2013 IBPS Clerk

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 Computer Knowledge
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 1

The computer monitor is which type of device?

A    Input

B    Output

C    Software

D    (1) and (2)

E    None of these

Answer: B

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Question 2

Which is not an item of hardware?

A    An MP3 file

B    A keyboard

C    A mouse

D    (A) and (B)

E    None of these

Answer: A

Question 3

A directory within a directory is called………………………..

A    mini directory

B    junior directory

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C    sub directory

D    part directory

E    None of these

Answer: C

Question 4

When you cut or copy information it gets place in the……………..

A    clipart

B    clipboard

C    motherboard

D    (A) and (B)

E    None of these

Answer: A

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Question 5

The name of the location of a particular piece of data is its ………………..

A    address

B    memory name

C    data location

D    storage site

E    None of these

Answer: C

Question 6

Soft copy refers to ………

A    printed output

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B    digitizing

C    music sounds

D    screen output

E    None of these

Answer: D

Question 7

www stands for ………. .

A    World Work Web

B    Wide Work Web

C    World Web

D    World Wide Web

E    None of these

Answer: D

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Question 8

A field is a related group of ……. .

A    cables

B    records

C    files

D    characters

E    None of these

Answer: C

Question 9

To find the paste options, or use the clipboard group on the ………… tab of Power Point.

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A    design

B     slide show

C    page layout

D    insert

E    None of these

Answer: B

Question 10

A (n)...... programe is one that is ready to run and does not need to be altered in any way.

A    interpreter

B    high level

C    compiler

D    COBOL

E    executable

Answer: A

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Question 11

A programe, either talk numeric that is made available in digital format for automatic download over the
internet is called……..

A    vodcast

B    blog

C    prodcast

D    wiki

E    broadcast

Answer: C

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Question 12

A USB communication device that supports duty encryption for scare wireless loss communication for
notebook users is called ……

A    wireless switch

B    router

C    wireless hub

D    USB wireless is not work adaptor

E    None of these

Answer: B

Question 13

When entering text within a document, the Enter key is normally prossed at the end of every …. .

A    line

B    sentence

C    paragraph

D    word

E    file

Answer: A

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Question 14

In power point, the header and footer button can be found on the insert tab in what group?

A    Application suit

B    Interface

C    Compiler

D    Input/output system

E    Operating System (OS)

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 Answer: D

Question 15

Which of these is a point and draw device?

A    Mouse

B    Scanner

C    Printer

D    CD-ROM

E    Keyboard

Answer: A

Question 16

Which of these is not a means of personal communication on the Internet?

A    Electronic wall

B    Chat

C    Instant messaging

D    Instanotes

E    None of these

Answer: D

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Question 17

Which part of the computer is used for colerloting and compariong?

A    ALU

B    Control unit

C    Disk unit

D    Modern

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E    None of these

Answer: A

Question 18

What refers to a set of characters of a particular design?

A    Keyboard

B    Calligraphy

C    Stencil

D    Type base

E    Formation

Answer: E

Question 19

Computer that controls processes accept data in a continuous?

A    Slot

B    Data highway

C    Infinite loop

D    Data traffic-button

E    Feedback loop

Answer: C

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Question 20

Which power point displays each slide of the presentation as a thumbnail and is useful for rearranging
slides?

A    Slide soater

B    Notes page

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C    Slide design

D    Slide show

E     Slide sorter

Answer: E

Question 21

Computers manipulate data in many ways and this manipulation is called …….?

A    upgrading

B    batching

C    utilizing

D    downloading

E    processing

Answer: C

Question 22

Peripheral devices such as printers and moniters are considered to be…….. .

A    hardware

B    software

C    data

D    information

E    source code

Answer: A

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Question 23

Market segmentation is required for

A    target allocation

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B    easy selling

C    identifying target customer

D    effective training of data

E    incentive payments

Answer: B

Question 24

The target for Current Account is ……. find the incorrect answer.

A    industries

B    businessman

C    partnership firms

D    companies

E    from labourers

Answer: D

Question 25

A beneficiary under an insurance policy is ……… .

A    agents

B    insurance company

C    IRDA

D    the bank selling the policy

E    None of these

Answer: C

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Question 26

NAV stands for

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A    Net Asset Value

B    Net About Value

C    Net Application Value

D    Next Adjusted Value

E    Not Applicable Value

Answer: A

Question 27

KYC norms are not applicable in the case of savings a/c of …….. .

A    students

B    Vendors

C    Pensieners

D    Minors

E    None of these

Answer: A

Question 28

The target group of education loans is…… .

A    all school children

B    Zilla Parishad

C    Trusts

D    all colleges

E    None of these

Answer: D

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Question 29

A Master Policy in the case of Life insurance indirectly

A    Policy in State

B     Only one life is assumed

C    Only one life is assured

D    Life assured should be a male

E    Policy is the name of the servant

Answer: C

Question 30

Direct marketing means…….. .

A    publicity stunts

B    display of Banner

C    face to face selling

D    selling by all staff

E    designing of new products

Answer: B

Question 31

The input device to be used to get printed diagram into a computer is the ….. .

A    keyboard

B    scanner

C    touch pad

D    mouse

E    printer

Answer: A

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Question 32

What type of device is a computer mouse?

A    Storage

B    Output

C    Input

D    Input/output

E    Software

Answer: C

Question 33

DATA or information used to run the computer is called…….

A    hardware

B    CPU

C    peripheral

D    software

E    None of these

Answer: D

Question 34

Computer connected to a LAN cen ….. .

A    run faster

B    share information and/or share peripheral equipment

C    go online

D    e-mail

E    None of these

Answer: D

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 IBPS Clerk Free Preparation App
Question 35

The …… indicates have much data a particular storage medium can hold.

A    storage

B    access

C    capacity

D    memory

E    None of these

Answer: A

Question 36

Computer use the ….. number to store data and perform calculations.

A    binary

B    octal

C    decimal

D    hexadecimal

E    None of these

Answer: A

Question 37

A disk’s content that is recorded at the same time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by
th user is

A    memory-only

B    write-only

C    once-only

D    run-only

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E    read-only

Answer: E

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Question 38

Which of the following can be used to select the entire document?

A    CTRL + A

B    ALT+F5

C    SHIFT+A

D    CTRL+K

E    CTRL+H

Answer: A

Question 39

…… are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying their identity.

A    Phishing trips

B    Computer viruses

C    Spyware scams

D    Viruses

E    Phishing scams

Answer: B

Question 40

Part number, part description and number of parts ordered are examples of

A    control

B    output

C    processing

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D    feedback

E    input

Answer: D

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General Awareness
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 41

A bank’s ‘fixed deposit’ is also referred to as a

A    term deposit

B    savings bank deposit

C    current deposit

D    demand deposit

E    home saving deposit

Answer: A

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Question 42

To improve the access of the poor to banking, RBI has advised banks to open branches with minimum
infrastructure supporting up to 8 to 10 Business Correspondents (BC) at a reasonable distance of 3-4 km.
Such branches as known as

A    Nodal branches

B    Micro branches

C    Mini branches

D    Ultra small branches

E    Satellite branches

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 Answer: D

Question 43

As per Census 2011, which of the following Indian states has the lowest population density?

A    Nagaland

B    Manipur

C    Arunachal Pradesh

D    Himachal Pradesh

E    Meghalaya

Answer: C

Question 44

Which of the following statements regarding the ‘Direct Benefits Transfer Scheme (DBT) ‘ of the
government of India is ‘not’ true?

A    The scheme covers LPG subsidies , pension payments and scholarships

B    Indirect transfers of benefits are more porn to leakage than direct transfers

C    Under DBT, money is directly transferred in to bank accounts of beneficiaries

D    The schemes was launched on January 1, 2013 to cover 20 districts initially

E    The scheme is likely to increase the subsidy bill of the government

Answer: E

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Question 45

World Food Day is celebrated every year around the world on

A    July 4

B    October 16

C    Other than those given as options

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D    August 12

E    May 18

Answer: B

Question 46

The minimum age for becoming a member of Rajya Sabha is

A    28 years

B    40 years

C    30 years

D    35 years

E    25 years

Answer: C

Question 47

Banks ‘mandatory lending to farmers for agriculture, micro and small enterprises and other weaker sections
where in banks are required to lend up to 40% of the loans is gnerally described as

A    Para banking

B    Sub-prime lending

C    Retail lending

D    Non-priority sector lending

E    Priority sector lending

Answer: E

Question 48

Which of the following services relate to execution of transactions directly with consumers, rather than
corporations or other banks?

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A    Wholesale Banking Services

B    Industrial Banking Services

C    Investment Banking Services

D    Corporate Banking Services

E     Retail Banking Services

Answer: E

Question 49

The Aadhaar- enabled Payment System (AEPS) is a bank - led model that facilities through banking
correspondents across banks. However, Aadhar- enabled basic types of banking transactions do ‘not’
include

A    Aadhaar to Aadhaar transfer funds

B    Small overdraft facility

C    Cash withdrawal

D    Balance enquiry

E    Cash deposit

Answer: B

Question 50

Which of the following is a receipt listed in India and traded in rupees declaring ownership of shares of a
foreign company?

A    Indian Depository Receipt (IDR)

B    European Depository Receipt (EDR)

C    Global Depository Receipt (GDR)

D    American Depository Receipt (ADR)

E    Luxemburg Depository Receipt (LDR)

Answer: A

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Question 51

A bank without any branch network that offers its services remotely through online banking,
telephone/mobile banking and interbank ATM network alliances is known as

A    Universal Banking

B     Indirect Banking

C    Door Banking

D    A Direct Banking

E    Unit Banking

Answer: D

Question 52

The target set by the UIDAI for issuance of Aadhaar cards up to 2014 is

A    50 crore cards

B    55 crore cards

C    45 crore cards

D    40 crore cards

E    60 crore cards

Answer: E

Question 53

A type of fraud wherein criminals use an innocent person’s details to open or use an account to carry out
financial transactions is known as

A    identity theft

B    hacking

C    money laundering

D    espionage

E    phishing

Answer: E

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 Daily Free Banking Online Tests
Question 54

Deepak Lathore is related to which of the following sports?

A    Hockey

B    Cricket

C    Badminton

D    Football

E    Weightlifting

Answer: E

Question 55

Who among the following is the author of the book ‘’The Lowland’’?

A    Jhumpa Lahiri

B    Amitav Ghosh

C    Salman Rushdie

D    Hamid Ansari

E    Chetan Bhagat

Answer: A

Question 56

Who among the following in the current Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India?

A    KG Balakrishnan

B    Ranjit Sinha

C    Montek Singh Ahluwalia

D    VS Sampath

E    SY Quraishi

Answer: D

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 IBPS Clerk Exam Date & Syllabus Details
Question 57

Which of the following Indian Universities is Asia’s largest residential university?

A    Allahabad University

B    Utkal University

C    Banaras Hindu University

D    Anna University

E    Jawaharlal University

Answer: C

Question 58

In October, 2013, which country has confirmed plans to create a secure mail service to protect its citizen
and business against foreign espionage?

A    Mexico

B    Brazil

C    Sweden

D    Germany

E    None of these

Answer: B

Question 59

The campaign name ‘Heal India’ aims to create awareness about which of the following diseases?

A    Mental illness

B    AIDS

C    Leprosy

D    Alzheimer

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E    None of these

Answer: C

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Question 60

Which of the following is an investment advisory discipline?

A    Corporate Industrial Finance

B    Offshare Banking

C    Wholesale Banking

D    Wealth Management

E    Trade Finance

Answer: D

Question 61

Which of the following nations has signed a comprehensive free trade agreement with European Union?

A    Japan

B    China

C    Russia

D    Canada

E    None of these

Answer: D

Question 62

According to the provisions of the income Tax Act, 1961 a resident individual is categorised as a ‘very
senior citizen’ when he is

A    80 years of age or older

B    75 years of age or older

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C    90 years of age or older

D    85 years of age or older

E    65 years of age or older

Answer: A

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Question 63

Which of the following Indian Actress has recently (october, 2013 been honoured at the British House of
Commons for her contribution to the global entertainment industry?

A    Shabana Azmi

B    Kareena Kapoor

C    Nandita Das

D    Aishwarya Rai Bachchan

E    Vidya Balan

Answer: B

Question 64

Who among the following has recently been conferred with the first Yash Memorial Award?

A    Other than those given options

B    Madhuri Dixit Nene

C    Ramesh Sippy

D    Lata Mangeshkar

E    AR Rahman

Answer: D

Question 65

The part of a company’s earnings or profits which are paid out to shareholders is known as

A    capital gains

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B    taxes

C    interest on borrowings

D    dividents

E     penal interest

Answer: D

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Question 66

NABARD is responsible for regulating and supervising the functions of

A    Investments and Industrial Finance Banks

B    Cooperative Banks and Regional Rural Banks

C    Cooperative Finance Overseas Banking Units

D    Private Sector and Multinational Banks

E    Reverse Bank of India

Answer: B

Question 67

The government of India has announced a ‘funding for lending’ scheme. Who are the beneficiaries for this
scheme?

A    Commercial Banks

B    Regional Rural Banks

C    Micro-finance Institutions

D    Finance Departments of the State Governments

E    None of these

Answer: A

Question 68

The arrangement under which banks sell insurance products acting as the agent of the respective
companies is called the

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A    Insurance joint venture

B    Bancassurance Model

C    Hybrid Insurance Model

D    Insurance Banking

E    Integrated Model

Answer: B

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Question 69

Which among the following Companies in India has a tie-up with the Japanese Financial Nomura for
Insurance market?

A    ICICI Bank

B    UCO Bank

C    Kotak Bank

D    Life Insurance Corporation of India

E    None of these

Answer: D

Question 70

The seed capital of Bhartiya Mahila Bank is

A    Rs. 2000 crore

B    Rs. 1000 crore

C    Rs. 4000 crore

D    Rs. 3000 crore

E    Rs. None of these

Answer: B

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Question 71

Which of the following communities is ‘not’ notified as a ‘minority community’ by the ministry of welfare,
Government of India?

A    Sikhs

B    Zoroastrians

C    Buddhists

D    Jains

E    Christians

Answer: D

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Question 72

Cheraw, the Bamboo Dance, is of which Indian states?

A    Mizoram

B    Sikkim

C    Arunachal Pradesh

D    Manipur

E    Asom

Answer: A

Question 73

The process by which a life insurance policyholder can transfer all rights, title and interest under a policy
contract to a third person is known as

A    Assignment of the policy

B    Hypothecation of the policy

C    Reinvestment of the policy

D    Negotiation of the policy

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E    Nomination of the policy

Answer: A

Question 74

In October, 2013, which of the following countries has decided to scrap its two currency system?

A    Mongolia

B    Sweden

C    Cuba

D    Jamaica

E    None of these

Answer: C

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Question 75

8th National Conference of Krishi Vigyan Kendra-2013 was held at

A    Chennai

B    Mumbai

C    Lucknow

D    Kolkata

E    Bengaluru

Answer: E

Question 76

Which of the following institutions is regarded as the ‘Lender of the Last Resort’ by the Banks in India?

A    State Bank of India (SBI)

B    The State Treasury

C    Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

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D    World Bank

E    Department of Financial Services (DFS)

Answer: C

Question 77

The concept of ‘Micro Credit’ essentially concentrated on

A    consumption smoothening as and when needed

B    providing safe place to hold savings

C    accepting deposits

D    provision of credit to the poor

E    facility to transfer money

Answer: D

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Question 78

With effect from July 1, 2014, for calculation of lending rates, the Reserve Bank of India has advised banks
to switch over to the

A    MSF Rate System

B    Reverse Repo Rate System

C    Bank Rate System

D    Repo Rate System

E    Base Rate System

Answer: E

Question 79

An Enquiry share is also commonly referred to as

A    ordinary share

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B    debenture

C    convertible share

D    security receipt

E     preferred stock

Answer: A

Question 80

The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialised agency of the United Nations(UN) that is concered
with international Public Health. It is headquartered at

A    Sweden

B    Switzerland

C    United Kingdom

D    France

E    Germany

Answer: B

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Reasoning
Instructions

Select the related words/letters from the given alternatives.

Question 81

SHOE: NCJZ:: REWA: ?

A    WBJF

B    CITY

C    CAYR

D    MZRV

E    None of these

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 Answer: D

Explanation:
The relationship between first two proportion words is SHOE and NCJZ is, N is 4 letter behind the letter S, C is
4 letters behind the letter H, J is 4 letters behind the letter O and in the circular manner, Z is also 4 letters
behind the letter E

Hence, following the same pattern for REWA, we will get our answer as MZRV.

So answer will be D

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Question 82

Bud: Flower:: ?

A    Clay: Mud

B    Sapling: Tree

C    River: Glacier

D    Bird: Tree

E    Paper: Book

Answer: B

Explanation:
Bud means "a compact knob-like growth on a plant which develops into a leaf, flower, or shoot"

The similar meaning will be Sapling for a tree, hence, answer will be B

Question 83

NEUROTIC: TICRONEU:: PSYCHOTIC

A    TICCOHPSY

B    TICOCHPSY

C    TICCHOPSY

D    TICHCOPSY

E    None of these

Answer: C

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Explanation:
First three letters of the word have been exchanged with the last three letters of the same word and
remaining two letters will also exchange their positions. Similar pattern will be followed for the word
"Psychotic" and answer will be "TICCHOPSY"

Hence, answer will be C

Question 84

Video: Cassette:: Computer: ?

A    Reels

B    Recordings

C    Files

D    Floppy

E    CPU

Answer: D

Explanation:
As a cassette is used to play a video similarly floppy is used to play a video on a computer. Hence, option D is
most closely related to computer, So answer will be D

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Question 85

Nightingale: Warble:: Frog ?

A    Yelp

B    Croak

C    Cackle

D    Squeak

E    None of these

Answer: B

Explanation:
As warble sound is related with nightingale similarly croak sound is related with frog. Hence, answer will be B

Instructions

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Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions.
CEBACDBCDACEBEDCABADACEDUBAUBDBU

Question 86

How many pairs of alphabets are there in the series of alphabets given in BOLD (D to C) in the given
arrangement each of which as many letters between them ( in both forward and backward directions ) as
they have between them in English alphabetical series ?

A    Three

B    One

C    Two

D    None

E    More than three

Answer: E

Explanation:
In forward direction: BC, CD, B-C-D

In Backward direction: C-D-A

Hence, answer will be E

Question 87

Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the twenty-second from the right end of the given
arrangement?

A    D

B    E

C    B

D    C

E    U

Answer: A

Explanation:
22nd from the right end of the given series will be "C" and ninth to the right of it will be "D". Hence, answer will
be option (A)

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Question 88

If all the alphabets of the series are written reverse order, then which of the following will be 8th to the right
of the 7th from the left end of the series ?

A    A

B     B

C    C

D    D

E    None of these

Answer: B

Explanation:
If the series is written in reverse order then we can assume that directions are reversed and series remains
constant.

Hence, the needed letter will be 15th from right and that will be "B"

Question 89

How many such A’s are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately proceed by a “B” and
also immediately followed by the consonant?

A    One

B    None

C    More than these

D    Two

E    Three

Answer: D

Explanation:
There are 3 possibilities for the answer:

BAC

BAD

And BAU

But in third BA is followed by a vowel. Hence, answer will be option (D)

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Question 90

How many such D’s are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately proceed by a
consonant and also immediately followed by a vowel ?

A    More than four

B    Four

C    Two

D    Three

E    One

Answer: E

Explanation:
There are 6 D's in the given series as following:

CDB
CDA
EDC
ADA
EDU
BDB

Among them only one D is proceeded by a consonant and followed by a vowel. Hence, answer will be E

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Instructions

Study the given information and answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a straight line facing North with equal distances between them, not
necessarily in the same order.
Each one is pursuing a different profession – Actor, Reporter, Doctor, Engineer, Lawyer, Teacher and Painter
not necessarily in same order.
G is fifth to the left of C. The Reporter is third to the right of G. F is fifth to the right of A. E is second to the left
of D. F is not standing at either of the ends. There are only three people between the Engineer and the Painter.
The Doctor is to the immediate left of the Engineer. The Lawyer is to the immediate right of the Teacher.

Question 91

What is A’ s profession ?

A    Painter

B    Doctor

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C    Teacher

D    Actor

E    Engineer

Answer: B

Explanation:
G is fifth to the left of C and F is fifth to the right of A. Hence, there are two configurations possible:

G A _ _ _ C F and A G _ _ _ F C

As F is not at either end, only the second configuration is possible.

As E is second to the left of D, the placement is as follows

AGEBDFC

Hence, D is the reporter. The Doctor is to the left of the Engineer and the Painter is 4th to the right of the
Engineer. Hence, two configurations are possible:

Doctor - Eng - _ _ Rep - Painter - _

or _ - Doc - Eng - _ Rep - Pain - _

As the Lawyer and Teacher are next to each other, the second configuration is impossible. Hence, the
configuration is

Doc - Eng - Tea - Law - Rep - Pain - Act

A-G-E-B-D-F-C

Hence, A is a Doctor.

Question 92

Which of the following statements are true according to the given arrangement ?

A    F is the Teacher

B    F is third to the left of E

C    The painter is to the immediate left of B

D    The lawyer is standing in the exact middle of the arrangement

E    None of given statements true

Answer: D

Explanation:
G is fifth to the left of C and F is fifth to the right of A. Hence, there are two configurations possible:

G A _ _ _ C F and A G _ _ _ F C

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As F is not at either end, only the second configuration is possible.

As E is second to the left of D, the placement is as follows

AGEBDFC

Hence, D is the reporter. The Doctor is to the left of the Engineer and the Painter is 4th to the right of the
Engineer. Hence, two configurations are possible:

Doctor - Eng - _ _ Rep - Painter - _

or _ - Doc - Eng - _ Rep - Pain - _

As the Lawyer and Teacher are next to each other, the second configuration is impossible. Hence, the
configuration is

Doc - Eng - Tea - Law - Rep - Pain - Act

A-G-E-B-D-F-C

Hence, Option D will be the answer.

Question 93

Who among the following is the actor ?

A    E

B    F

C    C

D    B

E    A

Answer: C

Explanation:
G is fifth to the left of C and F is fifth to the right of A. Hence, there are two configurations possible:

G A _ _ _ C F and A G _ _ _ F C

As F is not at either end, only the second configuration is possible.

As E is second to the left of D, the placement is as follows

AGEBDFC

Hence, D is the reporter. The Doctor is to the left of the Engineer and the Painter is 4th to the right of the
Engineer. Hence, two configurations are possible:

Doctor - Eng - _ _ Rep - Painter - _

or _ - Doc - Eng - _ Rep - Pain - _

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As the Lawyer and Teacher are next to each other, the second configuration is impossible. Hence, the
configuration is

Doc - Eng - Tea - Law - Rep - Pain - Act

A-G-E-B-D-F-C

Hence, C is the Actor.

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Question 94

What is the D’s position with respect to the painter ?

A    Third to the left

B    Second to the right

C    Fourth to the right

D    Third to the right

E    Immediate left

Answer: E

Explanation:
G is fifth to the left of C and F is fifth to the right of A. Hence, there are two configurations possible:

G A _ _ _ C F and A G _ _ _ F C

As F is not at either end, only the second configuration is possible.

As E is second to the left of D, the placement is as follows

AGEBDFC

Hence, D is the reporter. The Doctor is to the left of the Engineer and the Painter is 4th to the right of the
Engineer. Hence, two configurations are possible:

Doctor - Eng - _ _ Rep - Painter - _

or _ - Doc - Eng - _ Rep - Pain - _

As the Lawyer and Teacher are next to each other, the second configuration is impossible. Hence, the
configuration is

Doc - Eng - Tea - Law - Rep - Pain - Act

A-G-E-B-D-F-C

Hence, D is immediate left of Painter

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Question 95

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given given standing arrangement and so
form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

A    AEB

B    BFC

C    GBD

D    EDF

E    DFC

Answer: E

Explanation:
G is fifth to the left of C and F is fifth to the right of A. Hence, there are two configurations possible:

G A _ _ _ C F and A G _ _ _ F C

As F is not at either end, only the second configuration is possible.

As E is second to the left of D, the placement is as follows

AGEBDFC

Hence, D is the reporter. The Doctor is to the left of the Engineer and the Painter is 4th to the right of the
Engineer. Hence, two configurations are possible:

Doctor - Eng - _ _ Rep - Painter - _

or _ - Doc - Eng - _ Rep - Pain - _

As the Lawyer and Teacher are next to each other, the second configuration is impossible. Hence, the
configuration is

Doc - Eng - Tea - Law - Rep - Pain - Act

A-G-E-B-D-F-C

Option A, B, C and D follow a pattern where the 2nd letter is one after from the previous in the arrangement
and 3rd one is immediately next to the 2nd letter. This pattern is followed by all the options except DFC.
Hence, answer will be E

Instructions

Study the information to answer the given questions ?

In a certain code
‘very large risk associated’ is written as ‘nu ta ro gi’’
‘risk is very low’ is written as ‘gi se nu mi’,
‘is that also associated’ is written as ‘ta mi po fu’,
‘inherent risk also damaging’ is written as ‘fu nu di yu’,
(All codes are two letter codes only)

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Question 96

Which of the following represents ‘risk also large’ ?

A    nu fu po

B    nu gi ro

C    ro po ta

D    fu nu ro

E    ro yu fu

Answer: D

Explanation:
From the intersection of the first two information, we can conclude that "nu" and "gi" will either "Risk" or
"very". 

From the intersection of the first and third information, we can conclude that "ta" will mean "associated".

From the intersection of first and fourth information, "nu" will mean "risk" and hence, "gi" will mean "Very"

"ro" will be "large" and "fu" means also

Hence, answer will be D

Question 97

What is the code for ‘very’ ?

A    ta

B    fu

C    ro

D    nu

E    gi

Answer: E

Explanation:
From the intersection of the first two information, we can conclude that "nu" and "gi" will either "Risk" or
"very". 

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From the intersection of the first and third information, we can conclude that "ta" will mean "associated".

From the intersection of first and fourth information, "nu" will mean "risk" and hence, "gi" will mean "Very"

Question 98

What is the code for ‘associated’ ?

A    mi

B     ta

C    ro

D    gi

E    nu

Answer: B

Explanation:
From the intersection of the first two information, we can conclude that "nu" and "gi" will either "Risk" or
"very". 

From the intersection of the first and third information, we can conclude that "ta" will mean "associated".

Hence, answer will be "B"

Question 99

What does the code ‘di’ stand for ?

A    Either ‘damaging’ or ‘inherent’

B    inherent

C    also

D    low

E    risk

Answer: A

Explanation:
From the intersection of the first two information, we can conclude that "nu" and "gi" will either "Risk" or
"very". 

From the intersection of the first and third information, we can conclude that "ta" will mean "associated".

From the intersection of first and fourth information, "nu" will mean "risk" and hence, "gi" will mean "Very"

"ro" will be "large" and "fu" means also

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Now for the fourth information, there will be no intersection for the word damaging and inherent. Hence, code
"di" either will be "damaging" or "inherent".

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Question 100

Which of the following represents ‘that is low’ ?

A    po mi du

B     se po mi

C    ta mi po

D    se po nu

E    ta mi se

Answer: B

Explanation:
From the intersection of the first two information, we can conclude that "nu" and "gi" will either "Risk" or
"very". 

From the intersection of the first and third information, we can conclude that "ta" will mean "associated".

From the intersection of first and fourth information, "nu" will mean "risk" and hence, "gi" will mean "Very"

"ro" will be "large" and "fu" means "also"

"se" will be "low" and "po" will be "that"

Hence, answer will be B

Instructions

Study the given information and answer the given questions.

Point A is 11 m North of point B.
Point C is 11 m East of point B
Point D is 6 m North of point C
Point E is 7 m West of point D
Point F is 8 m North of point E
Point G is 4 m West of point F

Question 101

How far is point F from point A ?

A    43m

B    4 m

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C    3 m

D    7 m

E    5 m

Answer: E

Explanation:

According to the above diagram, distance between F and A will be 5 m. Hence, answer will be E

Question 102

How far and in which direction is point G from point A ?

A    3 m North

B    5 m North

C    4 m North

D    4 m South

E    3 m South

Answer: A

Explanation:

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As we can see in the above diagram that distance between G and A will be 8-(11-6) = 3 m

Hence, answer will be A

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Instructions

These questions consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to
decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer to answer the question. Read
both the statements and select the appropriate answer.

Question 103

How is ‘cost’ written in the given code language ?

I. In the code language ‘tell me the cost’ is coded as ‘@ 0 # 9’ and ‘cost was very high’ is coded as ‘ & 6 # 1’.
II. In the code language ‘some cost was discount’ is coded as ‘1 8 7 #’ and ‘some people like discount’ is
coded as ‘8 7 5 %’ .

A    The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

B    The data neither in Statement I nor statement II are sufficient to answer the question

C    The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone
D    
are not sufficient to answer the question

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 The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone
E     are not sufficient to answer the question

Answer: E

Explanation:
Taking statement 1 alone:

After taking intersection from both the coded information, we will find that code for "cost" will be "#"

Taking statement 2 alone;

After taking intersection from both the coded information, we can get the code for the word "discount" only
not for the word "cost".

Hence, answer will be E

Question 104

Is D the mother of S ?
I. L is the husband of D. L has only three children.
II. N is the brother of S and P. P is the daughter of L.

The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone
A    
are not sufficient to answer the question

B    The data neither in Statement I nor statement II are sufficient to answer the question

The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone
C    
are not sufficient to answer the question

D    The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

E    The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

Answer: E

Explanation:
According to the given information, L is the husband of D

And information about is given in statement 2.

Hence, after using both the statements together, we can say that D is mother of L.

So answer will be E

Question 105

Among five people-A, B, C, D and E sitting around a circular table facing the center, who is sitting second to
the left of D ?
I. C is the second to the left of A. B and D are immediate neighbours of each other.
II. D is the immediate left of B. E is not an immediate neighbour of D and B.

A    The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

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B     The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone
C    
are not sufficient to answer the question

The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone
D    
are not sufficient to answer the question

E    The data neither in Statement I nor statement II are sufficient to answer the question

Answer: A

Explanation:
Only after taking both the statements together into consideration, we can decide the seating arrangement of
the people which is depicted in the below diagram. Hence, answer will be A

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Question 106

Among five friends---J, K, L, M and N each of a different height, who is the second tallest ?
I. N is taller than M and K. K is shorter than M.
II. L is taller than N. J is not the tallest.

The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone
A    
are not sufficient to answer the question

B     The data neither in Statement I nor statement II are sufficient to answer the question

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C    The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone
D    
are not sufficient to answer the question

E    The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

Answer: B

Explanation:
Taking both the statements together we can only decipher the following information:

KMNL, where K is shortest and L is tallest but we can't be sure of J's position as not enough information has
been given there.

So answer will be B

Question 107

How many students are there in the class ?

I. There are more than 20 but less than 27 students in the class.
II. There are more than 24 but less than 31 students in the class. The number of students in the class can
be divided in to groups such that each group contains 5 students.

A    The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

B    The data neither in Statement I nor statement II are sufficient to answer the question

C    : The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone
D    
are not sufficient to answer the question

The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone
E    
are not sufficient to answer the question

Answer: A

Explanation:
Taking the first statement alone:

20 < N < 27 (Where N is the number of students in the class)

Now taking statement 2 alone:

24 < N < 31 (Where N is the number of students in the class)

Hence, N will be either 25 or 26

Now as N can be distributed among the group of 5 and hence answer will be 25

So answer will be A

Instructions

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Study the information carefully and answer the questions:

S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around the circle area, with equal distance amongst each other but not
necessarily in the same order.
Only two people face the centre and rest face outside (i.e.,in a direction opposite to the centre).
Y sits second to left of W. S sits second left of Y. Only one person sits between S and z. T sits immediate next
to S. T is not an immediate neighbour of Y. V is not an immediate neighbour of Y. Both the immediate
neighbours of X face the centre.

Question 108

Who is sitting to immediate right of Z ?

A    Y

B    V

C    T

D    X

E    W

Answer: B

Explanation:
8 people S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting across a circular table and according to the given information
order of their seating is given in the below diagram where W and Y are facing to the center and remaining are
facing outwards to the center. Hence, V is the immediate neighbour of Z.

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Question 109

Which of the following is true regarding U as per the given seating arrangement ?

A    X sits second to the left of U

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B     Only three people sits between U and Y

C    Z is one of immediate neighbour of U

D    U faces the centre

E    S sits to immediate left of U

Answer: A

Explanation:
8 people S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting across a circular table and according to the given information
order of their seating is given in the below diagram where W and Y are facing to the center and the remaining
are facing outwards to the center. Hence, X is sitting 2nd to the left of U

Question 110

What is T’s position with respect of Y ?

A    second to the right

B    second to the left

C    fifth to the left

D    fourth to the right

E    third to the left

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 Answer: E

Explanation:
8 people S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting across a circular table and according to the given information
order of their seating is given in the below diagram where W and Y are facing to the center and the remaining
are facing outwards to the center. Hence, Y is sitting 3rd left to T (As they are facing outward from the centre)

Question 111

Which of the following group represents the immediate neighbours of X ?

A    WY

B    VX

C    TZ

D    VZ

E    SU

Answer: A

Explanation:
8 people S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting across a circular table and according to the given information
order of their seating is given in the below diagram where W and Y are facing to the center and the remaining
are facing outwards to the center. Hence, neighbours of X are W and Y

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 100 Free IBPS Clerk Computer Awareness Tests
Question 112

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and so form a
group. Which is the one does not belong to that group ?

A    Z

B    T

C    Y

D    V

E    X

Answer: C

Explanation:
Z, T, V and X are facing towards outwards from the center but Y is facing towards the center hence, answer
will be C

Instructions

In these questions, relationships between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements is
followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate
answer.

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Question 113

Statement: K > I ≥ T ≥ E; O < R < K

Conclusions: I. R < E 2. O < T

A    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

B    Both conclusions I and II follows

C    Only conclusion II follows

D    Either conclusion I or II follows

E    Only conclusion I follows

Answer: A

Explanation:
According to the given inequalities, K is largest among all but nothing specific can be said about O,R,I,T and E.
Hence, no conclusion can be drawn from the given information. So answer will be A

Question 114

Statement C < L < O = U = D ≥ S > Y

Conclusions I. O > Y II. C<D

A    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

B    Both conclusions I and II follows

C    Only conclusion I follows

D    Either conclusion II follows

E    Only conclusion I or II follows

Answer: B

Explanation:
As it is given in statement 1 that O=U=D which is greater than S, Y, L and C hence, the conclusions O>Y and
C<D can drawn from the given statements.

Hence, answer will be B

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Question 115

Statement K ≥ L > M ≥ N
Conclusions I. N ≤ K II. N<K

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A    Both conclusions I and II follows

B    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

C    Either conclusion II or II follows

D    Only conclusion I follows

E    Only conclusion II follows

Answer: E

Explanation:
In conclusion 1, it is given that N<=K. That's not possible as N is less than or equal to M which is absolutely
less than K. Conclusion 2 is valid as it mentions that N < K. Hence, only conclusion 2 will follow.

Question 116

Statement: Z ≥ Y = W ≥ X
Conclusions I. W<Z II. W=Z

A    Only conclusion II follows

B    Only conclusion I follows

C    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

D    Either conclusion I or II follows

E    Both conclusions I and II follows

Answer: D

Explanation:
According to the given statement Z>= Y and Y=W So Z>=W

Hence, anyone of the conclusion might be followed. Hence, answer will be D

Question 117

Statement: B > A > S < I > C > L >Y

Conclusions I. B>L II. A>Y

A    Only conclusion I follows

B    Only conclusion II follows

C    Either conclusion II or II follows

D    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

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E     Both conclusions I and II follows
Answer: D

Explanation:
According to the given inequalities, nothing certain can be said about B, L and A, Y as no absolute
measurement can be drawn from the given inequalities. Hence, answer will be D

Daily Current Affairs for Banking exams PDF

Instructions

Study the given information and answer the given questions.

Six people--K, L, M, N, O and P live on six different floors of a building not necessarily in the same order. The
lower most floor of the building is numbered 1, the above that is numberd as 2 and so on till the top most
floor is numbered 6 . L lives on an even numbered floor. L lives immediately below K’s floor and immediately
above M’s floor. P lives immediately above N’s floor. P lives on an even numbered floor. O does not live on
floor number 4.

Question 118

Four of the following five are alike in certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group.
Which of the following does not belong to that group ?

A    MN

B    OL

C    KM

D    LP

E    PK

Answer: E

Explanation:
According to the given information K, L, M, N, O and P are arranged as follows:

And in the options, 4 out of 5 are given as where the difference between two persons is of one person but in
option E there are 3 people between P and K.

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Hence, answer will be E

Question 119

Who amongst the following lives on the floor number 2 ?

A    K

B    P

C    L

D    M

E    O

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to the given information K, L, M, N, O and P are arranged as follows:

Hence, P is at the second floor.

Question 120

On which floor does N live ?

A    4

B    3

C    5

D    1

E    2

Answer: D

Explanation:
According to the given information K, L, M, N, O and P are arranged as follows:

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O

Hence, N is living at the 1st floor.

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Verbal
Instructions

Which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If
the sentence is correct as it is given, then mark ‘No correction required’ as your answer.

Question 121

We asked her that how she got time to write all these books.

A    that how she got

B    that how she was getting

C    how did she get

D    how she got

E    No correction required

Answer: D

Explanation:
"Asked" is never followed by "that".

Hence, "how she got" is the correct phrase to be used.

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Question 122

Studies in the past have shown that those who limit their activity span during the day in winters are more
likely to suffer from depression.

A    more likely for

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B     mostly likely to

C    most likely for

D    most likeliest for

E    No correction required

Answer: E

Explanation:
The sentence is correct grammatically.

Question 123

In some cases, factors like low salary, lack of growth prospects and lack of motivation compel all employee
to look for a change.

A    compel those employees

B    compelling all employes

C    compelling the employee

D    compel employees

E    No correction requires

Answer: D

Explanation:
Compel employees is the correct word to address the paralllism present in the sentence.

Question 124

Living with compassion and contributing to other lives would helping us add happiness to our lives as well.

A    will helping us

B    will help us

C    would helped them

D    will helped them

E    No correction required

Answer: B

Explanation:
"will help" is the correct tense here as the sentence is talking about something in the future.

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 Free Banking Study Material (15,000 Solved Questions)
Question 125

The easiest way for prevent stress caused by work or home pressures is to indulge in high levels of
physical activity.

A    easily way to

B    easier ways for

C    easiest way to

D    easier way from

E    No correction required

Answer: C

Explanation:
"Way to" is the correct idiom.

"Easily" is wrong construction. Hence, "easiest way" is the answer.

Instructions

Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of sentence. Mark that part with error as your answer. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark ‘No
errors’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation if any)

Question 126

A red and sore tongue/is an indicator from/lack of iron Vitamin-B12 /in the body.

A    a red and sore tongue

B    is an indicator from

C    lack of iron and B12

D    in the body

E    No error

Answer: B

Explanation:
"Is an indication of" is the correct usage. 

"indicator from" is wrong construction.

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Question 127

In the high-strung life/of over-crowded metros/there a constantly tug of war/over space and resources.

A    in the high-strung life

B    of over-crowded metros

C    there a constantly tug of war

D    over space and resources

E    No error

Answer: C

Explanation:
"There is a constant tug of war" is the correct usage.

The verb "is" must be used and the correct adjective to be used is "constant".

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Question 128

The foremost criterion of selection we adopted/were the number of years of training/a singer had
received/under particular guru.

A    The foremost criterion of selection we adopted

B    were the number of years of training

C    a singer had received

D    under a particular guru

E    No error

Answer: B

Explanation:
"Criterion" is singular => singular verb is required.

=> "was" is the correct verb.

"was the number of years of training" is correct.

Question 129

Excess weight is the result of/unhealthy eating habits/which are inherent risk factors/responsible for many
diseases.

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A    excess weight is the result of

B    unhealthy eating habits

C    which are inherent risk factors

D    responsible for many diseases

E    No error

Answer: E

Explanation:
All the parts of the sentence are correct.

Question 130

The therapeutic benefits/at helping others/have long been/recognised by people.

A    the therapeutic

B    at helping others

C    have long been

D    recognised by people

E    No error

Answer: B

Explanation:
"At helping others" must be replaced by "of helping others". The remaining parts of the sentence are correct.

IBPS Clerk Free Preparation App

Instructions

Rearrange the given five sentences(A), (B), (C) ,(D) and (E) in a proper sequence so as to form meaningful
paragraph and then answer the given question.
A. With so many products and opportunities available in market, it is very easy to get this planning wrong.
B. Planning, therefore, is imperative and should begin as early as possible.
C. What amount will we need and when we will need it?
D. Most of us would put our children’s education above any other priority in life including our own retirement.
E. So, lets’s try to find the best solution by asking two important question.

Question 131

Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

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A    D

B    B

C    C

D    E

E    A

Answer: B

Explanation:
Sentence D starts the paragraph by introducing a topic on children education.

B and A are pair because B introduces the term planning and A explains the issues that can be faced with
planning.

E and C are a pair because E talks about "two important questions" and C asks the "two questions".

E follows A because E talks about a specfic plan after A talks about planning in general.

DBAEC is the correct sequence.

Question 132

Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

A    A

B    B

C    C

D    E

E    D

Answer: C

Explanation:
Sentence D starts the paragraph by introducing a topic on children education.

B and A are pair because B introduces the term planning and A explains the issues that can be faced with
planning.

E and C are a pair because E talks about "two important questions" and C asks the "two questions".

E follows A because E talks about a specfic plan after A talks about planning in general.

DBAEC is the correct sequence.

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Question 133

Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

A    A

B    B

C    E

D    C

E    D

Answer: E

Explanation:
Sentence D starts the paragraph by introducing a topic on children education.

B and A are pair because B introduces the term planning and A explains the issues that can be faced with
planning.

E and C are a pair because E talks about "two important questions" and C asks the "two questions".

E follows A because E talks about a specfic plan after A talks about planning in general.

DBAEC is the correct sequence.

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Question 134

Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

A    D

B    B

C    C

D    E

E    A

Answer: E

Explanation:
Sentence D starts the paragraph by introducing a topic on children education.

B and A are pair because B introduces the term planning and A explains the issues that can be faced with
planning.

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E and C are a pair because E talks about "two important questions" and C asks the "two questions".

E follows A because E talks about a specfic plan after A talks about planning in general.

DBAEC is the correct sequence.

Question 135

Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

A    A

B    B

C    E

D    D

E    C

Answer: C

Explanation:
Sentence D starts the paragraph by introducing a topic on children education.

B and A are pair because B introduces the term planning and A explains the issues that can be faced with
planning.

E and C are a pair because E talks about "two important questions" and C asks the "two questions".

E follows A because E talks about a specfic plan after A talks about planning in general.

DBAEC is the correct sequence.

Instructions

A majority of Indians prefer to use internet for accessing banking and other financial services than shopping
online, show a new survey.
Almost 57% of Indians respondents using the internet prefer to bank online and use other financial services
due to hassle-free access and time saving feature of online banking according to the survey.

Checking the information on products and services online comes a close second at 53% while 50% shop for
products online. The fourth on the list-around 42% of respondents in India surfed online to look for jobs, the
survey said.

Online banking has made things much easier for the people and it saves a lot of time.

It has eliminated the problems associated with traditional way of banking where one has to stand in a queue
and fill up several forms. Most of the banks in India have introduced customer - friendly online banking facility
with advanced security features to protect customers against cybe rcrime.

The easy registration process for net banking has improved customer’ access to several banking products
increased customer loyalty, facilitated money transfer to any bank across India and has helped banks-attract
new customers. The Indian results closely track the global trends as well conducted among 19216 people

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from 24 countries, the survey showed that banking and keeping track of finances and searching for jobs are
the main tasks of internet users around the globe.

Overall, 60% of people surveyed used the web to check their bank account and other financial assets in the
past 90 days, making it the most popular use of the internet globality, shopping was not too far behind at
48%, the survey showed and 41% went online in search of a job in terms of country preferences, almost 90%
of respondents in Sweden use e-banking.

Online banking has also caught on in a big way in nations like France, Canada, Australia, Poland, South Africa
and Belgium, the survey showed. The Germans and British come on top for using online shopping with 74% of
respondents in both countries having bought something online in the past three months. They are followed
by 68% respondents in Sweden. 65% in US and 62% in South Korea.

Question 136

If the given sentences were to be arranged in their order of their popularity(from most popular to least
popular ), which one of the following would represent the correct sequences as given in the passage ?
A: Use internet to gain information about products and services.
B: Use internet to search for jobs
C: Use internet for online banking

A    B, A, C

B    C, B, A

C    C, A, B

D    A, B, C

E    A, C, B

Answer: C

Explanation:
"Almost 57% of Indians respondents using the internet prefer to bank online".

"Checking the information on products and services online comes a close second at 53% ."

"The fourth on the list-around 42% of respondents in India surfed online to look for jobs".

Through these statements, we can say that C - A - B is the answer.

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Question 137

Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?

A    Internet users across the globe are mainly interested in looking for jobs and keeping track of finances.

B    Germany and Great Britain are the top countries where online shopping is quite popular

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C    Many people in Sweden use e-banking to maintain their finances

D    A majority of Indians prefer shopping online as compared to other online activities

E    All the given statements are true

Answer: D

Explanation:
"Checking the information on products and services online comes a close second at 53% while 50% shop for
products online."

This statement disproves option D.

Hence, D is the answer.

Question 138

According to the passage, banks are successful in attracting more customers due to
A. better training to sales staff
B. Opening more branches at various locations
C. Easy registration process for net banking

A    Only B

B    B and C

C    A and B

D    A and C

E    Only C

Answer: E

Explanation:
"The easy registration process for net banking has improved customer’ access to several banking products
increased customer loyalty, facilitated money transfer to any bank across India and has helped banks-attract
new customers."

From the above statement we can say that only C is true.

Hence, option E is the answer.

Question 139

How many of the Indians using the internet shop online?

A    Between 40% and 50%

B    One-fourth of them

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C    One-third of them

D    Half of them

E    All of them

Answer: D

Explanation:
"Checking the information on products and services online comes a close second at 53% while 50% shop for
products online."

From this information, we can say that 50% or half of the people in India shop online.

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Question 140

Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word hassle-free used in the passage?

A    unskilled

B    Not annoying

C    Subtle

D    Unsaddle

E    Notable

Answer: B

Explanation:
"Almost 57% of Indians respondents using the internet prefer to bank online and use other financial services
due to hassle-free access and time saving feature of online banking according to the survey."

"hassle-free" means problem-free.

Among the given options, not-annoying fits the best.

Question 141

Based on the passage, what can be said about the internet is a nutshell?

A    It has increased the number of cybercrimes

B    It is useful only for rich

C    It has been hyped for no reason

D    It is more popular for online shopping than anything else

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E     It has made lives easier than before
Answer: E

Explanation:
"It has eliminated the problems associated with traditional way of banking where one has to stand in a queue
and fill up several forms".

Through this sentence, we can say that the author's opinion is that Internet has made life easier.

Hence, option E is the answer.

Question 142

Which of the following can appropriate title for the passage?

A    The growing utility of the internet

B    Internet and its drawbacks

C    The traditional versus modern ways of shopping

D    Use of the internet in different countries

E    Internet---The Curse

Answer: A

Explanation:
The whole passage talks about internet in a positive connotation. Hence, B, C and E can be eliminated.

Between A and D, A fits better because the author does not concentrate on the different countries where the
internet is used. Rather, he is interested in how widely is internet used.

Hence, option A is the answer.

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Question 143

Which of the following is/are true in the context of the passage?

A. More than 50% Indians using internet prefer online banking
B. Many banks in India have introduced facilities to suit the needs of customers (customer friendly)
C. More people shop online in South Korea as compared to those in Sweden

A    Only b

B    B and C both

C    A and B both

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D    A and C both

E    Only C

Answer: C

Explanation:
"Almost 57% of Indians respondents using the internet prefer to bank online".

"Most of the banks in India have introduced customer - friendly online banking facility with advanced security
features to protect customers against cybercrime."

Using these two sentences, we can say that A and B are true.

Sentence C is not mentioned in the passage.

Question 144

Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘eliminated’ as used in the passage?

A    taken

B    introduced

C    begun

D    removed

E    cancelled

Answer: D

Explanation:
Traditional ways of banking used to have some issues which were removed by online banking.

Hence, "removed" is the correct word.

Question 145

According to the passage, globally, the most popular use of internet is

A    looking for a job

B    checking bank accounts and maintaining financial assets

C    finding out information about various products

D    shopping online

E    blogging and tweeting every update in one’s personal life

Answer: B

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Explanation:
"Overall, 60% of people surveyed used the web to check their bank account and other financial assets in the
past 90 days, making it the most popular use of the internet globality".

Through this sentence, we can say that checking bank accounts and maintaining financial assets are the
most popular usage of internet.

Instructions

In this questions, two sentences I and II are given. Each sentence has blank in it. against each five options are
suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. Mark the option as
your answer.

Question 146

I. The report ended on a _________note.

II. They must take _______steps to deal with the problem.

A    criticising

B    huge

C    positive

D    fancy

E    cursory

Answer: C

Explanation:
Among all the given options, A, B and C are close. "Criticising" and "Huge" can't be the answer according to
improper rhetoric construction of the first sentence. Hence, answer will be C

Question 147

I. In today’s world parents usually ………. that their children do not talk to them as they are more involved in
electronic gadgets and social media.

A    feel

B    defend

C    fight

D    complain

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E     observe
Answer: D

Explanation:
Parents are expressing their dissatisfaction to someone else(but not with children) ,so we need to use a
negative word . Hence,B is eliminated . C is too broad in nature, as parents never protest against their
children. A and D mean the same.But, the sentence is clearly ought to express Parent's dissatisfaction
against children ( to someone else)hence,complain is the best fit.

Question 148

I. He was good with mathematics so he could not fathom why other people cribbed about such an
……….subject.
II. In a world so riddled with greed and corruption where every man seems to be out to get another, it is not
very ……… to trust others.

A    good

B    exciting

C    wise

D    easy

E    interesting

Answer: D

Explanation:
As the first blank is followed by the article "an" hence, answer will be either D or E,

And option E will not be suitable according to the semantics of the second sentence. Hence, answer will be D

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Question 149

I. The area under our eyes is connected to our kidneys, so any .......... change in the dark circles indicates
dehydration or accumulating toxins.
II. Many Indian adults are struggling with weight, the indulging in weight loss programmes that require
………...changes in their current lifestyle.

A    drastic

B    frequent

C    ambiguous

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D    severe

E    aggressive

Answer: A

Explanation:
Among all the options only option A and B are the closest options and between them, "drastic" would be more
appropriate according to logical and rhetorical construction of the sentence. Hence, answer will be A

Question 150

I usually fund - raising events and charity auctions raise large amount of money as people from all sections
of the society get an opportunity to …….. for a cause.
II. Today a person needs to ….. very hard for survive in the corporate race.

A    work

B    contribute

C    effort

D    donate

E    dedication

Answer: A

Explanation:
Considering both the sentences together option A and C can be the possibilities but between them A will
more appropriate according to logical sentence construction. Hence, answer will be A

Instructions

In the given passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are
suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Trust is the basic tenet for all relationships, so building an environment of trust is one of the (71) important
things one can do to (72) positive work environment. It is a philosophy that must be demonstrated in
everything you and your staff does. Trust is about doing what you say you going to do and being who you say
(73). It is about showing your staff in everything you do that you are reliable, responsible and accountable
and that they can (74)on you for consistency. Also, letting them know you (75) the same from them. When
your words and behaviour are congruent you (76) trust. It will some time for your staff members to learn that
you are a person of your word. If they see that you are consistent you will blind trust, but if they see that your
words don’t match your behaviour their trust in you will be (77). The uncomfortable thing about trust is that it
takes a long time to build, but is very fragile and breaks easily. Once broken, it takes an (78) longer time to
regain and it may never be fully rebuilt. Therefore, it is of primary importance that you are (79) of all your
words and behaviour and ensure that they are worthy of your employees’ trust. Even while dealing with
uncomfortable situations, if you are honest and upfront it will make thing (80) for everyone.

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Question 151

71

A    most

B    single

C    extreme

D    high

E    crucial

Answer: A

Explanation:
Among all of the options, "most" will be the appropriate answer as it fits well according to the logical and
rhetoric construction of the sentence. Hence, answer will be A

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Question 152

72

A    believe

B    accept

C    create

D    lift

E    add

Answer: C

Explanation:
As it is clear that in the blank part, author is trying to explain the value of trust and how it will help in creating
a positive environment. Hence, answer will be C

Question 153

73

A    is

B     will

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C    are

D    would

E    could

Answer: C

Explanation:
As for the given blank, sentence is going in present tense and accordingly helping verb for "you", "are" shall be
used here.

Hence, answer will be C

Question 154

74

A    trust

B    rely

C    believe

D    expect

E    try

Answer: B

Explanation:
Among all options "rely" will be more suitable as in the previous part of the sentence author is explaining
about showing the qualities of being reliable, accountable and responsible to the staff. Hence, answer will be
B

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Question 155

75

A    are

B    belong

C    demands

D    expect

E     harbour

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 Answer: D

Explanation:
As in the previous sentence, the author is trying to explain how one should show the qualities of being reliable
to the staff and also he/she can "EXPECT" the same from them. Hence, answer will be D

Question 156

76

A    foster

B    seek

C    ask

D    built

E    collect

Answer: D

Explanation:
The author is explaining that when someone's actions and words are congruent then it helps in building trust
with the staff. Hence, answer will be D

Question 157

77

A    broke

B    fall

C    degrade

D    destroyed

E    eliminate

Answer: D

Explanation:
The author is trying to explain that if your words and actions are not in harmony then the trust that has been
developed will be "destroyed". And among all the options also "destroyed" is most suitable for the sentence
construction. Hence, answer will be D

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Question 158

78

A    even

B    very

C    elaborate

D    much

E    enormous

Answer: A

Explanation:
As in the given sentence, article used before the blank is "an" hence word will be starting with a vowel first. So
answers can be A, C and E. Now we can see that blank should be filled with a proper adverb there. Hence,
most appropriate answer will be A

Question 159

79

A    cautious

B    careful

C    worried

D    afraid

E    asking

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to the semantics of the sentence, options C,D and E are rejected. In between option A and B,
"Careful" will be more suitable as the author is explaining that one should be very careful about the behaviour
of himself as it should not lead to destroy the trust of the staff. Hence, answer will be B

Question 160

80

A    simplest

B    easier

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C    real

D    contrast

E    wrong

Answer: B

Explanation:
For the given blank, according to the semantics of the sentence, option D and E are rejected. Among options
A, B and C, option B will be most suitable as the author is explaining that how things become "easier" among
staff if one is honest and upfront. Hence, answer will be B

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Quant
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 161

The average score of a cricketer for 13 matches is 42 runs. If the average score for the first 5 matches is
54, then what is his average score (in runs) for last 8 matches?

A    37

B    39

C    34.5

D    33.5

E    37.5

Answer: C

Explanation:
The average score of a cricketer for 13 matches is = 42 runs

Total score in 13 matches will be = 42*13 = 546

Total score of first 5 matches will be = 54*5 = 270

Hence, total score of last 8 matches = 546-270 = 276

So average of the last 8 matches will be = 276

8 = 34.5

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Instructions

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions.

Question 162

What is the respective ratio between the number of pages printed by the printer B in 2nd week and the
number of pages printed by printer F in 5th week?

A    4: 9

B    11: 13

C    9: 13

D    7: 11

E    9: 11

Answer: D

Explanation:
As we can see in the given table that the number of pages printed by printer B in 2nd week is = 441

And number of pages printed by printer F in 5th week is = 693

Hence, the ratio will be = 441

693 = 7
11

Question 163

What will be the average number of pages printed by all the given printers in 4th week?

A    375

B    425

C    415

D    430

E    390

Answer: B

Explanation:

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The average number of pages printed by all the given printers in 4th week will be =
256+563+347+651+412+321 2550
6 = 6 = 425

Hence, answer will be B

Question 164

Which of the following printer printed maximum number of pages in all the given weeks together?

A    Printer A

B    Printer E

C    Printer D

D    Printer C

E    Printer F

Answer: C

Explanation:
Total pages printed by A = 2646

Total pages printed by B = 2665

Total pages printed by C = 2595

Total pages printed by D = 2750

Total pages printed by E = 2731

Total pages printed by F = 2712

Hence, Maximum pages printed by printer D only.

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Question 165

Number of pages printed by Printer A in 3rd week is what per cent of the total number of pages printed by
the Printer D in all the given weeks?

A    22

B    18

C    12

D    14

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E     16
Answer: E

Explanation:
Number of pages printed by printer A in 3rd week is = 440

Number of pages printed by printer D in all weeks = 2750

440
Hence, percentage = 2750 = 16%
Question 166

What is the difference between the total number of pages printed by the Printer E in 1st, 2nd and 4th week
together and total number of pages printed by Printer C in all the given weeks together.

A    952

B    878

C    924

D    934

E    918

Answer: C

Explanation:
Total number of pages printed by printer C = 2595

Total number of pages printed by printer E in 1st, 2nd and 4th week together = 638 + 621 + 412 = 1671
Difference = 2595 - 1671 = 924

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 167

The respective ratio of A and B is 8:7. If the salary of B increases by 20% and the salary of A increases by
21% the new ratio becomes 96: 97 respectively. What is A’s salary?

A    22560

B    21600

C    20640

D    23040

E    Cannot be determined

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 Answer: E

Explanation:
As we are not given any absolute figures, a unique value of A's salary cannot be determined.

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Question 168

A, B, and C started a business by investing Rs.12800, Rs.16800 and Rs.9600 respectively. If after 8 months
B received Rs.13125 as his share of profit, what amount did C get as his share of profit?

A    Rs.7800

B    Rs.7150

C    Rs.7750

D    Rs.8250

E    Rs.7500

Answer: E

Explanation:
Ratio of investments of B and C = 16800 : 9600 = 7 : 4

=> Profits of B : C = 7 : 4

=> C's share = 47 ∗ 13125 = Rs 7500

Question 169

Simple interest on a sum of money for 4 yr at 7 pcpa is Rs.3584. What would be the compound interest
(compounded annually) on the same amount of money for 2 yr at 4 pcpa?

A    Rs.1162.32

B    Rs.1098.73

C    Rs.992.38

D    Rs.1231.76

E    Rs.1044.48

Answer: E

Explanation:
Simple interest on an amount of P with rate R for the time T will be = P100
RT

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So 3584 = P ×7×4
100

P = 12800

Hence, compound interest will be = 12800(1 + 4/100)2 − 12800 = 13844.48 - 12800 = 1044.48
Question 170

1/3rd the diagonal of a square is 3 2 m . What is the measure of the side of the concerned square?

A    12 m

B    9 m

C    18 m

D    6 m

E    7 m

Answer: B

Explanation:
Diagonal = 3*3 2=9 2
=> Side = 9

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Instructions

What will come in the place of question mark(?) in the given questions?

Question 171

4 12 + (1 ÷ 2 89 ) − 3 13
1
=?

9
A    1 26

7
B     2 13

C    1 11
26

4
D    2 13

E     1 10
13
Answer: E

Explanation:
Given equation can be written as the following:

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9 9 40 46
2 + 26 − 13 = 26

= 23
13

Hence, answer will be E

Question 172
6×136÷8+132
628÷16−26⋅25 =?

A    15

B    24

C    18

D    12

E    28

Answer: C

Explanation:
After solving according to the BODMAS rule, numerator of the given equation will be = 102+132 = 234

Denominator will be = 39.25 - 26.25 = 13

Hence, answer will be = 234

13 = 18
Question 173

(441)1/2 × 207 × (343)1/3 ÷ ((14)2 × (529)1/2 ) = ?

A    5.75

B    6.75

C    7.75

D    6.25

E    6.50

Answer: B

Explanation:
Given equation can be written as follows:
189
(21 × 207 × 7) ÷ (196 × 23) = 28 = 6.75

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Question 174

7744 × (11)2 ÷ (2)3 =?3

A    7

B    9

C    11

D    13

E    17

Answer: C

Explanation:
Given equation can be written as following:

(88 × 121) ÷ 8 = 1331 = (11)3

Hence, answer will be 11

Question 175
4
(4356)1/2 × 11
= ?×6

A    2

B    4

C    8

D    6

E    16

Answer: E

Explanation:
Square root of 4356 will be = 66

Hence, 66∗4
11 will be = 24

So, 24 = ?×6
Hence, the answer is 16

So answer will be E

Question 176
3
8 of (4624 ÷ (564 − 428)) =?

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A    13 14

B     14 12

C    11 56

D    12 34

E     12 18

Answer: D

Explanation:
Given equation can be written as follows:

3/8 of (4624/136) or 3/8 of 34 i.e. 51

4

Hence, answer will be D

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Question 177

456 ÷ 24 × 38 − 958 + 364 =?

A    112

B    154

C    128

D    136

E    118

Answer: C

Explanation:
Given equation can be solved as follows:

456 ÷ 24 = 19
19 × 38 − 958 + 364 = 128
Hence, answer will be C

Question 178

(43)2 + 841 = (?)2 + 1465

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A    41

B    35

C    38

D    33

E    30

Answer: B

Explanation:
As we know that square of 43 will be = 1849
Hence, answer will be = 1849 + 841 − 1465 = 1225 = 35
Question 179

(3 38 × 6 12
5 3
) − (2 16 × 3 12 ) =?

A    21

B    18

C    14

D    15

E    16

Answer: C

Explanation:
Given equation can be written as following:

( 27
8 ×
77 35
12 ) − ( 16 × 72 )
693−245
32 = 14

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Question 180

(34 ⋅ 5 × 14 × 42) ÷ 28 =?

A    715.0

B    736.5

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C    724.5

D    757.5

E    733.5

Answer: C

Explanation:
Equation can be solved as following:

(34 ⋅ 5 × 14 × 42) ÷ 28 = (34 ⋅ 5 × 21) = 724.5

Question 181

(2164 ÷ (36)4 ) × (6)5 = (6)?

A    13

B    11

C    7

D    9

E    10

Answer: D

Explanation:
216 = 63 and 36 = 62
So, given equation can be solved as follows:

(6)12−8 × 65 = 69
Hence, answer will be 9

Question 182
4356×?
6084
= 11

A    144

B    196

C    169

D    81

E    121

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 Answer: C

Explanation:
Given equation can be solved as following:

4356×? = 121 × 6084

Hence, answer will be = 121×6084
4356 = 169

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Question 183
6 7 9
(3 17 ÷ 2 34 − 1 25 ) = (?)2

2
A     5

1
B     3

4
C     5

1
D     5

3
E     5

Answer: A

Explanation:
Given equation can be solved as follows:
57 34 34 4
17 × 75 − 25 = 25

Hence, answer will be A

Question 184

(1097 ⋅ 63 + 2197 ⋅ 36 − 2607 ⋅ 24) ÷ 3 ⋅ 5=?

A    211 ⋅ 5

B     196 ⋅ 5

C    209 ⋅ 5

D    192 ⋅ 5

E     189 ⋅ 5

Answer: B

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Explanation:
1097 ⋅ 63 + 2197 ⋅ 36 − 2607 ⋅ 24 = 687.75
Given equation will be equal to 687.75
3.5 = 196.5

Question 185
1 1
11 of [(17424) 2 ) ÷ (66)2 × 33 ] = ?2

1
A     11

3
B     11

2
C     11

4
D     11

5
E     11

Answer: B

Explanation:
As we know that the square root of 17424 will be 132
132×27 9
Hence, 66×66×11 = 121

So answer will be B

IBPS Clerk Salary Details

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 186

12 yr ago the ratio between the ages of A and B was 3:4 respectively. The present age of A is 3 34 times of
C’s present age. If C’s present age is 10 yr, then what is B’s present age?

A    48

B    46

C    60

D    54

E    36

Answer: B

Explanation:

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 3
a−12
b−12 = 4
a
c
= 15
4

c = 10 => a = 37.5

=> b = 46 years

Question 187

A certain number of capsules were purchased for Rs.216, 15 more capsules could have been purchased in
same amount of each capsule was cheaper by Rs 10. What was the number of capsules purchased?

A    6

B    14

C    8

D    12

E    9

Answer: D

Explanation:
Number of capsules purchased = x
216 216
x = x+15 + 10

x = 12 satisfies the equation.

Question 188

M, N, O and P divided Rs 44352 among themselves. M took 34 th of the money, N took 16 th of the remaining
amount and rest was divided among O and P in the ratio of 3:4 respectively. How much did O get as his
share?

A    Rs.9600

B    Rs. 10600

C    Rs. 4760

D    Rs. 9240

E    Rs. 3960

Answer: E

Explanation:
Amount taken by M = 34 ∗ 44352 = Rs 33264

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Remaining amount = 44352 - 33264 = Rs 11088

Amount taken by N = 16 ∗ 11088 = Rs 1848

Remaining amount = 11088 - 1848 = Rs 9240

O gets 37 th share of Rs 9240 => 37 *9240 = Rs 3960

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Question 189

Pure milk costs Rs. 16 per litre. After adding water the milkman sells the mixture Rs. 15 per litre and
thereby makes a profit of 25%. In what respective ratio does he mix milk with water?

A    3: 1

B    4: 3

C    3: 2

D    5: 3

E    4: 1

Answer: A

Explanation:
Selling price is Rs 15 and Profit is 25%
15
=> Cost Price = 1.25 = Rs 12

=> In every litre of solution, there is Rs 12 worth milk.

But the actual cost of milk is Rs 16.

=> Ratio = 12 : 4 = 3 : 1

Question 190

37, ?, 103, 169, 257, 367

A    61

B    59

C    67

D    55

E    71

Answer: B

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Explanation:
37 + 22 = 59

59 + 44 = 103

103 + 66 = 169

169 + 88 = 257

257 + 110 = 367

Hence, the missing number is 59

Question 191

4, 6, 34, ?, 504, 1234

A    194

B    160

C    186

D    156

E    172

Answer: B

Explanation:
6 - 4 = 2 = 13 +1
34 - 6 = 28 = 33 +1
1234 - 504 = 730 = 93 +1
The pattern here is difference between consecutive terms is 13 + 1, 33 + 1, 53 + 1, 73 + 1, 93 + 1
∴ The third term is 34 + 53 + 1 = 160

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Question 192

3, ?, 14, 55, 274, 1643

A    11

B    5

C    6

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D    8

E    7

Answer: B

Explanation:
3×2−1=5
5 × 3 − 1 = 14
14 × 4 − 1 = 55
55 × 5 − 1 = 274
274 × 5 − 1 = 1643
Hence, the missing number is 5

Question 193

960, 839, 758, 709, ?, 675

A    696

B    700

C    688

D    678

E    684

Answer: E

Explanation:
960 − 112 = 839
839 − 92 = 758
758 − 72 = 709
709 − 52 = 684
684 − 32 = 675
Hence, the missing number is 684

Question 194

61, 72, ?, 73, 59, 74, 58

A    70

B    60

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C    71

D    62

E    63

Answer: B

Explanation:
For first, third, fifth and seventh number:

61-1 = 60

60-1 = 59

59-1 = 58

For fourth and sixth number:

72+1 = 73

73+1 = 74

Hence, answer will be B

Question 195

Two pieces of can full a tank in 10h and 16 h respectively. A third pipe can empty the tank in 32 h. If all the
three pipes function simultaneously, then in how much time the tank will be full?? (in h)

A    7 11
21

B     7 13
21

C    8 14
21

5
D    6 14

9
E     8 14

Answer: B

Explanation:
1 1 1 21
If all the pipes are working together, then part of the tank filled in one hr will be = 10 + 16 − 32 = 160

Hence, it will take 160

21 hr to fill the complete tank

So answer will be B

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Question 196

A merchant bought some goods worth Rs. 6000 and sold half of them at 12% profit. At what profit per cent
should he sell the remaining goods to make and overall profit of 18%?

A    24

B    28

C    18

D    20

E    26

Answer: A

Explanation:
50% of the goods are sold at 12%.

=> 0.5(x) + 0.5(12) = 0.18

=> 0.5x = 0.12

=> x = 0.24

Question 197

A and B are two numbers. 6 times of square of B is 540 more than the square of A. If the respective ratio
between A and B is 3:2, what is the value of B?

A    10

B    12

C    16

D    8

E    14

Answer: B

Explanation:
6B 2 − 540 = A2
A : B = 3:2

A = 3B/2
9B 2
6B 2 − 540 = 4

Solving for B, we get B = 12

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Question 198

The perimeter of a rectangle whose length is 6 m more than its breadth is 84 m. What would be the area of
a triangle whose base is equal to the diagonal of the rectangle and whose height is equal to the length of
the rectangle?

A    324

B    372

C    360

D    364

E    348

Answer: C

Explanation:
Let the length and breadth be a+6 and a respectively.

2(a+a+6) = 84 => a = 18

height of triangle = 24 and base = 30

Area = 12 ∗ 24 ∗ 30 = 360 sq m
Question 199

56 workers can finish a piece of work in 14 days. If the work is to be completed in 8 days, then how many
extra workers are required?

A    36

B    48

C    44

D    42

E    32

Answer: D

Explanation:
56 workers in 14 days => 1 worker in 56*14 days

8 days => 56∗14

8
= 98 workers.

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Extra workers = 98 - 56 = 42

Question 200

A 210 m long train takes 6 s to cross a man running at 9 km/h in a direction opposite to that of the train.
What is the speed of the train? (in km/h)

A    127

B    121

C    117

D    108

E    111

Answer: C

Explanation:
Speed of train = x

Relative speed = x + 9(5/18) = x + 2.5

Speed = 210/6 = 35m/s

x + 2.5 = 35 => x = 32.5 m/s = 32.5 * (18/5) = 6.5 * 18 = 117 kmph

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