. processing
C. collection D. phase of intelligence
20. These are the purpose of intelligence activity, EXCEPT:
A. to fill the void often existing in decision making
B. to increase the probability of accuracy
C. to reduce the probability of error
D. to observe the cycle of intelligence
21. These are the members of the PLEB, EXCEPT:
A. member of the Sanguniang Panglungsod/Bayan
B. member of the Association of Barangay Captain
C. three other members of known probity and integrity
D. member of the Peace and Order and Council
22. It is refers to the number of persons an individual can supervise
effectively, it is also known as span of attention.
A. unity of command B. division of work
C. span of control D. personnel development
23. This is the particular provision of the New Philippine
Constitution of 1987, which mandated the establishment of a police
which is civilian in character and national in scope.
A. Sec. 12, Art. III B. Sec. 6, Art. XVI
C. Sec. 16, Art. VI D. Sec 3, Art. XII
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24. The __________ and __________ of the Philippine National Police
was vested upon to the Chief, PNP.
A. leadership B. command responsibility
C. command and direction D. management
25. It is the organized and physical movement of all units and
elements of the Philippine National Police for purposes of crime
prevention and control.
A. deployment B. employment
C. employ D. deploy
26. It is given to the uniformed members of the DILG for every five
years of satisfactory active service, and it is corresponding to ten
percent of their monthly basic salary.
A. hazardous pay B. longevity pay
C. expertise pay D. living allowance pay
27. The Mayor shall choose from the list of how many recommendees
submitted by the Police Provincial Director prior designation of Chief
of Police.
A. 10 B. 3
C. 5 D. 7
28. It is the compulsory retirement age for officers and members of
the Philippine National Police.
A. 50 B. 55
C. 60 D. 56
29. How many percent is the retirement benefit of the officers and
members of the Philippine National Police who have availed of the
optional retirement.
A. 96% B. 50%
C. 2.5% D. 10%
30. It is the premier institution responsible for the education,
training, and human resource development of all the uniformed officers
and members of the department.
A. PPSC B. PNPA
C. NAPOLCOM D. DILG
31. The members of the commission shall be appointed by the
President, one of whom must came from the law enforcement sector, and
the three others are from civilian sector and one of whom must came
from:
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A. military sector B. government sector
C. woman sector D. non-govt. organizations
32. It decide cases on appeal, based on the decision made by officers
other than the C, PNP, the mayor, and the PLEB.
A. RAB B. NAB
C. PLEB D. NAPOLCOM
33. The National Appellate Board and Regional Appellate Boards are
the __________ of the Philippine National Police.
A. appellate body B. disciplinary machinery
C. juridical authorities D. central receiving entity
34. It is the process of providing clear cut channels of authority,
which is very important in maintaining high working morale and esprit
d corps.
A. unity of command B. division of work
C. span of control D. personnel development
35. It is the continuous task of making decisions, embodying in them
in specific general order and serving as the leader of the enterprise.
A. planning B. organizing
C. staffing D. directing
36. As provided under RA 8551, the following were given summary
dismissal powers upon due notice and summary hearing, EXCEPT:
A. PLEB B. NAPOLCOM
C. Chief, PNP D. Regional Director
37. It is working out in broad outline the thing that needs to
accomplish for the organizations.
A. planning B. organizing
C. staffing D. directing
38. Who may administer the qualifying entrance and promotional
examinations for the officers and members of the Philippine National
Police.
A. NAPOLCOM B. CSC
C. PRC D. PNP
39. It is the central receiving entity of the citizens complaints
filed against erring officers and members of the Philippine National
Police.
A. NAB B. RAB
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C. NAPOLCOM D. PLEB
40. In ensuring gender sensitivity in the Philippine National Police,
how many percent will be given to female in terms of recruitment,
training and promotion.
A. 15% B. 10%
C. 20% D. 5%
41. In general, the initial appointment of the commissioned officers
in the PNP shall commence with the rank of:
A. Inspector B. Senior Inspector
C. Police Officer I D. PNPA Cadet
42. From among the two (2) deputy chiefs who is the second in command
in the Philippine National Police.
A. Dep. for Administration B. Chief, Directorial Staff
C. Dep. for Operation D. all of the above
43. The Secretary of the Department of Interior and Local Government
shall be at the same time the __________ of the NAPOLCOM.
A. Ex-officio member B. Commissioner
C. Ex-Officio Chairperson D. Chairman
44. It is the ideal police-to-population ratio as provided by the PNP
Law of 1990.
A. 1:1,000 B. 1:1,500
C. 1:500 D. 1:750
45. It is otherwise known as the Police Professionalization Act of
1966, by virtue of which NAPOLCOM was created.
A. RA 6975 B. RA 8551
C. RA 4864 D. PD 765
46. He is the father of organized military espionage.
A. Alfred d’ Great B. Frederick d’ Great
C. Akbar D. Genghis Khan
47. It is an individual who are employed by two friendly intelligence
collection agencies, with one of whom are aware of his dual functions.
A. dual agent B. double agent
C. spy D. informant
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48. It is an evaluated material of every description, including those
derived from observations, reports, rumors, imagery, and other sources
from which intelligence is derived.
A. intelligence B. police intelligence
C. military intelligence D. information
49. Intelligence activity that is concerned principally with the
defending of the police organization against penetration by individual
and various groups.
A. strategic intelligence B. counter-intelligence
C. line intelligence D. police intelligence
50. The subject is kept under constant surveillance, the aim is not
to lose the subject even at the risk of being made.
A. close surveillance D. open surveillance
C. loose surveillance D. mustard plaster
51. They are any persons who offer or render personal service to
watch or secure either residential or business establishment.
A. company guard B. security guards
C. government security D. private detective
52. It is any person who performed detective work for hire, reward or
commission.
A. company guard B. security guard
C. government security D. private detectives
53. It is the minimum required number of security guards for issuance
of regular license.
A. 200 B. 100
C. 300 D. 400
54. They are hired directly under the payroll of an employer to
protect the employers property, and they are also being called as in-
house guards.
A. company security guards B. government security unit
C. private security agency D. private detective
55. They are charge with directing the work and observing the
behavior and performance of the men under his unit.
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A. security supervisor B. security officer
C. security expert D. security consultant
56. It is the minimum height requirement of perimeter barrier,
excluding top guard.
A. eight feet B. six feet
C. seven feet D. ten feet
57. A type of code system so that security personnel when forced by
armed men to enter an installation can give alarm by the use of
certain words in casual conversation.
A. doppler effect B. duress code
C. Peterman D. fail safe
58. It is a physical phenomenon that causes frequency shift if an
object moves in an area permeated by radio frequency signals.
A. doppler effect B. duress code
C. Peterman D. fail safe
59. It is an authenticated list of personnel given to security
allowing entry to a compound or installation thereof.
A. controlling B. access list
C. exclusion area D. controlled area
60. It is the exposure and teaching of employees on security and its
relevance to their work.
A. security education B. security indoctrination
C. security training D. security awareness
61. It is a fact finding probe to determine a plants adequacy and
deficiency in all aspects of security, with the corresponding
recommendations.
A. security inspections C. security survey
C. special survey D. supplemental survey
62. It is otherwise known as the Private Security Agency Law of the
Philippines.
A. RA 5487 B. RA 4864
C. RA 8551 C. RA 6975
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63. It is an additional overhang barbed wire placed on vertical
perimeter fences facing upward and outward with a 45 degrees angle
with three to four strand of barbed wire.
A. topping B. top guard
C. all of the above D. non of the above
64. An unobstructed area maintained on both sides of the perimeter
barrier.
A. clear zone B. bodies of water
C. building wall D. wire fence
65. A medium of structure which defines the physical limits of an
installations or areas to restrict or impede access thereto.
A. natural barrier B. man-made barrier
C. perimeter barrier D. physical security
66. It is the primary purpose of patrol.
A. elimination of actual opportunity
B. diminishment of desire and capability
C. development of omni-presence
D. prevention and control of crimes
67. This is done by patrolling the streets within the perimeter of
the beats, not at random, but with a definite target location where he
knows his presence is necessary.
A. clockwise pattern B. counter-clockwise pattern
C. criss-cross patterns D. free-wheeling pattern
68. It suggest little more than inspectional activity, whether
carried out on foot, mobile or some other way.
A. patrol B. police
C. patroullier D. constable
69. It is an alternative patrol system which means the fielding of
the field units in their respective area of responsibility with
prescribed objectives and verifiable tasks schedule of the day.
A. proactive B. reactive
C. mobile patrol D. beat patrol
70. This term is frequently used to describe a specific condition or
place that requires the patrol officers special attention.
A. attractive nuisances B. patrol hazard
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C. all of the above D. non of the above
71. Its methods consist of the fixed post, line beat, and random
patrol, and it is the most expensive type of patrol.
A. mobile patrol B. air patrol
C. helicopter patrol D. foot patrol
72. It is originated from the Greek word Politeia meaning
government of a city, and it is applies to civil officers and not
necessarily policeman.
A. patrol B. police
C. patroullier D. constable
73. It is being used in many countries as a simple and inexpensive
means of patrol because of its mobility and stealth.
A. bicycle patrol B. motorcycle patrol
C. helicopter patrol D. mobile patrol
74. The patrol officer to be seen alert and constant patrolling so as
to establish a highly visible police presence, hence, to make his
presence psychologically be felt in spite of his physical absence, and
this is called.
A. atmosphere of omni-presence
B. enhanced police visibility
C. extensive crime prevention and control
D. elimination of the elements of crime
75. The observation of patrol personnel must be keenly aimed at this,
because it is the sources of hazard.
A. criminal elements B. patrol hazard
C. attractive nuisances D. persons and things
76. It is the physical presence of uniformed police personnel and
marked police vehicles in the place where crimes are usually taking
place.
A. police patrol B. police visibility
C. omni-presence D. police operation
77. It is useful for rescue, medical evacuation, and emergency
transportation.
A. bicycle B. motorcycle
C. helicopter D. mobile
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78. Is the most extensively used, and the most effective means of
police patrol, considering its speed and mobility.
A. bicycle patrol B. motorcycle patrol
C. helicopter patrol D. mobile patrol
79. It is primary used for traffic control and enforcement, their
speed and maneuverability make them indispensable police vehicle.
A. bicycle patrol B. motorcycle patrol
C. helicopter patrol D. mobile patrol
80. It is the backbone of police organization.
A. patrol B. traffic
C. investigation D. intelligence
81. This is the type of police plan according to range, and which has
a life span of three years or more.
A. short term B. medium term
C. long term D. strategic plan
82. This is particularly important during disaster activities
operations.
A. disaster relief and rescue evacuation
B. provision for emergency transportation
C. activation of early disaster warning
D. establishment of command post with communication
83. A plan to be effectively carried out must be accepted by persons
concerned at the appropriate level of the plans development, and that
is.
A. evaluation of the plan B. execution of the plan
C. selling the plan D. selecting alternatives
84. Are those plans relating to standard operating procedures, and
are useful as guides to personnel, these plans must be reviewed from
time to time to increase operational efficiency.
A. tactical plan B. operational plan
C. procedural plan D. auxiliary plan
85. Are those plans designed to give guidance and direction to
personnel in the performance of the normal police activities.
A. tactical plan B. operational plan
C. procedural plan D. auxiliary plan
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86. It is authorized and it shall be established only in conjunction
with on-going operations/situations, or when there is a need to arrest
a criminal or fugitive from justice.
A. hot pursuit operation B. follow-up operation
C. choke point operation D. mobile checkpoint
87. It is the willingness to be patient towards people whose opinions
were different from others.
A. rules of engagement B. maximum tolerance
C. dispersal of crowd D. operational procedures
88. City A recorded a total of 75 murder cases for a period of 93
days, what is the crime clock of the particular crime.
A. 29 hours, 54 minutes, and 26 seconds
B. 92 hours, 45 minutes, and 36 seconds
C. 92 hours, 54 minutes, and 26 seconds
D. 29 hours, 45 minutes, and 36 seconds
89. City A has a total population of 255,000, and for the period
covering January to June 2004 it has recorded a total crime volume of
180. What is the average monthly crime rate in the City A.
A. 11.67 B. 87.11
C. 78.11 D. 11.76
90. It is the safest type of search, and the purpose is to place the
subject in an off-balance position.
A. kneeling search B. standing search
C. wall search D. prone search
91. It is a physical security applied to business groups engaged in
industries, like manufacturing, and assembling.
A. operational security B. industrial security
C. physical security D. special types
92. It is the broadest branch of security which is concerned with the
physical measures to prevent unauthorized access.
A. operational security B. industrial security
C. physical security D. special types
93. Are those caused by natural phenomena which caused damage,
disturbance and problems of the normal functioning of human
activities, including security.
A. security hazards B. man-made hazard
C. natural hazard D. all of the above
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94. It is the importance of the firm with reference to the national
economy and security.
A. relative criticality B. relative vulnerability
C. all of the above D. non of the above
95. Who may issue or revoke licenses of Private Security Agency and
Private Security Guards.
A. Chief, Philippine National Police
B. Security Agency and Guard Supervisory Division
C. Securities and Exchange Commission
D. Department of Trade and Industry
96. Private Security Agencies and Private Detective Agencies must be
registered at the __________.
A. Chief, Philippine National Police
B. Security Agency and Guard Supervisory Division
C. Securities and Exchange Commission
D. Department of Trade and Industry
97. It is the requirement age for the managers and/or owners of
Private Security Agencies or Private Detective Agencies.
A. 25 B. 30
C. 20 D. 35
98. It includes precluding unauthorized entry and facilitating
authorized personnel to enter specific areas.
A. visitor, property movement and vehicle control
B. identification and control
C. operation of intrusion alarm system
D. security communications system
99. A conference or dialogue between the survey team and management
officials of plant before security survey is conducted.
A. security survey B. special survey
C. entrance conference D. exit conference
100. It is a practical test of exercise of a plan or any activity to
test its validity, and it is also an operational readiness exercise.
A. dry run B. run through
C. controlling D. fire drill
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-Good Luck-
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