PART–A

1. Which of the following best expresses the meaning of ‘Exasperate’?

A) Elevate B) Irritate
C) Distrust D) Transcend
2. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the word ‘Captivate’?
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A) Canvass B) Fascinate
C) Offend D) Campaign
3. Which of the alternatives best expresses the meaning of the underlined phrase in the following
sentence?
Sheetal is in the habit of taking French leave very often.
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A) Taking sick leave B) Taking extra ordinary leave
C) Taking leave on medical grounds D) Taking leave without permission
4. Below are given three statements, such as P, Q, and R, followed by four conclusions. You have to take
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the given statements to be true even if they appear to be at variance with commonly known facts and
then decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements
P. All books are notes.
Q. Some notes are watches.
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R. No watch is a pencil.
Conclusions
I. Some watches are books. II. Some notes are pencils.
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III. No watch is a book. IV. Some notes are not pencils.
A) I and either II or IV follow B) I, III and IV follow
C) I, II and III follow D) Either I or III and IV follow
5. At which of the following places is the Indian National Defence University being set up?
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A) Hyderabad, Telangana B) Bhubaneswar, Odisha
C) Gurgaon, Haryana D) Jodhpur, Rajasthan
6. Who was the last Hindu king of North India?
A) Pushyabhuti B) Harshavardhana
C) Pushyamitra D) Skandagupta
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7. Which one of the following travelers visited India during the Gupta period?
A) Hiuen-Tsang B) Fa-Hien
C) Marco Polo D) Nicolo Conti
8. The ‘International Day of Older Persons’ is observed every year on
A) 1st October B) 2nd October
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rd
C) 3 October D) 4th October
9. Santosh Trophy is related to
A) Cricket B) Hockey C) Football D) Badminton
10. What is the full form of HTTP in data communication?
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A) Hardware Test Trial Protocol B) Hyper Text Transfer Package
C) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol D) Hyphenated Text Transfer Protocol
11. Language of the Preamble of the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from
A) US B) Canada
C) Australia D) Ireland

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12. Which of the following terms is used in banking or finance?
A) Moral Suasion B) Nelson
C) Jacksonian Seizure D) Incarnation
13. The Nawabganj Bird Sanctuary in Uttar Pradesh has been renamed after
A) Govind Ballabh Pant B) Ashfaqullah Khan
C) Ram Prasad Bismil D) Chandrashekhar Azad
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14. 13 + 73 + 133 = ?
A) 254 B) 2541
C) 2540 D) 25400
15. If a sum of money doubles itself in 6 years, it becomes 5 times in how many years?
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A) 12 years B) 24 years
C) 10 years D) 13 years
16. A mixture of 40 litres of milk and water contains 10% water. How much water should be added to it so
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that water may be 20% in the new mixture?
A) 50 B) 150
C) 200 D) 375
17. Three years ago, the average age of a family of five members was 16 years. A baby having been born,
the average age of the family is now the same as before. Find the age of the baby.
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A) One year B) Two years
C) Three years D) Four years
18. The speed of a car is increased by 2 km every one hour. If the distance travelled in the first hour was
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35 km, what was the total distance travelled in 12 hours?
A) 562 km B) 552 km
C) 482 km D) 662 km
19. Ashish drives his car extremely fast when there is rainfall.
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The underlined word is an example of
A) Noun B) Adverb C) Adjective D) Pronoun
20. Which of the following is correctly spelt?
A) Commodious B) Commodius
C) Commodous D) Commodos
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21. Which part of the following sentence contains error?
A) Never I have listened / B) to such beautiful music / C) as the piece we heard / D) on the radio last night.
22. Which of the alternatives is correct, if the following sentence is changed into passive voice?
Open your door.
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A) Your door has opened. B) Has your door be opened?
C) Let your door be opened. D) Let’s open your door.
23. Which part of the following sentence contains error?
A) Ganges, one of the most sacred rivers / B) to Hindus, / C) is a trans-boundary river of Asia / D)
which flows through the nations of India and Bangladesh
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24. He has ____ fear of heights.

A) A B) An C) The D) None of the above
25. Select the correct plural of ‘arch’
A) Arches B) Archs C) Archees D) Arch

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 PART–B

26. Unicellular eukaryotes are grouped into

A) Protists B) Archaea C) Fungi D) Plantlets
27. We have classified all the organism into various categories based on certain morphological and
molecular similarities. Which unit of the following allows free flow of the genes?
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A) Phylum B) Order C) Genus D) Species
28. Chloroplast is the site of photosynthesis which occurs in the presence of light. Follwing reaction(s)
occur in chloroplast in presence of light
A) Thylakoid space is filled with protons B) Electrons are moving
C) Splitting of water D) All of the above
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29. Ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP) is an organic substance involved in photosynthesis. RuBP is

generated in C3 cycle, wherein 3 molecules of RuBP are regenerated from
A) 3 Molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate B) 4 Molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
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C) 5 Molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate D) 6 Molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
30. Polymerization of Okazaki fragments during replication is mediated by
A) Helicase B) DNA polymerase III
C) DNA polymerase II D) DNA polymerase I
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31. Which of the follwing enzymes has reverse transcriptase activity
A) Taq Polymerase B) Telomerase
C) Helicase D) Klenow fragment
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32. The mRNAs are encoded by the DNA sequences. What DNA sequence would code for mRNA
molecule with sequence of 5’AAUGCCUUCA-3’?
A) 5’AAUGCCUUCA3’ B) 5’AATGCCTTCA3’
C) 5’TTACGGAAGT3’ D) 5’ACTTCCGTAA3’
33. The post-transcription processing of mRNA is a routine process inside the cell in order to complete the
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translation process. A gene of the mature mRNA will not have following region
A) Poly A tail B) Promoter
C) Start Codon D) Exon
34. The amino acids are decoded by tRNA following the mRNA sequence. Which amino acid has only
single codon?
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A) Glutamate B) Isoleucine
C) Tryptophan D) Glycine
35. Antibiotic resistance maker are intergral part of any vector used for cloning. Kanamycin resistance
bacterial vector means
A) Vector can synthesize kanamycin B) Kanamycin is required for the growth of the bacteria
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C) Vector will produce NPT D) All of the above
36. The first step of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is
A) Denaturation B) Annealing C) Extension D) Priming
37. A man of blood group AB marries to woman of blood group B whose father had B blood group. The
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children of above mentioned parents will belong to blood group
A) AB, A, O B) A, AB, B C) B, AB, O D) AB, B, O
38. The part of brain regulating biological clock is
A) Medulla B) Cortex
C) Pituitary gland D) Hypothalamus

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39. Position effect is due to
A) Deletion B) Translocation
C) Reversion D) Inversion
40. The number of chromosome in a trisomic individual is
A) 2n – 2 B) 2n – 1
C) 2n + 1 D) 2n + 2
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41. An autonomous recessive disease in human is due to an gene “X’. How many alleles in a population
are possible for a given ‘X’ gene?
A) 2 B) 1
C) 4 D) Unlimited
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42. A researcher is growing a microbe whose doubling time is 20 minutes. If the flask used for microbe culture
gets filled up in 6 hours, then how much time microbe would have taken in filling half of the flask?
A) 1 hour B) 3 hour
C) 6 hour D) Cannot say
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43. Recent and accepted bacterial classification is based on

A) Morphology B) Feeding habits
C) 16s rRNA D) Melting temperature
44. Which of the following binds to 30S subunit of ribosome ?
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A) Penicillin B) Neomycin
C) Chloramphenicol D) Rifamycin
45. Tetracycline inhibits
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A) Binding of AminoacyltRNAs B) DNA replication
C) 50S ribosome D) Cell wall
46. Malaria disease is caused by
A) Plasmodium B) Trypanosoma
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C) Escherichia D) Ascaris
47. Replication of virus is an essential step for establishment of infection inside the host. A virus known to
replicate in cytoplasm is
A) HIV B) Hepatitis B
C) SV40 D) Vaccinia Virus
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48. Plant viruses may have DNA or RNA as their genetic material. Cauliflower mosaic virus contain
genetic material as
A) Double-stranded DNA B) Double-stranded RNA
C) Single-stranded DNA D) Single-Stranded RNA
49. Infectious single-stranded RNA without any protein is called
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A) Virus B) Prions
C) Viroids D) Virusoids
50. Harmones are the most important factor of metabolism. Which harmone is made up of a modified
amino acid?
A) Epinephrine B) Prostaglandin
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C) Estrogen D) Progesterone
51. Genetic variation in lower living arganisms are generated by exchange of genetic materials. In ciliates,
which process of genetic material exchange takes place?
A) Transformation B) Conjugation
C) Mixotrophy D) Transduction

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52. A aminal phylum with highest diversity and number of species is
A) Mollusca B) Platyhelminthes
C) Arthropoda D) Annelida
53. Vertebrates and tunicates have in common
A) Degree of cephalization B) A notochord and a dorsal hollow nerve cord
C) Feeding jaws D) Embryonic layers
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54. In two dimensional gel electrophoresis, proteins are separated on the basis of
A) pI and molecular weight B) pI and molarity
C) pH and molecular weight D) pH and pI
55. According to van Deemter equation, which of the following factor does not influence peak broadening
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during chromatography?
A) Longitudinal diffusion B) Multiple pathways
C) Equilibration time D) Relative solute concentration
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56. Two analytes X and Y, separated on a chromatographic column (20 cm) at retention times of 6 min 10
s and 7 min 30 s, respectively. The retention time of the reference compound under the same elution
conditions was 50 s. What was the selectivity factor of the analytes?
A) 1.5 B) 1.25
C) 0.80 D) 2.0
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57. Among the proteins listed below, which one should elute last in gel filtration chromatography
A) Serum albumin (Mr 68,500) B) RNA polymerase (Mr 4,50,000)
C) Cytochrome c (Mr 13,000) D) Ribonuclease A (Mr 13,700)
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58. Which type of radiations can't be detected by an ionisation counter
A) α-radiations B) Both α and γ- radiations
C) High energy β - radiations D) Low energy β - radiations
59. Heavy metals are utilised during preparation of specimens for electron microscopy
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A) For creating vacuum
B) To increase contrast of images
C) For production of electron beam
D) No particular function is attributed to heavy metals
60. Immersion oil can be used to increase the resolution of some microscope lenses due to its property to
increase the
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A) Refractive index B) Optical density
C) Magnification D) Both optical density and refractive index
61. Which of the following technique is utilized to study the secondary structure elements of protein
A) Western blotting B) Isoelectric focussing
C) Ultraviolet spectroscopy D) Circular dichroism spectroscopy
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62. UV-visible spectroscopy of organic compounds generally concerned with which electronic transition(s)
A) n - σ* and σ - σ * B) π - π* and σ - σ*
C) n - π* and π - π* D) n - σ* and n - π*
63. During electrophoresis, migration of ions under the influence of electric field depends upon
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A) Shape and charge of molecule

B) Shape and size of molecule
C) Mass and charge of molecule
D) Shape, mass and charge of molecule

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64. Which one of the following could not be utilised as a vector for cloning
A) Plasmid B) Bacteriophage
C) Bacteria D) Phagemid
65. Which of the following is not utilised to produce sticky ends to a blunt ended DNA
A) Linkers B) Topoisomerase
C) Adaptors D) Homopolymer tailing
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66. In order to check the purity of DNA samples, ratio of absorbance at 260 and 280 nm is measured. For
a pure DNA sample, the value of A260/A280 is
A) 1.8 B) 1.0
C) 2.0 D) 0.5
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67. Which of the following statement is not true for competent cells
A) They give better transformation efficiency during cloning
B) They could be produced by CaCl2 treatment
C) They possess high copy number plasmids
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D) Heat shock assists in increased transformation
68. Which is the correct sequence of a PCR reaction
A) Denaturation-Annealing-Synthesis
B) Annealing-Synthesis-Denaturation
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C) Synthesis-Annealing-Denaturation
D) Synthesis-Denaturation-Annealing
69. Which of the following is not utilised for polymerase chain reaction
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A) Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates
B) Dideoxynucleotidetriphosphates
C) DNA polymerase
D) Primer
70. Which dye is used to visualize DNA during electrophoresis
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A) Coomassie brilliant blue B) Bromophenol blue
C) Methylene blue D) Ethidium bromide
71. What would be the preferred annealing temperature for a polymerase chain reaction, if melting
temperature for oligonucleotide (primer) is 63.1 °C
A) 58.0 °C B) 73.1 °C
C) 43.1 °C D) 63.1 °C
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72. Efficient expression of foreign gene in E. coli could be prevented by

A) Codon bias B) Premature termination of transcription
C) Removal of introns D) Both A) and B)
73. Embryonic chick cells in a saline culture were first maintained by
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A) Claude Bernard B) Harry Eagle
C) Wilhelm Roux D) George Otto Gey
74. Cybrids are cells that produced by
A) Fusion of two different nuclei from two different species
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B) Fusion of two same nuclei from same species
C) Nucleus of two different species species but cytoplasm from one species
D) Nucleus of one species but cytoplasm from both the parent species
75. Histone proteins are rich in
A) Lysine and Asparagine B) Lysine and Arginine
C) Lysine and Aspartic acid D) Lysine and Glycine

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76. Which of the following is true about free energy change (∆G)
A) Exergonic reactions have positive values of ∆G
B) Endergonic reactions have negative values of ∆G
C) Endergonic reactions have positive values of ∆G
D) Equilibrium reactions have negative values of ∆G
77. Kinetochores are
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A) Proteins B) DNA
C) Enzymes D) Chromosomes
78. DNA gyrase is required for
A) Solenoid formation B) Formation of nucleosomes
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C) RNA synthesis D) Supercoiling and relaxation of DNA
79. Telomere repeat sequence in humans is
A) TTAGGG B) TTGGGG
C) TAAGGG D) TTGGAA
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80. Cot analysis/curve can provide information about all of the following except
A) DNA renaturation kinetics B) Repetitive DNA
C) GC content D) None of the above
81. Nucleotide base pairs usually present in nucleosomes are
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A) 247 B) 147
C) 80 D) 47
82. For a system at equilibrium, the relation between ∆G0 and Keq is
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A) ∆G0 = -2.3 RT log Keq B) ∆G0 = 2.3 RT log Keq

C) ∆G0 = -2.3 R log Keq D) ∆G0 = 2.3 R log Keq
83. An exothermic reaction occurs spontaneously, when
A) ∆G > 0, ∆H > 0, ∆S < 0 B) ∆G < 0, ∆H < 0, ∆S > 0
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C) ∆G > 0, ∆H > 0, ∆S > 0 D) ∆G > 0, ∆H < 0, ∆S > 0
84. KDPG (2-keto-3-deoxy-6-phosphogluconate) is a key intermediate of
A) Entner-Doudoroff pathway B) Pentose phosphate pathway
C) Embden-Meyerhof pathway D) Krebs cycle
85. Fatty acid synthesis does not require
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A) Acetyl-CoA B) Malonyl-coA
C) NADH D) Biotin
86. Which vitamin is necessary to maintain iron homeostasis
A) Ascorbic acid B) Riboflavin
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C) Thiamin D) Niacin
87. Which of the following is not a regulatory enzyme in glycolysis
A) Hexokinase B) Pyruvate kinase
C) Phosphofructokinase D) Phosphoglycerate kinase
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88. Fick's law of diffusion states that the permeability across plasma membrane is inversely proportional to
A) Concentration gradient
B) Membrane thickness
C) Surface area
D) Lipid content

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89. If the frequency of homozygous recessive genotype is 0.36, keeping Hardy-Weinberg law in place,
what would be the frequency of dominant allele?
A) 0.3 B) 0.4
C) 0.6 D) 0.64
90. For each glucose molecule utilized in glycolysis, there is net gain of
A) 1 ATP B) 2 ATPs
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C) 3 ATPs D) 4 ATPs
91. 100 nucleotides long mRNA with stop codon included at the end of the sequence, how many amino
acids it may code for?
A) 34 B) 31 C) 32 D) 33
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92. Innate immune response is greatly depends on ‘Toll-like receptors’ (TLRs). Thre are many types of
TLRs present inside human body. TLRs play very crucial role in innate immune response by
recognizing
A) Protein-Antibody complex B) Structural differences in antigenic factors
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C) CDR region D) Microbial Components
93. An antibody molecule is a heterotetramer with two heavy chains and two light chains. Binding of
antibody to its antigen is highly specific and mediated by many non-covalent interactions. In a given
antigen-antibody complex, how many disulphide bonds are present in an antibody moleclue?
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A) 0 B) 3-4
C) 15-20 D) 8-9
94. Carbon labelling is an essential technique to tag the position of the compound in cell and to monitor
the progress of the reaction inside the cell. If you radiolabel glucose at C1 position, which carbon atom
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of the puruvate would be labelled?
A) Oxyl carbon B) Methyl carbon
C) Carboxylate carbon D) Any of three carbons
95. If the ratio (A+G)/(T+C) of one strand of Double stranded DNA is 0.6, then what is the same ration in
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complementary stand?
A) 1.6 B) 0.3
C) 1.4 D) 0.6
96. Adenine and thymine in one strand of a dsDNA are 2800 and 3800, respectively. If the total number of
bases present in single strand of dsDNA were 10000, then what would be the composition of guanine
in whole DNA molecule?
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A) 1600 B) 1700
C) 3200 D) 3400
97. What is the optimum size of any molecule to be called as nanoparticles?
A) 10-9m B) 10-10m
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C) 10 m D) 10-12 m
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98. Which one of the followings belongs to platyhelminthes?

A) Plasmodium B) Trypanosoma
C) Schistosoma D) Wuchereria
99. The scientific name of Asian tiger mosquito
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A) Aedesaegypti B) Aedesalbopictus
C) Aedestaeniorhynchus D) Aedesalbolineatus
100. During the final stage of photosynthesis, sugars are produced from
A) Carbon dioxide B) Water
C) Sunlight D) Oxygen

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