Pressure Ulcers eCourse: Module 3 – Quiz I
1. One of the most important ways to prevent pressure ulcers is to:
a. Do regular skin assessments
b. Provide support surfaces for all
c. Identify at-risk individuals
d. Do regular repositioning
2. If a patient or resident is found to be at low risk for a pressure ulcer, further reassessment
is not necessary.
True False
3. All at-risk patients should be assessed for pressure ulcers:
a. At time of admission
b. At regular intervals
c. At any significant change of health condition
d. Upon discharge
4. The classic signs of infection apply to pressure ulcer wound infections.
True False
5. When doing a skin assessment, which of the following should you check for?
a. Bogginess
b. Induration
c. Non-blanchable erythema
d. Edema
6. In acute care, reassessment for pressure ulcers should occur how often?
a. Every 24 to 48 hours
b. Weekly initially, then monthly
c. Every shift
d. After the patient dies
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7. Pain is relatively minor in most pressure ulcer cases.
True False
8. In home care, reassessment for pressure ulcers should occur how often?
a. Every 24 to 48 hours
b. Weekly initially, then monthly
c. Every nurse visit
d. Every fourth nurse visit
9. Periwound skin refers to the tissue inside the pressure ulcer wound.
True False
10. When doing regular patient skin assessments, where is it important to check?
a. Elbows
b. Under special garments and protective wear
c. Areas that lack sensation to pain
d. Areas of past skin breakdown
11. The periwound skin is intimately involved in the circulatory response to wounds and the
risks of infection.
True False
12. Why is it important to document the anatomical location of every pressure ulcer?
a. Affects interventions
b. Determines treatment costs
c. Affects liability
d. Healing prognosis
13. Tunneling is tissue destruction that occurs under the intact skin around the wound
perimeter.
True False
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14. Which of the following may indicate a bacterial contamination of a pressure ulcer wound?
a. Induration
b. Maceration
c. Purulent exudates
d. Foul odor
15. Stage III and IV pressure ulcers will all have deep wounds.
True False
16. What are main disadvantages of using sheet tracings to measure the size of a pressure
ulcer wound?
a. Time consuming
b. Expensive
c. Size of area is difficult to estimate
d. Requires special equipment
17. Undermining refers to channeling that extends from any part of the wound and may pass
through subcutaneous tissue and muscle.
True False
18. Deep infection is a frequent complication of Stage I and II pressure ulcers and is
characterized by an increase in warmth, tenderness and pain.
True False
19. Which of the following factors can cause pain when a patient or resident has a pressure
ulcer?
a. Pressure, friction, and shear
b. Damaged nerve endings
c. Inflammation
d. Infection
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20. The goal of pain management in the pressure ulcer patient is to eliminate the cause of the
pain and to provide analgesia.
True False
21. It is safe to assume that if a patient does not express or respond to pain, it does not exist.
True False
22. Patients with pressure ulcers may feel increased pain during procedures such as dressing
changes and debridement.
True False
23. It is important to document the appearance of the pressure ulcer by assessing the color of
the wound base as a percentage of:
a. Black
b. Yellow
c. Red
d. Green
24. Granulation tissue will jump or twitch if pinched.
True False
25. Slough tissue is red/orange to black in color.
True False
26. Devitalized tissue manifests itself as dark or black eschar on the wound or as yellow
fibrinous material on the wound base.
True False
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27. When documenting the clinical appearance of necrotic tissue, you should include:
a. Color
b. Exudate
c. Consistency
d. Adherence
28. Nurses should consider all risk factors independent of the scores obtained on any
validated pressure ulcer prediction scales.
True False
29. A red wound bed indicates:
a. Presence of slough or fibrinous tissue
b. Presence of granulation tissue
c. Infection
d. Sign of ischemia
30. Risk-assessment tools are also useful to identify specific risk factors in individuals so that
appropriate prevention interventions can be undertaken.
True False
31. A pale red wound bed with spontaneous bleeding indicates:
a. Presence of slough or fibrinous tissue
b. Presence of granulation tissue
c. Infection
d. Sign of ischemia
32. Patients who are predicted by risk-assessment tools to be of low risk to develop pressure
ulcers, but in fact do, are referred to as false-positives.
True False
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33. The advantages of using the Braden pressure ulcer risk assessment scale are:
a. Good reliability and validity
b. Can be used in a variety of clinical settings
c. Works with diverse groups including ethnic populations
d. Provides details on each risk factor
34. One of the benefits of the Braden Scale is that it can be modified to suit local clinical
settings.
True False
35. Which pressure ulcer risk-assessment scale was developed for the elderly population in
the United Kingdom?
a. Braden Q Scale
b. Glamorgan Scale
c. Norton Scale
d. Waterlow Scale
e. Braden Scale
36. Which pressure ulcer risk-assessment scale measures physical and mental condition,
activity, mobility and incontinence?
a. Braden Q Scale
b. Glamorgan Scale
c. Norton Scale
d. Waterlow Scale
e. Braden Scale
37. Which pressure ulcer risk-assessment scale has two risk sections – one for normal risk and
one for special risk?
a. Braden Q Scale
b. Glamorgan Scale
c. Norton Scale
d. Waterlow Scale
e. Braden Scale
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38. Which pressure ulcer risk-assessment tool categorizes its scores into “at risk”, “high risk”
and “very high risk”?
a. Braden Q Scale
b. Glamorgan Scale
c. Norton Scale
d. Waterlow Scale
e. Braden Scale
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Answers to Module 3 – Quiz I
Q1 c
Q2 False – Reassessment must be done on a regular basis because even the most stable
patient or resident can become at-risk for pressure ulcers, particularly in an acute care
setting.
Q3 a,b,c
Q4 False – Pressure ulcer wound infections also exhibit exudates with persistent
inflammation, delayed healing, granulation tissue that bleeds easily, pocketing and
malodor.
Q5 a,b,c,d – All of these, plus changes in skin integrity, texture, turgor, temperature,
moisture and color changes, need to be assessed.
Q6 a
Q7 False – Pain is a common complication that is often undertreated; it is often the most
distressing symptom patient report.
Q8 c
Q9 False – It refers to the tissue immediately surrounding the pressure ulcer wound.
Q10 a,b,c,d
Q11 True
Q12 a,d
Q13 False – This is undermining; tunneling is a narrow channel extending into healthy tissue.
Q14 c,d
Q15 False – In places with little subcutaneous tissue, such as the occiput, ear and fingers, the
ulcers will be shallow.
Q16 a,c
Q17 False – This is tunneling; undermining is tissue destruction that occurs under intact skin
around the wound perimeter.
Q18 False – Deep infection is a complication with Stage III and IV pressure ulcers and is
characterized by an increase in warmth, tenderness and pain.
Q19 a,b,c,d
Q20 True
Q21 False – Nurses should watch for visual cues of pain.
Q22 True – The nurse should try and prevent such discomfort and takes steps to relieve it.
Pressure Ulcers eCourse: Module 3 – Quiz I page 8
Q23 a,b,c
Q24 False – Granulation tissue may bleed; healthy muscle tissue will jump or twitch if
pinched.
Q25 False – Slough tissue is yellow/white to gray in color.
Q26 True
Q27 a,b,c,d
Q28 True – Because not all risk factors are found in any one scale.
Q29 b
Q30 True
Q31 c,d
Q32 False – These patients are false-negatives; patients who were predicted to develop
pressure ulcers, but did not are false-positives.
Q33 a,b,c,d
Q34 False – It is important NOT to alter the scale by adding or deleting items as this will
change its accuracy.
Q35 c
Q36 c
Q37 d
Q38 d
Pressure Ulcers eCourse: Module 3 – Quiz I page 9
1. Parkinson disease is marked by a lack of which chemical in the brain?
A. Serotonin B. GABA C. Dopamine D. Norepinephrine E. None
of the above
2. How many Americans are affected by Parkinson disease?
A. 100,000 people B. 200,000 people C. 500,000 people
D. 1,000,000 people
3. What is the average age when Parkinson disease first appears?
A. 25 B. 50 C. 60 D. 75
4. What is often the first symptom of Parkinson disease?
A. Headache B. Nausea C. Shaking of a hand or foot D. Turning of
the head
5. How is Parkinson disease diagnosed?
A. With a blood test B. With a neurological exam C. With an X-ray
D. All of the above
6. How is Parkinson disease treated?
A. Medicine B. Surgery C. Radiation D. A and B
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