(Established under the Panjab University Act VII of 1947-

Enacted by the Government of India)

PROSPECTUS
PU-CET (P.G.) – 2018

Dates of Test: 10th June 2018 (Sunday)

&
11th June 2018 (Monday)

Last date for submission of information on the website to

generate the Bank Challan: 19-05-2018 (Saturday)
Website: http://cetpg.puchd.ac.in

PU-CET (PG) FEE [Non-Refundable]

General Category: Rs. 2100/-
SC/ST/PwD Category: Rs. 1050/-
Additional Subject: Rs. 500/- per additional
subject

1
PANJAB UNIVERSITY ANTHEM

Tamso ma jyotirgamaya
Tamso ma jyotirgamaya
Tamso ma jyotirgamaya
Tamso ma jyotirgamaya
Panjab vishaw vidyalaya
Teri shaan-o-shauqat sada rahe
Mann mein tera aadar maan
Aur mohabbat sada rahe
Panjab vishaw vidyalaya
Teri shaan-o-shauqat sada rahe
Tu hai apna bhavishya vidhata
Pankh bina parwaaz sikhata
Jeevan pustak roz padha kar
Sahi galat ki samajh badhata
Jeevan pustak roz padha kar
Sahi galat ki samajh badhata
Teri jai ka shankh bajayein
Roshan tare ban jaayein
Vakhari teri shohrat
Teri shohrat sada sada rahe
Panjab vishaw vidyalaya
Teri shaan-o-shauqat sada rahe
Panjab vishaw vidyalaya
Teri shaan-o-shauqat sada rahe
Tamso ma jyotirgamaya
Tamso ma jyotirgamaya

2
 PU- CET (P.G.) – 2018

Page
Contents
No.
Number of Seats 4-8
Important Notes Common to all the Courses 9
Weightages (course-wise) 10
Fake & Derecognized Universities and Institutes 11
Eligibility Conditions, Scheme of Tests
12-28

Appendix A: Guidelines for General / Reserved Category/ Additional / NRI Seats 29-34
Appendix B: Guidelines for Admission to the Reserved Category of Sports 35-37
ANNEXURE I: Undertaking for achievements of Sports 38
ANNEXURE II: List of Games 39
ANNEXURE III: Grading Criteria for Sports Merit 40-41
ANNEXURE IV: Schedule of the verification of original sports certificates for the
42-43
reserved category of sports
ANNEXURE V: Undertaking for attendance in sports ground 44
Appendix C: Specimen of Certificate for Reserved and additional category
SUB APPENDIX C1: Schedule Caste / Scheduled Tribe Certificate 45
SUB APPENDIX C 2: Backward Class Certificate 46
SUB APPENDIX C 2 (A): Self declaration proforma to be submitted by the person
47
belonging to backward class at the time of recruitment/ admission
SUB APPENDIX C 3: Certificate for only girl child/ one out of two girl children 48
SUB APPENDIX C 4: Certificate for admission under Defence Category 49
SUB APPENDIX C 5: Certificate from the candidate from Border Area School 50
SUB APPENDIX C 6: Certificate from the candidate from Rural Area School 51
SUB APPENDIX C 7: Certificate of children/ grandchildren of Freedom Fighter 52
Appendix D: Specimen of Forms / Certificates for Medical Records 53-64
General Rules 65-68
Instructions for giving answers on OMR Answer Sheet 69
Sample Questions 70-119
Important Dates/ Information 120
Date sheet 121

Published by: Dr. Parvinder Singh, Controller of Examinations,

Panjab University, Chandigarh

3
 PANJAB UNIVERSITY, CHANDIGARH
Number of Seats in Various Courses
Sr. Courses Name of the Department/Institution No. of Seats Seats for NRI
*
No. offering the Course Candidates
1. LL.M. Department of Laws, 42 4
(One-Year Course) P.U., Chandigarh.
(Semester
System)
LL.M. 40 4
(One-Year Course)
(Semester System)
(Self Financing Course)
University Institute of Legal Studies
LL.M. (2-Year Course) a) 20 (for Advocates/ 2
(UILS), P.U., Chandigarh
(Semester System) (Self Judicial/ Officer / Civil
Financing Course) Servants discharging
e
Judicial Duties)
b) 20 (for Fresh Law
Graduates) 2

LL.M. (2-Year Course) UIL, Panjab University Regional Centre, 26 2

Ludhiana.
b
2. i. M.C.A. Department of Computer Science 34+2 5
(3-Year) Course and Applications, P.U., Chandigarh.
(Semester System)
b) 20 (for Freshb Law
P.U., Regional Centre, Muktsar 20+2 3
Graduates) c
Panjab University Swami Sarvanand 50+3 -
Giri, Regional Centre, Hoshiarpur
b
(Evening) (Self-Financing ) 46 +2 6
Department of Computer Science and
Applications, P.U., Chandigarh.
3. M.A. Journalism and School of Communication Studies P.U., 30 5
Mass Communication Chandigarh.
(2-Year) Course
d
4. Master in Public Health Centre for Public Health 17+5 2
(University Institute for Emerging Areas
in Science & Technology) PU,
Chandigarh.
f
5. M.A. (English) Department of English, P.U. Chandigarh. 95+5 15
Department of Evening Studies-Multi 68
Disciplinary Research Centre, P.U.,
Chandigarh
6. M.A. (Geography) 51 7
g
7. Master in Disaster 25+3 3
Department of Geography, P.U.,
Management
Chandigarh. g
8. Master in Remote Sensing & 25+3 3
GIS
9. M.A. (History) Department of History, P.U., 50 5
Chandigarh.
Department of Evening Studies-Multi 68
Disciplinary Research Centre, P.U.,
Chandigarh

NOTE: * Eligible NRI candidates, please consult the guidelines available at Page No. 32-33 of the
Prospectus.

b
For candidates who have studied computer science as one of the subjects for three Years or the subject as a full course at the under graduate level.
c
Economically weaker section
d
Only regular employees in Government organization and having atleast one Year service experience be admitted under, ―In-service‖ category. The candidate
has to produce ―No Objection Certificate‖ at the time of admission.
e
For preparing merit list of admission, a special weightage of maximum upto 10 marks shall be given to candidates falling under this category i.e. ½ mark for
every completed Year of practice/employment.
f
For students who have passed B.A. with Functional English.
g
Sponsored by Govt. / Institutions

4
10. M.E. (Chemical) 20 2
11. M.E. (Food Technology) 10 1
University Institute of Chemical Engg. &
12. M.E. (Chemical with 10
Tech., P.U., Chandigarh.
specialization in 1
Environmental Engg.)
13. M.Tech. (Polymer) 15+5 (Part time) 2
14. M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry) 17 2
15. ME Electrical Engg. 6 -
(Instrumentation & Control)
(Regular programme)
16. M.E. (Electronics& 8 -
Communication Engineering)
(Regular Programme)
17. ME Computer Science & Engg. 5 -
(Regular Programme)
18. ME Civil Engineering 5 -
(Construction Technology & NITTTR, Sector 26, Chandigarh.
Management) (Regular
Programme)
19. ME Mechanical Engineering 5 -
(Manufacturing Technology)
(Regular Programme)
h
20. M.E. Electrical Engg. ( Power 20 2
System)
h
21. M.Tech. Material Science & University Institute of Engineering & 20 2
Technology Technology P.U., Chandigarh.
h
22 M.E. Biotechnology 20 2
h
23 M.E. Computer Science & 20 2
Engineering
h
24 M.E. Electronics & 20 2
Communication Engineering
h
25 M.E. Information Technology 20 2
h
26 M.E. Mechanical Engineering 20 2
27 M.Tech. Microelectronics 12+3 (SC/ST) 2
28 M.Com (Business Economics) DAV College, Sector-10, Chandigarh. 60 -
Guru Nanak Girls College, Model Town, 60 -
Ludhiana.
Master of Entrepreneurship GGDSD College, Sector – 32, 40 -
29 and Family Business Chandigarh.
Kamla Lothia S.D. College, Ludhiana. 40 -
30 M. Com. (Hons.) University Business School, P.U., 27 3
Chandigarh.
31 M.Com (Business Innovation) S.C.D. Government College, Ludhiana. 40 -
32 MBA (Commerce & Information MTSM College for Women, Ludhiana. 80 -
Technology) (Only for Girls.)
33 Master of Business University Business School, P.U.,
Administration for Executives Chandigarh. 30 3
(Meant only for working professionals.
Classes to be held in the evening).
34 Master of Physical Education
28 2
Department of Physical Education, P.U.,
35 Bachelor of Physical Chandigarh.
Education 34 2

h
Preference will be given to GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET(PG) will be given admission if some seats will be left
vacant after GATE QUALIFIED CANDIDATES ADMISSIONS.

5
 M. Sc. (Hons.)
j
36 Biochemistry Department of Biochemistry, 30+4 4
P.U., Chandigarh.
i
37 Biophysics Department of Biophysics, 3 4
P.U., Chandigarh.
38 Computer Science Department of Computer Science & 11 2
Applications P.U., Chandigarh.
39 Mathematics Department of Mathematics 30 5
P.U., Chandigarh.
Sant Longowal Institute of Engineering 20 -
&Technology, Longowal, Distt. Sangrur.
k
40 Physics & Electronics Department of Physics, P.U., 20 3
(Self Financing Course) Chandigarh.
41 Geology Department of Geology, P.U., 5 -
Chandigarh
M. Sc. (Two-Year Course)
42 Bioinformatics GGDSD College Sector 32, Chandigarh. 15 -

43 Environment Science Department of Environment Studies, 20 3

P.U., Chandigarh.
44 Human Genomics National Centre for Human Genomes 15 2
Studies & Research, P.U., Chandigarh.
45 Nuclear Medicine Centre for Nuclear Medicine, 10 2
P.U., Chandigarh.
System Biology and Centre for System Biology and 2
46 Bioinformatics Bioinformatics P.U., Chandigarh. 13
DAV College, Sector 10, Chandigarh. -
15
GGDSD College, Sector 32, -
Chandigarh. 15
Microbial Biotechnology Deptt. for Microbial Biotechnology, P.U., 20 2
47 Chandigarh.
Post Graduate Govt. College for Girls, 40 -
Sector 42, Chandigarh.
Sri Guru Gobind Singh College, Sector 40 -
26, Chandigarh.
k
48 Medical Physics Centre for Medical Physics, P.U., 10 2
Chandigarh.
49 Forensic Science & Institute of Forensic Science & 19 + 1 (In-service 2
Criminology Criminology, P.U., Chandigarh. candidate from govt.
organizations /
autonomous institute
M. Sc. (Hons. / 2 Year Course)
l
50 Biotechnology Department of Biotechnology, P.U., 5+2 (SC) 2
Chandigarh, offers Hons. course
DAV College, Sector 10, Chandigarh. 40
GGDSD College, Sector 32, 40
Chandigarh.
SGGS College, Sector-26, Chandigarh. 40
DAV College, Abohar. 40
Guru Nanak Girls College, Model Town, 40
Ludhiana.
51 Botany Department of Botany, P.U., 4
Chandigarh, offers Hons. course 25
S. Govt. College of Sci. Education & 40 2
Research, Jagraon (Ludhiana).
Post Graduate Govt. College for Girls, 40 -
Sector 11, Chandigarh.
Post Graduate Govt. College for Girls, 40 -
Sector 42, Chandigarh.
Govt. College for Girls, Ludhiana 40 -

i
The data is based on the current strength of the students registered in B.Sc. (Hons.) 3rd Year. However, final number may vary depending upon how many B.Sc. (Hons.) Biophysics,
students qualify and take admission in M.Sc. (Hons.) Biophysics.
j
The data is based on the current strength of the students registered in B.Sc. (Hons.) 3 rd year. However, final number may vary depending upon how many B.Sc. (Hons.)
Biochemistry, students qualify and take admission in M.Sc. (Hons.) Biochemistry.
l 6
Only those students who have cleared B.Sc. Biotechnology or B.Sc. with Biotechnology as elective / vocational course subject studied for 3 years are eligible.
52 Chemistry Department of Chemistry, P.U., 15 2
Chandigarh, offers Hons. course
Post Graduate Govt. College, Sector 11, 40 -
Chandigarh.
Post Graduate Govt. College for Girls, 40 -
Sector 11, Chandigarh.
S. Govt. College of Sci, Education & 40 2
Research, Jagraon (Ludhiana).
DAV College, Abohar. 40
Guru Nanak Girls College, M.T. 40
Ludhiana.
GHG Khalsa College, Gurusar Sadhar, 40 -
Ludhiana.
SGGS Khalsa College, Mahilpur 40
Hoshiarpur.
DAV College, Sector-10, Chandigarh. 40
JCDAV College, Dasuya (Hoshiarpur). 40
Sant Longowal Institute of Engineering 20
&Technology, Longowal, Distt. Sangrur.
S.P.M. College, Mukerian. 40
GGN Khalsa College, Civil Lines, 40 -
Ludhiana
Khalsa College, Garhdiwala 40
k
53 Physics Department of Physics, P.U., 40 6
Chandigarh, offers Hons. course
DAV College, Sector 10, Chandigarh. 40 -
GGDSD College, Sector 32, 40
Chandigarh.
JCDAV College, Dasuya (HSP). 40 -
DAV College, Abohar. 40 -
Guru Nanak Girls College, M.T., 40 -
Ludhiana.
SGGS Khalsa College, Mahilpur. 40 -
Dev Samaj College, Ferozepur. 40 -
GHG Khalsa College, Gurusur Sadhar. 40 -
S.P.M. College, Mukerian. 40 -
Sant Longowal Institute of Engineering & 20 -
Technology, Longowal, Distt. Sangrur.
BAM Khalsa College, Garhshankar, 40 -
Distt. Hoshiarpur.
Guru Nanak National College, Doraha, 40 -
Distt. Ludhiana.
Khalsa College for Women, Sidhwan 40 -
Khurd
SCD Govt. College, Civil Lines, 40 -
Ludhiana

7
54 Zoology Department of Zoology, P.U., 14 2
Chandigarh, offers Hons. course
DAV College, Sector 10, Chandigarh. 40 -
JC DAV College, Dasuya, Hoshiarpur. 40 -
Post Graduate Govt. College for Girls, 40 -
Sector 42, Chandigarh.
Post Graduate Govt. College for Girls, 40 -
Sector 11, Chandigarh.
Sri Guru Gobind Singh College, Sector 40 -
26, Chandigarh.

Faculty members are available in the respective Departments for consultation and
guidance of students from 3:00 P.M to 4:00 P.M on working days.

8
 Important Notes Common to all the Courses
1) Fee of Rs. 2100/- (Rs. 1050/- for SC/ST/PwD) is meant for only Online Application Form. A
candidate can apply in more than one course also. However, he/she will have to pay an
additional fee of Rs. 500/- for each additional course.
2) Candidate availing concession in the fee under category SC/ST/PwD OR Class B/C Regular
Employee of PU must send the copy of printout of their Entrance Test Form along with
Performa for claiming 50% concession to P.U. Regular Employees ("B" and "C" Class)
duly signed by Head/Chairperson, to Assistant Registrar, CET Cell, Aruna Ranjit Chandra,
Hall, Panjab University, Chandigarh-160014 by registered post/speed post or by hand
on or before 25.05.2018 upto 4:00 PM
3) Qualifying an Entrance Test does not entitle a candidate to seek admission in a course. The
candidate will have to fill up and submit an online Admission Form at
http://onlineadmissions.puchd.ac.in and has to meet the eligibility requirements of the
course.
4) The exact number of seats available for various M.Sc. (Hons.) courses may vary depending
upon the number of candidates already studying in Panjab University B.Sc. (Hons.) course
who are eligible for promotion to M.Sc. (Hons.).
5) The result of the Entrance Test will be available at http://results.puchd.ac.in. No separate
Result Cards will be issued.
6) The University will publish Merit List of the candidates for all courses on the basis of
attainment of a minimum of 20% (15% in case of candidates belonging to SC/ ST/BC/PwD)
of aggregate of maximum marks in the Entrance Test taken as a whole.
7) The cut-off marks for passing the Entrance Test for admission to MA (Journalism & Mass
Communication) is 40% of the total marks.
8) The pass percentage in case of Entrance Test in MA (English) and MA (History) is 35%
(30% in case of candidate belonging to SC/ST/BC/PwD).
9) The Scheme of Test for MBA for Executive (MBAfEX) will be of 85 marks and consists 85
multiple-choice questions of one mark each.
10) Candidates securing equal marks shall be bracketed together. Their inter-se merit will be
determined by the Institution/Department/Centre to which they are seeking admission in
accordance with the following criteria:
a) Candidate getting higher percentage of marks in the qualifying examination shall rank
higher in order of merit.
b) If the marks in qualifying examination are also the same then the candidate obtaining
more marks in the immediate lower examination, shall rank higher in order of merit.
c) If two or more candidates secure equal marks in (a) & (b) above, the candidate senior in
age shall rank higher in the order of merit.
11) The final merit for admission shall be made by the concerned Department/Institute/ Center
after taking into account various admission criteria and weightage, if applicable.
12) The date-wise schedule of, Tentative Merit List (which will be updated after seeking
objections, if any); Provisional Merit List; Aptitude Test, Group Discussion,
Personnel Interview etc., (wherever applicable); Counselling shall be put on the
Online Notice Board of the department as well as Physical Notice Board (only for the
courses offered in Panjab University Campus / Regional Centres).

9
 The weightages as applicable to different courses are as follows:

Weightage (%)
Course Entrance Test Qualifying
Examination
LLM (Master of Laws) 80 20
M.C.A. (Master of Computer Application) 50 50
M.A. (Journalism and Mass Communication) 60 40
Master in Public Health 60 40
M.A. (English) 50 50
M.A. (Geography) 50 50
Masters in Disaster Management 50 50
Masters in Remote Sensing & GIS 50 50
M.A. (History) 50 50
M.E. (Chemical) 50 50
M.E. (Food Technology) 50 50
M.E. (Chemical with specialization in Environmental Engg.) 50 50
M.Tech. (Polymer) 50 50
M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry) 50 50
M.E. Electrical Engg. (Instrumentation & Control) Regular Programme 50 50
M.E. (Electronics and Comm. Engg.) (Regular Programme) 50 50
M.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Regular Programme) 50 50
M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Tech. & Mgt.) (Regular Programme) 50 50
M.E. Mechanical Engineering (Manufacturing Tech.) Regular Programme 50 50
M.E. Electrical Engg. (Power System) 50 50
M.Tech. Material Science & Technology 50 50
M.E. Biotechnology 50 50
M.E. Computer Science & Engineering 50 50
M.E. Electronics & Communication Engineering 50 50
M.E. Information Technology 50 50
M.E. Mechanical Engineering 50 50
M.Tech. Microelectronics 50 50
M.A.B.E. 50 50
M.E.F.B. 85 15*
M. Com (Hons.) 85 15*
M.Com (Business Innovation) 50 50
MBACIT 50 50
Master of Business Administration for Executives (MBAfEX) 85 *
15
M.P.Ed (Master of Physical Education) 50 50
B.P.Ed (Bachelor of Physical Education) 50 50
M.Sc. (Hons.) 60 40
Biochemistry /Biotechnology/ Botany/ Chemistry/ Physics /
Biophysics /Computer Science/ Mathematics/Zoology/ Physics &
Electronics/ Geology
M.Sc. (Two-Year Course)
Bioinformatics (being offered in the colleges affiliated to P.U.), 50 50
Environment Science/ Human Genomics /Nuclear Medicine/ System
Biology and Bioinformatics, Forensic Science & Criminology/ Microbial
Biotechnology
M.Sc. (Two-Year Course) Medical Physics 60 40

* 7.5% marks Group discussion and 7.5% marks for personal interview.

10
 Fake & Derecognized Universities and Institutes

The candidates who have passed/appeared in the qualifying examination from any of the following
Universities (declared as fake by the UGC) are ineligible to appear in the Entrance Tests, as these
institutions have been derecognized by the Panjab University.

1. Maithlli University/ Vishwavidyalaya, Darbhanga, Bihar.

2. Commercial University Ltd., Daryaganj, Delhi.
3. United Nations University, Delhi.
4. Vocational University, Delhi.
5. ADR-Centric Juridical University, ADR House, 8J, Gopala Tower, 25 Rajendra Place, New Delhi-
110008.
6. Indian Institute of Science and Engineering, New Delhi.
7. Badaganvi Sarkar World Open University Education Society, Gokak, Belgaum (Karnataka).
8. St. John‘s University, Kishanttam, Kerala.
9. Raja Arabic University, Nagpur.
10. D.D.B. Sanskrit University, Putur, Trichi, Tamil Nadu.
11. Indian Institute of Alternative Medicine, Kolkatta.
12. Institute of Alternative Medicine and Research, 8-A, Diamond Harbour Road, Builtech inn, 2nd Floor,
Thakurpurkur, Kolkatta - 700063.
13. Varanaseya Sanskrit Vishwavidyalaya, Varanasi (U.P.), Jagatpuri, Delhi.
14. Mahila Gram Vidyapith/ Vishwavidyalaya, (Women‘s University) Prayag, Allahabad (U.P.).
15. Gandhi Hindi Vidyapith, Prayag, Allahabad (Uttar Pradesh)
16. National University of Electro Complex, Homeopathy, Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh).
17. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose University (Open University), Achaltal, Aligarh (Uttar Pradesh).
18. Uttar Pradesh Vishwavidyalaya, Kosi Kalan, Mathura (Uttar Pradesh).
19. Maharana Partap Shiksha Niketan Vishwavidyalaya, Partapgarh (Uttar Pradesh).
20. Indraprastha Shiksha Parishad, Institutional Area, Khoda, Makanpur, Noida Phase-II, Uttar Pradesh.
21. Gurukul Vishwavidyalaya, Vrindawan (Uttar Pradesh).
22. Nababharat Shiksha Parishad, Anupoorna Bhawan, Plot No. 242, Pani Tanki Road, Shaktinagar,
Rourkela-769014.
23. North Orissa University of Agriculture & Technology, Odisha.
24. Bhartiya Shiksha Parishad, Lucknow, UP - the matter is subjudice before the District Judge -
Lucknow

University de-recognized by Panjab University (Syndicate para 7, dated 20.03.2017)

1. E.I.I.L.M. University Sikkim degrees received after 2013-14

11
 Eligibility Conditions and Scheme of Test

Master of Laws (L.L.M. One-Year Course and L.L.M. Two Year Course)

Eligibility Conditions
A person who has passed one of the following examinations shall be eligible after qualifying the entrance
test to join the first semester class of the LL.M. Course:-
(a) LL.B. 3 Year Degree/ B.A. LL.B. / B.Com. LL.B. 5 Year degree examination of this University with
minimum 55% marks (50% in case of SC/ST/BC/PwD candidates);
OR
(b) Any equivalent examination of another University recognized by the Syndicate for this purpose.
Scheme of Test
The duration of the Entrance Test will be of 1 hour and 30 minutes. The Entrance Test will be of 100 marks.
The questions will be based upon following four components:

S.No Components Marks

1. Constitution Law, Administrative Law, Service Law, 50 MCQ (1 Mark Each)
Environmental Law and Human Rights.
2. Indian Penal Code (IPC), Cr. Pr. Code and Law of 15 MCQ (1 Mark Each)
Evidence
3. Jurisprudence 10 MCQ (1 Mark Each)
4. Family Law, Law of Contract, Law of Torts, Public 25 MCQ (1 Mark Each)
International Law, Labour Laws and Company Law.

Master of Computer Applications M.C.A. 3-Year Course and M.C.A. (Evening) (Self-
Financing) 3-Year Course

Eligibility Conditions
The minimum qualification for admission to the first Year of the course shall be:
i) A recognized first degree of minimum three Years‘ duration in any discipline from Panjab
University with at least 50% marks and with Mathematics at 10+2 or at graduation level (all three
Years);
Or

ii) B.C.A. from Panjab University with 50% marks

Or
iii) Any examination recognized by the Panjab University as equivalent to any of the above
examinations i) or ii)

Scheme of Test
The test of 1 hour 30 minutes duration shall contain 75 Objective Type (Multiple choice questions with four
responses i.e. A, B, C, & D) carrying one mark each.
The questions will be based upon following four components:

Component No. of Questions

1 Mathematics (10+2 level) 40
2 Computer Science. 15
3 English. 10
4 Reasoning & Aptitude. 10

12
 M.A. Journalism and Mass Communication
Eligibility Conditions
Passes one of the following examinations from a recognized University:-
(i) Bachelor‘s degree in any discipline with 50% marks in the aggregate.
OR
(ii) Bachelor‘s degree with at least 45% marks in the subject of Journalism & Mass
Communication.
OR
(iii) Bachelor‘s degree with Hons. In the subject of Journalism & Mass Communication.
OR
(iv) Master‘s degree examination in any other subject.

Scheme of Test
The test of1 hour and 30 minutes duration will comprise of Objective & Subjective Type Questions for 65
marks out of the total 75 marks. The remaining 10 marks would be divided equally between the group
discussion and interview to be held consequent to the entrance test. The test will be divided into five
following components:

1. Article writing on current events

2. Precis writing
3. Feature, writing on personalities, reviews etc.
4. English Comprehension
5. Interpretative passage

Candidates who clear the entrance test have to apply afresh in the School of Communication Studies. The
cutoff marks for passing the Entrance Test for admission to MA (Journalism & Mass Communication) is
40% of total marks.

Master in Public Health

Eligibility Conditions
Bachelor‘s degree in any discipline with at least 50% marks from recognized University/Institute.

Scheme of Test
The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes and it will consist of 75 multiple-choice
questions of one mark each. There will be 25 from Biological Sciences, 10 from Social Sciences, 25 from
Health Sciences and Medical Vocabulary, 15 on Environment Sciences.

M.A. (English)
Eligibility Conditions
A person who has passed one of the following examinations from Panjab University or from any other
University whose examination has been recognized equivalent to the corresponding examination of this
University:

i. Bachelor‘s Degree obtaining at least 45% marks in English Elective or English Compulsory
subject.
ii. Bachelor‘s Degree in any faculty with 50% marks in the aggregate.
iii. B.A. with (Hons.) in English\
iv. B.A./B.Sc. with (Hons.) in subject other than English obtaining at least 50% marks in aggregate.
v. Masters Degree examination in any other subject with 50% marks in aggregate. The pass
percentage in case of entrance test in English stands increased to 35% (30% in case of candidate
belonging to SC/ST/BC/PwD) w.e.f the session 2013-2014.

13
Scheme of Test
The written Test will be of 1 hour and 30 minutes duration and will carry 75 marks. The pattern of the CET
should be as follows:
1. Write at least two paragraphs (total 400 words) on any of the one given topics / issues.
30 marks
2. Critical appreciation of a poem. 25 marks
3. Four short notes (approx 100 words) based on Topics related to literature.
20 Marks

MA (Geography)
Eligibility Conditions
A person shall be eligible only if:-
1. he/she has a Bachelor‘s Degree with atleast 50% marks in the aggregate.
2. he/she has passed in Geography in the B.A. or B.Sc. examination obtaining at least 45% marks;
OR
has obtained Post-graduate diploma in Cartography with atleast second division.
Scheme of Test
The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes and it will consist of 75 multiple-choice
questions of one mark each.

Masters in Disaster Management

Eligibility Condition
Graduation in any discipline with atleast 50% of aggregate marks from Panjab University or from any other
University recognized by the Panjab University as equivalent thereto.
The candidates, except those sponsored by the government / institution should have passed the written
Entrance Test conducted by Panjab University, Chandigarh. The merit list will be prepared considering the
marks obtained in the Entrance Test and the qualifying Examination as per the following criteria:-
Written Entrance Test: 50%
Qualifying Examination: 50%
Academic and other weightage(s), if any, will be based on the percentage of marks obtained by the eligible
candidates in the Qualifying Examination as prescribed and admissible in PU rules. The candidates will
have to appear for a personal interview as per the merit list. However, there will be no marks awarded for
the interview.
To qualify, a candidate must obtain 50% of the marks assigned to the written test. Candidates will be
admitted as per merit, based on performance in the written test and qualifying examination put together.
Scheme of Test
The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes and it will consist of 75 multiple-choice
questions of one mark each.

Masters in Remote Sensing & GIS

Eligibility Condition
Bachelor‘s Degree with Geography/ Geology/ Geophysics/ Mathematics/Physics/ Botany/ Environment
Science / Computer Science/ Urban Planning/ Regional Planning / B.Tech./ B.C.A. or Master‘s Degree in
Geography / Geology/ Geophysics/ Mathematics/ Physics/Botany/ Environment Science / Computer
Science / M.C.A./ Urban Planning/ Regional Planning with at least 50% marks in aggregate. The admission
to the course shall be through Entrance Test in which a minimum score of 50% marks mandatory.
B.A./B.Sc./ M.A./ M.Sc. Geography students will be given additional weightage of 15% of the academic
score at Bachelor‘s level.
The candidates, except those sponsored by the government/ institutions, should have passed the written
Entrance Test conducted by Panjab University, Chandigarh. The merit list will be prepared considering the
marks obtained in the Entrance Test and the following Examination as per the following criteria:-
Written Entrance Test : 50%
Qualifying Examination : 50%
Academic and other weightage(s), if any, will be based on the percentage of marks obtained by the eligible
candidates in the Qualifying Examination as prescribed and admissible under Panjab University rules. The
14
candidates will have to appear for a personal interview as per the merit list. However, there will be no marks
awarded for the interview.
Scheme of Test
The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes and it will consist of 75 multiple-choice
questions of one mark each.

M.A. (History)
Eligibility Conditions
 B.A. with Honours in History.
 Bachelor‘s degree in any faculty with atleast 50% marks in the aggregate.
 B.A. (PASS) / B.Sc. (PASS) examination in full subjects obtaining atleast 45% marks in the
subject of History.
 Master‘s degree examination in another subject or another faculty.
The pass percentage of entrance test in history is 35% (30% in case of candidates belonging to
SC/ST/BC/PwD) w.e.f. the session 2018-19.
The candidates should have passed the written Entrance Test conducted by Panjab University,
Chandigarh. The merit list will be prepared considering the marks obtained in the Entrance Test and the
Qualifying Examination as per the following criteria:-
Written Entrance Test : 50%
Qualifying Examination : 50%

Academic and other weightages if any will be based on the percentage of marks obtained by the eligible
candidates in the Qualifying examination.
Scheme of Test
Entrance Test to be of 1 hour 30 minutes of duration and of total of 75 marks. The test is divided into three
units, i.e. Unit-I, II and III. Candidates will attempt 3 questions in all, selecting them from Unit-I, II & III.
Candidates can write answers in English or Hindi or Punjabi languages.
Question No. 1 under Unit-I is compulsory. It consists of 08 concept related questions. Out of these 08,
candidates will attempt any 05. Each question has to be answered in 80-100 words. Each question carries
05 marks. Total marks allotted to Question – I under Unit-I are 5x5=25 marks.
Unit-II consists of 04 Essay type Questions, from Question No. II to IV which are related to B.A. (General)
History syllabus. Atleast one question in Unit-II should be set each from Ancient, Medieval, Modern periods
of India History and the History of Punjab. Candidates will attempt any one question in Unit-II. Each
question has to be answered in about 1000 words. Each question carries 25 marks.
Unit-III contains 02 questions i.e Question No. VI and VII, one from Current Affairs and another from
Significant Contemporary themes in order to test comprehension and communication skills of the
candidates. Candidates will attempt any one question in Unit-III. Each question has to be answered in about
1000 words. Each question carries 25 marks.

M.E. (Chemical)
&
M.E. (Chemical with specialization in Environmental Engineering)

Eligibility Conditions:

B.E./B.Tech. (Chemical) (4-Year) or Five Year Integrated B.E.(Chemical) - MBA with a CGPA of 6.00 or at
least 60% marks in the aggregate (where % marks are awarded) in the qualifying examination i.e.
B.E./B.Tech. (Chemical) (4-Year) or Five Year Integrated B.E. (Chemical) - MBA or any other equivalent
qualifying degree as approved by the Syndicate.

The candidate shall be admitted on the basis of the PU-CET (P.G.) merit conducted by Panjab University,
Chandigarh.

GATE qualified candidates will be exempted from the PU-CET (P.G.). However, in case of eligible GATE
qualified candidates the merit list will be as per the GATE Score obtained and shall be offered the seat in
the first instance.

15
Scheme of Test:

The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes and it will consist of 75 multiple-choice
questions of one mark each. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered
during qualifying examinations.

M.E. (Food Technology)

B.E./ B.Tech. degree in Food Technology / Dairy Technology/ Agricultural Engineering / Food Engineering
/ Chemical Engineering / Chemical Technology (4-Year) or Five Year Integrated B.E.(Chemical) with MBA
or any other equivalent qualifying degree as approved by the Syndicate with a CGPA of 6.00 or at least
60% marks in the aggregate (where % marks are awarded).

The candidate shall be admitted on the basis of the PU-CET (P.G.) merit conducted by Panjab University,
Chandigarh.

GATE qualified candidates will be exempted from the PU-CET (P.G.) Test. However, in case of eligible
GATE qualified candidates the merit list will be as per the GATE Score obtained and shall be offered the
seat at the first instance.

Scheme of Test:

The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes and it will consist of 75 multiple-choice
questions of one mark each. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered
during qualifying examinations.

M.TECH. (POLYMER)

B.E./B.Tech. (Chemical) (4-Year) or Five Year B.E.(Chemical) with MBA with a CGPA of 6.00 or at least
60% marks in the aggregate (where % marks are awarded) in the qualifying examination i.e. B.E./B.Tech.
(Chemical) (4-Year) or Five Year Integrated B.E.(Chemical) with MBA or any other equivalent qualifying
degree as approved by the Syndicate.
OR
Master‘s degree in Technical Chemistry/Applied Chemistry/Industrial Chemistry/Chemistry (with
Mathematics upto graduation or an equivalent examination) with at least 55% marks in the aggregate from
Panjab University or any other university recognized by Panjab University as equivalent thereto.

The candidate shall be admitted on the basis of the PU-CET (P.G.) merit conducted by Panjab University,
Chandigarh.

GATE qualified candidates will be exempted from the PU-CET (P.G.) test. However, in case of eligible
GATE qualified candidates the merit list will be as per the GATE Score obtained and shall be offered the
seat in the first instance.

Scheme of Test:

The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes and it will consist of 75 multiple-choice
questions of one mark each. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered
during qualifying examinations.

M.Sc. (INDUSTRIAL CHEMISTRY)

B.Sc. (Three Year Course) with Mathematics and Chemistry as compulsory subjects/B.Sc. (Hons.)
Chemistry/ B.Sc. (Hons.) Chemistry with Math as a compulsory subject/ B.Sc.(Three Year Course) with
Industrial Chemistry and Mathematics as compulsory subject or any other equivalent examination as
approved by the syndicate, Panjab University, Chandigarh. A candidate seeking admission must have
obtained a minimum CGPA of 5.5 OR 55% marks (where % marks are awarded) in the qualifying
examination mentioned above.

Scheme of Test:

The duration of the Entrance Test will be of 1 hour 30 minutes and it will consist of 75 multiple-choice
questions of one mark each consisting of 20 questions in Physics, 20 questions in Chemistry, 20 questions

16
in Industrial Chemistry & 15 questions in Math. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents
generally covered during the qualifying examinations.

M.E. Electrical Engg. (Instrumentation & Control) (Regular Programme)

Eligibility Conditions
B.E. / B. Tech or equivalent in Instrumentation and Control/ Electronics/Electrical Engineering with atleast
60% marks in the aggregate from Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab University
as equivalent thereto. Admission is on the basis of entrance test PU-CET (PG) 2018 to be conducted by the
Panjab University and interview. GATE qualified candidates will be exempted from the PU-CET (PG) Test.
However, in case of eligible GATE qualified candidates, the merit list will be as per the GATE Score
obtained and shall be offered the seat at the first instance.
Scheme of Test
The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes. The question paper will consist of 75 multiple-
choice questions. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered during
qualifying examinations.
Each question will be of one mark.

M.E. (Electronics and Communication Engineering) (Regular Programme)

Eligibility Conditions
B.E. or B. Tech or equivalent in Electronics /Electronics & Communication Engineering / Electronics and
Telecom Engineering with at least 60% marks in the aggregate from Panjab University or any other
university recognized by Panjab University as equivalent thereto.
GATE qualified candidates will be exempted from the PU–CET (P.G.)-2018 Test. However, in case of
eligible GATE qualified candidates, the merit list will be as per the GATE score obtained and shall be
offered the seat at the first instance.
Scheme of Test
The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes. The question paper will consist of 75 multiple-
choice questions. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered during
qualifying examinations. Each question will be of one mark.

M. E. (Computer Science & Engineering) (Regular Programme)

Eligibility Conditions

B.E. or B.Tech or equivalent in Computer Science and Engineering/Information Technology with at least
60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab University as
equivalent thereto.

GATE qualified candidates shall be exempted from the PU–CET (P.G.) – 2018 Test. However, in case of
eligible GATE qualified candidates, the merit list will be as per the GATE score obtained and shall be
offered the seat in the first instance.

Scheme of Test
The duration of Entrance test will be 1 hour 30 minutes. The question paper will consist of 75 multiple-
choice questions. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered during
qualifying examinations. Each question will be of one mark.

M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Technology & Management) (Regular Programme)

A Bachelor‘s Degree in Civil Engineering from a recognized University or its equivalent with a minimum
CGPA of 6.75 of 60% marks in aggregate. Admission (against vacant seats) is on the basis of entrance
test PU-CET (P.G.)-2018 to be conducted by the Panjab University and interview. GATE qualified
candidates will be exempted from the PU-CET (P.G.)-2018 Test. However, in case eligible GATE qualified
candidates, the merit list will be as per the GATE score obtained and shall be offered the seat at the first
instance.

17
Scheme of Test:
The duration of the Entrance Test shall be of 1 hour and 30 minutes. The question paper will consist of 75
multiple choice questions. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered
during qualifying examinations. Each question will be of one mark.

M.E. Mechanical Engineering (Manufacturing Technology) (Regular Programme)

Eligibility Conditions:

A Bachelor‘ Degree in Mechanical Engg./ Production Engg./ Industrial Engg./ Automobile engineering/
Manufacturing Technology from a recognized University or its equivalent with a minimum CGPA of 6.75 or
60% marks in aggregate. Admission (against vacant seats) is on the basis of entrance test PU-CET (P.G.)
to be conducted by the Panjab University and interview, GATE qualified candidates will be exempted from
the PU-CET (P.G.) Test. However, in case of eligible GATE qualified candidates, the merit list will be as
per the GATE score obtained and shall be offered the seat at the first instance.

Scheme of Test:

The duration of the Entrance Test shall be of 1 hour and 30 minutes. The question paper will consists of 75
multiple choice questions. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered
during qualifying examinations. Each question will be of one mark.

M.E. Electrical Engineering (Power System)

Eligibility Conditions:
Any candidate who has completed B.E./B.Tech. in Electrical/Electrical & Electronics Engineering with at
least 60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab
University as equivalent thereto.

Mode of admission:
Preference will be given to GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET (PG) will be given
admission if some seats will be left vacant after the GATE qualified candidates admissions.

Scheme of Test:
The question paper will be based on the syllabus of Electrical and Electronics Engineering taught at
undergraduate level in Panjab University Chandigarh. It will consist of 75 Objective type questions
(Multiple choice with four responses i.e. A ,B C, and D) carrying a total 75 marks. The question paper will
be of 1 hour and 30 minutes duration.

M. Tech. Material Science & Technology

M.Sc. (Physics), M.Sc. (Chemistry), B.E. / B.Tech. Material Science/ Mechanical/Electrical/Electrical and
Electronics/Civil/Production/Chemical with at least 60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any
other University recognized by Panjab University as equivalent thereto.

Mode of admission:
Preference will be given to GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET (PG) will be given
admission if some seats will be left vacant after the GATE qualified candidates admissions.

Scheme of Test:
The question paper will be based on Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Material Science taught at
undergraduate engineering level in Panjab University, Chandigarh. It will consist of 75 Objective type
questions (Multiple choice with four responses i.e. A, B, C and D) carrying a total of 75 marks. The
question paper will be of 1 hour and 30 minutes duration.

18
 M.E. Biotechnology
Eligibility Conditions:
B.E .Biotechnology Engineering with at least 60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any other
University recognized by Panjab University as equivalent thereto

Mode of admission:
Preference will be given to GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET (PG) will be given
admission if some seats will be left vacant after the GATE qualified candidates admissions.

Scheme of Test:
The question paper will be based on the syllabus of Biotechnology Engineering taught at undergraduate
level in Panjab University Chandigarh. It will consist of 75 Objective type questions (Multiple choice with
four responses i.e. A, B, C, and D) carrying a total 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour and 30
minutes duration.

M.E. (Computer Science & Engineering)

Eligibility Conditions:

B.E. or B.Tech. or equivalent in Computer Science and Engineering with at least 60% marks in aggregate
from Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab University as equivalent thereto.

Mode of admission:
Preference will be given to GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET (PG) will be given
admission if some seats will be left vacant after the GATE qualified candidates admissions.

Scheme of Test:
The question paper will be based on the syllabus of Computer Science and Engineering taught at
undergraduate level in Panjab University Chandigarh. It will consist of 75 Objective type questions
(Multiple choice with four responses i.e. A, B, C, and D) carrying a total 75 marks. The question paper will
be of 1 hour and 30 minutes duration.

M.E. (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Eligibility Conditions:

B.E. or B.Tech. or equivalent in Electronics / Electronics & Communication Engineering / Electronic and
Telecommunication Engineering with at least 60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any other
University recognized by Panjab University as equivalent thereto.

Mode of admission:
Preference will be given to GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET (PG) will be given
admission if seats are left vacant after the GATE qualified candidates admissions.

Scheme of Test:
The question paper will be based on the syllabus of Electronics / Electronics & Communication
Engineering / Electronic and Telecommunication Engineering taught at undergraduate level in Panjab
University Chandigarh. It will consist of 75 Objective type questions (Multiple choice with four responses
i.e. A, B, C, and D) carrying a total 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour and 30 minutes
duration.

M.E. (Information Technology)

Eligibility Conditions:

B.E. or B.Tech. or equivalent degree with at least 60% marks in aggregate in Information Technology /
Computer Science & Engineering / Electronics & Communication Engineering / Electrical & Electronics

19
Engineering / Computer Science & Electronics Engineering / Software Engineering from P.U. or any
recognized University.

Mode of admission:
Preference will be given to GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET (PG) will be given
admission if some seats will be left vacant after the GATE qualified candidates admissions.

Scheme of Test:
There will be no separate test. However, admission will be based on PU-CET (PG) in CSE/ ECE/ EEE.
The order of preference will be (i) CSE (ii) ECE (iii) EEE.

M.E. (Mechanical Engineering)

Eligibility Conditions:
B.E./ B.Tech. in Mechanical Engineering / Production Engineering / Welding Technology / CAD / CAM with
at least 60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab
University as equivalent thereto.

Mode of admission:
Preference will be given to GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET (PG) will be given
admission if some seats will be left vacant after the GATE qualified candidates admissions.

Scheme of Test:
The question paper will be based on the syllabus of Mechanical Engineering / Production Engineering /
Welding Technology / CAD/ CAM taught at undergraduate level in Panjab University Chandigarh. It will
consist of 75 Objective type questions (Multiple choice with four responses i.e. A, B, C and D) carrying a
total 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour and 30 minutes duration.

M.Tech. (Microelectronics)

Eligibility Conditions:
B.E. / B.Tech. or equivalent degree in Computer Science and Engineering / Electrical / Electrical &
Electronics / Electronics / Microelectronics / Electronics & Electrical Communications / Electronics &
Telecommunication / Electronics & Communication / Information Technology / Instrumentation Engineering/
M.Sc. Applied Physics / M.Sc. Physics with specialization in Electronics or M.Sc. in Electronics (as
approved by AICTE) with minimum 60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any other University
recognized by Panjab as equivalent thereto.

Mode of admission:
Preference will be given GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET (PG) will be given
admission if seats are left vacant after the GATE qualified candidates admissions.

Scheme of Test:
The question paper will be based on the syllabus of B.E. / B.Tech. or equivalent degree in Computer
Science and Engineering / Electrical / Electrical & Electronics / Electronics / Microelectronics / Electronics &
Electrical Communications / Electronics & Telecommunication / Electronics & Communication / Information
Technology / Instrumentation Engineering / M.Sc. Applied Physics/ M.Sc. Physics with specialization in
Electronics or M.Sc. in Electronics taught at undergraduate level in Panjab University Chandigarh. It will
consist of 75 Objective type questions (Multiple Choice with four responses i.e. A, B, C and D) carrying a
total 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour and 30 minutes duration.

20
 M.Com. (Business Economics)
Eligibility Conditions
(i) A Bachelor‘s/ Master‘s degree in any discipline of the University or a Degree of any other
University which has been recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent thereto, with not less
than 50% marks in the aggregate.
Or
(ii) Pass in the final examination conducted by (a) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India,
(b) The Institute of Cost and Works Accountants of India and (c) the Institute of Company
Secretaries of India.
Scheme of Test
The question paper of 1 hour 30 minutes duration will consist of 75 Objective Type Questions (Multiple
Choice) with four responses i.e. A, B, C & D carrying a total of 75 marks. The standard of the question
paper shall be based on the latest syllabus prescribed for Bachelor‘s degree in Economics/Commerce of
st nd rd
Panjab University (1 , 2 and 3 Year together).

Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business

Eligibility Conditions
(i) A Bachelor‘s/Master‘s degree in any discipline of the University or a Degree of any other
University which has been recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent thereto, with not less
than 50% marks in the aggregate.
Or
(ii) A pass in the final examination conducted by (a) The Institute of Chartered Accounts of India,
(b) The Institute of Cost and Works Accountants of India and (c) The Institute of Company
Secretaries of India.
Scheme of Test
The question paper of 1 hour 30 minutes duration will consist of 75 Objective Type Questions (Multiple
Choice) with four responses i.e. A, B, C & D carrying a total of 75 marks. The question paper will include
questions related to General Knowledge, Verbal/Reasoning ability, Data interpretation and
Commerce/Economics.

M.Com. (Honours)
Eligibility Conditions

a) B. Com. / B. Com. (Hons.) / BBA with not less than 45% marks in the aggregate.
Or
b) A graduate with Honours in Economics or Mathematics or Statistics or Commerce with not less
than 45% marks in the aggregate;
Or
c) A graduate with 50% marks in the aggregate having offered either Economics, Mathematics,
Statistics, Commerce, Computer Application, Information Technology or Computer Science as a
subject in the examination. Provided that in case of candidates having Bachelors degree of the
University through Modern Indian Languages [Hindi/Urdu/Punjabi (Gurmukhi Script)] and/or in a
classical language (Sanskrit/Persian/ Arabic) or degree of any other University obtained in the
same manner recognized by the Syndicate; 50% marks in the aggregate shall be calculated by
taking into account full percentage of marks in all the papers in Language excluding the additional
optional papers, English and Elective subject taken together.
Or
d) A pass of the Final examination conducted by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India or
England/Institute of Cost and Works Accountants of India or England/ Institute Company
Secretaries of India;
Or
e) Any other qualification recognized by the Syndicate for this purpose.

21
Scheme of Test
The Entrance Test of 1 hour 30 minutes duration shall comprise of one paper of 85 multiple choice (having
four responses A, B, C & D) objective type questions of one mark each in the area of Accounting,
Management, Laws and Economics.

Merit list
The admission will be made on the basis of the Entrance Test (85% weightage), Group Discussion (7.5%
weight age) and Personal Interview (7.5% weightage). The result of the Entrance Test, however, will not be
sent to the candidates but will be conveyed confidentially to the Chairman, University Business (UBS) who
will compile comprehensive result after the Group Discussion and Interview.
Note:
(a) The number of candidates to be called for Group Discussion and Personal Interview will be equal
to eight times the total number of seats of the course in each category or the actual number of
eligible candidates whichever is lower;
(b) Attendance in Group Discussion and Personal Interview is a must. If any candidate does not
attend any one of the components, GD or PI, his / her candidature shall stand cancelled.

M.Com (Business Innovations)

Eligibility Conditions

The Entrance Test for M.Com (Business Innovations) shall be open to all such candidates who possess the
qualifications as mentioned below:
(a) A Bachelor‘s degree in Commerce (B.Com) or Business Administration (B.B.A) with not less than
45% marks in the aggregate; OR
(b) B.Com (Hons.) Degree with not less than 45% marks in the aggregate; OR
(c) A graduation with Honours in Economics OR Mathematics OR Statistics OR Commerce with not
less than 45% marks in the aggregate; OR
(d) A graduation with 50% marks in the aggregate in any other discipline of the University or a degree
of any other University which has been recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent thereto.
Provided that in case of candidates having Bachelor‘s degree of the University through Modern
Indian Languages (Hindi/Urdu/Punjabi/Gurumukhi script) and / or in a classical language
(Sanskrit/Persian/ Arabic) or degree of any other University obtained in the same manner
recognized by the Syndicate. 50% marks in the aggregate shall be calculated by taking into
account full percentage of marks in all the papers in Language excluding the additional optional
paper, English and the elective subject taken together;
(e) A pass in the final examination conducted by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India or
England/ Institute of Cost Accountants of India or England;
(f) A pass in the final examination conducted by the Institute of Company Secretaries of India; OR
(g) Any other qualification recognized by the Syndicate for this purpose.

Scheme of Test:
The Entrance Test of 1 hour 30 minutes duration shall comprise one paper of 75 marks containing 75
Objective Type questions of multiple choices (having four responses A, B, C & D) carrying one mark each.
The Breakup of questions shall be as follows:
1. General Knowledge 15 Questions
2. Business Aptitude 20 Questions
3. Quantitative Aptitude 20 Questions
4. Test of Reasoning 20 Questions

Merit
Admission to M.Com (Business Innovation) shall be on the basis of the Entrance Test (Weightage 50%),
and qualifying examination (Weightage 50%).

22
 Master in Business Administration, Commerce and Information
Technology
Eligibility Conditions

BA /B.Sc. / B.Com./any other Graduation Degree with 50% from Panjab University or any other University
recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent thereto.

Scheme of Test
The question paper of 1 hour 30 minutes duration will consist of 75 Objective Type Questions (Multiple
Choice) with four responses i.e. A, B, C & D carrying a total of 75 marks. The question paper will include 15
questions each on subject knowledge of Commerce, Economics, IT, Verbal ability/Reasoning and General
awareness.

Master of Business Administration for Executives

Eligibility Conditions:
The minimum qualification for admission to the first semester of the course shall be –
(i) A Bachelor‘s degree in any discipline of the University or a degree of any other University which
has been recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent thereto with not less that 50% marks in the
aggregate.
Provided that in case of candidates having Bachelor‘s degree of the University through Modern
Indian Languages (Hindi/Urdu/Punjabi (Gurmukhi Script) and/or in a Classical Language
(Sanskrit/Persian/Arabic) or degree of any other University obtained in the same manner
recognized by the Syndicate, 50% marks in the aggregate shall be calculated by taking into
account full percentage of marks in all the papers in language excluding the additional optional
paper, English and the elective subject taken together.
OR
A pass in the final examination conducted by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India or
England / Institute of Cost Accountants of India or Chartered Institute of Management Accountants
of England / Institute of Company Secretaries of India;
OR
Diploma in Personnel Management and Labour Welfare or Diploma in Marketing Management with
not less than 60% marks in the aggregate, provided the candidate holds a Bachelor‘s degree.
(ii) Two Years whole time executive experience in a commercial or industrial establishment
after having passed the qualifying examination as given above. Members of All India or
State Administrative / Technical Services and Defence Personnel holding administrative
positions with not less than two Years of executive experience will also be eligible.
Organizational sponsorship is essential. The cut-off date for considering the Executive
Experience (for admission during academic session 2018-19) is July 31, 2018.
Scheme of Test:
The Entrance Test will carry 85 marks and will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration. It will consist of 85
multiple-choice questions of one mark each and having four responses A, B, C & D. The components of the
test will include: General Knowledge; Economics and Business Environment Awareness; Data interpretation
and problem solving; Numerical Ability; Verbal Ability/ Reasoning and English Comprehension.
Merit List
The admission will be made on the basis of the Entrance Test (85% weightage), Group Discussion (7.5%
weightage) and Personal Interview (7.5% weightage). The result of the Entrance Test, however, will not be
sent to the candidates but will be conveyed confidentially to the Chairman, University Business (UBS) who
will compile comprehensive result after the Group Discussion and Interview.

23
 Master of Physical Education
Eligibility Conditions
A person who has passed/appeared in any one of the following examinations:
a) Bachelor of Physical Education (B.P.Ed.) or equivalent with at least 50% marks.
OR
Bachelor of Science (B.Sc. in Health and Physical Education) with at least 50% marks.
b) The reservation in seats and relaxation in the qualifying marks for SC/ST/BC/PWD and other
categories shall be as per the rules of the Central Government/ State Government whichever is
applicable.
c) Any other qualification recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent to (a) and (b).

Admission Procedure
Admission shall be made on merit on the basis of marks obtained in the entrance examination (written test,
fitness test, interview and percentage of qualifying examination) as per the policy of Panjab University.

Scheme of Test
The Entrance Test of 1 hour 30 minutes duration shall comprise one paper of 75 marks, containing 75
Objective Type questions of multiple choices (having four responses A, B, C & D) carrying one mark each.
Questions will be based on the following three areas of Physical Education and Sports: (a) Aptitude (b)
General Knowledge (c) Reasoning Ability.

Bachelor of Physical Education (Two-Year Course)

Eligibility Conditions
A person who has passed/appeared in any one of the following examinations:

a) Bachelor‘s Degree in any discipline with 50% marks and having at least participation in the Inter-
College/Inter-Zonal District/ School competition in sports and games as recognized by the
AIU/IOA/SGFI/Govt. of India;
OR
Bachelor‘s Degree in physical education with 45% marks;
OR
Bachelor‘s Degree in any discipline with 45% marks and studied physical education as compulsory
elective subjects;

OR
Bachelor‘s Degree with 45% marks and having participated in National / Inter University / State
st nd rd
competitions or secured 1 , 2 or 3 position in Inter College / Inter-Zonal /District / School
competition in sports and games as recognized by the AIU/ IOA/SGFI/Govt. of India;
OR
st nd rd
Bachelor‘s degree with participation in International competitions or secured 1 , 2 or 3 position
in National / Inter-University competition in sports and games as recognized by respective
federations / AIU/ IOA/SGFI/Govt. of India;
OR
Graduation with 45% marks and at least three Years of teaching experience (for deputed in-
service candidates i.e. trained physical education teachers / coaches)

b) The relaxation in the percentage of marks in the qualifying examination and in the reservation of
seats for SC/ST/BC/PwD and other categories shall be as per the rules of the Central Government
/ State Government, whichever is applicable.

c) Any other qualification recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent to above points.

Scheme of Test
The Entrance Test of 1 hour 30 minutes duration shall comprise one paper of 75 marks containing 75
Objective Type questions of multiple choices (having four responses A, B, C & D) carrying one mark each.
Questions will be based on the following three areas of Physical Education and Sports: (a) Aptitude (b)
General Knowledge (c) Reasoning Ability

24
 M.Sc. (Hons.) in Biophysics, Biotechnology, Biochemistry, Botany, Chemistry,
Mathematics, Physics, Physics & Electronics, Zoology and Geology

Eligibility Conditions
B.A./ B. Sc. (Pass or Hons.) examination with 50% marks (45% marks in case of SC/ST/BC/PwD) of the
Panjab University or any other examination recognized by the Panjab University as equivalent thereto with
the subject desirous of seeking admission in M.Sc. (Hons.) Course as an elective subject for three Years.
For Entrance Test to M. Sc. (Hons. ) Mathematics B.A. / B. Sc. (General) with 50% marks (45% marks in
case of SC/ST/BC/PwD) Mathematics from the colleges affiliated to Panjab University or from other
Universities as recognized by the Panjab University. The candidates who are already students of Panjab
University Teaching Department and have passed/appeared/appearing in the B.Sc. (Hons.) final
examination of the University during the current session in the relevant subject are not required to appear in
the M.Sc. (Hons.) Admission Entrance Test. Their admission to the course shall be governed by the
relevant rules and regulations of the University.
For M.Sc. (Hons.) Physics:- B.Sc. (Pass or Hons.) examination of P.U. or any other exam. recognized as
equivalent thereto with 50% marks (45% marks in case of SC/ST/BC/PwD) with Physics and Mathematics
as elective subjects.
For M.Sc. (Hons. ) Physics & Electronics:- B.Sc. (Pass or Hons.) examination with Physics and
Mathematics as elective subjects, or B.Sc. (Electronics) or B.Tech. / B.E. (Electronics / Electrical /
Mechanical or equivalent) with 50% marks (45% marks in case of SC/ST/BC/PwD) of P.U. or any other
exam. recognized as equivalent thereto.

For M.Sc. (Hons.) Biophysics:- B.Sc.(Hons.) in Biophysics of Panjab University or B.Sc/B.Sc.(Hons.) in

Biophysics/ Bioinformatics / Biotechnology of the Panjab University or any other examination recognized as
equivalent or B.Sc. with i) Physics, ii) Chemistry and iii) any one of the subject from life sciences during all
the three Years of the graduation.
For M.Sc. (Hons.) Chemistry:- Passed B.Sc. (Hons.) in Chemistry from department of Chemistry, P.U.
ii)B.Sc. (Pass or Hons.) examination with 50% marks from PU or any other University recognized as
equivalent thereto with (a) Chemistry in all the three years/six semesters and (b) any two science subjects
during two years/four semesters during graduation
For M.Sc. (Hons.) Biotechnology: B.Sc. Biotechnology with 50% marks or B.Sc. (50% marks) with
Biotechnology as Elective/Vocational on subject (studied for 3 Years) are eligible.
For M.Sc. (Hons.) Geology: B.Sc. 3 year‘s course with Geology as one of the subjects with 50% marks in
B.Sc. & 50% marks in subject of Geology in B.Sc.
For M.Sc. (Hons.) Biochemistry:- B.Sc. (Hons.) Biochemistry or its equivalent exam OR B.Sc. (Pass or
Hons.) exam with 50% from any other exams recognized by P.U. as equivalent thereto with Biochemistry as
one of the elective subjects.

Note: B.Sc. (MLT) Course has not been made equivalent to B.Sc. (Hons.) Biochemistry of Panjab
University.

Scheme of Test
The question paper will be on the concerned subject for which the admission to M.Sc. (Hons.) is being
sought by the candidate. It will consist of 75 Objective Type Questions (Multiple Choice with four responses
i.e. A, B, C & D) carrying a total of 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration.
The standard of the question paper shall be based on latest syllabus prescribed for Bachelor‘s degree of
st nd rd
Panjab University (1 , 2 and 3 Year together) in the relevant subject.

M.Sc. (Hons.) Computer Science

Eligibility Conditions
BCA/B.Sc. (Hons. ) in Computer Science/ B. Tech. / B.E. (Computer Science/ Engineering) or any other
examination recognized as equivalent thereto with 50% marks.

Scheme of Test
The Entrance Test will be of 75 marks. It will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration consisting of 75 multiple
choice questions of Computer Science subject at the level of examinations as mentioned in the eligibility
conditions.

25
M.Sc. (Two-Year Course) Bioinformatics, Biotechnology, Botany, Physics, Chemistry,
Medical Physics, Nuclear Medicine, Forensic Science & Criminology and Zoology
Environment Science, Human Genomics, System Biology and Bioinformatics Microbial
Biotechnology
Eligibility for different courses
Bioinformatics:
Bachelor‘s degree in Science (General or Hons.) with Bioinformatics, Biotechnology, Biochemistry, Biology,
Botany, Chemistry, Electronics, Genetics, Life Science, Mathematics, Mathematics & computing,
Microbiology, Physics, Statistics, Zoology, Agriculture, computer Science, Engineering, Medicine, Pharmacy
and Veterinary Science with at least 50% marks (45% for candidates belonging to SC/ST/BC/PwD
category).

Biotechnology (in colleges):

Bachelor‘s degree (under the 10+2+3 pattern of Education) in Physical, Biological, Pharmaceutical,
Agricultural, Veterinary or Fishery Sciences or Bachelor‘s degree in Engineering/ Technology, Home
Science, Medicine (MBBS) from any University/ Institute recognized by the Panjab University. The
candidate must have obtained at least 55% marks at the Bachelor‘s degree level.

Botany:
B.Sc. pass with Botany having at least 50% marks in the aggregate from Panjab University or from any
other University recognized by Panjab University Syndicate as equivalent thereto.

Physics:
a. B. Sc. Hons. examination of the Panjab University in the subject of M. Sc. Course
b. B. Sc. Examination of the Panjab University or any other University recognized by Syndicate
securing at least 50% marks in aggregate (45% marks in case of SC/ST/BC/PwD) and with
Physics & Mathematics for M.Sc. Physics Course and with Chemistry & Mathematics for M. Sc.
Chemistry course along with anyone of the following subjects:-
Biochemistry, Botany, Chemistry, Geology, Physics, Statistics, Zoology

Provided that a student who had not taken Mathematics as one of the subjects in B. Sc. Examination may
be admitted to M.Sc. (2-Year Course) in Chemistry on the condition that he / she passes an additional
paper in Mathematics (50 hour course) in the first Year examination securing at least 40% marks.

c. Awarded B.Sc. Pass degree under the old B.Sc. Honours regulations by the Syndicate on the
recommendation of the Board of Control:
d. B.Sc. Honours examination in the subject of the M.Sc. From any other University recognized by
the Syndicate as equivalent to (a);

Chemistry:
a. B.Sc. examination of the Panjab University or any other University recognized by the Syndicate
securing at least 50% marks in aggregate and with Chemistry & Mathematics for M.Sc. Chemistry
course along with any Science subject.

Provided that the student who had not taken Mathematics as one of the subjects in B.Sc.
examination may be admitted to M.Sc. ( 2 Year course) in Chemistry on the condition that he/she
passes an additional paper in Mathematics (50 hours course) in the first Year examination
securing at least 40% marks.
b. B.Sc. Pass Degree under the old B.Sc. Honours regulations awarded by the Syndicate on the
recommendation of the Board of Control in the subject of M.Sc. course.
c. B.Sc. examination with 50 per cent marks in aggregate from any other University recognized by
the Syndicate as equivalent to (a).
d. B.Sc. (Honours) examination of Panjab University or of any other University (recognized as
equivalent thereto) in the subject of M.Sc. course.

Medical Physics
Admission to M.Sc. Course in Medical Physics will be B.Sc. (Regular course) first class with Physics as
core subject (studied for three Years) and Mathematics as one of the subjects (studied for minimum two
Years) form a recognized university. The candidates who studied B.Sc. through correspondence and open
university stream are not eligible.

Course duration is 3 Years (2 Years teaching + 1 Year internship).

26
The Entrance Test for Physics, Physics & Electronics and Medical Physics will be common.

Forensic Science & Criminology

B.Sc./ B.Sc. Honours degree with 50% marks in aggregate, in Forensic Science or any other graduation
degree 3/4/5 Year duration in the Faculty of Science , Engineering, Medical / Dental and Pharmaceutical
Science of Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab University with minimum 55%
marks (5% relaxation in case of SC/ST/BC/PwD).

Nuclear Medicine:

Minimum qualification for admission to M.Sc. first Year in Nuclear Medicine will be B.Sc. from a recognized
university with Physics and Chemistry (Non medical stream) or Chemistry and Zoology/Biotechnology
(Medical stream) as core subjects. Candidates having B.Sc. in Nuclear Medicine/ Biophysics shall also be
eligible for admission to the course. Candidates with B.Sc. degree in X-ray/ Medical Technology, B.Sc.
through Correspondence and open university stream are not eligible.

Admission to M.Sc. Course in Nuclear Medicine will be through Entrance Test to be conducted by Panjab
University. The candidates should have passed the graduation (B.Sc.) from a recognized University /
Institute with at least 50% marks. While deciding the final merit of the Entrance Test, a weightage shall also
be given to the B.Sc. marks obtained by the candidate, as per the University rules. The cut off percentage
marks secured in the entrance test will also be as per University rules.

Zoology:
B.Sc. with Zoology having at least 50% marks in the aggregate from Panjab University or from any other
University recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent thereto.

Scheme of Tests for above courses

The scheme of the test for admission to M. Sc. (Two Year Courses) as given above offered at different
colleges affiliated to Panjab University will be same as applicable for M. Sc. (Hons ) in the respective
subjects except Bioinformatics. The candidates may be admitted to M.Sc. (Hons. ) at Panjab University
Campus or affiliated colleges on the basis of final merit lists.

For M.Sc. Bioinformatics: The question paper will consists of 75 objective type questions (Multiple choice
with four responses i.e. A, B, C & D) carrying a total of 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour 30
minutes duration. The syllabi and standard for the question paper shall be the one as currently prescribed
st nd rd
for Bachelor‘s Degree of Panjab University (1 , 2 and 3 Year together).

For M.Sc. Forensic Science & Criminology: Admission to M.Sc. Forensic Science & Criminology shall be
through P.U.- CET (P.G.) conducted by Panjab University. The admission will be on merit, based upon the
marks obtained in PU-CET (P.G.) and marks obtained at undergraduate degree alongwith admissible
weightage as per University Rules.

Format for Entrance Test for M.Sc. Forensic Science & Criminology:
The question paper will comprise of Section A and Section B carrying a total of 75 marks. The question
paper will be of 90 minutes duration. Section A will have 25 questions of General Sciences at 10+2 level to
test the knowledge of fundamentals. Section B will have four sub-sections namely, Biology, Chemistry,
Forensic Science and Physics with 25 questions each from graduation level. The candidate has to select
ANY TWO of the four sub-sections from Section B for answering questions.
M. Sc. (Microbial Biotechnology) (Two- Year Course)
Eligibility Conditions
Candidates having Bachelors Degree in any field of Biological Sciences including Biotechnology are
eligible.

Scheme of Test
The Entrance Test will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration. It shall comprise 75 multiple-choice questions (with
only one right answer) of one mark each. The questions will be based on fundamentals of Microbiology and
Biotechnology.

27
 M.Sc. (Environment Science) (Two-Year Course)

Eligibility Conditions
The candidates with B.Sc. from all streams and any other stream with honours in Geography as one of the
subject and B.E. in any stream.

Scheme of Test
The Entrance Test will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration. It shall comprise 75 multiple-choice questions (with
only one right answer) of one mark each from the Botany, Chemistry, Geography, Geology, Mathematics,
Physics, Sociology, Statistics, Zoology and General Awareness subjects of graduation level. It shall attempt
to test the intelligence, comprehension of the scientific principles and general knowledge expected of a
science graduate.

M.Sc. (Human Genomics) (Two-Year Course)

Eligibility Conditions
B. Sc. (Pass or Honours) under 10+2+3 pattern examination of the Panjab University or any other
examination recognized by the Panjab University as equivalent thereto in Physical, Chemical, Biological,
Pharmaceutical Sciences or Medicine with at least 55% marks.

Scheme of Test
The Entrance Test will be of 75 marks. It will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration consisting of 75 multiple
choice questions (with only one correct answer) of 1 Mark each from six disciplines representing Physics,
Chemistry, Mathematics, Biology, Pharmaceutical Sciences and Medicine.

M.Sc. (Systems Biology and Bioinformatics) (Two-Year Course)

Eligibility Conditions

Bachelor‘s degree in Science (General or Hons.) with Bioinformatics, Biotechnology, Biochemistry, Biology,
Botany, Chemistry, Electronics, Genetics, Life Science, Mathematics, Mathematics & Computing,
Microbiology, Physics, Statistics, Zoology, Agriculture, Computer Science, Engineering, Medicine,
Pharmacy and Veterinary Science with at least 50% marks (45% for candidates belonging to SC/ST/BC
/PwD category).

Scheme of Test
The question paper will consists of 75 objective type questions (Multiple choice with four responses i.e. A,
B, C & D) carrying a total of 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration. The syllabi
and standard for the question paper shall be the one as currently prescribed for Bachelor‘s Degree of
st nd rd
Panjab University (1 , 2 and 3 Year together).

28
 APPENDIX A

GUIDELINES FOR GENERAL / RESERVED CATEGORY/ ADDITIONAL /NRI

SEATS
IMPORTANT NOTE:

Admission in all categories shall be made subject to fulfillment of the eligibility conditions and in
accordance with the provisions contained in the Handbook of Information and Rules for Admission, 2018.
A. Seats: General and Reserved

1) Generally 53.5% of the seats in each course shall be treated as belonging to the General
Category.

2) 46.5% seats shall be treated as belonging to the Reserved Category, as per details given below:

(i) 15% for candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes.

(ii) 7.5% for candidates belonging to the Scheduled Tribes.
(iii) 5% for candidates belonging to the Backward Classes
Provided that the reservation in (i) and (ii) can be inter-changeable, i.e. if sufficient number of
applicants is not available to fill up the seats reserved for Scheduled Tribes, they may be filled up by
suitable candidates from Scheduled Castes, and vice versa.
The above reservation shall be subject to the following conditions:
a. the number of students admitted on merit shall not be included in the number of seats reserved;
b. members of Scheduled Castes / Scheduled Tribes/Backward Classes/PwD shall be allowed a
concession of 5% marks for admission to the courses in which a certain percentage of minimum
marks has been prescribed provided they have obtained minimum pass marks prescribed by the
regulations;
c. in case the seats earmarked for Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes remains unfilled, a further
relaxation in marks may be given, in order of merit inter-se amongst the candidates themselves,
so that all the reserved seats are filled by candidates belonging to these categories; and
d. A Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe person on migration from the State of his origin will not loose
his status as Scheduled Caste / Scheduled Tribe but he/she will be entitled to the
concessions/benefits admissible to the Scheduled Castes / Scheduled Tribes from the State of
his origin and not from the State where he has migrated. [Regulation 29.1, P.U. Cal. Vol. 1, 2007
(Page 168)].

(iv) 5% seats will be horizontally reserved for persons or class of persons with Disability (PwD)* out of
which 1% each shall be reserved for persons suffering from the disabilities specified under the
RPWD 2016 Act:
A) Physical Disability
I Locomotor disability
i. Leprosy cured persons
ii. Cerebral palsy
iii. Dwarfism
iv. Muscular dystrophy
v. Acid attack victims

II Visual Impairment
i. Blindness
ii. Low Vision

III Hearing Impairment

i. Deaf
ii. Hard of Hearing

IV Speech and language disability

* Claimant in this category should be capable of pursuing the course for which the admission is sought. The
Persons with Benchmark Disability (as per section 2 (r) of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities [RPWD] Act 2016
should have a minimum of 40% disability duly certified by the Medical Board of District/State/UT/Medical Institution of
National Importance. Such certificate shall be further certified by the Medical Board of the Panjab University Health
Centre.

29
 B) Intellectual disability
i. Specific learning disabilities
ii. Autism spectrum disorder
C) Mental behavior (Mental Illness)
D) Disability caused due to
I Chronic neurological conditions due to:
(i) Multiple sclerosis
(ii) Parkinson‘s disease
II Blood Disorder
(i) Haemophilia
(ii) Thalassemia
(iii) Sickle Cell disease
E) Multiple Disabilities (Deaf Blindness)
F) Any other category as may be notified by the Central Government
a) If 5% of reservation of seats comes to 0.5 to 0.9, it shall be treated as one seat. However, if
after calculating seats on the basis of 5%, the number of seats is divisible by 5, equal
distribution of seats will be made for all the five categories. If after the division, any remainder
is left, it shall be distributed on the basis of inter-se merit amongst all the five categories. If
the seats after calculating on the basis of 5% comes to less than 5 it shall be distributed on
the basis of inter-se merit amongst all the five categories.
b) In the absence of availability of candidates in any of the categories, the seats shall be
interchanged inter-se.
c) If seats reserved for Persons with Bench mark Disabilities remained unfilled, these shall be
treated in the sanctioned strength of seats for General Category.

(v) 5% for candidates on the basis of achievement in Sports (see separate guidelines on pp. 35-
37).
(vi) 5% for candidates belong to Defence (for all the under-mentioned categories taken together)
for candidates who fall in one of the following categories (which are given there in order of
precedence) :-
1
1. Son/Daughter/Spouse of such Defence personnel and CAPF personnel whodiedinaction. (Only
those who were wholly dependent on such personnel shall be considered).
2. Son/Daughter/Spouse who is wholly dependent on such Defence& CAPF Personnel who
2
were incapacitated /died while in service.
3. Defence and CAPF personnel who were incapacitated while in service.
3
4. Son/daughter/spouse of ex-servicemen who are wholly dependent on them.
5. Son/daughter/spouse of serving Defence personnel and CAPF who are wholly dependent on
them.
6. Ex-Servicemen
7. Serving Defence personnel and CAPF personnel
(vii) 2% for Sons/Grandsons/Daughters /Granddaughters/ Husband / Wife / Brothers / Sisters of
persons killed/incapacitated in November, 1984 riots and of persons killed / incapacitated in
terrorist violence in Punjab and Chandigarh. A Certificate from the District Magistrate to this
effect must be submitted by the candidate. Migrant Card alone is not enough.
For admission to evening courses, categories 2,4 and 5above will not be considered since the term
`wholly dependent' will exclude such persons as are `employed' or `self-employed'.

(viii) 2% for the Children/Grand Children of Freedom Fighters who have been sanctioned pension
by Central/State Govt. or awarded Tamra Patra by Government of India (Syndicate Para 15,
dated 30-5-1997) or those who have been certified to be Freedom Fighters by the
Central/State Govts.
(ix) Any other statutory reservation as prescribed by the Govt. of India, if any.

1. CAPF earlier known as Para-military forces, includes Assam Rifles (AR), Border Security Force (BSF), Central Industrial Security
Force (CISF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Indo Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), National Security Guard (NSG),
Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) etc.
2. Incapacitation will mean incapacitation leading to the discharge of the person by concerned authorities
3. Ex-serviceman means a person who has served in any rank whether as a combatant or non-combatant in the regular Army, Navy
and Air Force of the Indian Union / or in CAPF:-
i) Who retired from the service after earning his/her pension; or
ii) Who has been boarded out of the service on medical grounds attributable to military service / CAPF or Circumstances
beyond his control and awarded medical or other disability pension; or
iii) Who has been released from the service as a result of reduction in establishment ; or
iv) Who has been released from the service after completing the specific period of engagement, (otherwise than at his own
request, or by way of dismissal, or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency) and has been given a gratuity.
Territorial Army Personnel of the following categories shall also be considered as ex-servicemen:-
(a) Pension holders for continuous embodied service.
(b) Disabled Territorial Army Personnel with disability attributable to military service.
(c) Gallantry award winners.
30
Additional Seats :-

(a) Wards of Kashmiri displaced persons.

(i) Relaxation in cut-off percentage upto 10% Subject to minimum eligibility requirement.
(ii) Increase in intake capacity upto 5% course wise.
(iii) Reservation of at least one seat in merit quota in technical/professional institutions.
(iv) Waiving off domicile requirements.

Documents required:
 A candidate seeking admission against this seat is required to produce a certificate from an
authorised Government Officer (i.e. Relief Commissioner / Deputy Commissioner of the
concerned district / area) to the effect that the candidate is a ward of Kashmiri displaced person.
 Proof of current residence (such as Ration Card/ Photo Identity Card issued by the Election
Commissioner / Driving License / Aadhaar Card / Passport etc.)
 The admission of a candidate against this category shall be provisional subject to verification of
his / her above mentioned certificates by the competent authority.

(b) Wards of Martyrs/permanent disabled of Kargil War.

Concession be given for admission to various courses in Educational Institutions up to academic year
2020-21 only to those wards of martyrs/permanent disabled (up to 80% leading to incapacitation) of Kargil
war who have a valid certificate from the Ministry of Defence to this effect and the same be entered in the
pension Book of the family:
1. 1% seats with minimum of 1 seat in the Departments and affiliated Colleges except in partially
financed/self-financing courses.
2. Exemption in fee.
3. Exemption in hostel fee.

(c) One Girl Child out of the only two girl Children

1. Two additional seats per unit per course subject to maximum limit of four (4)out of the two girl children
from the session 2015-16 are created for admission to a given course in the Panjab University Teaching
Departments, Regional Centres and its affiliated Colleges provided they are otherwise eligible from all
angles. The additional seats will be only for those girl Children who are either a single girl child of her
parents or one amongst the only two girl Children with no male Child. The additional seat will be available
to only one of the two girl children of a couple.

2. A certificate is to be obtained from the parents of the girl children declaring therein that the benefit of this
scheme is being claimed for only One Girl Child out of the two girl Children and the parent shall not claim
the same for the 2nd girl child elsewhere in future the specimen of the certificate is enclosed.

(d) Cancer/ AIDS / Thalassemia:

One additional seat each for the student suffers from Cancer / AIDS / Thalassemia has been allowed for
admission in each course in the Panjab University Teaching Departments, Regional Centres and its
affiliated Colleges subject to the condition that the candidate seeking admission under each of these
categories if otherwise eligible from all angles. The claimant candidate will have to submit a certificate as a
proof of from the National Medical Institute like PGI, AIIMS etc. in support of his/her claim.

(e) Two Additional Seats for Rural Area Students

Only those candidates will be considered in this category, who have passed their Matriculation and +2
examination from those rural schools that do not fall in the area of the Municipal Corporation/Municipal
Committee/ Small Town/Notified Area/Cantonment Area. Further, the candidates should have been
studying in such school for atleast five years before passing the last examination. A candidate claiming
such benefit will have to produce a certificate from the D.E.O./Principal of the concerned institute of the
area certifying that the school from where the candidate has passed the Matriculation and +2 examination,
falls within the aforesaid rural area.

(f) One Additional seat for Border Area Students

The Border area students shall mean those candidates who have passed their Matriculation and +2
examination from the Border Area Schools situated within 20 kilometres from the International Border. A
candidate claiming such benefit will have to produce a certificate from the Tehsildar or the
Principal/Headmaster/Head of the School certifying that the School from where the candidate has passed
the matriculation and +2 examination, falls within the aforesaid Border area.

31
(g) One Additional Seat for Youth Festival

In all the teaching courses (except the courses governed by AICTE / NCTE / BCI / MCI / DCI etc.) being run
in the Panjab University Campus including constituent colleges / regional centres / affiliated colleges, one
additional seat is reserved per unit for those candidates who have excelled and outperformed by their
participation in the Youth Festivals. The candidate availing the aforesaid facility must fulfill the eligibility
condition for admission to the particular course. For those courses to which the admission is to be done on
the basis of entrance test, the candidate must have passed the entrance test. The selection of such
candidates for admission to various courses at PU Campus/ regional centres / constituent colleges / affiliated
colleges, will be made by the respective admission committees. For recommending admission on the basis
of youth festival participation, admission criterion will be fixed on the basis of merit as mentioned below and
upon the verification of the original certificates of those candidate, who :

(A) have presented an item in an international cultural festival approved by Punjab Govt. /Govt. of India /
Panjab University .
(B) have got distinction in All India National Inter University Youth Festival organized by AIU / Govt. of
India
(C) have got distinction in North Zone Inter University Youth Festival organized by AIU.
(D) have secured first/second/third position in Inter University Youth Festival organized by Govt. of
Punjab/ any State or Central University .
(E) have secured first/second / third position in Panjab University Inter Zonal Festival.
(F) have secured first /second /third position in Panjab University Zonal festival
(G) have secured first/second/ third position in state level competition of State School Education Board
of Punjab/ Haryana / HP/ or CBSE/ICSE or any other recognised board

 Category A is considered as highest category followed by B, C …. onwards.

 Preference will be given to the candidate who represented Panjab University Chandigarh in A, B, C
and D category
 Achievement(s) only during the preceding 3 years of the year of the admission will be considered

 In case two or more candidate have equal position at equal level then :
i. Position secured in an individual item shall be rated higher as compared to as a team.
ii. The eligibility of the candidate for participation in university youth festivals, in future, may also be
considered.
iii. Academic record may be considered in case of tie between two or more candidate.

In case of any ambiguity, the related certificates be got verified from the Department of Youth Welfare
through the concerned Chairperson / Principal / Head etc.

The candidate admitted on the basis of youth festival additional quota seats shall have to give an
assurance to the university authorities that during the duration of the course the candidate will participate
in the activities associated with his item and will not create any kind of indiscipline. The admission
committee will assess the participation of the candidate and in case the candidate does not fulfill the
requirements, his admission may be cancelled. However, exemption can be given because of a special
reason like sickness or any other unavoidable reason in inter varisty Youth Festivals, National Festivals
and International Festivals.

NRI Seats*
1. That 10% seats over and above the total number of regular seats in each course are reserved for the
NRI candidates.

2. That NRI candidates seeking admission to any course will be required to produce the Test Scores of
Scholastic Aptitude Test-II (SAT-II) with permissible combination of subjects, conducted by the
Educational Testing Service, Princeton, U.S.A., for admission to under graduate courses. Graduate
Record Examination (General) (GRE) from Princeton, U.S.A. or GMAT for admission to Post Graduate
Courses. In case of foreign nationals (non English speaking countries), TOEFL/IELTS scores should
also be produced.

3. That NRI candidates shall compete amongst themselves for admission to various courses. Their inter-
se merit shall be determined on bases of the score obtained in SAT-II, GRE, GMAT etc.

4. A candidate once admitted as NRI candidate in an undergraduate course shall be covered under the
definition of NRI for subsequent admission to any Course at Panjab University.

5. That candidates who take admission under the NRI quota and are promoted from Undergraduate to
Postgraduate course in the Hons. School framework (ongoing program) shall not be allowed to
change their category.
32
 6. That a candidate admitted under NRI quota may change his/her admission to vacant seat provided the
candidate falls within the merit of admitted candidates in General or Reserve Category.

7. That NRI candidate shall have to comply with any other requirements prescribed by the Govt. of India
and Panjab University from time to time.

8. That for admission to B.P.Ed and M.P.Ed ( Physical Education), a candidate will be required to
undergo mandatory Physical Efficiency Test. The scores of Physical Efficiency Test will be counted
for determining merit.

9. That NRI candidates shall provide the following certificates/ documents:-

a. Academic certificates of passing the qualifying or equivalent examination approved by the

Association of Indian Universities (AIU)/Commonwealth Universities/International Association of
Universities (IAU) as equivalent to the corresponding Indian Degrees/Certificates.

b. Test Score of Scholastic Aptitude Test II (SAT-II)/ GRE/GMAT/TOEFL/IELTS ETC.

10. That seats created for NRI quota shall not be allowed to be converted into General Category.

Non-Resident Indian (NRI)

Only the following categories of students or candidates will be eligible or entitled for consideration for
admission in the NRI Quota:

i) Persons of Indian Origin who are citizens of countries other than India and hold the passport of the
country concerned.
ii) Overseas Citizens of India.
iii) Children i.e. sons/daughters of Persons of Indian Origin (who may, or may not, be citizen of
countries other than India), or of Overseas Citizens of India, provided they have resided in a
country other than India for a minimum period of three years immediately preceding the year of
admission in the University.
iv) The eligibility or entitlement under clauses (ii) and (iii) above would extend also to grandchildren,
whose parents are not alive or, at least, whose father is not alive at the time of seeking admission
in the University, and who can, therefore, be treated as being ―wards‖ of their grandparents who
are Persons of Indian Origin (who may, or may not, be citizens of countries other than India), or
Overseas Citizens of India, provided such grandchildren have resided in a country other than India
for a minimum period of three years immediately preceding the year of admission in the University.

Explanation:

a) The aforesaid condition of residence for a minimum of three years in a country other than India
prescribed in Clauses (iii) and (iv) above means actual/physical residence on a regular basis.
Notional, deemed or constructive residence of any kind shall not be considered for this purpose.
Accordingly, the possession of a Green Card will ipso facto not confer eligibility or entitlement for
admission.
b) The expression ―Overseas Citizens of India‖ in Clauses (ii) to (iv) above refers to persons
registered as such under Section 7-A of the Citizenship Act, 1955 as amended up-to-date.

It is made clear that no person other than persons falling under Clauses (i) to (iv) read with Explanation (a)
and (b) above will be eligible for or entitled to admission in the NRI quota.

Foreign Nationals

Admission of the Foreign Nationals will be considered only if the case has been sent to Panjab University
by Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) or any Ministry of Govt. of India subject to the condition that
the Foreign National is eligible to seek admission as per the regulation of the course. The seats for the
eligible Foreign nationals will be additional to the already notified seats, subject to the maximum of 5% of
the total sanctioned seats of the course.

33
NOTE:
Specimen of forms of certificates to be attached to admission forms wherever applicable has been
provided in the prospectus (pp. 45-64)

While working out the percentage of seats in the reserved categories, if the number arrived at
contains a fraction, this shall be resolved as follows:
If the fraction is 0.5 or more, it shall be rounded off to 1; if it is less than 0.5, it shall be ignored. This shall,
however, not affect the total number of seats in the open category. To ensure this, if the total number of
seats after making this adjustment exceeds the prescribed number fixed for the course, the necessary
additional seats shall be created with the prior permission of the D.U.I./Vice-Chancellor. Such seats, if
created, shall be treated as additional only for the year in question.

Illustration: In a course which has 35 seats, the distribution of seats among the various categories
will be as under:
General SC ST BC Sport Defenc Persons with Riot/Terrorist Freedom Total
s e Disability Victim Fighter
53.5% 15% 7.5% 5% 5% 5% 5% 2% 2%

19 5 3 2 2 2 2 1 1 37

th th
It will be seen that this raises the total number of seats to 37. The 36 and 37 seats will be treated as
additional in that course for that year only. The additional seat, if required to be created, shall be created
only for the reserved category and not for the Open category. Such additional seat, if remains unfilled, will
not be converted to open category.

34
 APPENDIX B
GUIDELINES FOR ADMISSION TO THE RESERVED
CATEGORY OF SPORTS
(Candidates are advised to visit website of Sports Department at www.sports.puchd.ac.in)

Five percent seats of the total number of seats in each course are reserved under this category. No benefit
on the basis of sports shall be given to the candidates not applying for admission in this category.

1. Each candidate applying for admission in this category shall, along with the Admission Form,
will submit following documents to the concerned department and photocopy of one complete
set of Admission Form, along with all relevant documents after paging all the documents, will
submit in the office of Campus Sports, (Gymnasium Building), P.U. Chandigarh before the
last date of submission of form. If the candidate fails to submit the form complete in all
respect in the concerned department or in the Campus Sports Department, his candidature
will be rejected
a) Self-attested photocopy of sports certificates with photograph duly attested by the
respective issuing authority or Head of the Institution of last attended.
th
b) Self attested photocopies of Class 10 , Class 10+2 and Bachelor‘s detailed marks
certificates.
c) Undertaking of the sports achievements (Annexure-I) and attendance in sports
grounds (Annexure-V)
d) Roster form/ list of players/ competitors of the concerned tournament duly attested by
the respective issuing authority or Head of the Institution of last attended.

2. The D.U.I. has the authority to cancel admission at any time, if it is found that the candidate
has obtained such admission on the basis of a false certificate or incorrect statement/record.

3. Candidate seeking admission under this category will be considered for admission only in the
games and disciplines in which the Panjab University sends its teams for participation in the
Inter-University Tournaments (for the inclusion of such games and discipline, see Annexure-
II).
1
4. Reservation under Sports Category is meant only for those active sports-persons who
would participate in the Campus, University, State, National, International level Sports
Tournaments. Such students will be considered for admission only if:

i. Their achievement in sports relates to their activities in any of three years immediately
2
preceding the year of admission (relaxable to 4 years in exceptional cases, on merit, for
3
outstanding sportspersons ).

ii. They are otherwise also eligible for participation in Inter-College, Inter-University tournaments
for at least one year as per association of Indian University rule 2017-18
(http://www.aiu.ac.in)
iii. No document including undertaking etc. will be accepted after the last date of submission of
Admission Form by the Campus Sports Department. However, in case any sports persons

1
Means a person attending the grounds regularly so as to appear himself for participation in the Inter-College and Inter-University
Tournaments. However, his/her age falls within the age group which is eligible for participation in Inter-College/Inter-University
Competition.
2
Preceding three years means from 1st July 2015 to 30th June 2018.
3
Securing first three positions in All India Inter-University/Seniors National Championship/National Games/ Participation in
International competition at Senior or junior level recognized by respective National Federation, Indian Olympic Association /
Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports/ International Olympic Committee/BCCI.

35
 th
earn any achievement up to 30 June, 2018, he/she may submit supplementary copy of the
document to the campus sports department along with additional undertaking.

iv. Sports Participation in the same game in two different competitions (irrespective of the event)
is essential for the candidates seeking admission under this category within the prescribed
st th
period of three years i.e. from 1 July 2015 to 30 June 2018. The merit for admission in the
sports category will be purely on the basis of gradation criteria given in Annexure-III however
the minimum level of sports participation to be considered for supporting certificates will be
interschool / Inter College /Cluster /District/ State Level Participations.
5. A committee constituted by the Vice-Chancellor shall screen/evaluate the application. The
application will be processed on the basis of gradation criteria as approved by the Syndicate
from time to time. No trials will be conducted. However, students seeking admission will be
asked to appear before the committee for showing original certificates (Annexure – IV).
6. The Campus Sports Department, Panjab University shall take an undertaking (Annexure-V)
from the candidates that they will attend the grounds regularly and must have 75% of
attendance in the sports ground and would also participate in the Inter-College, Inter-
University, State, National and International sports tournaments. Their admission would be
liable to be cancelled if the terms of the undertaking thus given are not adhered to.
7. The order of precedence in the selection of candidates for admission will be as per
Annexure-III.
i. A candidate falling under category ‗A‘ shall be placed higher in merit than a student
falling under category ‗B‘. Similarly a candidate falling under category ‗B‘ shall be placed
higher in merit than a candidate falling under category ‗C‘ and so on.
ii. Likewise, within each category a candidate falling in category ‗A‘ (1) will be placed higher
in merit than a candidate falling in category ‗A‘ (2) and so on.
iii. A candidate who attains first position in a competition shall be rated higher in merit than
the one who gets second position in a competition of the same level. Similarly, second
position will be rated higher in merit than the third in the same level of competition and
so on.
iv. If there is a tie within the same category, the tie shall be resolved by considering the
'academic merit‘ i.e. as per admission criteria of the concerned department and even
then if there is tie, it will be resolved by the seniority in age i.e. date of birth of the
candidate and such tie will be resolved by the concerned Department in which an
applicant applied for admission.
8. The inter-se merit of the candidates seeking admission to any course under the reserved category of
Sports shall be determined only on the basis of their merit in Sports as per grading criteria in
Annexure-III.
9. The case of sports person with achievements in games/disciplines not included in Annexure-II but
4
excelling at International level and the cases of sports persons excelling at International Level who
are otherwise not eligible as per AIU rules due to age bar shall be recommended by the Director
Physical Education & Sports and may be considered by the Vice-Chancellor for admission to a
particular course by creating an additional seat to the extent of 2% seats in the respective course.
These additional 2% seats will be granted subject to the approval of the regulatory authority i.e.
NCTE/Bar Council/Dental Council etc. These seats be given as being in addition to the approved
strength of the course in that year only. But if the seats are vacant in the 5% reserved category of
sports then the vacant seats will be offered to the applicants under 2% additional sports seats. Sports
persons wishing to avail Clause 9 should submit a separate application along with the concerned
Department's Admission Form.

10. It is mandatory to participate actively in all sports competitions, if selected, and at least 75%
attendance in Panjab University sports grounds is required to enable to sit in the examination for all
the candidates admitted against reserved category of sports. The attendance certificates shall be
issued by the Campus Sports Department in favour of each candidate whose attendance in sports
grounds is at least 75% and admit card for examination shall be issued by the Chairperson only on
the production of such a certificate.

11. When a candidate is required to abstain from the Department for participation in Inter College / Inter
University / National / International / State Sports Tournaments, he/she shall give prior information to
the Chairperson of the concerned Department.

4. Excelling at International level means representing the country in the International tournament recognized by the
International Olympic Committee/Indian Olympic Association/BCCI.

36
12. If a candidate admitted under the reserved category of Sports, remains absent from the grounds for
regular practice for a continuous period of seven days without leave, his/her names shall be struck off
the rolls by the Chairperson of the concerned Department on the recommendation of the Director
Physical Education & Sports, Panjab University, Chandigarh.

13. Deficiency of equal numbers of lectures (theory, practical, seminars and tutorials etc.) shall be
condoned for sportspersons for attending Coaching Camps and participation in various tournaments
i.e. Inter Hostel and Inter Department (Conducted by P.U. Campus Sports), Inter College, Inter
District, State, Inter State, Inter University, National and International level tournament.

14. In case a candidate does not attend the grounds for practice or does not participate in the P.U.
Campus Sports Activities including Campus Annual Athletic Meet, Inter College Competition, Inter
University Tournaments on medical grounds, the Medical Certificate issued only by the University
Chief Medical Officer will be accepted.

NOTE : In case a student remains present in the concerned Department for classes but absent in the
grounds for sports then his/her Medical Certificate will not be accepted and his/her admission
shall liable to be cancelled.

15. In case there is one association or more than one association or federation in any game the sports
certificates issued by those State Associations will be considered which are recognized by concerned
State Olympic Association and respective National Federation. For Inter state and National level
competitions the certificates issued by only those National Federations will be considered which are
duly recognized by Indian Olympic Association or Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sport. In case of
Cricket, BCCI will be the competent authority. For International level competitions, the certificates
issued by those National Federation will be considered which are duly recognized by concerned
Country‘s Olympic Association, such National Olympic Association should be duly recognized by
International Olympic Committee.

16. Certificate on Letter head will not be considered in normal course. However, if the certificates are not
issued by some sports Organization / Association in a particular game, those cases will be looked
after separately by the screening committee on the recommendation of Campus Sports Department.

17. The clause 4 (i) and (ii) will not be applicable for Arjuna Awardeee / Rajiv Khel Ratan Awardee /
Padam Shree Awardee / Olympians in any game/sports with the condition that if such a candidate is
successful in getting admission but barred for participation due to age bar then he/she will coach or
groom a team of his expertise for at least five hours a week without seeking any remuneration.

18. The admission of students under reserved category of sports will be provisional until the verification
of sports certificates from the concerned issuing authority.

37
 ANNEXURE-I

UNDERTAKING FOR ACHIEVEMENTS IN SPORTS

I, _________________________________________________ (name), son/daughter of

Shri___________________________________ (father‘s name), born on
______________________________________of____________________________________________
______________________________________________________ (address) hereby solemnly declare
and affirm as under:–
1. That as Sportsman/Sportswoman in______________________________ (name of discipline), I have
represented the team(s) in the competition(s) on date(s) and also of named position(s) as indicated in the
table below :–

Sr. Sports Disciplines Team Represented Name of the Venue/Date Position

No. competition & Secured
year

2. That the certificate(s) mentioned below are produced by me in support of the above are authentic :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)

3. I understand that in case the information/documents supplied by me are found to be false, incorrect
or forged, my admission will stand cancelled and I shall be liable for criminal action.

(Signature of the candidate)

NOTE: IN CASE OF MINOR, THE UNDERTAKING SHALL BE FILLED IN BY HIS/HER

PARENTS/GUARDIANS WITH SUITABLE AMENDMENTS.

38
 ANNEXURE-II
LIST OF GAMES

Following are the Games/Disciplines on the basis of which claim for admission under the reserved
category of sports can be considered. Following list is tentative subject to the changes if any in the AIU
calendar 2018-19.

Sr.No. Games & Section

1. American Football (Men &Women)

2. Archery (Men &Women)
3. Athletics(Men &Women)
4. Aquatics(Swimming & Diving(M&W), Water Polo(Men)
5. Badminton (Men &Women)
6. Ball Badminton(Men &Women)
7. Basketball(Men &Women)
8. Baseball(Men &Women)
9. Boxing (Men &Women)
10. Canoeing & Kayaking (Men & Women)
11. Circle Style Kabaddi (Men & Women)
12. Chess (Men & Women)
13. Cricket (Men & Women)
14. Cross Country Race (Men & Women)
15. Cycling(Road & Track) (Men & Women)
16. Drop Ball (Men & Women)
17. E-Sports & M. Sports (Men & Women)
18. Fencing (Men & Women)
19. Floor Ball (Men & Women)
20. Football (Men & Women)
21. Gatka (Men & Women)
22. Golf (Men & Women)
23. Gymnastic & Malkhamb (Men & Women)
24. Handball (Men & Women)
25. Indore Hocket 5‘s (Men & Women)
26. Hockey (Men & Women)
27. Judo (Men & Women)
28. Kick Boxing (Men & Women)
29. Korfball (Mixed)
30. Kabaddi (NS) (Men & Women)
31. Kho-Kho (Men & Women)
32. Netball (Men & Women)
33. Power Lifting (Men & Women)
34. Roller Hockey (Men & Women)
35. Roller Sports (Men & Women)
36. Roll Ball (Men & Women)
37. Rowing (Men & Women)
38. Rugby (Men & Women)
39. Sepak Takraw (Men & Women)
40. Shooting (Pistol & .177, Air Rifle Peep Sight, Clay Pigeon, Shooting Trap, Double Trap and
Skeet (Men & Women)
41. Soft Tennis (Men & Women)
42. Softball (Men & Women)
43. Squash Rackets(Men & Women)
44. Tug of War (Men & Women)
45. Table-Tennis (Men & Women)
46. Taekwondo (Men & Women)
47. Tennis (Men & Women)
48. Throw Ball (Men & Women)
49. Volleyball (Men & Women)
50. Weight Lifting (Men & Women)
51. Best Physique (Men & Women)
52. Wrestling Free Style & Greco Roman Style (Men)
Wrestling (Men & Women)
53. Wushu (Men & Women)
54. Yachting (Men & Women)
55. Yoga (Men & Women)

39
 ANNEXURE-III

GRADING CRITERIA FOR SPORTS MERIT

Note: – Tournaments/Championships other than Inter University/Inter College/Inter School will be

considered for Gradation provided they are recognized by International Olympic Committee/ Indian
Olympic Association/respective National Federation / State Association / BCCI / SGFI / MYAS*

CATEGORY 'A'

A-1: A person getting any of the first three positions in the Olympic Games, World Cup, World
Championship, Davis Cup, Thomas Cup, Uber Cup, Para Olympic Games, and Winter Olympic
Games.

A-2: A person getting any of the first three positions in the Champions Trophy, Commonwealth Games,
Commonwealth Championship, World Universities Games, World Universities Championship, Asian
Games (Indoor/Outdoor Games), Asian Cups, Asian Championship, Asian Winter Games, Asian
Para Olympics, Wimbledon Championship, US, French and Australia Open (Tennis)
Championships, All England Badminton Tournament(s) and Youth Olympic Games.

A-3: A person getting any of the first three positions in the One Day International Cricket matches, Cricket
Test Matches, Commonwealth Youth Games, International Athletic Permit Meet, Asian Youth
Games, Asian Martial Art Games, Asian Winter Games, SAF Games.

A-4: A person getting any of the first three positions while representing Indian team in other International
Tournaments recognized by IOA/ SGFI/ MYAS/BCCI.

CATEGORY 'B'

B-1: A person representing India in the Olympic Games, World Cup, World Championship, Davis Cup,
Thomas Cup, Uber Cup, Para Olympic Games, and Winter Olympic Games.

B-2: A person representing India in the Champions Trophy, Commonwealth Games, Commonwealth
Championship, World Universities Games, World Universities Championship, Asian Games
(Indoor/Outdoor Games), Asian Cups, Asian Championship, Asian Winter Games, Asian Para
Olympics, Wimbledon Championship, US, French and Australia Open (Tennis) Championships, All
England Badminton Tournament(s) and Youth Olympic Games.
B-3: A person representing India in the One Day International Cricket Matches, Cricket Test Matches,
Commonwealth Youth Games, International Athletic Permit Meet, Asian Youth Games, Asian
Martial Art Games, Asian Winter Games, SAF Games

B-4: A person representing Indian team in other International Tournaments recognized by IOA/
SGFI/MYAS/BCCI
B-5: A person getting any of the first three positions in the National games and Federation Cup for
Seniors.
B-6: A person getting any of the first three positions in the All India Inter University Tournaments / Senior
National Championships / Inter State Tournament for Senior / Vizzy Trophy Tournament.
B-7: A person getting any of the first three positions in the National Championships for
Junior/Youth/Schools conducted by recognized National Federation/ SGFI (School Games
Federation of India).
B-8: A person getting any of the first three positions in the Zonal Inter University Meet or Championship.
B-9: A person getting any of the first three positions in the National Zonal Meet or Championship for
Senior (the Zonal tournament will be considered if at least 5 teams participated in the same)

CATEGORY 'C'
C-1: A person included in the State/Union Territory teams in the National Games and Federation Cup
for Seniors.
C-2: A person included in the All India Inter University Tournaments/Senior National Championships/Inter
State Tournament for Senior / Vizzy Trophy Tournament.
C-3: A person included in the State/Union Territory Junior/Youth/Cadet teams in the National
Championships or State/Union Territory School/CBSE/Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan/Navodya
Vidyalya/ICSC/IPSC teams in the National School Games conducted by SGFI (School Games
Federation of India).
C-4: A person included in the National Zonal Meet or Championship for Senior/Zonal Inter University
Championship (the Zonal tournament will be considered if at least 5 teams participated in the
same).
C-5: A person getting any of the first three positions in All India inter-Professional University Sports Meet
of Agriculture, Law, Medicine, Technical and Management Universities.
40
C-6: A person included in the Professional University team in Inter-Professional Tournaments.
C-7: A person getting any of the first three positions in the Inter College Tournaments other than
Professional Universities.
C-8: A person getting any of the first three positions in the Inter College tournaments of Professional
Universities/ Inter-Distt. / Union Territory Championships for Seniors / State Junior/Youth/School
Games / Union Territory Championships for Juniors.

CATEGORY 'D'
D-1: A person getting any of the first three positions in the University 'B' Division and 'C' Division Inter
College Tournaments.
D-2: A person getting any of the first three positions in the Residential University/P.U. Campus
Championships or Tournaments.

Note: The certificates not mentioning the level of tournament i.e. Senior /Junior / Youth / Schools will be
considered as per the following age criteria:
1. Under 14....... Sub-Junior
2. Under 17....... Junior
3. Under 19.......Youth
4. Above 19.......Senior
* BCCI: Board of Control for Cricket in India
* SGFI: School Games Federation of India
* MYAS: Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports

41
 ANNEXURE-IV
Schedule of the Verification of Original Sports Certificates for the Reserved Category of
Sports

Venue: Panjab University Gymnasium Hall, Chandigarh

Reporting Time: 8.30 A.M. Time: 9.00 A.M. to 12.00 Noon

Sr. No. Game Section Date
1. American Football (Men &Women) 16.07.2018
2. Archery (Men &Women) -do-
3. Athletics (Men &Women) -do-
4. Aquatics (Swimming & Diving (Men &Women) -do-
(m & W), Water Polo (Men)
5. Badminton (Men &Women) -do-
6. Ball Badminton (Men &Women) -do-
7. Basketball (Men &Women) -do-
8. Baseball (Men &Women) -do-
9. Boxing (Men &Women) -do-
10. Canoeing & Kayaking (Men & Women) -do-
11. Circle Style Kabaddi (Men & Women) -do-
12. Chess (Men & Women) -do-
13. Cricket (Men & Women) -do-
14. Cross Country Race (Men & Women) -do-
15. Cycling(Road & Track) (Men & Women) -do-
16. Drop Ball (Men & Women) -do-
17. E-Sports & M. Sports (Men & Women) -do-
18. Fencing (Men & Women) -do-
19. Floor Ball (Men & Women) -do-
20. Football (Men & Women) -do-
21. Gatka (Men & Women) -do-
22. Golf (Men & Women) -do-
23. Gymnastic & Malkhamb (Men & Women) -do-
24. Handball (Men & Women) -do-
25. Indore Hockey 5‘s (Men & Women) -do-
26. Hockey (Men & Women) -do-
27. Judo (Men & Women) -do-
28. Kick Boxing (Men & Women) -do-
29. Korfball (Mixed) -do-
30. Kabaddi (NS) (Men & Women) -do-
31. Kho-Kho (Men & Women) -do-
32. Netball (Men & Women) -do-
33. Power Lifting (Men & Women) -do-
34. Roller Hockey (Men & Women) -do-
35. Roller Sports (Men & Women) -do-
36. Roll Ball (Men & Women) -do-
37. Rowing (Men & Women) -do-
42
38. Rugby (Men & Women) -do-
39. Sepak Takraw (Men & Women) -do-
40. Shooting (Pistol & .177, Air (Men & Women) -do-
Rifle Peep Sight,
Clay Pigeon, Shooting Trap,
Double Trap and Skeet

41. Soft Tennis (Men & Women) -do-

42. Softball (Men & Women) -do-
43. Squash Rackets (Men & Women) -do-
44. Tug of War (Men & Women) -do-
45. Table-Tennis (Men & Women) -do-
46. Taekwondo (Men & Women) -do-
47. Tennis (Men & Women) -do-
48. Throw Ball (Men & Women) -do-
49. Volleyball (Men & Women) -do-
50. Weight Lifting (Men & Women) -do-
51. Best Physique (Men & Women) -do-
52. Wrestling Free Style & Greco Roman Style (Men) -do-
Wrestling Free Style (Women)

53. Wushu (Men & Women) -do-

54. Yachting (Men & Women) -do-
55. Yoga (Men & Women) -do-

43
 ANNEXURE-V

UNDERTAKING FOR ATTENDANCE IN SPORTS GROUND

I,___________________________________ son/daughter of__________________________

resident
of___________________________________________________________________do
hereby declare as under :-

(i) That I am seeking admission to the Department of______________________

under the Sports Category.

(ii) That in case I am admitted to the above said department I shall regularly attend the
grounds for practice and I shall also participate in P.U. Campus Sports Activities including
P.U. Campus Annual Athletic Meet/Inter-College/Inter-University/National/International
Sports Tournament on behalf of the P.U. Campus and the Panjab University if selected.

(iii) That in case I fail to regularly attend the Grounds for practice or fail to participate in the
tournaments as and when required, my admission to the Department of____________
shall be liable to be cancelled.

(iv) That in case my admission to the Deptt. of ________________________is cancelled due

to my failure to regularly attend the grounds for practice or to participate in the P.U.
Campus Sports Activities (including Annual Athletic Meet) / Inter-University / National /
International Sports Tournaments as may be required by the Campus Sports Department,
Panjab University, Chandigarh. I shall have no claim on any account whatsoever against
the Department or against the University.

(Signature of the applicant)

44
 APPENDIX C
Specimen of Certificates for reserved categories and
additional seats (To be attached to admission form
wherever applicable)

SUB APPENDIX C1
SCHEDULED CASTE / SCHEDULED TRIBE CERTIFICATE

The Caste/Tribe Certificate should necessarily contain the following information about:
(a) Name of the person : ________________________________________
(b) Father‘s name : ____________________________________________
(c) Permanent place of residence : _________________________________
(d) Name of the Caste/ Tribe : ____________________________________
(e) Constitutional order under which the caste/ tribe has been notified
(f) Signature of issuing authority along with the designation, seals and date

Authorities Empowered to issue SC/ST certificate

1. District Magistrate/ Additional District Magistrate/ Collector/Deputy Commissioner/ Additional
Deputy Commissioner/ Deputy Collector/1st Class Stipendiary Magistrate/ Sub-Divisional
Magistrate/ Taluka Magistrate/ Executive Magistrate/ Extra Assistant Commissioner.

2. Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Presidency Magistrate.

3. Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar.

4. Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his/her family normally resides.

5. Administrator/ Secretary to Administrator/ Development Officer (Lakshdweep Islands)

45
 Attach
Applicants
SUB APPENDIX C2
Recent
CERTIFICATE FOR BACKWARD CLASS* Passport Size
(Persons belonging to OBC/SBC will not be considered under this category) Attested
Photograph
This is to certify that Shri / Smt/ Kumari ______________ son/daughter of Sh.___________________
village _______________________________________ District / Division ___________________ in the
state of Punjab belongs to ___________________ community which is recognized as a Backward Class
under the Government of Punjab, Department of Welfate of SCs and BCs vide notification No.
__________________________________ dated _________________________ Shri / Smt/ Kumari
______________ and / or his / her family ordinarily reside(s) in the _____________________ District /
Division of the State of Punjab.

This is also to certify that he/she does not belong to the persons / sections (creamy Layer) mentioned in
the column 3 of the Schedule to the Government of Punjab, Department of Welfare and SCs and BCs
notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/ dated 17-01-1994, as amended vide Notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/1597 dated
17-08-2005, Notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/209 dated 24-02-2009 and notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/609
dated 24.10.2013.

Date of Issuance Signature of Issuing Authority: ______________________

Designation____________________
Space for Photograph
Date:
Place:
Note:

The term ―Ordinarily‖ used here will have same meaning as in Section 20 of Representative of
People Act, 1950

Authorities Empowered to Criteria for Admission under this Category

issue Backward Class
Certificate
1. Deputy Commissioner 1. 50% Seats Reserved for persons belongs to this category
2. Additional Deputy 2. Candidate must belong to non-creamy layer as defined by the
Commissioner latest rules of Govt. Of India
3. Sub Divisional Magistrate 3. * A BC Certificate issued by a competent authority in any format
4. Executive Magistrate and on any date shall be accepted by PU.
5. Tehsildar 4. Candidate whose certificate is older than one year from the
6. Naib Tehsildar date of issue must submit the self declaration as per Sub
7. Block Officer Appendix C-2 (A)
8. District Revenue Officer

46
 SUB APPENDIX C2 (A)
Self declaration Performa to be submitted by the person belonging to backward class category at
the time of recruitment / admission

I __________________ S/O, D/O _______________________ Resident of ________________ Village /

Tehsil/ City _____________________ District ________________________ hereby declare that I
___________________ belong to _________________ caste and this caste has been declared as
backward class by State Government as per letter No. ____________________ dated _____________.

I hereby declare that, I do not come under Column-3 of the Schedule to the Government of Punjab,
Department of Welfare of SCs and BCs notification No. 1/41/93-RC-1/459 dated 17.01.94 as amended
vide notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/1597 dated 17-08-1005, notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/209 dated
04.02.2009 and notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/609 dated 24.10.2013.

Declarant
Place: _______________
Date: ________________

Verification:

I hereby declare that the above submitted information is correct as per my understanding and nothing has
been concealed herein. I am well versed with the facts that I would be liable to face any punishment
prescribed by law in case my above information is found to be false and the benefits granted to me (the
applicant) will be withdrawn.
Declarant
Place: _______________
Date: ________________

47
 SUB APPENDIX C 3
CERTIFICATE FOR ONLY GIRL CHILD/ ONE OUT OF TWO GIRL
CHILDREN

I / We,_______________(father) and______________(mother) of Miss___________________ (full

address to be given) resident of House No. __________________ Street/Sector
____________________________________ Town / City/
Village__________________________District/State__________________________do hereby solemnly
declare and affirm as under:–

1. That I am / we are citizens of India.

2. That Miss ___________________born on ________ is our girl child.

3. That we have no male child.

4. That we have the following only two girls and none else :

(i) Name_______________ (i) Name_______________

(ii) Date of Birth__________ (ii) Date of Birth__________

5. That none of the above mentioned two girl children has obtained/availed the benefit granted under
this category, in this University/Institute including its affiliated colleges.

Signature
Signature
(Father)
(Mother)

Place:
Dated:

NOTE: Who can apply under this category?

Single Girl Child
OR
One Girl Child out of only Two Girl Children*.
*Clarification: This Seat shall not be available for:-
i) Those having three or more girl children.
ii) Those having any male child.

48
 SUB APPENDIX C4
CERTIFICATE FOR ADMISSION UNDER DEFENCE CATEGORY
Dispatch No. __________________ Dated ___________________

Certified that ______________________________________son/daughter/spouse of

______________________________Rank_______________________(if applicable) an applicant for
admission to __________________________________________________________course(s) in the
department of_____________________________ Panjab University, is

1. Son/Daughter/Spouse of such Defence and Central Armed Police Force (CAPF)* personnel who died in
action on_____________during__________. (Only those who are wholly dependent on such personnel
shall be considered).

2. Son/Daughter/Spouse who is wholly dependent on such Defence and CAPF personnel who were
incapacitated/died on____________________while in service.

3. Defence and CAPF personnel who were incapacitated while in service.

4. Son/daughter/spouse of ex-servicemen who are wholly dependent on them.

5. Son/daughter/spouse of serving Defence personnel and CAPF who are wholly dependent on them.

6. Ex-servicemen.

7. Serving Defence personnel and CAPF personnel.

____________________________________
Name of the Certifying Officer Signature of authorized Military/Central Armed
Police Forces Officer
Designation _______________ (with official seal)

* CAPF earlier known as Para-military forces, includes Assam Rifles (AR), Border Security Force (BSF),
Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Indo Tibetan Border Police
(ITBP), National Security Guard (NSG), Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) etc.

49
 SUB APPENDIX C5
CERTIFICATE FROM THE CANDIDATE FROM BORDER AREA SCHOOL*

No. Dated:_____________

Certified that Mr./Ms.______________________________ son/ daughter of Sh.

_______________________________________________________________ and Smt.
____________resident of _________________________________________ has passed the
Matriculation and +2 from school(s) that is situated within 20 kms from the International Border.

It is further certified that Mr. / Ms. ______________________________has studied for ____________

year(s) in the institution(s) that is situated within 20 kms from the International Border, as per date of
joining and leaving school as given below :-

Name of School Date of joining Date of leaving

1. ____________________ ________________ _______________

2. ____________________ _________________ _______________

3. ____________________ _________________ _______________

4. ____________________ _________________ _______________

Place: Seal and Signature

Date: (Tehsildar / Principal / Headmaster)

* This certificate is only for those students, who have passed their Matric and +2 Examinations
from Border Area School (s).

50
 SUB APPENDIX C6
CERTIFICATE FROM THE CANDIDATE FROM RURAL AREA SCHOOL*

No. Dated: ____________

Certified that Mr./Ms.______________________________son/ daughter of Sh. _________ and Smt.

____________________resident of __________________________________________ has passed the
matriculation and +2 examination from Rural School(s) that does not fall in the area of the Municipal
Corporation / Municipal Committee / Small Town / Notified Area/Cantonment Area and has studied in a
rural area school for at least five years before passing +2 examination.

Name of School Date of joining Date of leaving

1. ____________________ _________________ _______________

2. ____________________ _________________ _______________

3. ____________________ _________________ _______________

4. ____________________ _________________ _______________

Place: Seal and Signature

Date: (D.E.O / Principal)

* This Certificate is only for those students, who have passed their Matric and +2 Examinations
from Rural Area School (s) and studied for atleast five years in Rural Area School (s) before
passing +2 examinations.

51
 SUB APPENDIX C7
CERTIFICATE OF CHILDREN/GRANDCHILDREN OF FREEDOM FIGHTER

Despatch No:_________________ Dated:_________________

Certified that Mr./Ms. Mx. ____________________________________ (freedom fighter) son/daughter of

Shri____________________________________ of Village ____________ Post Office
________________ Tehsil _________________District __________________ and Parent /Grand Parent
of Mr. / Ms.Mx. ___________________________ (Name of the Candidate), a bonafide political sufferer
and has been drawing freedom fighter‘s pension from ______________ Treasury or has been awarded
Tamar Patra for his/her political suffering.

Place:
Date:
*Deputy Commissioner
(with Seal of the Court)

* Certificate from no other than Deputy Commissioner will be accepted.

** In case the certificate is found to be false or incorrect, the candidate will be render himself/ herself
liable for criminal prosecution.

52
 APPENDIX D
Specimen of Forms/ certificates for Medical records
FORMAT FOR MEDICAL RECORD

Name of the patient:

Age:

Sex:

Address:

Occupation:

Date of 1st visit:

Clinical note (summary) of the case:

Prov. : Diagnosis :

Investigations advised with reports:

Diagnosis after Investigation:

Advice:

Follow up

Date:

Observations:

Signature in full _________________________________

Name of Treating Physician

(MBBS or above with Mobile #)

Important Note:- Under this category of Physically Challenged, persons only with Permanent
Physical Disability (PPD) will be considered. Candidates with temporary
physical disability will not be eligible for applying under this category.

53
 Medical Examination Form
(The Medical Examination will be conducted by any Govt. Gazatted Officer/Medical Officer at BGJIH)
Items Nos. 1 to 8 below to be filled in by the candidate
1. Name of the candidate_______________________

2. Father‘s Name_____________________________

3. Mother‘s Name____________________________

4. Date of Birth______________________________

5. Department (in which admission is being sought)______________________

6. University Receipt for Medical Examination Fee

No.___________________ Date___________________ Rs.________________

7. Roll No. (allotted by the Department):

8. History of any previous or existing illness: Yes/No (If yes mention details)
I. Like Epilepsy (seizures), Hypertension, Bronchitis, Bronchial Asthma,
Tuberculosis, Rheumatic Heart Disease, Diabeties etc: Yes/No
II. History of any operation/Surgery : Yes/No
III. History of any regular medication : Yes/No
IV. History of any kind of allergy : Yes/No

___________________ _______________________

(Signature of the candidate to be (Signature of the candidate in the

Attested by the chairman) presence of the examining Doctor)

_______________________________

(Signature of the chairman with seal

of the department)
Medical Examination
a) Pulse________________/min. Blood Pressure_______________mmHg (sitting)
b) Vision (without glasses) Right__________ Left____________ Colour
Vision___________
c) Vision (with glasses) Right__________ Left____________
A. Systemic Examination of CNS/Chest/CVS/Abdomen/Limbs
B. Recommendation of the examining physician if any

(Signature of the Medical Officer with seal and date)

54
 FORM OF CERTIFICATE RECOMMENDED FOR LEAVE OR EXTENSION OR

COMMUNICATION OF LEAVE AND FOR FITNESS

Signature of patient
Or thumb impression __________________________________________

To be filled in by the applicant in the presence of the Government Medical Attendant or Medical
Practitioner. (with qualifications-MBBS or above)

Identification marks:-
a. _______________________
b. _______________________

I, Dr. _________________________________ after careful examination of the case certify hereby that
________________________ whose signature is given above is suffering from___________ and I
consider that a period of absence from duty of _______________________ with effect from
______________ is absolutely necessary for the restoration of his health.

I, Dr.______________________________________________ after careful examination of the case certify

hereby that __________________________ on restoration of health is now fit of join service.

Signature of Medical attendant

Registration No._____________
(MBBS or above with Mobile #)

Note:- The nature and probable duration of the illness should also be specified. This certificate must be
accompanied by a brief resume of the case giving the nature of the illness, its symptoms, causes and
duration

55
 COPY OF CERTIFICATE OF PERSONS WITH DISABILITY (PwD) CATEGORY FOR APPLYING FOR
ADMISSION

(Detailed information is available at Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of

India website: www.socialjustice.nic.in as per PART-II Section 3, subsection (i) Notification as
amended on 30th December, 2009 for persons with disability (Equal Opportunities and full
participation Rules, 1996) (Copies of Form-I, Form-II, Form-III and Form-IV, attached).

Form-I

APPLICATION FOR OBTAINING DISABILITY CERTIFICATE BY PERSONS

WITH DISABILITIES

1. Name: (Surname)________________ (First name)__________________

(Middle name) ______________________________
2. Father‘s name:____________________ Mother‘s name:_____________
3. Date of Birth: (date) ________/ (month) _______ / (year) ____________
4. Age at the time of application: __________ years
5. Sex: __________ Male/Female/Transgender
6. Address:
(a) Permanent address
________________________________
_________________________________

(b) Current Address (i.e. for communication)

_________________________________
_________________________________

(c) Period since when residing at current address

_________________________________
_________________________________

7. Educational Status (Pl. tick as applicable)

I. Post Graduate
II. Graduate
III. Diploma
IV. Higher Secondary
V. High School
VI. Middle
VII. Primary
VIII. Non-literate
8. Occupation __________________________________________________
9. Identification marks (i)_______________ (ii) _____________________
10. Nature of disability: _______________________________________
11. Period since when disabled: From Birth/Since year ________________

12. (i) Did you ever apply for issue of a disability certificate in the past______YES/NO
(ii) If yes, details:
a. Authority to whom and district in which applied
___________________________________________________
b. Result of application
13. Have you ever been issued a disability certificate in the past? If yes, please enclose a true copy.

Declaration: I hereby declare that all particulars stated above are true to the best of my knowledge and
belief, and no material information has been concealed or misstated. I further, state that if any inaccuracy
is detected in the application, I shall be liable to forfeiture of any benefits derived and other action as per
law.
_____________________________

(Signature or left thumb impression

of person with disability, or of
his/her legal guardian in case of
persons with mental retardation,
autism, cerebral palsy and multiple
disabilities)
Date:
56
Place:
Encl:
1. Proof of residence (Please tick as applicable)
a. ration card,
b. voter identity card,
c. driving license,
d. bank passbook,
e. PAN card,
f. Passport,
g. Telephone, electricity, water and any other utility bill indicating the address of the applicant,
h. A certificate of residence issued by a Panchayat, municipality, cantonment board, any gazette
officer, or the concerned Patwari or Head Master of a Govt. school,
i. In case of an inmate of a residential institution for persons with disabilities, destitute, mentally ill,
etc., a certificate of residence from the head of such institution.
4. Two recent passport size photographs

(For office use only)

Date:
Place: Signature of issuing authority

Stamp

57
 Form-II
Recent PP
Disability Certificate Size Attested
(In cases of amputation or complete permanent paralysis of limbs Photograph
Or dwarfism and in case of blindness) (showing face
only of the
(NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING person with
THE CERTIFICATE) disability
Certificate No. ___________________
Date:____________

This is to certify that I have carefully examined Shri/Smt./Kum.____________________________

son/wife/daughter of Shri ________________________ Date of Birth (DD/MM/YY) ______ Age_____
years, male/female, Registration No.__________________________ permanent resident of House
No.______________ Ward/Village/Street__________________ Post Office_______________,
District __________, State_________________, whose photograph is affixed above, and am satisfied
that:

(B) He/she is a case of:

• locomotor disability
• dwarfism
• blindness

(Please tick as applicable)

(B) the diagnosis in his/her case is _________________

(C) He/She has _________ % (in figure) ________________ percent (in words) permanent locomotor
disability / dwarfism / blindness in relation to his her _______________ (part of body) as per
guidelines ( …………….. number and date of issue of the guidelines to be specified).

2. The applicant has submitted the following document as proof of residence:-

Nature of Document Date of Issue Details of authority issuing certificate

Signature /Thumb Signature and Seal of Authorised Signatory

impression of the of Notified Medical Authority
person in whose favour
disability certificate is
issued

58
 Recent PP Size
Attested
Form-III Photograph
Disability Certificate (showing face only
of the person with
(In case of multiple disabilities)
disability
(NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING THE CERTIFICATE)

Certificate No. Date:

This is to certify that we have carefully examined

Shri/Smt./Kum.____________________________son/wife/daughter of
Shri________________________ Date of Birth (DD/MM/YY) ______ Age_____ years, male/female,
Registration No.__________________________ permanent resident of House No.______________
Ward/Village/Street__________________ Post Office_______________, District __________,
State_________________, whose photograph is affixed above, and are satisfied that:

(A) He/she is a case of Multiple Disability. His/her extent of permanent physical

impairment/disability has been evaluated as per guidelines (…………. Number and date of
issue of the guidelines to be specified) for the disabilities ticked below, and shown against the
relevant disability in the table below:

Permanent physical
Affected Part impairment/mental disability (in
Sr. No. Disability of Body Diagnosis %)
1. Locomotor disability @
2. Muscular Dystrophy
3. Leprosy Cured
4. Dwarfism
5. Cerebral Palsy
6. Acid attack Victim
7. Low vision #
8. Blindness Both Eyes
9. Deaf £
10. Hard of Hearing
11 Speech and language disability
12 Intellectual disability X
13 Specific Learning Disability
14 Autism Spectrum Disability
15 Mental-illness X
16 Chronic Neurological conditions
17 Multiple selerosis
18 Parkinson‘s disease
19 Haemophlia
20 Thalassemia
21 Sickle Cell disease

(B) In the Light of the above, his /her over all permanent physical impairment as per
guidelines (………….. number and date of issue of the guidelines to be specified), is as follows

In figures :- ____________________________percent
In words:_________________________________________ percent
2. This condition is progressive/non-progressive/likely to improve/not likely to improve.

3. Reassessment of disability is:

(i) not necessary.

Or
(ii) is recommended/after___________ years ______________ months, and therefore, this
certificate shall be valid till (DD / MM /YY) __________________

59
@ - e.g. Left/Right/both arms/legs
# - e.g. Single eye/both eyes
£ - e.g. Left/Right/both ears

4. The applicant has submitted the following document as proof of residence:-

Nature of Document Date of Issue Details of authority issuing certificate

5. Signature and seal of the Medical Authority

Nature of Document Date of Issue Details of authority issuing certificate

Signature /Thumb impression of the

person in whose favour disability
certificate is issued

60
 Form-IV
Recent PP Size
Attested
Certificate of Disability
Photograph
(In cases other than those mentioned in Forms II and III)
(showing face only
(NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING of the person with
THE CERTIFICATE) disability

Certificate No. Date:

This is to certify that I have carefully examined Shri/Smt./Kum.____________________________

son/wife/daughter of Shri________________________ Date of Birth (DD/MM/YY) ______ Age _____
years, male/female, Registration No.__________________________ permanent resident of House
No.______________ Ward/Village/Street__________________ Post
Office_______________, District __________, State_________________, whose photograph is affixed
above, and am satisfied that he/she is a case of_____________________ disability. His/her extent of
percentage physical impairment/disability has been evaluated as per guidelines (to be specified) and is
shown against the relevant disability in the table below:-

Permanent physical
Affected Part impairment/mental disability (in
Sr. No. Disability of Body Diagnosis %)
1. Locomotor disability @
2. Muscular Dystrophy
3. Leprosy Cured
4. Cerebral Palsy
5. Acid attack Victim
6. Low vision #
7. Deaf £
8. Hard of Hearing
9. Speech and language disability
10. Intellectual disability X
11 Specific Learning Disability
12 Autism Spectrum Disability
13 Mental-illness X
14 Chronic Neurological conditions
15 Multiple selerosis
16 Parkinson‘s disease
17 Haemophlia
18 Thalassemia
19 Sickle Cell disease

(Please strike out the disabilities which are not applicable)

2. The above condition is progressive/non-progressive/likely to improve/not likely to improve.

3. Reassessment of disability is:

(i) not necessary.

Or
(ii) is recommended/after___________ years ______________ months, and therefore, this
certificate shall be valid till (DD / MM /YY) __________________

@ - e.g. Left/Right/both arms/legs

# - e.g. Single eye/both eyes

61
£ - e.g. Left/Right/both ears

4. The applicant has submitted the following document as proof of residence:-

Nature of Document Date of Issue Details of authority issuing certificate

(Authorised Signatory of notified Medical Authority)

(Name and Seal)

Countersigned

{Countersignature and seal of the CMO/Medical

Superintendent/Head of Government Hospital, in
case the certificate is issued by a medical authority
who is not a government servant (with seal)}

Signature /Thumb
impression of the person
in whose favour disability
certificate is issued

Note: 1. ―In case this certificate is issued by a medical authority who is not a government servant, it shall
be valid only if countersigned by the Chief Medical Officer of the District‖

62
 Form-V

(intimation of rejection of Application for Certificate of Disability)

No. _____________________ Dated_______________

To

(Name and address of applicant

For Certificate of Disability

Sub: Rejection of Application for Certificate of Disability

Sir/Madam,

Please refer to your application dated ____________ for issue of a Certificate of Disability for the following
disability: _______________________________________

2. Pursuant to the above application, you have been examined by the undersigned / Medical Authority on
___________, and I regret to inform that, for the reasons mentioned below, it is not possible to issue a
Certificate of Disability in your favour:-
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
3. In case you are aggrieved by the rejection of your application, you may represent to ____________,
requesting for review of this decision.

Yours faithfully,

(Authorised Signatory of the notified Medical Authority )

(Name and Seal)

63
Certificate for candidates applying under the reserved category for Cancer / Thalaseemia / AIDS

DETAILED ADDRESS OF ISSUING PHYSICIAN AND HOSPITAL Photograph

(Mention serial number and date with phone number and address) to be
attested by
the
Physician
This is to certify that Ms. / Mr. __________________ (Name of the student), Date of Birth:
_________________________ C.R./OPD No. _________________________ D/o / S/o
_________________________ (complete address), is a diagnosed case of ______________________
(Cancer / Thalassemia / AIDS)*. She/he is undergoing treatment for the same under my care.

________________________
(Signature of the Patient)

Attested

_______________________

(Signature of the Physician)

Name and address of the Physician _______________________

_________________________________________________________

Stamp of the Physician

* Strike out whichever is not applicable.

64
 GENERAL RULES
1. The result of the Entrance Test shall, ipso facto, not entitle a candidate to get admission in an
institution/department/centre/college concerned where he/she intends to seek admission. It
will be the responsibility of the candidate to make sure about his/her eligibility and fulfillment
of such other conditions as may be prescribed for admission in the rules and regulations of
University/Institution concerned. Merely because a candidate is allowed to appear in the
Entrance Test does not mean that he/she is eligible and his/ her appearance therein will not
stop or debar the university/ institution concerned from satisfying itself about his/her
eligibility at any subsequent stage.
Notwithstanding anything contained in this prospectus, the eligibility conditions for
admission to any particular course, shall be governed by the respective rules/regulations as
enshrined in the P.U. Calendar, Volumes I, II and III (latest editions) and / or the General
Guidelines for Admissions/ Handbook of Information-2018 issued by the University and / or
decisions of the University senate/ syndicate. In case of any conflict or inconsistency
between the prospectus on one hand and the aforesaid Panjab University rules and
regulations/ guidelines / Handbook of Information-2018 / decisions of Senate/ Syndicate, on
the other, the latter shall prevail.

2. CHANDIGARH, REGIONAL CENTRES at

The Entrance Test will be held at
HOSHIARPUR, LUDHIANA AND MUKTSAR on the scheduled dates.
3. A candidate desirous of taking the Entrance Test should submit his / her fee in any branch of State
Bank of India using website generated challan latest by 21-05-2018 (Monday) upto 4:00 p.m.
4. Last date for uploading of photograph, signature with rest of the information on the website is
23.05.2018 (Wednesday).
5. In no case, the fee for the PU-CET (P.G.) 2018, once paid, shall be refunded/ transferred / adjusted.
6. In case of Objective Type question papers, the candidates shall be required to answer questions on
the OMR Answer-sheet provided for the purpose only following all the rules/ norms as stated on the
Answer sheet. However, entrance test for admission to M.A. English; M.A. Journalism and Mass
Communication and M.A. (History) shall not be on OMR sheet.
7. The Entrance Test shall be in English only.
8. Thirty minutes extra would be given to the visually handicapped/PwD candidates.
9. In case of Objective Type question papers, the candidates shall be required to hand-over the
Question booklet and OMR Answer sheet to the Centre Superintendent.
10. The candidates shall be required to hand over their OMR answer-sheets and the question paper in
full to the Centre Superintendent. No page/part of the Question paper/OMR Answer Sheet is to be
removed/torn/taken out of the Examination Centre under any of the circumstances, failing which the
candidates shall be disqualified from the entire Entrance Test.
11. The use of calculators is not allowed in any subject/paper.
12. The University will provide logarithmic table. Borrowing or carrying of the log table or other such
material is not allowed.
13. If any candidate who submits two online Entrance Test forms for the same Course his/her
candidature shall be considered only on the basis of one Form.
14. The candidates must bring their own stationary items such as Black Gel Pen. Borrowing of
material inside the Test Centre is strictly prohibited.
15. In case of Objective Type question papers, rough work should be done in the space provided for
this purpose. No rough work shall be done on the OMR Answer Sheet under any circumstances.
16. In case of Objective Type question papers having OMR sheets, there shall be NEGATIVE
MARKING FOR WRONG ANSWERS, i.e., marks will be deducted for wrong answers. If for each
correct answer 1 mark is to be awarded, for a wrong answer ¼ mark will be deducted.
17. There shall be no re-evaluation/re-checking/re-assessment of answer-sheets under any
circumstance. Request for seeing the Question Booklet / answer-sheets/answer-books by the
candidates shall not be entertained at all. The evaluation once done by the University shall
be absolutely final.
18. If a candidate wishes to verify his/her result, he/she will be provided a photocopy of his/her
answer sheet on payment of Rs. 10,000/- within 10 days after the declaration of the Entrance
Test result and the office should process the whole procedure within three working days. In

65
 case, a discrepancy is found in the result of the candidate, the result would accordingly be
revised and the fee deposited will be refunded.
19. In case of Objective Type question papers, the candidate must ensure that the answers to the
questions are attempted on the specifically prescribed OMR answer sheet only. No answer
attempted on the question booklet will be considered for evaluation. Only those questions answered
on the OMR sheet shall be taken into account.
20. RESOLVING OF TIES
Candidates securing equal marks in the Final Merit List shall be bracketed together. However, ther
inter-se merit rank shall be determined as under:-
(a) A candidate getting higher percentage of marks in qualifying examination (Bachelors degree)
shall rank higher in order of merit.
(b) If the marks, as mentioned in (a) are also the same then the candidate obtaining higher
th
percentage of marks in 12 class or an equivalent examination shall rank higher in order of
merit.
(c) If two or more candidates secure equal marks in (a) and (b) above, candidate senior in age
shall rank higher in order of merit.
21. For the courses offered by the Panjab University Departments / Centres, the candidate will have to
fill up and submit an online Admission Form at http://onlineadmissions.puchd.ac.in on or before the
last date as prescribed by the University.
22. The admission shall be based on the relative merit of the candidates as determined by the marks
obtained in the qualifying degree examination and the result of the Entrance Test being held in the
year of Admission, subject to such reservation and weightage as are prescribed in the Rules of
Admission of the University Department/Centre concerned.
23. Carrying of any communication equipment such as mobile phones / pager/ wireless set, scanner/
pen scanner/ camera or any such electronic / digital gadget etc in the examination hall shall not
be permitted and will lead to disqualification.
24. Candidates should not carry eatables, drinks etc. into the Test Centre. Smoking inside and around
the Centre is not permitted.
25. Any candidate who creates disturbance of any kind during examination or otherwise misbehaves in
or around the examination hall or refuses to obey the Superintendent/Deputy
Superintendent/Assistant Superintendent /any other official on examination duty or changes his/her
seat with any other candidate or occupies any seat, other than the one allotted to him/her shall be
expelled from the examination hall. (“Expulsion” for this purpose would mean cancellation of
the Entire Entrance Test). The Centre Superintendent/Observer/any other authorized University
Officer/Official shall be competent to expel a candidate from the examination centre.
26. Any candidate having in his possession or accessible to him/her paper/books or notes which may
possibly be of any assistance to him or is found giving or receiving assistance, or copying from any
paper/book or note or from anywhere else or allowing any other candidate to copy from his/her
answer book or found writing on any other paper, questions set in the question paper, during
examination or using or attempting to use any other unfair means or indulging in any kind of
misconduct shall be expelled from the examination hall. (“Expulsion” for this purpose would
mean cancellation of the Entire Entrance Test). The Centre Superintendent/Observer/any other
authorized University Officer/Official shall be competent to expel a candidate from the examination
centre.
27. If any answer sheet of a candidate shows or it is otherwise established that he/she has received or
attempted to receive help from any source in any manner or has given help or attempted to give help
to any other candidate in any manner, the relevant answer-sheet shall be cancelled. The cancellation
of the answer-sheet shall mean cancellation of all answer- sheets of the Common –Entrance Test.
The decision of the Controller of Examinations, Panjab University, Chandigarh in this regard shall be
final.
28. If a candidate writes his/her name or puts any kind of identification mark or discloses his/her
identity by any method whatsoever on the cover or anywhere else in the Question
Booklet/Answer Sheet, the same shall be treated as cancelled. The cancellation of the
answer-sheet shall mean cancellation of all answer-sheets of the Entrance Test. The decision
of the Controller of Examinations, Panjab University, Chandigarh in this regard shall be final.
29. Any person who impersonates a candidate shall be disqualified from appearing in any University
examination including this examination for a period of five years, if that person is a student on the
rolls of a recognized College or University. But if the person is not on the rolls of a recognized
College or University, he/she shall be declared as a person not fit and proper to be admitted to any
examination of the University for a period of five years and the case, if necessary, shall also be
66
 reported to the police for further action in the matter. The candidate who is being impersonated shall
also be disqualified for a period of five years from appearing in any examination of this University
apart from any other action which the University may take against him, as deemed fit
30. If it is found that a candidate has knowingly or willfully concealed or suppressed any information/fact
which renders him/her ineligible to take the Entrance Test, his/her result of the Test as also
admission to a Institution/Department/Centre of the University, if granted, shall stand cancelled and
he/she shall have no claim whatsoever against the Institution/Department/Centre concerned and the
case, if necessary shall be reported to the police.
31. In order to avoid bias, the marks of the Entrance Test in case of such course where weightage of
performance in Interview and/ or Group Discussion is to be added shall remain confidential till the
process of compilation is not completed.
32. If a dispute or controversy of any kind arises before, during or after conduct of Entrance Test, the
decision of the Controller of Examinations, Panjab University, in all such cases, shall be final.
33. The candidates shall be allowed to appear in the Entrance Test only on the production of the
Admit Card at the Test Centre. No candidate shall be allowed to take the test without the
Admit Card under any circumstances. The candidates must retain the Admit Card with them
till the admission process is over, since it will be required again at the time of counseling.
34. The Admit Card will be issued to the candidates only provisionally, at his/her sole risk and
responsibility subject to the final confirmation of eligibility at the time of admission. It is
further clarified that the candidates shall be taking the test at his/her own risk and
responsibility as far as their eligibility is concerned and the University shall, in no way, be
responsible if they are found to be ineligible, later, leading to cancellation of their result or
any other consequence(s) emanating from the same.
35. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall/room before the expiry of the time
allotted for the respective paper.
36. The result of the PU-CET (P.G.) 2018 will be available at http://results.puchd.ac.in.
37. On 18-06-2018 (Monday) by 1.00 p.m. the question papers and their keys will be put on the
University website. The candidate can file their objections regarding discrepancies and
accuracy of the key, in writing, within 48 hours of this announcement i.e. 20-06-2018
(Wednesday) by 1.00 p.m. through e-mail at arcet@pu.ac.in. Objections received will be
published on the website and cross objections will also be invited within a certain timeframe
as mentioned in the Schedule for Entrance Test and Admission PU-CET(PG)-2018 at Page
120. The valid concerns thus expressed will be given due consideration for evaluation.
38. The final date by which Roll No. will be available online is 31.06.2018 (Friday). Admit Card required
to be downloaded from the website by the candidates using their own Login and Password (provided
while generating Bank Challan). There will be no physical communication for this purpose.
39. No separate Result Card will be issued.
40. The following functionaries may be contacted only in case of extremely urgent enquiry from 10.00
a.m. to 4.00 p.m. (on working days only)
1. Assistant Registrar (C.E.T.) 0172-2534829, 9855018541
Mrs. Manorma Chauhan, Sr. Asstt. 9872305760
2. Controller of Examinations 0172-2534811, 2541825
3. P.U., Main Enquiry 0172-2534818, 2534819, 2534866
18001802065, 9988815005

41. Ragging in any form is banned in Panjab University. If a student is found to have indulged in
ragging, strict action including expulsion from the Institution will be taken against that
student as per Rules.
42. Special arrangements for amanuensis (writer of answer):
A candidate may be allowed help of an amanuensis (writer) if he/she is:
(i) Blind OR
(ii) Permanently disabled from writing with his/her own hand.
(iii) Temporarily disabled from writing on account of fracture of the right or left arm, forearm
or dislocation of a shoulder elbow or wrist etc. The candidate shall produce a certificate
from a Professor of the speciality concerned of a Medical College and where there is no
Medical College, from the Chief Medical Officer of the District concerned to the effect
that the candidate is unable to write his/her answer-books because of the temporary
disablement.

67
43. ADMISSION PROCESS

a) Qualifying an Entrance Test does not entitle a candidate to seek admission in a course. The
candidate will have to fill up and submit an online Admission Form at
http://onlineadmissions.puchd.ac.in and has to meet the eligibility requirements of the course.
b) Every candidate must apply for the Reserved Category(ies) to which he/she belongs to in the
Admission Form. All candidates will be considered in the General Category irrespective of the
fact that they have claimed for admission under Reserved/Additional Categories subject to the
condition that they must fulfil the minimum eligibility requirement of the course for General
Category. No candidate shall be considered for admission against any Reserved Category(ies)
for which s/he has not applied.
c) Once the candidate has submitted the online Entrance Test Form, any change in the Form
including category once marked shall not be allowed.
d) The candidates who are applying under the Sports Category are required to see Appendix B (pp.
35-44) for further procedures and guidelines.
e) Candidates who wish to claim weightage on the basis of NCC, NSS, Youth Welfare, ADULT
EDUCATION and other activities should follow the guidelines as enshrined in the Handbook of
Information-2018.

44. INSTRUCTIONS RELATED TO COUNSELLING

a) A candidate, whose name appears in the Merit List will be required to attend counselling
personally according to her/his merit position on the day/s shown in the counselling schedule to
be uploaded on the Online Notice Board and also on the physical notice board of the department
concerned. Physical presence in the counselling is mandatory for all the candidates on the
notified dates. All those candidates who attend the counselling are requested to mark their
attendance. Only those candidates who report and mark their attendance on the day(s) of
counselling shall be considered for admission during the filling up of vacant seats. The candidate
must bring alongwith all the original documents.
b) The candidate shall attend the counselling for admission at her/his own risk, expense and
responsibility.

45. The admission of a candidate shall be PROVISIONAL and subject to approval by the appropriate
authority of Panjab University.

46. CANCELLATION OF SEATS / ADMISSION

Admission of all such students who fail to attend at least 33% of the total lectures/ tutorials /
practicals etc. delivered / held in all the papers during the first ten working days from the start of
teaching work shall be cancelled by the Board of Control/ Joint Admission Cell after following the
procedure given below:-
th
a. By the 12 day after the start of classes for a particular course, the names of those students
who fail to attend at least 33% of the total lectures / tutorials / practicals etc. shall be put up on
the Notice Board and online Notice Board of the Department and also send a copy of the
same to the office of the DUI.
b. If a student does not submit an application in writing within the prescribed time as stated
above, or the reasons adduced by the student in his application are not found to be sufficient
and justified in the opinion of the Board of Control/ Joint Admission Cell, his admission shall
be cancelled.
c. All the seats thus falling vacant shall be filled strictly in the order of merit from the waiting list
or through subsequent counselling before the expiry of the last date fixed for admissions by
the University.
d. When the admission of the student(s) is cancelled as stated above, the Department shall
display on the Notice Board and online Notice Board, the list of the person(s) next in the
waiting list and make admissions accordingly.
e. Approval of cancellation of admission and permission to fill up the cancelled seat(s) is to be
sought from the DUI.

47. For detailed Instructions related to admission, refer to Handbook of Information 2018, likely to be
available at Panjab University website (http://admissions.puchd.ac.in).

68
INSTRUCTIONS FOR GIVING ANSWERS ON OMR ANSWER SHEET

1 All questions are to be attempted on the answer sheet as per instructions printed on the question
booklet and OMR Answer Sheet.

2 The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Please follow the instructions given
on the answer sheet strictly otherwise it may make evaluation by the computer difficult.
Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account i.e. not following the instructions
completely shall be of candidate only.

3 Each question is followed by four answer choices labeled A, B, C and D. Select the answer you
think is the best response and darken the bubble bearing the correct response label against the
serial number of the question. For example if you think that the answer to question number 2 is D,
then mark as follows:
Q. 2
The Answer marked as under shall be considered as wrong:

or or or or or

4 For marking answers use Black Gel Pen only to darken the corresponding circles.

5 If you do not want to answer any question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question
blank. It will be considered as an unattempted question.

6 Be very careful in filling in the bubble in the first instance since erasing or changing it will spoil the
response and go to the disadvantage of the candidate.

7 In order to open the Question Booklet remove the paper band gently.

8. Write your Roll Number on the answer-sheet as also on the Question Booklet, only in the
space provided for the purpose and at no other place in the question Booklet and Answer
Sheet.

9. The use of log tables is permitted, use of Calculator is not allowed.

10. Rough work should be done in the space provided for this purpose. No rough work shall be done
on the OMR Answer Sheet under any circumstances.

11. Penalty for wrong answers (Negative marking) will be applied i.e. marks will be deducted for
wrong answers. If for each correct answer 1 mark is to be awarded, for a wrong answer ¼ marks
will be deducted. For example, these marks will be calculated as under:
P = Number of correct answers.
Q = Number of wrong answers
R = Number of unattempted questions
(An unattempted question means all the bubbles corresponding to that question are left blank).

It will also be checked that P + Q + R = Total marks allotted to the Paper.

Final Score = P - ¼ Q (calculated to the second place of decimal)

69
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Sample Questions for LL.M.
Part – I: Constitutional Law and Current Affairs
1. The doctrine of ―Basic Structure of the 5. Ordinance can be promulgated by the
Constitution‖ was propounded by the president of India if,
Supreme Court of India in A) Both the Houses of Parliament are
A) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India, in session
AIR 1951 SC 458 B) Both the Houses of Parliament are
B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab, AIR not in session
1967 SC 1643 C) Either of the Houses is not in
C) Kesavananda v. State of Kerala, AIR session.
1973 SC 1461 D) None of the above.
D) Minerva Mills v. Union of India, AIR
1980 SC 1789 6. How many amendments have been
2. The President of India may make a carried out in constitution of India?
proclamation under Article 356 as to the A) 109
breakdown of constitutional machinery in B) 106
a State. C) 99
A) When he is personally satisfied as to D) 94
them circumstances. 7. The tenure of Jammu and Kashmir
B) When he is advised by the Prime Assembly is
Minister to do so. A) 5 Years B) 6 Years
C) When he is advised by the Union C) 7 Years D) None of the above
Council of Ministers. 8. The attempt to suicide is no more
D) When he receives a report from the punishable. Which section of the IPC was
Chief Election Commission. declared unconstitutional and hence void
3. The President of India, in the matters of by the Supreme Court in April, 1994?
appointment of Judges of a High Court : A) 302
A) Is not obliged to consult any Judge B) 303
of Supreme Court or High Court. C) 304
B) Is bound by the advice of the D) 309
Governor of a State 9. The newly elected President of USA
C) Must give primacy to the opinion of Barack Obama belongs to which political
the Chief Justice of India. party.
D) Is not bound to consult the Chief A) Republican
Justice of India. B) Democratic.
4. Right to education has been included in C) Communist
the constitution by D) None of the above
th
A) 86 Amendment 10. Since August 1994, the rupee has been
th
B) 100 Amendment made fully convertible in :
th
C) 87 Amendment A) The capital account
th
D) 94 Amendment B) The capital and saving account
C) The saving account
D) The current account

70
Part– II: Substantive Law

Commercial Law (Law of Contract and Company Law)

1. A contract entered into without ‗Free 4. A company is a Government Company
Consent‘ is : only if :
A) Void A) All the shares of the company are
B) Voidable held by Central or State
C) Valid Government;
D) Illegal B) At least 25% of Shares are held by
2. Property insurance is a contract of : Central or State Government;
A) Indemnity C) Majority of Shares are held by
B) Contingent contract Central or State Government or
C) Wagering agreement both;
D) Guarantee D) Majority of Directors are appointed
by the Central or State Government
3. Creditor, on default by the principal debtor, 5. Annual general meeting of a company is
can file suit against: to be held with a gap between two
A) Secured property consecutive meetings of successive
B) Principal debtor alone Years;
C) Surety and principal debtor; A) Of not more than twelve month;
D) All the above jointly. B) Of not more than twenty four
months;
C) Of not more than fifteen months;
D) Any time but less than twenty four
months
Family Law
1. Which of the following is valid marriage 3. Which of the following is Hindu under the
under the Hindu Marriage Act. 1955? Hindu Law?
A) H, a male Hindu aged 35 marries A) A is born of Hindu father and
W who is a deserted wife of B, Christian mother and brought up as
who had filed a suit for divorce a Christian
and suit is still pending B) A is born of Hindu father and
B) H, a male Hindu aged 36 marries Buddhist mother
a second wife with the consent of C) A is born of Muslim father and Parsi
his first wife who has not been mother‘
able to have a child for the last 10 D) A is born of Christian father and
Years Muslim mother
C) H, a Brahmin Male aged 30, 4. Which of the following relatives will
marries a Buddhist girl aged 18 succeed to the Property of H, a Hindu
D) H, an idiot male Hindu aged 27 male under the Hindu Succession Act
marries W, a Hindu female 1956 after his death?
Lunatic A) Daughter B) Father
2. Which of the following is valid adoption C) Brother D) Sister
under the Hindu Adoption & Maintenance 5. Which of the following is SAHI NIKAH
Act, 1956? (valid marriage) under the Mohammedan
A) H, a male Hindu aged 26 adopts Law?
a daughter aged 6 A) M, a Mohammedan male aged 30
B) H, a male Hindu and his wife married W, a Muslim woman under-
adopt a son aged 16 going Iddat
C) H, a male Hindu aged 40 adopted B) M, a Mohammedan male aged 27,
a son aged 5, after his natural married W, a Muslim woman in a
born son migrated to the U.S.A. desert, without any witness
D) H, a Hindu bachelor aged 25 C) M, a Mohammedan male aged 35,
adopts a son aged 3 married his wife‘s sister
D) M, a Mohammedan male aged 41,
married W, a Muslim female aged
21 as second wife without the
consent and against the wishes of
his first wife

Law of Torts
1. The defense of Volenti non fit injuria is 4. Malice/evil motive is relevant in :
available in : A) Negligence
A) Rescue cases B) Defamation
B) Help cases C) Vicarious Liability
C) Negligence cases D) Nuisance
71
 D) Unlawful acts 5. Tort is :
2. The test of reasonable foreseeability was A) A wrong against the Society
laid down in : B) Statutorily defined in the Limitation
A) Re Polemis case Act
B) Donoghue v. Stevenson C) A codified branch of law
C) Rylands v. Fletcher D) A civil wrong based on the agreed
D) Ashby v. White obligations
3. There is physical harm to the plaintiff in :
A) Assault B) Defamation
C) Nervous shock D) None of
these

Legal Theory
1. Who observed that International Law is the 4. According to Hohfield, the jural opposite
vanishing point of jurisprudence? of ‗Power‘ in the context of his analysis of
A) Austin B) Salmond legal right in the wider sense is :
C) Starke D) Holland A) Liability
2. Identify the Jurist who defined Law as ―the B) Disability
form of the guarantee of the conditions of C) Duty
life of society, assured by the states‘ D) Immunity
power of constraint‖:
A) Roscoe Pound B) 5. Possession is said to be ownership on
Holmes the defensive by :
C) Ihering D) Salmond A) Savingny
3. Realist theory of law emphasizes on: B) Salmond
A) Social function of law C) Ihering
B) Human factors in law D) Gray
C) Social criterion of validity of law
D) Essentiality of law for social life

Public International Law

1. ‗International Law may be defined in broad 4. ―The rebus sic stantibus doctrine is one of
terms as the body of general principals the enigmas of International Law‖ who
and specific rules which are binding upon said
the members of the international A) Starke
community in their mutual relations‘ B) Edward Collin
A) Oppenheim B) Lawrence C) Oppenheim
C) Brierly D) Fenwick D) Anzilotti.
2. ‗The duties and rights of the States are
only the duties and rights of men who 5. ‗From the theoretical point of view, the
compose them‘ : provision for applying ‗the General
A) Kelsen B) Westlake Principles of Law‘ has been regarded as
C) Hall D) Starke sounding the death-knell of positivism‘:
3. ‗A State is, and becomes an international
person, through recognition only and A) Lauterpacht
exclusively‘: B) C.C.Hyde
A) Oppenheim C) Starke
B) Anzilotti D) Triepel
C) Holland
D) Pitt Corbett

72
 Indian Penal Code
1. P, a Pakistani, fires at A, an Indian, A) P is liable for murder
standing on the no-man‘s land. A runs and B) P is liable for culpable homicide
dies on the Indian territory: C) P is liable for grievous hurt
A) P has committed no offence D) P is liable for simple hurt
B) P is liable for murder 4. P, a stoutly built man comes with a lathi
C) P is liable for attempt to culpable in his hand. P picks up the bag of A who
homicide being weak person does not resist :
D) P is liable for attempt to grievous hurt. A) P is liable for theft
2. With an intention to kill B administers B) P is liable for robbery
sugar mistaking it for arsenic : C) P is liable for extortion
A) P has committed no offence D) None of the above
B) P is liable for attempt to murder 5. P threatens A with a pistol and puts his
C) P is liable for culpable homicide hand in A‘s pocket which is empty :
D) P is liable for grievous hurt. A) P has committed no offence
3. P intentionally gives a sword cut to A. A B) P is liable for attempt to theft
subsequently dies of septic meningitis C) P is liable for attempt to robbery
which developed on account of use of D) P is liable for attempt to extortion
wrong remedies and neglect of treatment:

Transfer of Property Act

1. Which of the following is a non- 3. Where a mortgagor personally binds
transferable property under the T.P.Act: himself to repay; the mortgage money
A) Actionable claim by a certain date and possession of the
B) Mortgagor‘s right to redeem property is delivered to the Mortgagee,
C) Lessee‘s right under the lease the mortgage shall be recognized as :
D) Right of an occupancy tenant A) Simple mortgage
B) English mortgage
2. The Supreme Court has held, that the rule C) Usufructuary mortgage
of lis pendens equally applies to D) Anomalous mortgage
involuntary transfers, in the case of 4. The Transfer of Property Act applies to
A) Kedar Nath Vs. Sheo Narain AIR 1970 transfers :
S.C. 1717 A) By operation of Law
B) Narayana Rao Vs. Basavarajappa AIR B) By act of parties
1956 S.C.727 C) By the Government
C) Vidhyadhar Krishnarao Mungi Vs. D) By parties who are Muslims
Usman Gani Saheb AIR 1974 S.C.685 5. The rule that every transaction involving
D) Beepathuma Vs. Velasari Shankra- transfer of property is to be treated as
Narayana Kadambolithaya AIR 1965 single unit is the basis of
S.C.241 A) The rule of apportionment
B) The rule of lis pendens
C) The rule of election
D) The rule of contribution

Industrial Disputes Act

1. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 aims at : 3. The power of the Appropriate
A) Providing social security benefits to the Government under Section 10 to refer
workmen industrial disputes for adjudication is :
B) Regulating conditions of work in A) An administrative power
industries B) Legislative power
C) Investigation and settlement of C) Judicial power
industrial disputes D) Quasi-judicial power
D) Regulating the employment of women 4. Lockout is :
during certain periods A) For trade reasons
2. Retrenchment means : B) An act on the part of employer taken
A) Refusal by an employer to continue to to coerce or pressurize the labour
employ a workman C) Not an intentional act
B) Termination by the employer of the D) Not concerned with industrial dispute
service of a workman for any reason Strike means :
whatsoever 5. A) Mere cessation of work
C) Inability on the part of employer to B) Cessation of work under common
provide employment to the workman understanding
D) Voluntary retirement of a workman C) Cessation of work coupled with
gherao of management
D) Slowing down production

73
Sample Questions for Master of Computer Applications (MCA)

1. Which of the following is NOT a language 6. Two persons Ram and Shyam sort the
processor? letters at constant rate. Ram sorts L
A) Compiler letters in 60 minutes while Shyam takes
B) Loader 30 minutes to sort L letters. The total
C) Interpreter time taken by both of them in sorting L
D) Assembler letters working together but
independently is
2. Which of the following is NOT an Internet A) 10 min
protocol? B) 20 min
A) LTP C) 15 min
B) SMTP D) 45 min
C) HTTP
D) ATM 7. The remainder obtained on dividing
1680
3. The sequence that is in ascending order 2 by 1763 is
in size is A) 1
A) bit, word, byte, nibble B) 3
B) nibble, byte, bit, word C) 13
C) nibble, bit, word, byte D) 31
D) bit, nibble, byte, word 8. The area bounded by the curve , y=
2
(x+1) , its tangent at (1, 4) and the x –
4. Total number of ways in which four boys axis is
and three girls can sit in a row so that A) 1/3
boys and girls have alternate seats is B) 2/3
A) 72 C) 1
B) 144 D) 4/3
C) 288 9. The median of 25,13,4,6,3,11,15,10 is
D) 720 A) 4.5
5. If the word MANMOHANWASHERE B) 6.0
corresponds to ZOAABVNBJOFVRFR, C) 10.5
then the word that corresponds to LRF is D) 5.0
A) HEY
B) MAN
C) GOT
D) YES

74
 Sample Questions for M.A. Journalism and Mass Communication

1. Write about 150 words each on any two of the following: (16 Marks)
a) American Presidential elections
b) Budget 2008-09
c) Patriotism in Indian Cinema
d) Beijing Olympics 2008

2. Rewrite the passage in 200 words: (8 Marks)

It was a cold, windy, stormy, night where the wind was blowing very strongly. The driver of the truck was
driving very fast on the wet road at a speed of over 150 km per hour. He did not see the branch of the tree lying
on the wet road until he was almost upon it. He braked very hard. Because he braked very hard, the tyres
skidded and he lost control and the truck crashed into the ditch on the side of the road.
Eye witnesses said that the truck was being driven at very high speed because of which the driver lost control.
Fortunately no one was killed. The driver escaped with minor injuries as he managed to jump out of the truck
before it turned turtle into the ditch.
Other than the fact of over speeding, blame can also be placed at the hands of the municipal authorities. The
trees lining the stretch of the main road running through the city is lined by trees that are over a 100 Years old.
What compounds the problem is that these trees are not pruned and they are a source of danger not only to
vehicles but also the pedestrians. Many representations have been made to the authorities to uproot these old
trees that are many decades old and to replace them with young saplings, particularly of a species that has hard
wood.
There is also no check post on this part of the road to check over speeding. This can prove dangerous especially
on days that the weather is bad as people tend to drive very fast here as the stretch of the road here is straight
and wide and people tend to over speed here. Also the streetlights also do not function always causing many
accidents.

3. Write about 150 words each on two of the following: (16 Marks)
A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
B) Young Turks in Indian Politics
C) Your role model
D) Sachin Tendulkar

4. English Comprehension: (4 x 5 Marks)

(I). Use the following words in sentences: (5 marks)
A) Criterion
B) Fallacious
C) Discrepancy
D) Voluble
E) Appease

(II). Use the following idioms/phrases in sentences: (5 marks)

A) Success is somebody else‘s failure
B) To be or not to be
C) A moot point
D) The pros and cons
E) Every cloud has a silver lining

(III). If an underlined word or phrase is incorrect, choose that letter; if the sentence is correct, select No
error. (5 marks)

1. The region has a climate so severe that plants growing there rarely had been more
A B C
than twelve inches high. No error.
D E

2. We admired his many attempts bravely to enter the burning building. No error.
A B C D E
3. We must regard any statement about this controversy, whatever the source, as
A B C
gossip until they are confirmed. No error.
D E

4. She is the only one of the applicants who are fully qualified for the position.
A B C D
No error.
E
75
 5. That book is liable to become a bestseller because it is well written, full of suspense
A B C
and very entertaining. No error.
D E

(III). Tick one of the options for filling in the blanks in each sentence: (5 marks)
1. In giving a speech, the speaker‘s goal is to communicate ideas clearly and __________, so
that the audience will be in no ________ about the meaning of the speech.
A) effectively … haste
B) indirectly … distress
C) unambiguously … confusion
2. The commission of inquiry censured the minister for his ________ expenditure of public funds,
which they found to be _________.
A) improper … vindicated
B) lavish … unjustifiable
C) arbitrary … critical
3. Pain is the body‘s early warning system: loss of _______ in the extremities leaves a person
__________ injuring himself unwittingly.
A) agony … incapable of
B) feeling … habituated to
C) sensation … vulnerable to
4. Fortunately, she was _________ her accomplishments, properly unwilling to ___________
them before her friends.
A) deprecatory about … flaunt
B) excited by … parade
C) uncertain of … concede
5. Although its publicity has been ________, the film itself is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely
produced and altogether ___________.
A) tasteless … respectable
B) perfect … spectacular
C) sophisticated … amateur

5. Interpretative passage (5 Marks)

The most curious fact about the detective story is that it makes its greatest appeal precisely to those
classes of people who are most immune to other forms of daydream literature. The typical detective
story addict is a fairly successful professional man with intellectual interests and well read in his own
field, who would never read gossipy movie magazines or comics.
It is sometimes said that detective stories are read by respectful, law-abiding citizens in order to gratify,
in fantasy, the violent wishes they dare not translate into action, but it is quite false. Detective fiction is a
work of art where the author skillfully holds the attention of the reader, never letting him be sure, making
him suspect every character by turn, until the last page, where the real culprit is revealed. All classics in
detective fiction, ‗Crime and Punishment‘, ‗The Trial‘ etc. are examples of this. Of course, there is pulp
literature also where the authors just churn out cheap stories based on a standard formula of sex, blood
and violence.

I) The word ―curious‖ in line 1 means:

A) Inquisitive
B) Unusual
C) Prying
II) The author asserts that readers of detective fiction are:
A) People bent on satisfying an unconscious thirst for blood
B) Dreamers unable to face the monotony of everyday reality
C) Believers in a story well told
III) The opening paragraph suggests that the author considers movie magazines and comics to be:
A) Sources of factual data about society
B) Less addictive than detective fiction
C) The typical literary fare of professionals
IV) The author‘s attitude to detective fiction can best be described as:
A) Profound veneration
B) Genuine appreciation
C) Aloof indifference
V) The author emphasizes classic detective fiction as one that is:
A) Free of cheap gimmicks
B) Marked by suspense
C) Moves in a chronological manner

76
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR MASTER OF PUBLIC HEALTH

Q1) Which is the source of Q 6) Acquired immunity is found in

Chlorofluorocarbons? A. Invertebrates
A. Thermal Power Plants B. Vertebrates
B. Automobiles C. Some Invertebrates
C. Refrigeration and Air – conditioning D. Both vertebrates and
D. Fertilizers invertebrates

Q2) Among cereals and millets richest Q 7) The incubation period of rabies ranges
source of calcium is: from –
A. Rice A. 1 to 2 days
B. Bajra B. 3 to 4 days
C. Maize C. 5 to 6 days
D. Ragi D. 10 days to 1 Year

Q3) Bissinosis is common in: Q 8) At birth immunization required is

A. Farmers A. BCG and OPV-O
B. Textile Industry B. DPT-1
C. Gold mine C. DPT-1 and OPV-1
D. Cement factory D. Measles

Q4) The most populous state in India is: Q9) Anthracosis is caused due to
A. Uttar Pradesh A. Coal Dust
B. Bihar B. Silica
C. Madhya Pradesh C. Fe
D. Kerala D. Tobacco

Q5) A doctor suggested to a couple not to

have more than one child because of Q 10) Gini Index is associated with
A. Rh+ male Rh- female A. Distribution of diseases
B. Rh- male Rh+ female B. Distribution of Income
C. Rh+ male Rh+ female C. Distribution of deaths
D. Rh- male Rh- female D. Distribution of pollutants

77
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR M.A. (English)

I. The writing tasks given below will help us assess your proficiency in organizing your thoughts and
presenting them in a coherent manner. Please complete the task below within 250-300 words, writing at
least two paragraphs:

Social networking is the lifeline of the younger generation but some older people feel that it is a
waste of time. What is your opinion about social networking? State YOUR view clearly, giving
episodes or ideas from your own experience.

OR
Focus in basic education is currently shifting towards a skill-based rather than a knowledge-based
model. Do you think this shift will be productive in the long run? Give your opinion on the changes that
you see in the Indian system of education.

II. Attempt a critical appreciation of the poem given below:

FUNERAL BLUES

Stop all the clocks, cut off the telephone,

Prevent the dog from barking with a juicy bone,
Silence the pianos and with muffled drum
Bring out the coffin, let the mourners come.

Let aeroplanes circle moaning overhead

Scribbling on the sky the message. He is Dead,
Put crepe bows round the white necks of the public doves,
Let the traffic policemen wear black cotton gloves.

He was my North, my south, my East and West,

My working week and my Sunday rest,
My noon, my midnight, my talk, my song;
I thought that love would last forever: I was wrong.

The stars are not wanted now; put out every one,
Pack up the moon and dismantle the sun,
Pour away the ocean and sweep up the woods;
For nothing now can ever come to any good.

OR

The World is too much with us

The world is too much with us; late and soon,

Getting and spending, we lay waste our powers:
Little we see in Nature that is ours;
We have given our hearts away, a sordid boon!
This Sea that bares her bosom to the moon;
The winds that will be howling at all hours,
And are up-gathered now like sleeping flowers;
For this, for everything, we are out of tune,
It moves us not.—Great God! I‘d rather be
A Pagan suckled in a creed outworn;
So might I, standing on this pleasant lea,
Have glimpses that would make me less forlorn;
Have sight of Proteus rising from the sea;
Or hear old Triton blow his wreathed horn.

III. Answer any FOUR in 50-100 words each:

a. The difference between heroic and mock heroic modes
b. The hallmark of eighteenth century satire
c. Some of the features of comedy of manners
d. What were the reasons for the rise of the novel?
e. Why did modern poets choose to write free verse?

78
 SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS FOR M.A. (GEOGRAPHY)

1. The temperature of Thiruvananthapuram is

lower than that of Mumbai in May and higher 6. Which of the following is an antecedent river?
than that of Mumbai in January because: A) Beas
A) Thiruvananthapuram has a cold current B) Satluj
and Mumbai a warm current C) Ravi
B) Thiruvananthapuram has higher rainfall in D) Jhelum
summer and it is closer to the equator.
C) Thiruvananthapuram is on the windward 7. Representative Fraction is a method used for
side and Mumbai is on the leeward side. showing
D) Thiruvananthapuram is thickly vegetated A) Scale on the map
while Mumbai is not B) Direction on the map
2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of C) Contours on the map
a barkhan? D) Distance on the map
A) Its horns point in a down wind direction.
B) It has a crescent shape 8. Which of the following is not a method used for
C) Its windward slope is concave finding north
D) It moves in the direction of the wind. A) Pole Star method
3. If the number of a Survey of India B) Similar Triangles method
topographical sheet is 53 E/1, it‘s scale is: C) Watch method
A) 1:25 000 D) Rod method
B) 1:50 000
C) 1:250 000 9. Following is an example of cold desert
D) 1:5000 A) Sahara
4. Coral reefs are to be found in: B) Kalahari
A) Polar latitudes C) Gobi
B) Tropical latitudes D) Mojave
C) Temperate latitudes
D) All of the above 10. Mercator‘s Projection was used primarily for
5. The age and sex composition of the population drawing
is best represented by A) Distribution Maps
A) Choropleth B) Political Maps
B) Isopleth C) Navigational Maps
C) Pie Diagram D) Cadastral Maps
D) Pyramid Diagram

SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS FOR MASTERS IN DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. Spread of epidemics is associated with 5. Which of the following is a primary activity?

A) Floods A) Teaching
B) Landslides B) Retail trade
C) Earthquake C) Mining
D) Volcanic Eruption D) Tailoring
2. The switching over from the use of diesel to
CNG is important because: 6. RIO-10 (The World Summit for Sustainable
A) CNG is cheaper than diesel Development) in 2002 was held at
B) Diesel is polluting fuel and CNG in non- A) Keo Karo (India)
polluting fuel B) Johannesburg (South Africa)
C) CNG is easily available C) New York (USA)
D) CNG is a non renewable resource D) Melbourne (Australia)
3. Which of the following is caused due to water
contamination? 7. Approximately 71% surface of earth is covered
A) Oral Cancer with water bodies, ice caps and glaciers that is
B) Hypertension why earth is also known as:-
C) Gastroenteritis A) Blue Planet
D) Tuberculosis B) Green Planet
C) White Planet
4. Which of the following is a conventional source D) Yellow Planet
of energy? 8. Which of the following is eco-friendly way of
A) Solar Energy managing kitchen waste?
B) Thermal Energy A) Open dumping
C) Tidal Energy B) Land filling
D) Wind Energy C) Burning
D) Vermi Composting

79
9. Indian Cheetah and Dodo bird are: 10. Harike wetland is located on confluence of
A) Vulnerable species which two rivers?
B) Extinct species A) Ganga-Yamuna
C) Threatened species B) Chandra-Bhaga
D) Rare species C) Ganga-Brahmaputra
D) Beas-Satluj

SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS FOR MASTERS IN REMOTE SENSING & GIS

1. Consider the following statements:

A The representative fraction of a map = A) Cylindrical Equal Area
distance on the ground B) Bonne‘s Projection
distance on the map C) Gnomonic Projection
B the denominator of the representative D) Sinusoidal Projection
fraction is always once

A) A only 8. The point vertically below the camera lens in a

B) B only photograph is called:
C) Both A and B A) Ground point
D) Neither A or B B) Principal point
C) Isocenter
2. Map showing the depths of oceans and seas D) Ground nadir point
is termed as:
A) Ethnographic map 9. Which one of the following is the smallest
B) Orographic map scale of map?
C) Bathymetric map A) 1: 10 000
D) Geological map B) 1:50 000
C) 1: 100 000
3. Which one of the following is the largest scale D) 1: 1000 000
of map?
A) 1 : 10 000 10. Output Device of a computer is:
B) 1 : 50 000 A) Keyboard
C) 1: 100 000 B) Printer
D) 1 : 1000 000 C) Monitor
D) Speaker
4. Kaziranga is famous for:
A) Great Indian Bustard 11. Pixel refers to
B) One horned rhino A) Picture element
C) Cheetah B) Picture effect
D) Ostrich C) Perfect element
D) Primary element
5. In the topographical sheet settlements are
represented by 12. The term GPS refers to:
A) Green Color A) Global Prevention System
B) White Color B) Global Protection System
C) Red Color C) Global Positioning System
D) Black Color D) None of the above.

6. Silent Valley is located in 13. The term GIS refers to:

A) Kashmir A) Geographical Informative System
B) Kerala B) Global Information System
C) Uttaranchal C) Geological Information System
D) Tamil Nadu D) Geographical Information System

7. Which of the following is a perspective

projection?

80
 Sample question paper Master of History

Note : 1. Question No. 1 under Unit-I is compulsory. Attempt any 05 Questions in 80-100 words each.
Each question carries 05 marks. (5 x 5 = 25 marks).
2. Attempt any one Question from Unit –II in about 1000 words. Each Question carries 25 marks.
3. Attempt any One Question from Unit-III in about 1000 words. Each Question carries 25 marks.

UNIT-I

Q-I
i. What is meant by Mahajanpada ?
ii. Explain Dhamma.
iii. Explain Mansabdari System.
iv. What was meant by Sangat ?
v. Who were the Sufis ?
vi. What is meant by commercialisation of agriculture ?
vii. Explain Doctrine of Lapse.
viii. Discuss the demand of Punjabi Suba ?

UNIT-II

Q-II Write a note on the agriculture conditions in Ancient India.

Q-III Comment on the impact on Mohhanmad-Bin-Tuglaq‘s administrative experiments.

Q-IV Assess the contribution of the masses in the struggle for Independence.

Q-V How did Maharaja Ranjit Singh establish the kingdom of Lahore ?

UNIT-III
Q-VI What should be the role of the opposition parties in the Parliament ?

Q-VII Comment on the status of Women in Post Independent India.

81
 SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS FOR M.E. (CHEMICAL) & M.E. (CHEMICAL)
WITH SPECIALISATION IN ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING

Pick-up the correct option:

1. One mole of Nitrogen at 8 bar and 600K is contained in a piston-cylinder arrangement. It is brought to 1 bar
isothermically against a resisting pressure of 1 bar. The work done (in Joules) by the gas is
(a) 30554
(b) 10373
(c) 4988.4
(d) 4364.9
0
2. For water at 300 C, it has a vapour pressure 8592.7 kPA and fugacity 6738.9 kPa. Under these conditions,
3 3
one mole of water in liquid phase has a volume 25.28 cm , and that in vapour phase 391.1 cm . Fugacity of
water (in kPa) at 9000 kPa will be
(a) 6738.9
(b) 6753.5
(c) 7058.3
(d) 900

3. A dilute aqueous solution is to be concentrated in an evaporator system. High pressure steam is available.
Multiple effect evaporator system is employed because.
(a) total heat transfer area of all the effects is less than that in a single effect evaporator system
(b) total amount of vapour produced per kg of feed steam in a multieffect system is much higher than in a
single effect
(c) boiling point elevation in a single effect system is much higher than that in any effect in a multieffect
system.
(d) heat transfer coefficient in a single effect is much lower than that in any effect in a multieffect system

4. Minimum reflux ratio in a distillation column results in

(a) Optimum number of trays
(b) Minimum reboiler size
(c) Maximum condenser size
(d) Minimum number of trays

5. An elementary liquid phase decomposition reaction A 


k
2B is to be carried out in a CSTR. The design
equation is
XA
(a) k 
1  X A 
1  X A 
(b) k  X A
1 X A
XA
(c) k 
1  X A 
X A / 1  X A 
2
(d) kC AO 
1  X A 2
6. Match the following dimensionless numbers with the appropriate ratio of forces.
Dimensionless Number Ratio of forces
P Froude Number 1. Shear force/internal force
Q Reynolds Number 2. Convective heat transfer/conductive heat transfer
R Friction Facter 3. Gravitational force/viscous force
S Nusselt Number 4. Inertial force/viscous force
5. Inertial force/ gravitational force
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-5, S-3
(b) P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(c) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(d) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1
-1
7. A process stream of dilute aqueous solution flowing at the rate of 10 Kg s is to be heated. Steam
0 -1
condensate at 95 C is available for heating purpose, also at a rate of 10 kgs . A 1-1 shell and tube heat
exchange is available. The best arrangement is
(a) counterflow with process stream on shell side

82
 (b) counterflow with process stream on tube side
(c) parallel flow with process stream on shell side
(d) parallel flow with process stream on tube side

8. The Reynolds Number of the liquid was increased 100 fold for a laminar falling film used for gas-liquid
contacting. Assuming penetration theory is applicable, the fold-increase in the mass transfer coefficient (k c) for
the same system is:
(a) 100
(b) 10
(c) 5
(d) 1

9. A closed-loop system is stable when the gain margin is:

a. 1
b. 1
c. 1
d. Zero

10. The aerosols important in air pollution range from:

e. 0.01 to 100 m
f. 100 m to 100 m
g. 0.001 m to 0.01 m
h. 0.001 m

11. The order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is:

i. 2
j. 3
k. 0
l. 1

12. Runge-Kutta method is used to solve:

m. linear algebraic equations
n. linear simultaneous equations
o. ordinary differential equations of first order and first degree with given initial condition
p. partial differential equations

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR M.E. (FOOD TECHNOLOGY)

1. The limiting value of Sherwood number for 5. Freeze drying time is directly proportional
mass transfer from a spherical object is to the __________of the material being
equal to dried.
(A) 2 (A) thickness
(B) 3 (B) square of the thickness
(C) 4 (C) cube of thickness
(D) 0.5 (D) fourth power of thickness
2. The primary protein in milk is 6. With increase in concentration of solute in
(A) casein a solution, boiling point
(B) tryptophan (A) decreases
(C) lysine (B) increases
(D) glutenin (C) remains constant
3. Percentage of fat in butter is (D) none of these
(A) 50
(B) 60
(C) 70 7. The major forces acting in cyclone
(D) 80 separator are
4. The power consumed by a drum dryer (A) gravity and centrifugal
depends upon (B) gravity and centripetal
(A) Drum speed (C) centrifugal and centripetal
(B) Steam Pressure (D) None of these
(C) Pressure exerted by the blade on
the drums 8. Ultra filtration is used for production of
(D) Length and diameter of the drum (A) Butter
(B) Ghee

83
 (C) Cheese (D) None of these
(D) Ice-cream
10. The water activity of free water should be
9. Vacuum packaging is normally used for (A) 1
(A) milk powder (B) less than one
(B) paneer (C) more than one
(C) yoghurt (D) 0

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR M.TECH. (POLYMER)

Pick-up the correct option:

1. Polymer formed in cationic Polymerization has 128Q

a) narrow molecular weight distributions b)
b) medium molecular weight distributions
d 4
c) either (a) or (b)
c) broad molecular weight distributions
d) general isotactic structure d) none of these

2. Thermokol is the trade name of 8. The LMTD correction factor FT:

a) high impact polystyrene a) increases with decrease in number of shell
passes
b) general purpose polystyrene
b) increases with increase in number of shell
c) acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene passes
d) expanded polystyrene c) remains constant with the increase in
number of shell passes
3. The order of convergence in Newton-Raphson d) any one of the above, depending upon the
method is: type of exchanger.
a) 2
b) 3
9. In case of a packed tower, HETP varies with:
c) 0
d) 1 a) type and size of packing
b) flow rate of each fluid
4. Runge-Kutta method is used to solve: c) concentration of each fluid
a) linear algebraic equations d) all of above
b) linear simultaneous equations
c) ordinary differential equations of first order
10 For a binary mixture at constant temperature,
and first degree with given initial condition
with the increase of total pressure, the
d) partial differential equations
relative volatility:
a) decreases
5. For an isotherm process, pressure, P and Bulk
modulus, K is related as: b) increases
a) K = P c) remains constant
b) K = P d) none of these
c) K = P/
d) K = p2 11. An irreversible first order reaction is carried out
in a PFTR and CSTR of same volume. The
liquid flow rates are same in each reactor. The
6. Which one of the following fluids is essentially a relative conversion will be:
non-Newtonian fluid under normal working
a) less in pftr than in cstr
conditions?
b) more in cstr than in pftr
a) blood
c) less in cstr than in pftr
b) thin lubricating oil
d) same in each reactor
c) water
d) air
12. Grizzlies are used for screening solid particles
of:
7. The pressure drop per unit length of a pipe
a) large size
under laminar flow condition is:
b) small size
32 Vav c) very small size
a)
d2 d) any one of the above

84
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR M.SC. (INDUSTRIAL CHEMISTRY)

PART-A : MATHEMATICS
x 2  342  71
Q.1. If x be real, can have no value between
x 2  2x  7
(a) (3,7)
(b) (4,8)
(c) (5,9)
(d) (10,15)

Q.2. The set of equation x + y- 2z =0, 2x-3y+z=0, x-5y+yz=k is consistent for

(a) K=0
(b) K=1
(c) K=2
(d) K=5

x4  y4 U U
Q.3. If U = , show that x y is equal to
x y x y
(a) U
(b) 2U
(c) 3U
(d) 5U

PART-B: PHYSICS
     
Q.4. Out of Fm, V and B in the relation Fm = q (V x B ) which of the following pavis can have any angle
between them.

 
(a) V and B
 
(b) F and V
 
(c) F m and B
(d) None of the above

Q.5. A body under the action of inverse square force will follow and elliptical path, if eccentricity
(a) e=0
(b) e=1
(c) e>1
(d) e<1 (Positive)

Q.6. If B = curl A , 
then
 
(a) B =0
 
(b) B =1
 
(c) B =A
 
(d) B = -1

PART-C : CHEMISTRY
Q.7. The IUPAC name for CH3CH2 – C – OCH3 is

O
(a) methyl propanoate
(b) Porpanendioic acid
(c) 2-propane-l-ol
(d) 3 oxo-1-methyl butane

85
 Q.8. The number of NMR signals for the compound CH3OCH2CH3 is
(a) One signal (singlet)
(b) Two signals (one singlet, one multiple)
(c) Three signals (singlets)
(d) Three signals (singlet, quartet, triplet)

Q.9. When Propane is treated with HBr in the presence of a peroxide

(a) Bromopropene is formed
(b) n-propyl bromide
(c) Allyl bromide is formed
(d) None of these

PART-D : INDUSTRIAL CHEMISTRY

Q.10. The Fourier number (NFo) is defined as
2
(a) tL /
(b) hL/k
t/L
2
(c)
(d) hk/L

Q.11. Baffles are provided in the heat exchanger to increase

(a) fouling factor
(b) heat transfer area
(c) heat transfer coefficient
(d) heat transfer rate

Q.12. Relative volatility, , for a binary system

(a) decrease with increase in pressure
(b) increase with increase in pressure
(c) increase with increase in temperature at constant pressure.
(d) has no significance in distillation operation

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR

ME Electrical Engg. (Instrumentation & Control) Regular programme

1. Which term applies to the maintaining of a 5. Addressing mode of the instruction-
given signal level until the next ORL A, @ R0 is:
sampling? A) Direct
1. 1. Holding A) Indirect
2. Aliasing C) Register
3. Shannon frequency sampling D) Immediate
4. Stair-stepping
6. Which type of programming is
2. What does a Hall Effect sensor sense? typically used for digital signal
A) Temperature processors?
B) Moisture A) Assembly language
C) Magnetic fields B) Machine language
D) Pressure C) C
7. D) None of the above
3. Two copper-constantan thermocouples are A phase lag compensation coil
connected such that the two constantan wires A) Improves relative stability
are joined together. The two copper wires are B) Increases bandwidth
connected to the input of a low C) Increases overshoot
noise chopper stabilized differential amplifier D) None of the above
having a gain of 1000. One of the
thermocouple junctions is immersed in a flask
containing ice and water in equal proportion. 8. Which one of the following is
The other thermocouple is at a temperature T. Programmable Interrupt Controller?
If the output of the A) 8257
amplifier is 2.050V, the temperature T is B) 8254
A) 205°C C) 8255
B) 102.5°C D) 8259
C) 51.25°C 9. RTDs are typically connected with
D) 50°C other fixed resistors
A) In a pi configuration
4. A second order feedback system is found to B) In a bridge configuration
be oscillating with a high C) And variable resistors
frequency. The oscillations D) And capacitors in a filter-type
86
 A) Can be reduced by increasing the circuit
proportional
1. action. 10. For a first order instrument a 5%
B) Can be reduced by increasing the settling time is equal to
integral action. 1. Three times the time constant.
C) Can be reduced by increasing the 2. Two times the time constant.
derivative action. C) The time constant.
D) Cannot be reduced. D) Time required for the output
signal to reaches 5% of the final
value.

Sample Questions for

M.E. (Electronics and Communication Engineering) Regular Programme

1. Which rectifier requires four diodes? 6. The Boolean function Y=AB + CD is to be

A) half-wave voltage doubler realized using only 2 inpute NAND gates.
B) full-wave voltage doubler The minimum number of gates required is
C) full-wave bridge circuit A) 2
D) voltage quadrupler B) 3
C) 4
2. If the input is a rectangular pulse, the D) 5
output of an integrator is a 7. Which device is considered a current
A) Sine wave controlled device:
B) Square wave A) Diode
C) Ramp B) Filed effect transistor
D) Rectangular pulse C) Transistor
3. The energy gap in a semiconductor D) Resistor
A) Increases with temperature 8. In an amplifier, the emitter junction is
B) Does not change with A) Forward Biased
temperature B) Reverse Biased
C) Decreases with temperature C) Grounded
D) Is zero D) Shorted

4. The LASER diode sources require 9. Unijunction Transistor has three

A) Spontaneous emission terminals,
B) Absorption A) Cathode, Anode, Gate
C) Stimulated emission B) Grid, Plate, Cathode
D) None of the above C) Base 1, Base 2, Emitter
5. 2‘s complement representation of a 16-bit D) Gate, Base 1, Base 2
number (one sign bit and 15 magnitude 10. GSM stands for
bits) is FFFF. Its magnitude in decimal A) Global System for Mobile
representation is Communication
A) 0 B) Global System for Multiplexing
B) 1 C) Group System for Mobile
C) 32, 767 Communication
D) 65, 565 D) None of these

Sample Questions for M.E. (Computer Science & Engineering) Regular Programme

1. Which of the following is the name of the data structure in a compiler that is responsible for managing
information about variables and their attributes?
A) Abstract Syntax tree
B) Symbol Table
C) Variable value stack
D) Parse tree
2. Seven (distinct) car accidents occurred in a week. What is the probability that they all occurred on the
same day?
7 6
A) 1/7 B) 1/7
7 7
C) 1/2 D) 7/2
3. Which of the following statements is false
A) As unambiguous grammar has same leftmost and rightmost derivation
B) An LL (1) parser is top down parser
C) LALR is more powerful than SLR

87
 D) An ambiguous grammar can never be LR (k) for any k

4. What will be the output of the following program?

void main()
{int var 1 = 10, var2 = 20, var3;
Var3 = var1++ + ++var2;
Printf(―%d%d%d‖, var1, var2, var3);}
A) 10 20 30 B) 11 21 31
C) 10 21 30 D) 11 21 30

5. Which of the following data structures will allow mergesort to work in O(nlogn) time?
I. A singly linked list
II. A doubly linked list
III. An array
A) III only
B) I and II only
C) II and III only
D) I, II and III

6. In the internet Protocol (IP) suite of protocols, which of the following best describes the purpose of the
Address Resolution Protocol?
A) To translate Web addresses to host names
B) To determine the IP address of a given host name
C) To determine the hardware address of a given host name
D) To determine the hardware address of a given IP address

7. The binary relation R= { (1,1), (2,1),(2,2), (2,3), (2,4),(3,1),(3,2), (3,3), (3,4) } on the set A= {1,2,3,4} is:
A) reflexive, symmetric and transitive
B) neither reflexive, nor irreflexive but transitive
C) irreflexive, symmetric and transitive
D) irreflexive and antisymmetric

8. Consider the following statements:

(i) First-in first-out types of computations are efficiently supported by STACKS
(ii) Implementing LISTS on linked lists is more efficient than implementing LISTS on an array for
almost all the basic LIST operations
(iii) Implementing QUEUES on a circular array is more efficient than implementing QUEUES on a
linear array with two indices
(iv) Last – in – first – out type of computations are efficiently supported by QUEUES
A) (ii) and (iii) are true
B) (i) and (ii) are true
C) (iii) and (iv) are true
D) (ii) and (iv) are true

9. A binary search tree is generated by inserting in order of following integers

50,15,62, 5, 20, 58, 91, 3, 8, 37, 60, 24
The number of nodes in the left subtree and right subtree of the root respectively is
A) (4, 7)
B) (7, 4)
C) (8, 3)
D) (3, 8)

10. A directed graph with n vertices and e edges are represented by Adjacency matrix. What is the time
required to determine the in-degree of a vertex?
A) O(e)
B) O(n)
2
C) O(n )
D) O (e+n)

88
 Sample Questions for

ME Civil Engineering (Construction Technology & Management) Regular Programme

Q.1. Mass moment of inertia of a uniform thin rod of mass M and length (I) about its mid-point and
perpendicular to its length is
2 2 2
(a) 2 MI (b) 1MI (c) 3MI (d) 4MI
3 3 4 3

Q.2. The point of contraflexure is a point where

(a) Shear force changes sign (b) Bending moment changes sign
(c) Shear force is maximum (d) Bending moment is maximum

Q.3. In order to avoid tendency of separation at throat in a venturimeter, the ratio of the diameter at throat to
the diameter of pipe should be
(a) 1 to 8 (b) 1 to 1 (c) 1 to 1 (d) 1 to 1
16 8 8 4 4 3 3 2

Q.4. The main cause of silting in channel is

(a) Non-regime section (b) Inadequate slope
(c) Defective head regulator (d) All of these

Q.5. Weight of a vehicle affects

(a) Passing sight distance (b) Extra widening
(c) Pavement thickness (d) Width of lanes

Q.6. The difference between maximum void ration and minimum void ratio of a sand sample is 0.30. If the
relative density of this sample is 66.6% at a void ration of 0.40 then the void ratio of this sample at its
loosest state will be
(a) 0.40 (b) 0.60 (c) 0.70 (d) 0.75

Q.7. The diagonal tension in concrete can be resisted by providing

(a) Diagonal tension reinforcement (b) Shear reinforcement
(c) Inclined tension reinforcement (d) All these

Q.8. Rivet value is equal to

(a) Strength of a rivet in shearing
(b) Strength of a rivet in bearing
(C) Minimum of the value obtained in (a) and (b)
(d) Maximum of the value obtained in (a) and (b)

Q.9. Rise and fall method is used in

(a) Profile leveling (b) Differential leveling
(c) Check leveling (d) Non of these

Q. 10. The alkaline salt present in the bricks, absorbs moisture from the air which on drying
(a) Leaves pores and makes the bricks porous
(b) Leaves high powder deposit on the brick
(c) Makes the brick brittle and weak
(d) All of these

89
Sample Questions for ME Mechanical Engineering (Manufacturing Technology) Regular Programme

Q.1. An inertial frame of reference has

(a) Fixed origin but directions of axes can change with time
(b) Fixed origin as well as fixed directions of its axes
(c) Fixed directions of axes but origin can change with time
(d) Any of the above

Q.2. Dimensional formula for Young‘s modulus of elasticity is

-1 -2
(a) ML T
-2
(b) MLT
-1 -1 -1
(c) M L T
-2 -2
(d) ML T

Q.3. Which of the following processes would be best suited for stress relieving, improving
machineability and ductility in casting and deep drawn components
(a) Austempering
(b) Tempering
(c) Normalising
(d) Annealing

Q.4. The pressure intensity at a point in a fluid is same in all directions, only when
(a) The fluid is frictionless
(b) The fluid is frictionless and incompressible
(c) The fluid has zero viscosity and is at rest

Q.5. In orthogonal cutting, cutting face is inclined to the direction of cut at

(a) 90 degree
(b) Less than 90 degree
(c) Between 30 and 45 degrees
(d) Greater than 90 degree

Q.6. In statistical quality control + 3 means the percentage of items within acceptable limits will be:
(a) 68.26
(b) 95.46
(c) 99.73
(d) 50

Q.7. In the specification of fits

(a) Allowance is equal to twice the tolerance
(b) Allowance is equal to half of tolerance
(c) Allowance is independent of tolerance
(d) Allowance is equal to the difference between maximum material limit mating parts.

90
 Sample paper M.E. Electrical Engineering (Power System)

Q.1 The maximum efficiency of a half-wave rectifier Q.6 For a two port linear passive bilateral network is
circuit can be (A). AD=BC
(A). 37.2% (B). AD-BC=0
(B). 40.6% (C). AD-BC=1
(C). 53.9% (D). AB-BC=1
(D). 81.2%

Q.2 An overcurrent relay of current 5A and setting Q.7 A distribution station has a peak load of 3000 kW and total
7
150% is connected to the secondary of CT while annual energy of 10 kWh. The peak power loss is 220 kW.
CT ratio is 300:5. The current in the lines for The loss factor is:
which relay picks up is (A). 0.215
(A) 300 A (B). 0.285
(B) 450 A (C). 0.325
(C) 150 A (D). 0.356
(D) 200 A

Q.3 A 100 mA meter has accuracy of ±2%. Its Q.8 The load frequency response in a system
accuracy while reading 50 mA will be (A). Does consider the reactive power flow
(A) ± 1% (B). Does not consider the reactive power flow
(B) ± 2% (C). Does not consider the real power flow
(C) ± 4% (D). Consider Active power
(D) ± 20%

Q.4 A 4-digit DVM(digital voltmeter) with a 100-mV Q.9 For a synchronous phase modifier, the load angle is
0
lowest full scale range would have a sensitivity of (A). 0
0
how much value while resolution of this DVM is (B). 25
0
0.0001 (C ) 30
0
(A). 0.1 mV (D). 50
(B). 0.01 mV
(C). 1.0 mV
(D). 10 mV
Q.5 In a 4-bit weighted resistor D/A converter, the Q.10 A pilot exciter is:
resistor value corresponding to LSB is (A). A level compound small DC generator
32 kΩ .The resistor value corresponding to (B). A small servo type synchronous generator
MSB will be (C). A main synchronous generator
(A). 32Ω (D). A main exciter
(B). 16Ω
(C). 8Ω
(D). 4Ω

91
 M.Tech Material Science (Entrance Test)

 Use of calculator is not allowed

Q1. In a solid lattice the cation has left a lattice site and Q7. Which of the following is an aromatic amino
is located at an interstitial position, the lattice defect acid
is A) Tyrosine
A) Interstitial defect B) Glutamic acid
B) Frenkel Defect C) Arginine
C) Schottky Defect D) Cystenine
D) Valency Defect

Q2. The existence of energy bands in a solid is a Q8. The region between the curve 𝑦 = 𝑥,
consequence of 0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 4, and the x-axis is revolved about the x-
A) Interaction of atoms axis to generate the solid. Find its volume.
B) Interference of electron waves A) 2𝜋 (B) 4 𝜋
C) Random motion of electrons C) 6 𝜋 (D) 8𝜋
D) Effective mass of electron
Q9. Find the flux of 𝐹 = 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑖 + 𝑥𝑗 across the
circle 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 1 in the xy-plane.

Q3. Two sources of light are said to be coherent if waves A) 0

produced by them have the same B) 1
A) Frequency C) 𝜋
B) Amplitude D) (d) –𝜋
C) Amplitude and same wavelength
D) Frequency and constant phase difference Q10. In a skew symmetric matrix A, all diagonal
element are ___________
A) 1
B) 2
C) -1
D) 0
Q4. Beautiful colours of oil films and soapy water are
due to
A) Interference
B) Diffraction
C) Polarisation
D) Compton effect

Q5. Which elements have non bonding electrons

A) Elements with lone pair
B) Electronegative elements
C) Both of them
D) None of them

Q6. Enzyme-substrate kinetics can be studied via

A) Stern Volmer plots
B) DFT calculation
C) Michaelis Menten Kinetics
D) none of the above

92
 Sample Questions for M.E. Biotechnology

1. Which of the following is not measure of central tendency.

a) Mean b) Mode
c) Range d) Median

2.Literature databases include.

a) MEDLINE and PubMED

b) MEDLINE and PDB
c) PubMED and PDB
d) MEDLINE and PDS

3.GenBank,the nucleic acid sequence database is maintained by

a) Brookhaven Laboratory
b) DNA database of Japan
c) European Molecular Biology Laboratory
d) National Centre for Biotechnology Information

4.Which of the following are similar between transcription in prokaryotes and eukaryotes

a) RNA polymerase products in mRNA which grows in 5‘‘ -3‖direction

b) RNA polymerase bind to ribosomes to allow transcription
c) A poly-A tail is added to the 3‖end of mRNAs
d) Introns are present in genes which are spliced out after transcription

5.Mitochondrial DNA is advantageous for evolutionary studies because:

a) It is inserted into the X chromosome

b) It is inherited only through female parent
c) It evolves more slowly than the genes in nucleus
d) It first appeared in humans and is not found in other animals

6.The lac operon in E coli is involved in

a) Regulating the expression of gene

b) Controlling DNA replication
c) Regulating the translation of mRNA
d) Controlling the formation of ribosome

7.Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is used as a cryopreservant for mammalian cell cultures because

a) It is organic solvent
b) It easily penetrates cells
c) It protects cells by preventing crystallization of water
d) It is also utilized as a nutrient

8.The helix content of a protein can be determinded using

a) An infrared spectrometer
b) A fluorescence spectrometer
c) A circular dischroism spectrometer
d) A UV-Visible spectrophotometer

9.Frequency of a gene in a population will increase if the gene is

a) Lethal
b) Dominant
c) Recessive
d) Favorably selected

93
10.Km is the substrate concentration at which

a) The reaction rate is double of the maximum

b) The reaction rate is one half of the maximum
c) The enzyme is completely saturated with substrate
d) The enzymatic reaction stops
11. Which of the following is a sequence alignment tool

a) BLAST
b) PRINT
c) PROSITE
d) PIR

12. Amino acid residue which is most likely to be found in the interior of water-soluble globular proteins is

a) Threonine
b) Aspartic acid
c) Valine
d) Histidine

94
95
96
Sample Questions for M.E. (Mechanical Engineering)
1. Which one of the following is correct? 4. An Orthotropic material under plane stress
In normal shock wave in one dimensional condition will have
flow A) 15 independent elastic constants
A. The entropy remains constant B) 5 independent elastic constants
B. The entropy increases across the C) 6 independent elastic constants
shock
C. The entropy decreases across the 5. When dry bulb and thermodynamic wet
shock bulb temperatures are same
D. The velocity, pressure, and density A) Humidity ratio is 100%
increase across the shock B) Partial pressure of water vapour equal
2. Which of the following are the limitation of total pressure
the powder metallurgy? C) Air is fully saturated
A) High tooling and equipment costs D) Dew point temperature is reached
B) Wastage of material E) All of these
C) It cannot be automated F) None o these
D) Expensive metallic powders 6. In a cooling tower, the minimum
temperature to which water can be cooled
Select the correct answer using the code is equal to the
Code – 1) Only A and B A) Dew point temperature of the air at the
Code – 2) Only B and D inlet
Code – 3) Only A and D B) Dry bulb temperature of the air at the
Code – 4) Only A, B and D inlet
C) Thermodynamic wet bulb temperature
3. Subooling in the condenser of a of the air at the inlet
refrigerator system is advisable when D) Mean of the dew point and dry bulb
A) Expansion system is at a higher temperature of the air at inlet
elevation value is at a higher
B) There is a large pressure drop in the
line connecting condenser to the
expansion valve.
C) The refrigeration effect is to be
increased.
D) The compressor work is to reduced
Code – 1) Only A and B
Code – 2) Only A, C and D
Code – 3) Only B, C and D
Code – 4) A, B and D

Sample Questions for M.Com. ( Business Economics)

4. Accounting is the language of – 6. An agreement enforceable by law is called –
E. Business D) Voidable Contract
F. Books of Accounts E) Void Agreement
G. Accountant F) Legal Agreement
H. None of these G) Valid Contract
5. Which of the following is not included 7. The Sale of Goods Act came into force from
under accounting concepts? –
E) Money Measurement Concept A) July 1, 1932
F) Business Entity Concept B) July 1, 1930
G) Continuity Concept C) July 1, 1935
H) None of these D) July 1, 1940
6. Which expenses is of Capital Nature? 8. The value of the variable which occurs most
E) Depreciation frequently in a distribution is called –
F) Wages A) Mode B) Mean
G) Salary C Median D) All of these
H) Stationary
7. Dividend can be declared from – 9. The arithmetic mean of a series is the
A) Revenue Profit figure obtained by dividing the sum of
B) Capital Profit values all items by
C) Secret Reserve A) 2 B) 3
D) All of these C) 3 D) Their Number
10. Which of the following is Business
8. Privatization is the result of – Averages?
A) Economic Compulsion A) Moving average
B) Social Compulsion B) Progressive average
C) Global Compulsion C) Composite Average
D) Market Compulsion D) All of these
97
 Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business (MEFB)
Part A: Verbal ability/Reasoning Part B: General Knowledge
1. Disease: Health:: Freedom : ? 1. In which organ of the human body
A) Slavery would you find a cluster of cells which
B) Pleasure produce insulin?
C) Plight A) Bile
D) Beauty B) Liver
2. If you are going to west in the afternoon, C) Pancreas
the sun will be visible at your left. D) Brain
A) Never 2. Which area in India is the only
B) Always breeding ground of the flamingo?
C) Sometimes A) Rann of Kutch
D) Often B) North East
3. Fill in the blank with the most suitable C) Himalayas
alternative. He shouted …………. at the D) Bay of Bengal
subordinate. 3. Which was the first Capital of
A) Loud Pakistan?
B) Loudly A) Karachi
C) Loudely B) Lahore
D) Loudingly C) Islamabad
D) Peshawar
4. Which Olympic did Milkha Singh break
the world record in the 400 metres
event.
A) Rome
B) Athens
C) Beijing
D) None of the above
5. Kuchipudi is a dance form of
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Orissa
C) Kerala
D) None of the above

Part C: Data Interpretation

According to the survey of 2000 educated unemployed persons in which 1200 were men and 800 were women,
the following data were collected.
Qualification Unemployed Men Unemployed Women
Doctors 12.5% 15%
Engineers 20.0% 7.5%
Trained Teachers 15.0% 22.5%
Post-Graduates 22.5% 25.0%
Graduates 30.0% 30.0%
1. On the basis of above Table, what is the 2. The value of the variable which occurs
difference between the number of most frequently in a distribution is called
unemployed men and women doctors? A) Mode
A) 20 B) Mean
B) 30 C) Median
C) 40 D) All of these
D) None of the above 3. The arithmetic mean of a series is the
figure obtained by dividing the sum of
2. What is the total number of unemployed values all items by
Graduates? A) 2 B) 3
A) 425 C) 5 D) Their Number
B) 475 4. Which of the following is Business
C) 550 Averages?
D) 600 A) Moving average
Part D: Commerce/ Economics B) Progressive average
1. The sale of goods Act came into force C) Composite Average
from – D) All of these
A) July 1, 1932
B) July 1, 1930
C) July 1, 1935
D) July 1, 1940

98
 Sample Questions for M.Com. (Honours)
1. Which of the following presents key aspects 12. When an oligopolist individually chooses
of the process of accounting in the correct its level of production to maximize its
chronological order? profits, it charges a price that is
A) more than the price charges by either
A) Communicating, recording and monopoly or a competitive market
identifying B) less than the price charges by either
B) Recording, identifying and monopoly or a competitive market
communicating C) more than the price charges by a
C) Recording, totaling and identifying monopoly and less than the price
D) Identifying, recording and charges by a competitive market
communicating D) less than the price charges by a
Which of the following is not a function of monopoly and more than the price
2. controller?
charges by a competitive market
A) Financial reporting 13. Suppose that the government increases
B) Managerial reporting its spending by 10 per cent and also
C) Money management increases taxes by 10 per cent. We would
D) Cost management expect this policy to
Ending finished goods inventory is: A) Essentially have no effect on the
3. level of national income
A) Beginning finished goods inventory + B) Have a contractionary effect on
cost of goods completed – cost of national income
goods sold C) Decrease the marginal propensity to
B) Cost of goods completed – cost of save out of each extra pound of
goods sold income
C) Beginning finished goods inventory + D) Have an expansionary effect on
cost of goods completed national income.
D) Beginning finished goods inventory -
cost of goods completed + cost of 14. The Government of India has decided to
goods sold cover all districts of the country in
Which of the following is also known as an National Rural Employment Guarantee
4. inventoriable cost? Programme (NREGP)
A) Period cost A) up to January 1, 2008
B) Fixed cost B) up to March 31, 2008
C) Product cost C) with effect from April 1, 2008
D) Conversion cost D) with effect from April 1, 2009
A cost management tool that brings in its
5. focus the activities performed to produce a 15. Reserve Bank of India calculates four
product is called components of money supply, M1, M2,
A) target costing M3, M4. Which one of the following
B) life cycle costing statement is not correct?
C) ABC A) M1 = currency with public + demand
D) benchmarking deposits with banks
The first Factories Act was enacted in B) M2 = M1 + post office savings
6. A) 1881 deposit
B) 1895 C) M3 = M1 + M2
C) 1897 D) M4 = M3 + total post office deposits
D) 1885 16. What is meant by the term functional
If the date of incorporation of a company is management?
7. 1/01/2005, the first AGM must be held before A) A system of business organization
A) 30/06/2006 that is based on an individual having
B) 31/03/2006 a wide range of skills needed to
C) 31/12/2005 administer a business
D) 31/03/2005 B) A type of management that is based
The ‗right to information‘ under the RTI Act, more on personality
8. 2005 includes the right to C) A system that groups together
A) Inspect works, documents, records various jobs and is organized by
B) Take notes, extracts or certified departments, sections, or functions
copies of documents or records D) A system that supports a flat form of
C) Obtain information in form of command chain
printouts, diskettes, floppies, tapes 17. Maslow, in his triangle of human needs,
video cassettes or in any other showed that
electronic mode or through printouts A) Having challenging new tasks is a
D) All of the above basic human need
Long term capital asset is an asset (other than B) Money always motivates workers
9. financial securities) which is held by the C) Safety and security is a low order
assessee for more than human need

99
 A) 36 months D) Workers will not give of their best
B) 12 months unless they have good social events
C) 24 months provided by the firm
D) 30 months 18. The purpose of the Malcolm Baldrige
The definition of ‗Goods‘ under the Central National Quality Award is to
10. Sales Tax Act, 1956 does not include A) Stimulate efforts to improve quality
A) Newspapers B) Recognize quality achievements of
B) Standing corps companies
C) Computer software C) Publicize successful quality
D) Animals programs
A rational person does not act unless D) All of the above
11. A) the action is ethical 19. The process of collecting information
B) the action produces marginal costs about the external marketing environment
that exceed marginal benefits is
C) the action produces marginal benefits A) Environmental management
that exceed marginal costs B) Environmental scanning
D) the action makes money for the C) Marketing management
person D) Marketing scanning
20. The correct components of the 7-S
framework are
A) Share values, synergy, systems,
strategy, style, staff and structure
B) Standards, strategy, style, staff skills,
systems and security
C) Structure, strategy, shared values,
style, staff, skills and systems
D) Strategy, synergy, shared value,
standardization, skills staff and
structure

Sample Questions for M.Com (Business Innovations)

Q1) India first took part in the Olympic games in Q7. 48:122::168:? –
the Year A) 292
A) 1920 B) 290
B) 1928 C) 225
C) 1972 D) 215
D) 1974 Q8) AKU:?::CMW:DNX
A) BGL
Q2) Where is the headquarters of the Oil and B) BLQ
Natural Gas Corporation C) BGQ
A) Mumbai D) BLV
B) Dehradun Q9) Flow: River::Stagnant: ?
C) Vadodara A. Pool
D) Digboi B. Rain
Q3) The working languages of the UNESCO is/ C. Stream
are D. Canal
A) English only Q 10) A rectangular floor is fully covered
B) French only with square tiles of identical size.
C) English and French The tiles on the edges are white
D) English, French and Russian and tiles in the interior are red. The
number of white tiles is the same as
Q4) After textiles, India‘s second important the number of red tiles. A possible
industry is: value of the number of tiles along
A) Sugar the edge of the floor is
B) Jute A. 10
C) Cement B. 12
D) Iron and Steel C. 14
Q5) Vedanta group has been denied permission D. 16
to start its activities in Niyamgiri Hills of Orissa.
What activity was it pursuing?
A) Steel Production
B) Bauxite mining
C) Gas exploration
D) Timber cutting
Q6) Botany: Plants::Entomology:? –

100
 A) Birds
B) Plants
C) Insects
D) Snakes

Sample Questions for MBACIT

1 C. V. Raman won the Noble Prize for 7. The value of the variable which occurs
3. Bioscience most frequently in a distribution is
4. Chemistry called –
5. Economics A) Mode
6. Physics B) Mean
C) Median
D) All of these
2 A.P.J. Abdul Kalam‘s autobiography is titled 8. The arithmetic mean of a series is the
A) Ignited minds figure obtained by dividing the sum of
B) The Argumentative Indian values all items by
C) The Alchemist E) 2
D) Wings of Fire F) 3
G) 5
3 SEZ Stands for H) Their Number
A) Special economic zone
B) Suez Canal
C) Select enterprise zone 9. Which of the following is Business
D) Specific elite zone Averages?
A) Moving average
B) Progressive average
C) Composite Average
D) All of these
4 A wheel makes 1000 revolutions in covering a 10. Which type of software is focused on
distance of 88 Km. The diameter of the wheel is: supporting communication,
A) 24 meter collaboration and coordination?
B) 40 meter A) Groupware
C) 28 meter B) CRM software
D) 14 meter C) E-business software
D) SCM software
5 The difference between the ages of two
persons is 10 Years. 15 Years ago, if the elder 11. When discussing email security, what
one was twice as old as the younger one, their is a Trojan Horse?
present ages are A) A code hidden in another useful
A) 35, 25 program, which has a destructive
B) 45, 35 function of some sort
C) 33, 23 B) The barrier or firewall through
D) 30, 20 which all incoming email must
pass.
6 The sale of Goods Act came into force from – C) Small computer program
A) July 1, 1932 snippets that are designed to do
B) July 1, 1930 some harm on their host
C) July 1, 1935 D) A destructive program that can
D) July 1, 1940 spread itself automatically from
one computer to the next within
an email

Sample Questions for M.B.A. for Executives (MBAfEX)

Component 1: General Knowledge

1. In which organ of the human body would you find a cluster of cells which produce insulin?
A) Bile
B) Liver
C) Pancreas
D) Brain

2. Which area in India is the only breeding ground of the flamingo?

A) Rann of Kutch
B) North East
C) Himalayas
101
 D) Bay of Bengal

3. Which was the first Capital of Pakistan?

A) Karachi
B) Lahore
C) Islamabad
D) Peshawar

4. Which Olympic did Mikha Singh break the world record in the 400 meters event?
A) Rome
B) Athens
C) Beijing
D) None of the above

5. Kuchipudi is a dance form of

A) Tamil Nadu
B) Orissa
C) Kerala
D) None of the above

Component II: Economic and Business Environment Awareness

1. A mixed economy is necessarily a ______________ economy.
A) Controlled
B) Planned
C) Organised
D) None of the above

2. Which of the following internal factors influence the strategy and other decisions of the business?
A) Value System
B) Mission and objective
C) Management structure and nature
D) None of the above

3. Environment is synonymous with ______________

A) Task
B) Relations
C) People
D) Situational variables

4. Which is the full form of NTC?

A) National Thermal Corporation
B) National Textile Corporation
C) Non-Textile Corporation
D) None of the above
st
6. In which sector Indian Economy is growing at faster rate in 21 century (after 2000) __________
A) Service
B) Agriculture
C) Manufacturing
D) Public

Component III: Data Interpretation and Problem Solving

According to the survey of 2000 educated unemployed persons in which 1200 were men and 800 were women,
the following data were collected.

Qualification Unemployed Men Unemployed Women

Doctors 12.5% 15%
Engineers 20.0% 7.5%
Trained Teachers 15.0% 22.5%
Post-Graduates 22.5% 25.0%
Graduates 30.0% 30.0%

1. On the basis of above Table, what is the difference between the number of unemployed men and women
doctors?
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
102
 D) None of the above

2. What is the total number of unemployed Graduates?

A) 425
B) 475
C) 550
D) 600

3. What is the total number of Engineers?

A) 300
B) 350
C) 360
D) 400

4. In which category, unemployed men are more in percentage than unemployed women
A) Doctors
B) Engineers
C) Post Graduates
D) Graduates

Component IV: Numerical Ability

1. How many pillars are needed to construct a bridge of 300 meters long, if pillars are at a distance of 12 ½
meters each?
A) 22
B) 24
C) 25
D) None of the above

2. If 5 x 8 = 28, 3 x 7 = 12, 8 x 6 = 35, then find the value of 13 x 13 =?

A) 169
B) 130
C) 140
D) 144

3. The ratio of boys and girls in a is 3:2. 20% of boys and 25% of girls are scholarships holders. The
percentage of students who are scholarship holders are:
A) 45
B) 53
C) 60
D) 22
th th
4. In a class M is 9 from the top, S is 8 from the bottom and R is exactly in between them. If there are three
children between M and R, find out the total students
A) 24
B) 25
C) 23
D) 27

5. 3, 5, 9, 17, 13, _________

A) 44
B) 65
C) 64
D) 49

Component V: Verbal Ability and Reasoning

1. Disease : Health :: Freedom : ?

A) Slavery
B) Pleasure
C) Plight
D) Beauty

2. If you are going to west in the afternoon, the sun will be visible at your left.
A) Never
B) Always
C) Sometimes
D) Often

103
3. Fill in the blank with the most suitable alternative. He shouted ______________ at the subordinate.
A) Loud
B) Loudily
C) Loudely
D) Loudingly

4. J, F, M, A, M, ?
A) M
B) J
C) D
D) S

5. In a military code CAUTION is coded as VACITNO. How will you uncode MISUNDERSTAND?
A) SIMUNEDSRTAND
B) SIMNUEDSRATDN
C) SMIUNDERSTAND
D) None of the above

Component VI: English Comprehension

The most important reason for this state of affairs, perhaps, is that India was the only country in the world to truly
recognize the achievements of the Soviet-Union-rather than merely focus on the de-bilitating faults that
Communism brought to its people. The people of India realized that the achievement of one hundred per cent
literacy in a country much, much larger than its own and with similarly complicated ethnic and religious groupings,
the rapid industrialization of a nation that was a primarily agrarian society when the Bolshevik revolution took
place in 1917; the attendant revolutionary steps in science and technology, the accessibility of health care
(primeval according to Western standards, perhaps, but not according to India ones) to the general population,
and despite prohibition of the government of the time the vast outpourings in literature, music, art, etc., are
momentous and remarkable feats in any country.

In contrast, all that the West focused on were the massive human rights violations by the Soviet State on its
people, the deliberate uprooting, and mass migrations of ethnic peoples from one part of the country to another in
the name of industrialization, the end of religion in short, all the tools of information were employed to condemn
the ideology of Communism, so much at variance with capitalist thinking.

The difference with the Indian perception, I think here is, that while the Indians reacted as negatively to what the
Soviet governments did to its people in the name of good governance (witness the imprisonment of Boris
Pasternak and the formation of an intentional committee to put pressure for his release with Jawaharlal Nehru at
its head), they took the pain not to condemn the people of that broad country in black and white terms; they
understood that mingled in the shades of gray were grains of uniqueness. (The Russians have never failed that
characteristic in themselves; they have twice experimented with completely different ideologies, Communism and
Capitalism both in the space of century).

1. Which of the following statements according to the passage is correct?

(a) India took heed ―On the week faults of Russian policies and system.
(b) India seriously commended the achievement of Russian, i.e. cent per cent literacy and rapid
industrialization.
(c) The process of industrialization had already started when Russian revolution took place in 1917.
(d) The literature, art and music received a setback during the communist regime in Russia.

2. The West did not focus on:

(a) Rapid growth of nuclear weapons in Russia
(b) Massive human rights violation by the Soviet state on its people.
(c) Deliberate uprooting and mass migration of ethnic people in the name of industrialization.
(d) Both (b) and (c)

3. The Indian perception of the USSR was always

(a) Negative
(b) Neutral
(c) Counter – reactionary
(d) Applauding

4. The passage is
(a) Descriptive
(b) Paradoxical
(c) Analytical
(d) Thought provoking

104
 Sample Questions for M.P. Ed.
1. India played hockey for the first time on 6. What is the stick used in snooker called:
Olympic Games in: A) A Cue
A) 1924, Paris (France) B) Heave
B) 1928, Amsterdam C) Paddle
C) 1932, Los Angles (USA) D) Togo
D) 1938, Berlin (Germany) 7. ―Shivanthi Gold Cup‖ is associated with
2. ―A state of complete physical mental and the game of:
social wellbeing and not merely the A) Hockey
absence of disease or infirmity‖. This B) Football
statement which defines health is given C) Volleyball
by: D) Badminton
A) UNESCO B) UNICEF 8. What is the normal life span of RBC‘s?
C) WHO D) Red Cross A) 60 days
B) 90 days
3. Three of the following are alike in a C) 120 days
certain way and so they form a group. D) 150 days
Which is the one does not belong to the
group? 9. Chronological age is calculated with the
A) Basketball help of
B) Volleyball A) Mental qualities
C) Hockey B) X-rays
D) Table Tennis C) Calendar Years
4. The Sacrum consists of: D) Organs and secretions
A) 3 Vertebraes
B) 4 Vertebraes 10. YMCA College of Physical Education
C) 5 Vertebraes (Madras) was established in:
D) 7 Vertebraes A) 1956
B) 1920
5. The chief sources of vitamin A is: C) 1931
A) Banana D) 1932
B) Egg
C) Carrot
D) Guava
Sample Questions for B.P. Ed.
1. The ‗Santosh Trophy‘ tournament first 6. Which one of the following is different
began in: from the rest of the three?
A) 1940 B) 1941 A) Footbal
C) 1942 D) 1945 B) Basketball
2. Who is the first teacher of a child? C) Cricket
A) Teacher D) Tennis
B) His Parents 7. The name of ‗Tiger Woods‘ is
C) His environment associated with:
D) His own conscious mind A) Boxing
3. The first Modern Olympic games were B) B) Tennis
held in the Year: C) Football
A) 1892 D) Golf
B) 1896 8. Thomas Cup‘ is associated with:
C) 1900 A) Badminton (women)
D) 1904 B) Badminton (men)
4. Find the odd personality: C) Table Tennis (women)
A) Baichung Bhutia D) Table Tennis (men)
B) Kapil Dev 9. Most import ant component of level of
C) Pete Sampras living is?
D) Jarnail singh A) Health
B) Occupation
C) Education
5. Which of the following tournaments is not D) Housing
a part of Grand Slam Tennis? 10. Vinay is taller than Manu, but not as tall
A) Australian Open as Yogesh, Karim is taller than Dillip but
B) Wimbledon shorter than Manu, Who is the tallest
C) U.S. Open among them?
D) German Open A) Vinay
B) Yogesh
C) Karim
D) Manu
105
 Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Hons. ) Biochemistry

1. In mammals nor-epinephrine is synthesized 6. The movement of ions through ion

from: channels can be measured with the help
A) Pyruvate of:
B) Arginine A) Extra cellular electrode
C) Catechol B) Intra cellular electrode
D) Tyrosine C) Patch – clamp technique
2. Hyperglycemic agent secreted by the D) Liposome fusion technique
pancreas is: 7. The synthesis of most neuronal proteins
A) Insulin occurs in the:
B) Lipase A) Cell body
C) Glucagon B) Axon
D) FSH C) Synapses
3. Feeding of raw egg may result in the 8. D) Dendrites
deficiency of: Which of the following amino acid does not
A) Vitamin A form peptide bond:
B) Choline A) Cysteine
C) Biotin B) Proline
D) Riboflavin C) Lysine
4. What role RNA plays in the replication of 9. D) Glycine
DNA: Lysozyme is an enzyme which:
A) It acts as template A) Hydrolyses bacterial cell wall
B) It acts as primer B) Is made up of RNA
C) It acts as cofactor C) Contains phospholipids
D) It is essential activator of DNA 10. D) Breaks lipoproteins
polymerase Formation of uric acid from purines is
5. Which of the following is not involved in catalysed by:
antigen – antibody binding: A) Urease
A) Hydrogen bonds B) Uricase
B) Ionic Bonds C) Xanthine oxidase
C) Hydrophobic Interactions D) Adenosine deaminase
D) Disulphide Bonds

106
 Sample Paper of Biophysics
¯ ¯ ¯
1. If A + B = 0 20. Mass spectrometry is an analytical
¯ ¯
A) Vector A and B are technique for the identification of
perpendicular to each other. molecules by way of measuring their:
¯ ¯
B) Vector A and B are necessarily A) mass only B) charge
parallel. only
¯ ¯
C) Vector A and B must be C) mass to charge ratio
antiparallel. B) charge to mass ratio
¯ ¯
D) Vector A and B may be parallel 21. Micro array analysis is used for
or antiparallel. A) quantization of gene expression
2. The minimum charge on a body can be: B) to check the quality of gene
A) one coulomb expression
B) one stat coulomb C) for measuring the copy number
-19
C) 1.6*10 coulomb D) to identity new genes
-19
D) 3.2 x 10 coulomb 22. Component of atom involved in study
3. The potential due to an electric dipole of structure with X-ray crystallography
varies A) Nucleus
A) inversely as the distance B) Electron
B) directly as the distance C) proton
C) inversely as the square of D) Neutrons
distance 23. The radius of an atom is
D) directly as the square of distance approximately
-10
4. Which of these techniques does not give A) 10 m
-12
information about the dimensions of B) 10 m
-13
DNA molecule? C) 10 m
-16
A) Viscosity measurement D) 10 m
B) light scattering 24. Rays similar to x-rays but of smaller
C) flow-birefringence wavelength that are given off by
D) Atomic Absorption spectroscopy radioactive Substances are
5. Fluorescence of a protein can be due to A) alpha rays
A) tryptophan B) beta rays
B) tyrosine C) gamma rays
C) phenylalanine D) cosmic rays
D) all the above 25. Antiparticle of electron is
6. The aromatic amino acids are important A) proton
because: B) Antiproton
A) they are ionized by light of C) Positron
wavelength 280mm. D) Neutron
B) they are actually imino acids that 26. Atomic force microscope was
cannot rotate through the angle phi. invented in which Year:
C) they give proteins their absorbance A) 1972 B) 1986
at 280 nm C) 2001 D) 1980
D) they are source of disulfide bonds 27. Nucleic acid absorption (A260)
within the exported proteins changes in different states. It is
7. The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation maximum when it is:
states that: A) Double stranded
k H
A) P = P + log R B) Single stranded
H
B) P = Pk + log R C) All nucleotides are separated
H
C) P = pk –log R D) Fragmented
k H
D) R =p -p 28. Which out of these is not a connective
8. The proteins that run the fastest in SDS- tissue:
PAGE are A) Cartilage
A) Large B) bone
B) Small C) muscle
C) Negatively charged D) blood
D) Positively charged 29 Which of these is not a characteristic
o
9. The auditions a ≠ b≠ c, α = γ=90 β ≠ of the Cardiac muscle:
90- describe the ……Unit cell A) nonstriated
A) tetragonal B) Presence of intercalated disc
B) orthorhombic C) Involuntary
C) monoclinic D) Presence of actin and myosin
D) trigonal filaments.
10. The electromagnetic radiation with 30. Fertilization occurs in which region of
longest wavelength. is: female reproductive part:
A) Visible Light A) Infundibulum
B) Radiowaves B) ampulla
C) Microwaves C) Isthmus
D) IR 31. D) Uterus
107
11. Of the following which has got the Brunner glands are present in:
highest frequency? A) Colon
A) ultraviolet rays B) jejunum
B) gamma rays C) duodenum
C) radio waves 32. D) ileum
D) infrared waves A rickshaw puller remembers a large
12. The value of atomic mass unit is: number of places and has the ability
-27
A) 1.66 x 10 Kg to find shortcuts and new routes
-28
B) 1.66 x 10 Kg between familiar places. Which region
-29
C) 1.66 x 10 Kg of the brain is responsible for this?
-24
D) 1.66 x 10 Kg A) Pituitary
B) Thalamus
13. The peptide bond in protein is C) Hypothalamus
A) Planar, but rotates to three preferred 33. D) Hippocampus
dihedral angles A Ramachandran plot show:-
B)Nonpolar, but rotates to the three A) The angles that are allowed
preferred dihedral angles between the bonds connecting the
C)Nonpolar, and fixed in a trans amide nitrogen in a peptide bond
conformation B) The sterically limited
D)Planar, and usually found in a trans rotational angles where phi and psii
conformation are allowed in the protein backbone.
C) The amino acid residues that
14. The lactoferrin is produced by: have the greatest degrees of
A) Spermatogonia rotational freedom
B) Reticulocytes D) The sterically allowed
C) Amebocytes rotational angles between the side
D) Neutrophils 34. chain groups in a peptide backbone.
The most sensitive for the lethal
15. During generation of action potential, effects of radiation is
depolarization is due to A) Preimplantation
+
A) k -efflux B) Early organogensis
+
B) Na -efflux C) Late organogensis
+
C) K -influx 35. D) The fetal period
+
D) Na -infflux Which of the following is the primary
factor regulating normal coronary
16. Which of the following wave is likely to blood flow
be absent in ECG A) Aortic diastolic pressure
A) P B) Coronary perfusion pressure
B) T C) Systolic wall pressure
C) Q 36. D) Myocardial oxygen consumption
D) R The term satellite DNA refers to
A) extrachromosomal DNA
17. Indirect immnuofluorescene involves fragments that are found closed to
fluorescently labeled (orbiting) the full length chromosomes
A) Immunoglobulin-specific B) Mitochondrial DNA, which is
antibodies circular in nature
B) Antigen-specific antibodies C) Long tandem repeats of simple
C) Hapten – specific antibodies DNA sequences
D) Carrier – specific antibodies D) Mobile DNA elements such as
18. Prostaglandins are transposons and insertion
A) C20 unsaturated fatty acids 37. sequences
B) C27 saturated alcohols The number of atoms in a crystal
C) C20 saturated fatty acids which surrounded a particular atom as
D) C27 unsaturated alcohols its nearest neighbours is called
A) Charge number
19. Apart from the proton which other nuclei B) Atomic packing factor
of the following is used for NMR. C) Coordination number
13
A) C 38. D) Lattice
12
B) C EPR spectrum is due to
16
C) O A) Change in mass state of an
32
D) P electron
B) Change in L-K transition of an
electron
C) Change in spin state of an
electron
D) Change in both L-K transition
and mass of an electron

108
 Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Hons. ) Mathematics
Let G be a group of order 147. For any a  G ,
a  e , the number of solutions of x 2  a is 6. The integrating factor of the
differential y is
A) 49  2 xy  4 x 3
B) one x
C) three given by
D) zero (A) e y 2
2
(B) e x
In the ring Z i  , where Z is the ring of integers, the (C) e x
element 1  i D) e y
A) is both irreducible as well as prime 7. If  ( x1 y1 z1  3x 2 y  y 3 z 2 , then
B) is neither irreducible nor prime
C) is irreducible but not prime  at the point (1,2,1) is
D) is prime but not irreducible (A)   
 12 i  9 j  16 k
  

The equation of the tangent to the curve (B) 12 i  9 j  16 k

f ( x, y) =0   

at any point (a, b) is given by (C)  12 i  9 j  16 k

  
(D)  12 i  9 j  16 k
A) f f
( x  a) ( a, b)  ( y  b) ( a, b)  0
y x 8. If one root of the equation
B) f f
( x  a) ( a, b)  ( y  b ) ( a, b)  0 x 3  13x 2  15x  189  0
y x
exceeds the other by 2, then all the
C) f f 6
( y  b) ( a, b)  ( x  a ) ( a, b)  0 roots are
y x (A) 7, 9 and 3
(D) f f (B) -7, -9 and -3
( x  a) ( a, b)  ( y  b ) ( a, b)  0
x y (C) 7, 9 and –3
Two spheres (D) -7, -9 and 3
9.
Two forces 13 kg.wt. and 3 3 kg.wt.
 2u1 x  2v1 y  2w1 z  d1  0
2
x2  y2  z
x 2  y 2  z 2  2u 2 x  2v 2 y  2w2 z  d 2  0 act on a particle at an angle 
and equal to a resultant force of 14
cut each other orthogonally if kg.wt., then the angle between the
(A) 2u1u 2  2v1v2  2w1 w2  d1  d 2 forces is
0
(A) 45
(B) u1u 2  v1v2  w1 w2  0 (B) 30
0

u1 v w d 0
(C)  1  1  1 (C) 60
0
u2 v2 w2 d2 (D) 90
(D) 2(u1  u 2 )  2(v1  v2 )  2(w1  w2 )  (d1  d 2 ) 10.
Let W1 and W2 be subspaces of
The series 1 is dimensions 5 and 4 respectively of a
 n(log n) p vector space V of dimension 6.
(A) convergent if p  0 Then dim (W1  W2 ) is
(B) convergent if p  1 (A) Zero
(C) divergent if p  1 (B) one
(C) at most two
(D) convergent if 0  p  1 (D) at least three

109
 Sample Questions for M.Sc. 2-Year Course Bioinformatics/ System Biology and
Bioinformatics

1. Which are the repositories for raw 6. Which of the following sequence is
sequence data correct:
A) Gen Bank A) DNA, RNA, Protein
B) EMBL B) DNA, Protein, RNA
C) DDBJ C) RNA, DNA, Protein
D) GGPP D) Protein, DNA, RNA
7. Which is not the method of protein/DNA
2. Which of the following annotation is not sequence alignment
provided by SWISS-PROT A) Matrix
A) Protein function B) Brute force
B) Domain structure C) Dynamic programming
C) Post translation modification D) Heuristic methods
D) Crystal formations 8. The method not used in NSA
programming is
3. Which is the most important computer A) Sum of pairs methods
language used in Bioinformatics B) Spare alignment
A) Pascal C) Two step method
B) Perl D) Fitch/Margoliosh method
C) Java 9. Distance matrix method are used for
D) C++ A) Carbohydrate structure prediction
B) Proteins structure prediction
4. Which type of analysis cannot be C) Phylogenetic analysis
performed on raw DNA sequence using D) Primer design
Bioinformatics tools 10. FASTA-BLAST, WU-BLAST are
A) Identifying coding regions programmes used for determining
B) Identification of introns and exons A) Sequence similarity of Protein only
C) Gene product prediction B) Sequence similarity of DNA only
D) Identifying cis and trans regions C) Sequence similarity of Carbohydrate
only
5. OMIM is engaged in study of D) Sequence similarity of Protein and
A) Human molecular Biology DNA
B) Plant molecular biology
C) Bacterial molecular biology
D) Yeast Molecular biology

Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Environment)

1. A thin copper wire of length one metre 10. Which of the following is a deadly nerve
increases in length by 4% when heated by gas developed during the second world
o
10 C. What will be the per cent increase in war?
area when a square copper sheet of side one A) Nitric oxide
o
metre is heated by 10 C? B) Phosgene
A) 4% C) Sarine
B) 8% D) Dioxin
C) 16% 11. The natural rubber obtained from trees
D) 24% is made of:
2. If the unit of length and force are increased A) Isoprene units
by 4 times, the unit of energy gets increased B) Vinyl chloride
by how many times? C) Acetylene
A) 4 times D) Neoprene
B) 8 times 12. Which of the following is differentially
C) 16 times permeable?
D) does not change A) Cell wall
3. The scientific principle involved in radio and B) Tonoplast
television is: C) Nuclear membrane
A) Superconductivity D) Cytoplasm
B) Semiconductiography 13. Which of the following prevents leaf
C) Propagation of e.m. waves shedding in plant?
D) Electromagnetic induction A) Auxins
4. A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin. B) Gibberellins
If it falls behind him, the train must be moving C) Cytokinins
with D) Abscisic acid
A) An acceleration 14. Sugar in chloroplast is synthesized in:
B) A deceleration A) Quantasomes
C) Uniform speed B) Stroma
D) It can never happen C) Thylakoids
D) Matrix
15. The structure of protoplasm is:
110
5. Zero error of an instrument introduces: A) Granular
A) Systematic error B) Fibrillar
B) Random error C) Reticular
C) Per cent error D) Colloidal Matrix
D) Means no error 16. Which of the following could be ‗cancer‘
6. The Science of surveying and mapping the of the lymph nodes and spleen?
earth‘s surface is known as: A) Carcinoma
A) Cartography B) Sarcoma
B) Geodesy C) Leukemia
C) Topography D) Lymphoma
D) Scienodsy 17. The major component of Bacterial cell
wall is
7. The gravitational force with which a body is
A) Xylan
attracted towards the earth is
B) Chitin
A) Maximum at the equator and minimum
C) Peptidoglycan
at the poles
D) Cellulose
B) Minimum at the equator and maximum
at the poles 18. How many bones does the Cranium of
C) The same at the equator and the poles man have?
D) Depends on the altitude at the given A) 8 B) 12
point C) 16 D) 20
8. Which of the following is used as an 19. When is the world Population day
antiseptic? celebrated?
A) Iodine A) August 3
B) Bromine B) April 16
C) Chlorine C) October 18
D) Fluorine
9. Washing soaps produces a scum with hard D) July 11
water and not much of foam, because the 20. In a Nuclear Reactor the heavy water is
hard water contains: used to :
A) Many suspended particles A) cool the neutrons
B) Many dissolved inorganic salts B) slow down the neutrons
C) Chalk and sulphur C) absorb the neutrons
D) Dissolved organic matter D) control the number of neutrons

Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Human Genomics)

1. Which one of the following is an essential 5. Signaling between cells usually results
component of DNA? in the activation of protein
A) Protein A) lipase
B) Carbohydrate B) kinases
C) Lipids C) proteases
D) Vitamins D) nuclease

2. Three types of RNA involved in comprising 6. Highly repetitive DNA has

the structural and functional core for protein A) a very short repeating sequence
synthesis, serving as a template for and no coding function
translation, and transporting amino acid, B) a moderate repeating sequence
respectively, are: and a coding for house keeping
A) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA gene
B) rRNA, tRNA, mRNA C) a simple repeat sequence and
C) tRNA, mRNA, rRNA no coding function
D) rRNA, mRNA ,tRNA D) None of the above
3. A synthetic mRNA of repeating sequence 5'- 7. From which grandparent or
CACACACACACACACAC... is used for a grandparents did you inherit your
cell-free protein synthesizing system like the mitochondria? Is it your:
one used by Nuremberg. If we assume that A) mother's parents
protein synthesis can begin without the need B) paternal grandfather
for an initiator codon, what product or C) grand mothers
products would you expect to occur after D) maternal grandmother
protein synthesis. 8. What are the possible blood types of
A) One protein consisting of a single the offspring of a cross between
amino acid individuals that are type AB and
B) Three proteins , each consisting of a type O? (Hint: blood type O is
different , single amino acid recessive)
C) One protein, with an alternating A) AB or O
sequence of two different amino acids B) A, B, or O
D) Two proteins, each with an alternating C) A or B

111
 sequence of two different amino acids. D) A, B, AB, or O
9. A woman with an X-linked dominant
4. A replicon is: disorder mates with a phenotypically
A) an enzyme complex that replicates normal male. On average, what
DNA proportion of this couple's daughters
B) the amount of time required to duplicate will be affected with the disorder?
a genome A) 0.5
C) larger in complex eukaryotes and B) 1.0
smaller in bacteria C) 0.75
D) the DNA sequences that specify and D) 0.25
are replicated by a single replication
initiation event 10. A messenger acid is 336 nucleotides
long, including the initiator and
termination codons. The number of
amino acids in the protein translated
from this mRNA is:
A) 999
B) 630
C) 330
D) 111

112
 Sample Questions for M.Sc. in Nuclear Medicine

1. We can‘t produce colors with white light 6. Macrophage – like cells in the
through: connective tissue are
A) Interference A) Osteoclasts
B) Polarization B) Mesanglial cells
C) Diffraction C) Histiocytes
D) Dispersion D) Microglial cells
2. Methods of Fourier Transformation are 7. Zinc finger proteins and helix-turn-helix
applied in proteins are:
A) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance A) Types of DNA-binding proteins
B) X-ray crystallography B) Involved in the control of translation
C) Medical Imaging C) Components of ribosomes
D) All of the above D) Part of the hemoglobin in blood
3. Which one of the following is correctly cells
matched? 8. Transcription of DNA into mRNA is
A) Chloroplast – storage of enzymes catalyzed by
B) Lysosome – powerhouse of cell A) DNA polymerase
C) Nucleolus – stie of ribosomal B) RNA synthetase
synthesis C) RNA polymerase
D) Glyoxysome – structural support of D) Rnase
cell 9. Which nitrogenous bases is NOT found
4. Which amino acid can stabilize protein in DNA?
structure by forming covalent cross links A) Thymine
between polypeptide chins? B) Uracil
A) Ser C) Adenine
B) Gly D) gunanine
C) Glu 10. How would the complementary strand of
D) Cys DNA appear if the original strand of DNA
5. In CT imaging the phenomenon used is contained the bases T-A-G-C in the
A) Radiation absorption order?
B) Radiation damage A) U-A-C-G
C) Free radical formation B) G-C-A-T
D) Radiation fluorescence C) T-A-C-G
D) A-T-C-G

Sample Questions for M.Sc. in Forensic Science & Criminology

Section A: General Science Section B: Any two of the four sub-

(Compulsory) sections
1. Which acid is produced when milk gets Biology
sour? 1. The most abundant protein on
A) Tartaric Acid earth is
B) Butyric Acid A) Keratin
C) Lactic Acid B) Rubisco
D) Acetic Acid C) RuBP
D) Fibrinogen
2. The bond which is present between 2. Type of mimicry in which both the
water molecules is: minic and model are harmful
A) Electrovalent bond (unpalatable) to the predator
B) Covalent bond B) Batesian mimicry
C) Hydrogen bond C) Mullerian mimicry
D) Vander Waalls bond D) Warning mimicry
E) Concealing mimicry
3. The number of Chromosomes pairs in Chemistry
Human body are : 1. The correct decreasing order of the
A) 23 boiling points is
B) 42 A) NH3>H2O> HF
C) 46 B) H2O> HF>NH3
D) None of above C) NH3> HF > H2O
D) HF>H2O>NH3
4) The mass of the body at the centre of 2. The element that shows both +3 and
earth is +4 oxidation is
A) Less than at the surface A) Cerium
B) Remains constant B) Promethium
C) More than the surface C) Gadolinium
D) Zero D) Holmium

113
 Forensic Science Physics
1. Who suggested the practical method of 1. Where can Maxwell‘s equation be
finger-printing and their classification derived
A) Francis Galton A) Gauss‘s las
B) Henry Faulds B) Gauss‘s magnetic law
C) Albert Osborn C) Faraday law
D) Calvin Goddard D) All the above

2. Study of the motion of a projectile from 2. A particle executive a vibratory motion

the muzzle of the weapon to the target is passing through mean point has
A) External Ballistics A) Maximum potential energy and
B) Terminal Ballistics minimum kinetic energy
C) Internal Ballistics B) Maximum kinetic energy and
D) None of the above minimum potential energy
C) Kinetic energy and potential energy
both maximum
D) Kinetic energy and potential energy
both minimum

Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Hons. School) Geology

1.A Sandstonde containing of at least 25% 4. Mica Plate gives the retardation of:
Feldspar is : A) 1 Lameda
A) Orthoquarzite B) ½ Lameda
B) Arkose C) ¼ Lameda
C) Graywacke D) Variable retardation
D) Sublithic Wacke
5. Which of the following mineral is
2. An intergrowth texture in which Aluminosilicate:
plagioclase contains inclusion of potash A) Quartz
feldspar is known as : B) Garnet
A) Perthite C) Biotite
B) Antiperthite D) Sillimanite, Robins, Crows
C) Graphic
D) Seriate

3. Which of the following rock is not of

metamorphic origin:
A) Slate
B) Phyllite
C) Schist
D) Shale

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 Sample Question for M.Sc. (2-Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology

1. Which group among the following is the 6. 6 Autoclaving may not be able to
biggest contributor to the total carbon destroy the pathogens belonging to
fixed by organisms category of
A. Terrestrial Plants A. Prions
B. Cyanobacteria B. Virophages
C. Green Algae C. Bacteriophages
D. Large Brown Algae D. All the above
2. Which genetic process is not going to 7. Triple-stranded DNA model was
be observed if extracellular nucleases proposed by
are present in the immediate A. Linus Pauling
surrounding environment of a bacteria B. James Watson
A. Transduction C. James Watson and Francis
B. Transformation Crick
C. Conjugation D. Rosalind Franklin
D. All the above 8. Which of the following class of
3. Agarose is ---------------- and primarily antibodies do not have a Hinge
obtained from----------------- region
A. Polysaccharide ; Saccharomyces A. IgG, IgD and IgA
pombae B. IgA and IgD
B. Polysaccharide ; Gelidium sp. and C. IgM and IgA
Gracilaria sp. D. igM and IgE
C. Protein ; Spirulina sp. 9. Which of the microbe is involved in
D. DNA and Polysaccharide mixture; the production of tempeh, a
Algae fermented soyabean product?
4. To ensure the proper autoclaving A. Rhizopus sp.
procedure in biological laboratories B. Aspergillus sp.
which of the following microbes is used C. Saccharomyces pombae
as a indicator organism D. Enterococcus sp.
A. Bacillus subtilis 10. Which amino acid among the
B. Rhodococcus radiolarians following absorbs maximum UV
C. Geobacillus stearothermophilus or light at 280nm wavelength
Bacillus stearothermophilus A. Tryptophan
D. Deinococcus radiodurans B. Tyrosine
5. Cloning vectors generally do not have C. Phenylalanine
A. Promoter operator element for the D. Asparagine
expression of cloned genes
B. Multiple cloning site
C. Selection marker
D. Ribosome binding site

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 Sample Questions for M.Sc. in Biotechnology

1. Correct sequence of stages in cell cycle is 7. The smallest unit of DNA capable
A) G1, S, G2, M of coding for the synthesis of a
B) S, G2, M, G1 polypeptide is the
C) G1, G2, M, S A) Operon
D) G1, G2, S, M B) cistron
C) promoter
2. Which of the following does not contain both D) replicon
DNA and RNA?
8. Exonuclease is an enzyme, which
A) Yeast cleaves DNA from
B) Bacteria A) 3‘ end
C) Mycoplasma B) 5‘ end
D) Virus C) both 3‘ and 5‘ end
D) internal bonds in DNA
1. 3. Which of the following is not an antibacterial 9. Which of the following is not part of
antibiotic the lac operon of E. coli?
A) Tetracyclin A) genes for inducible enzymes of
B) Ampicillin lactose metabolism
C) Nystatin B) genes for the repressor, a
D) Nalidixic acid regulatory protein
C) gene for RNA polymerase
2. The development of egg without fertilization is D) a promoter, the RNA
called polymerase binding site
A) Blastgenesis
B) Parthenogenesis 10. Which of the following primers
C) Cogenesis would allow copying of the single-
D) Gametogenesis stranded DNA sequence
E) 5' ATGCCTAGGTC?
3. TATA box and Pribnow box are components of A) 5‘ ATGCC,
A) Operators B) 5‘ TACGG
B) Promoters C) 5‘ CTGGA
C) Enhancers D) 5‘ GACCT
D) Activators

4. Peptide chain elongation involves all the

following except
A) peptidyl transferas
B) GTP
C) Tu, Ts and G factors
D) Formyl tRNA

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 Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Hons. ) Botany
1. In C4 plants the first CO2 acceptor is :
A) Ribulose – 1,5-bisphosphate 7. Most bryophytes are autotrophic but a
B) Phosphenol pyruvate few are more or less saprophytic. Which
C) Pyruvate of the following is totally devoid of
D) Ribulose-5-phosphate chlorophyll and depends upon a
2. In majority of angiosperms, the female mycorrhizal association for its growth
gametophyte at the time of fertilization is : and development?
A) 8-celled A) Cyptothallus mirabilis
B) 7-celled B) Funaria hygromitrica
C) 6-celled C) Concephalum conium
D) 4-celled D) Pellia epiphylla
3. Agar-agar is extracted from which of the 8. Somaclonal variations are:
following genera A) Variations produced during tissue
A) Gracilaria culture
B) Dictyota B) Variations produced during sexual
C) Ectocarpus reproduction
D) Laminaria C) Variations caused by mutagenic
4. Black rust of wheat is caused by : chemicals
A) Ustilago tritici D) Variations caused by Gamma rays
B) Puccinia graminis tritici
C) Protomyces macrosporus
D) Albugo candida
5. Oomycota is a phylum in kingdom: 9. Trisomic condition is expressed as
A) Fungi A) 2n-1
B) Chromista B) 2n-2
C) Protozoa C) 2n+1
D) Mycota D) 2n+2
6. Cystidium is a
A) Sterile element occurring in the 10. The functional unit in ecology is the:
hymenium of certain Basidiomycetes A) Organism
B) Reproductive organ of a green alga B) Biosphere
C) Fertile part of lichen thallus C) Ecosystem
D) Asexual spore D) Population

Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Hons. ) 2-Year Course Chemistry

1. Anti-Markonikoff cis-hydration of an alkene can be 6. 1g ice absorbs 335 J of heat to melt at 0 °C. The
achieved by using entropy change will be
-1 -1
A) Catalytic hydrogenation A) 1.2 JK mol
-1 -1
B) Li / liq. NH3 reduction B) 335 JK mol
-1 -1
C) Alkaline KMnO4 solution C) 22.1 JK mol
-1 -1
D) Hydroboration-oxidation D) 0.8 JK mol
2. Beckmann rearrangement converts an oxime into 7. Two moles of HI were heated in a sealed tube at
A) an amine 440 °C till the equilibrium was reached. HI was
B) carbamate found to be 22 % dissociated. The equilibrium
C) a substituted hydrazine constant for dissociation is
D) an amide B) 0.282 B) 0.0796
C) 0.0199 D) 1.99

3. The configuration of the following stereoisomer 8. During biological nitrogen fixation, nitrifying
CH3 bacteria convert
H Cl A) NO3 to NH4
Cl H B) N2 to NH4
C) NH4to NO3
CH2CH3 D)
NO3 to N2
9. Which of the following state is stablest for p 2
A) 2R, 3R
configuration?
B) 2S, 3R 1
A) D2
C) 2R, 3S 3
B) P2
D) 2S, 3S 1
C) S0
3
4. Which of the following is expected to have least D) P0
paramagnetic character?
3+
A) [Co(NH3)6]
10. Which of the following has lowest CO stretching
3+
B) [Fe(H2O)6] frequency?
A) Ni(CO)4
117
 3-
C) [Cr(CN)6] B) Cr(CO)6
3- 2-
D) [CoF6] C) [Fe(CO)4]
+
5. The freezing point of 0.1M solution of glucose is - D) [Mn(CO)6]
1.86 °C. If an equal volume of 0.3 M glucose is
added, the freezing point of the mixture will be
A) –7.44 °C
B) –5.58°C
C) –3.27 °C
D) –2.79 °C

Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Hons. ) Physics/ Physics & Electronics/ Medical Physics

1. Two electrons move in opposite directions 6. When the gate voltage becomes more
at 0.70 c as measured in the laboratory. negative in n-channel JFET, the
The speed of one electron as measured channel between depletion layers:
from the other is:- A) Shrinks
A) 0.35c B) Expands
B) 0.70c C) Conducts
C) 0.94c D) Stops conducting
D) 1.00 c

2. Which one of the following transformations 7. Space quantization means that:

is second order phase transition? A) A) Space is quantized
A) Ferromagnetic state to the B) B) L and U are in the same direction.
paramagnetic state C) C) Lz can have discrete values.
B) Melting of ice D) D) An electron has magnetic dipole
C) Evaporation of materials moment.
D) Solidification of materials. E)
3 For which one of the following signal we 8. The electron density of states for a
requie an amplifier with minimum metal depends primarily on:
bandwidth: A) The temperature
A) Sine wave B) The energy associated with the
B) Square wave state
C) Triangular wave C) The size of the sample.
D) Saw tooth wave D) The mass of the sample.

4. Two of maxwell‘s equations contain an

integral over a closed surface. For them 9. Some alpha emitters have longer half-
the infinitesimal vector area dA is always: lives than others because:
A) Tangent to the surface A) Their alpha particles have greater
B) Tangent to the field line mass.
C) Perpendicular to the surface and B) Their alpha particles have less
pointing inward. mass
D) Perpendicular to the surface and C) Their potential barriers to decay
pointing outward. are higher and wider
5. For the domestic ac supply of 220V, the D) Their decays include the emission
breakdown voltage of a diode should be: of photons.
A) 130V 10. In an alpha decay the disintegration
B) 163V energy appears mainly as
C) 220V A) Photon energies
D) 330V B) The kinetic energies of the alpha
and
6. the daughter nucleus
C) The excitation energy of the
daughter nucleus
1. D) heat

118
 Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Hons. / 2-Year Course) Zoology

1. Which of the following types of DNA 6. Which of the following genus is the
replication or repair systems is blood fluke of man and other animals?
dysfuncational in individuals with A) Schistosoma
Xeroderma pigmentosum? B) Ophisthorchis (Clonorchis)
A) Mismatch repair C) Paragonimus
B) Base excision repair D) Diplozoom
C) Nucleotide excision repair
D) DNA helicase 7. Populations that are morphologicaly
similar but do not interbreed for
2 The part of the embryo from which physciological or behavioural reasons
ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm are are grouped as
formed in chick is known as A) Races
A) Primitive streak B) Varieties
B) Hypoblast C) Sub-species
C) Cytotrophoblast D) Sibling species
D) Epiblast
8. The cranial capacity of which
3. N- linked obligosaccharides on secreted prehistoric human was almost the
glycoproteins are attached to same as that of the modern man?
A) Nirtogen atoms in the A) Neanderthal man
polypeptide backbone B) Peking man
B) The serine or threonine in the C) Java ape man
sequence Asn-X-Ser/Thr D) Australophithecus man
C) The amino terminus of the
protein 9. An example of competitive inhibition of
D) The asparagines in the sequence an enzyme is the inhibition of
Asn-X-Ser/Thr A) Succinic dehydrogenase by
4. Which of the following in star fish can turn malonic acid
inside out? B) Cytochrome oxidase by
A) Madreporite cyanide
B) Stone canal C) Hexokinase by glucose 6
C) Tube feet phosphate
D) Cardiac stomach D) Carbonic anhydrase by
carbon dioxide
5. Antennae in hymenoptera, dipteral and
odonata are The isoelectric point of a protein is
10.
A) Short & filiform, aristate, defined as
geniculate respectively A) The pH at which the net
B) Short & filiform, geniculate, charge on the molecule is
aristate respectively zero
C) Geniculate, aristate, short & B) The pH at which all groups are
filiform respectively protonated
D) Aristate, geniculate, short & C) The pH at which all groups are
filiform respectively unprotonated
D) The pH at which each acidic
groups is protonated and each
basic groups is unprotonated.

119
 Important Dates and Information for Entrance Test PU-CET (P.G.) – 2018

1. Date of Availability of PU–CET (P.G.) Prospectus and Online Entrance Test 19-04-2018 (Thursday)
Form at http://cetpg.puchd.ac.in
2. Last date for submission of information on the website to generate the Bank 19-05-2018 (Saturday)
Challan
3. Last date for deposit of fee in any branch of State Bank of India using website 21-05-2018 (Monday) upto 4:00 p.m.
generated Challan
4. Last date for uploading of photograph, signature with rest of the information on 23-05-2018 (Wednesday)
the website
5. No correction will be entertained / made regarding photograph, signature and 25-05-2018 (Friday)
any other information after 25-05-2018, 5:00 p.m.
6. Availability of Admit Card Online 01-06-2018 (Friday)
Admit Card along with Time & Centre of Examination is to be downloaded
from the website by the candidate using his/her own Login ID and Password
provided while generating Bank Challan. The candidates will be
communicated through email only for this purpose.
7. Dates of holding Entrance Test 10-06-2018 to 11-06-2018
(Sunday & Monday)
8. Centre for Entrance Test Chandigarh, Ludhiana, Muktsar,
Hoshiarpur.
9. Uploading of Answer Key (at http://exams.puchd.ac.in/show-noticeboard.php) 18-06-2018 (Monday)
and inviting Objections (through e-mail only to arcet@pu.ac.in )
10. Last date of submission of objections to the Answer Key 20-06-2018 (Wednesday)
11. Uploading of the response to the Objections and inviting Cross-objections 23-06-2018 (Saturday)
(through e-mail only)
12. Last day of submission of Cross-objections to the Answer key 25-06-2018 (Monday)
13. Date of declaration of result 29-06-2018 (Friday)
st
14. Date of availability of online Admission Form for the courses offered by 1 week of June 2018
University Departments/Centres at http://onlineadmissions.puchd.ac.in

For Enquiries about Test contact (From 10:00 a.m to 04:00 p.m.)

1. Assistant Registrar (C.E.T.) 0172- 2534829, 9855018541

2. Manorma Chauhan, Dealing Official 9872305760
3. Controller of Examinations 0172- 2534811, 2541825
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Note: Applying for Entrance Test and taking the Test do not entitle a candidate
for admission. For admission to PU-CETPG based programmes being offered by
various Department/Centre/Institute at Panjab University only, online Admission
Form will have to be submitted by the Candidate separately. Online Admission
Form will be available from 1st week of June 2018. The candidates are required to
fill up and submit online Admission Form at http://onlineadmissions.puchd.ac.in
before the last date of submission of online Admission Form even if the result of
Entrance Test has not been declared by then.

120
 DATE SHEET PU-CET (P.G.) 2018
Date and Day of Test Course Time of Examination
10.06.2018 (Sunday) M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.Sc. (Hons.) Computer Science 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.Sc. (2 Yr. Course) Nuclear Medicine 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.E. (Computer Science & Engg.) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.E. Civil Engg. (Construction Tech. & Mgt.) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.E. (Chemical) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.P.Ed. 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
Masters in History 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.Sc. (Hons.) Geology 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
Masters in Disaster Management 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
MBA for Executive (MBAfEX) 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
M.Sc. (2 Yr Course) Human Genomics 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
M.Tech. (Material Sciences & Technology) 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
M.Sc. (Hons.) Biochemistry 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
M.Sc. (2 Yr. Course) Environment Science 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
M.A. in Remote Sensing & GIS 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
M.Sc. (Hons.) Biophysics 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
M.Com. (Business Innovation) 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
M.E. Electrical Engg. (Power System) 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
M.Sc. Forensic Science (2 Yr. Course) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
M.A. in English 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
M.E. (Food Technology) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
M.E. (Biotechnology) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
M.Tech. (Microelectronics) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
11-06-2018 (Monday) LL.M. 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.Sc. (Chemistry) (Hons./ 2 Yr. Course) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m
M.Com. (Hons.) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.Sc. (2 Yr. Course) Microbial Biotechnology 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engg.) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.A. Journalism and Mass Communication 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.Sc. (Hons.) Physics/ Physics & Electronics; M.Sc. (2 Yr. 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
Course) Medical Physics
M.Sc. (Hons. / 2 Yr. Course) Botany 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
MBACIT 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
M.E. Mechanical Engg. (Manufacturing Technology) 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
M.Tech. (Polymer) 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
Masters in Public Health 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
M.C.A. 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
M.Sc. (Hons. / 2 Yr. Course) Zoology 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
M.E. Electrical Engg. (Instrumentation & Control) 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
B.P.Ed. 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
M.Com. (Business Economics) 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
M.Sc. (System Biology and Bioinformatics) / M.Sc. 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
(Bioinformatics) (2 Yr. Course)
M.Sc. (Hons. ) Mathematics 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
M.A. (Geography) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
M.Sc. (Hons. / 2 Yr. Course) Biotechnology 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
M.E.F.B. 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
M.E. (Chemical with specialisation in Environmental Engg.) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
M.E. (Mechanical Engineering) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
Chandigarh
Centres for Ludhiana
Examination Muktsar
Hoshiarpur.

NOTE: Candidates desirous to appear in more than one of the above papers, must ensure that there is
no clash of timings in those papers.

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