PEDIA CARDIO 2013 6.

A 5 day old male delivered via

caesarean section is for discharge
1. The complete septation occurs with
from the nursery. On 3rd week of
the fusion of this myocardial age during follow up at the out-
structure.
patient department, he was noted to
a. Truncus arteriosus have pansystolic murmur at the
b. Bulbus cordis
left sternal area . The reason for the
c. Primitive atria late recognition of murmur is due
d. Conus cordis
to:
2. The main pulmonary artery comes
7. The hemodynamic effects of the
from this structure:
transitional circulation
a. Truncus arteriosus 8. The size of shunt contributes to
b. Primitive atria
the murmur produce
c. Bulbos cordis 9. Both
d. conus cordis
10. none
3. Which of the following statement is 11. A 3yr old acyanotic boy was
true of the aortic arches?
brought to the OPD because of
a. 1,2,5th aortic arches will frequent coughing. PE = substernal
not be part of future aortic
thrust with crepitant rales CXR=
arch pneumonic infiltrates with RVH.
b. Persistent of 6th aortic arch
What is the expected CXR findings
will result to PDA of the patient?
c. The 5th aortic arch will be
a. Rounded apex in lateral view
part of common carotid
b. Retrocardiac fullness in
arteries
lateral view
d. The 2nd aortic arch will be c. Retrosternal fullness in
part of external carotid artery
lateral view
4. Functional closure of PDA d. Retrosternal fullness in AP
a. 5-10hours
view
b. 15-20hours 12. Which of the ff is true of
c. 10-15 hours
physiologic splitting?
d. 25-30 hours a. It is most evident in all phases
5. A 3 day old was delivered via NSD. A
of respiration
continuous murmur was noted on
b. It is most evident during
the left upper sternal border G1P1
inspiration due to decreased
(2001) mother. The shunting
intrathoracic pressure which
through this defect:
decreases ventricular filling
a. R-L
pressure
b. L-R
c. It is found only in patient with
c. Continuous
intracardiac lesion
d. All
 d. It is most evident during 16. The ff CHD are acyanotic
inspiration due to decreased except?
intrathoracic pressure a. ASD
which increases ventricular b. VSD
filling pressure c. Pulmonary valve atresia
13. PVA, a newborn baby, was with VSD
delivered to the nursery with d. Pulmonary valve stenosis
episodes of cyanosis. PE= Continous 17. What causes the murmur in
murmur on the left upper sternal pts. With ASD?
area. The murmur is loud but no a. The large pressure
thrill. What is the lesion producing difference in atrial level
the murmur? b. The relative pulmonary
a. ASD stenosis
b. PDA c. The small pressure difference
c. VSD in atrial level
d. Pulmonary valve stenosis d. All
14. PVA was subjected to 18. The ff CHD will produce
echocardiography which revealed volume overload.
pulmonary valve atresia with a. Congenital MS
stretched patent foramen ovale and b. Pulmonary valve stenosis
small PDA. What is the procedure of c. TOF
choice for PVA? d. PDA
a. Balloon atrial septostomy 19. The ff are tools in diagnosing
with PDA ligation CHD?
b. Atrial septectomy with PDA a. Hx and PE
stenting b. MRI
c. Ballon septostomy of Blalock c. CBC
Tausig shunting d. All
d. Atrial septectomy with Blalock 20. The most important tool in
Tausig shunting diagnosing CHD?
15. PVA underwent emergency a. ECG
surgical procedure. He has scar b. CXR
incision on the right axillary area. c. Echocardiography
What is the expected murmur of d. Angiography
PVA? 21. Which of the ff lesion is
a. Pansystolic murmur on the common in De George syndrome?
RUQ a. Truncus arteriousus
b. Systolic diastolic murmur at b. Congenital Mitral Valve
the apex stenosis
c. Continous murmur at the c. PDA
apical area d.
d. Continuous murmur on both 22. CHD common among pt with
left and right sternal area Congenital Rubella syndrome
a. ASD
 b. VSD 29. Scimitar syndrome is seen in
c. PDA this type of patient.
d. AVSD a. Infracardiac PAPVR
23. The outcome of untreated b. Infracardiac TAPVR
VSD c. Retrocardia PAPVR
a. Eisenmenger disease d. Supracardiac Malabo ulet
b. Loud S2 on auscultation 30. Criteria for diagnosing
c. Cyanosis Rheumatic heart disease
d. All a. Jones
24. Which of the ff CHD will b. Dallas
produce pressure overload? c. Duke
a. Congenital mitral valve d. None
stenosis 31. Which of the ff individuals
b. PDA is/are high risk of infective
c. ASD endocarditis?
d. PFO a. A 14 day old NB on 2nd
25. Cyanotic heart disease with hospital day admitted with
early congestion maybe seen in this septicemia
patient. b. A 5 year old pt with
a. TOF pneumonia
b. Congenital rubella syndrome c. A 15 year old pt with ruptured
c. TGA AP
d. Congenital MS d. A 15 yr old diagnosedwitb
26. Acyanotic heart disease with mitral valve prolapse
biventricular enlargement without mitral regurgitation
a. AVSD who underwent tooth
b. PDA extraction
c. VSD 32. What is the earliest
d. ASD identiftable cardiac cellprecursor?
27. Acyanotic heart disease with a. morvia
LVH and volume overload b. anglogenic cell cluster
a. Dilated cardiomyopathy c. totipotential ells
Volume Overload d. neural plate
b. Aortic stenosis 33. The new born was delivered
c. Pulmonary stenosis to the nursery.He was noted to be
d. Malabo ulet cyanotic, chest radiography revealed
28. Acyanotic heart disease with messecardia,on echo cardiogram it
increase pulmonary vascular showed single atrium ,and single
markings…. Malabo ulet ventrical. What is the patients
a. VSD looping?
b. PDA a. L loop
c. AVSD b. D loop
d. PAPVR c. both
d. none
 34. The complete septation occurs d. Ductus arteriosus
with the fusion of this myocardial 2. The anterior pituitary gland is derived
structure? from
a. Truncus arteriosus a. Diencephalons
b. Bulbus cordis b. Rathke’s pouch
c. Endocardial cushion c. Neurohypophysis
d. ventricle d. Pituitary stalk
35. The main pulmonary artery 3. The most common congenital heart
came from this primitive structure? disease in down Syndrome
a. Truncus arteriosus a. VSD
b. Bulbus cordis b. ASD
c. Atria c. PDA
d. conus cordis d. AVSD
36. Congenital heart disease 4. Cretinism is also known as
common found among children a. Congenital Dwarfism
congenital b. Congenital Hyperthyroidism
a. ASD c. Congenital Hypothyroidism
b. VSD d. Cryptothyroidism
c. PDA 5. Earliest signs of HF in children
d. AVSD a. Tachypnea
37. The following is are included b. Tachycardia
in the major criteria of duke c. Neither
a. Embolic phenomenon d. Both
b. Oscillating intracardiac 6. True of Intauterine fetal shunts
mass on enchocardiography a. 1 intracardiac and 2 extracardiac
c. Heart failure shunts
d. Fever b. 2 intracardiac and 1 extracardiac
shunts
c. 1 intracardiac and 1 extracardiac
shunts
d. No cardiac shunts
7. Palpatory findings equivalent to a grade
4 murmurs
a. Heaves
b. Thrills
c. Impulse
d. Bruit
8. Embryonic thyroid gland is found in
Pedia cardio 2003 the
1. The highest oxygen saturation in fetal a. Cricoid cartilage
blood vessel is found in b. Hard palate
a. Aorta c. Tongue
b. Pulmonary artery d. Uvula
c. Umbilical vein
9. Sustained Hypertension in a. Low calcium content in cow’s milk
Phaechromocytoma is due to b. High phosphate content in cow’s
a. Aldosterone milk
b. Catecholamines c. High calcium; PO4 ratio
c. Angiotensin II d. Low calcium; Po4 ratio
d. Rennin 17. Carpopedal spasm seen in
10. The source of fetal oxygen and Hypocalcemia is
nutrition a. Chvostek sign
a. Placenta b. Moro sign
b. Fetal lungs c. Trosseous sign
c. Chorionic villi d. Stellwag’s sign
d. Fetal liver 18. Early hypocalcemia in infancy is
11. Intrauterine fetal circulation is common among except
described as a. IDMS
a. Circulation in series b. Preterms
b. Transitional circulation c. Full terms
c. Parallel circulation d. Asphyxiated infants
d. Neonatal circulation 19. Primary pituitary d/o might be due
12. The only anterior pituitary hormone to
with specific target organ a. Tumors
a. Prolactin b. Perinatal insult
b. Growth Hormone c. Hypothalamic dysfunction
c. ACTH d. End organ resistant to GH
d. Thyrotropin 20. Clubbing seen in cyanotic heart
13. Secreted by the posterior pituitary disease develops secondary to
gland a. Increase blood flow
a. Thyrotropin b. Frequent trauma
b. Gonadotropin c. Arteriolar dilatation
c. Vasopressin d. Capillary hypertrophy
d. Somatostatin 21. A continuous murmur at the 2nd ICS
14. The pituitary d/o is characterized by LUSB is most likely due to
excessive --- a. PDA
a. DM b. VSD
b. Pituitary Gigantism c. ASD
c. Pituitary Dwarfism d. TOF
d. DI 22. 2nd heart sound is due to the
15. A---- inactive calciuria is aspirated closure of
in the a. Semilunar valves
a. Parathyroid b. Atrio ventricular valves
b. Serum pool c. Thepesian valve
c. Skeleton d. Eutachian valve
d. Skeletal muscles 23. Innocent murmur is described as
16. Acute neonatal hypocalcemia is due a. Continuous
to b. Diastolic
 c. Never associated with a thrill 5. A patient suddenly developed purpuric
d. Idiosystolic rash all over the body within 24 hours.
24. Squatting is a typical feature of It is accompanied by high grade fever.
a. ASD Patient is ill looking. What is the
b. TOF probable diagnosis
c. VSD a. H. influenza infection
d. PDA b. Meningococcal infection
25. Oxygen c. Pneumococcal infection
a. Closes the ductus arteriosus d. Streptococcal infection
b. Constrict pulmonary vascular bed 6. The usual CSF picture of bacterial
c. Open the ductus arteriosus meningitides is
d. Increase cerebral blood flow a. Increased sugar (high), low
protein
b. High sugar, high protein
BACTERIAL INFECTIONS c. Low sugar, high protein
1. What specific staphylococcal exotoxin d. Low sugar, low protein
hemolyses RBC and degrades 7. A lancet shaped organism was isolated
spingomyelin? in the tracheal aspirate of the child
a. Alpha toxin with pneumonia. The most probable
b. Beta toxin etiologic agent is
c. Delta toxin a. H. influenza infection
d. Leucocidin b. Meningococcal infection
2. What is the DOC for methicillin c. Pneumococcal infection
resistant staph. Aureus d. Streptococcal infection
a. Oxacillin 8. A child with Nephrotic Syndrome
b. Cloxacillin developed peritonitis. The most
c. Erythromycin common etiologic agent affecting this
d. Vancomycin patient is
3. A 3 year old child developed fever and a. H. influenza infection
was noted to have sand paper like rash b. Meningococcal infection
all over the body. What is the probable c. Pneumococcal infection
disease of this child d. Streptococcal infection
a. Kamasoki dse 9. An adnexal mass was noted on
b. Scarlet fever ultrasound in a 17 yr old female.
c. Erysipelas Culture of the vaginal discharge grow
d. Impetigo very well on Thayer Martin medium.
4. What is the best prophylaxis for The patient probably has
rheumatic heart disease a. Chlamydial infection
a. Erythromycin 50 mg/kg/ day b. Gonococcal infection
once daily c. Syphilis infection
b. Cefuroxime 500 mg once daily d. Streptococcal infection
c. Ceftriaxone 1 g once daily
d. Benzathine Pen G 12 M every 3 –
4 weeks
10. The most pathogenic and invasive a. Blood
etiology of Acute Bacterial Meningitis is b. Urine
causing 60 – 70% of it in children <2 c. Stool
yrs old is d. CSF
a. Pneumococcal 17. The Gold Standard for the diagnosis
b. H. influenzae of Typhoid is
c. Streptococcal a. Widal test
d. E. coli b. Typhi dot
11. Bull Neck appearance reddened c. Blood culture growth of
tonsils with pseudomembrane is Salmonella
typically seen in what type of 18. The most common case of bloody
diphtheria diarrhea in the Philippines is
a. Faucial a. Amoebiasis
b. Laryngotracheal b. Shigellosis
c. Nasal c. Salmonellosis
12. This disease usually is positive in d. Enteroinvasive E. coli
Schick test 19. What is the mode of transmission of
a. Diphtheria Cholera
b. Pertussis a. Respiratory
c. Tetanus b. Fecal– oral
d. H. influenza c. Serum
13. A child was born assisted by a d. Droplet
midwife, the umbilical stump look 20. A 10 year old child expectorated a
infected. As the physician I would give rust colored phlegm, what is the
a. An anti – toxin Hyperimmune probable etiologic agent
globulin a. Pneumococcal
b. Penicillin b. Meningococcal
c. Cleaning of the stump c. H. influenzae
d. All d. Pseudomonas
14. The drug of choice for Pertussis is a 21. “El Tor” is another name for
a. Cephalosporin a. Amoebiasis
b. B – lactamase b. Shigellosis
c. Macrolide c. Salmonellosis
d. Cotrimoxazole d. Cholera
15. A child was noted to have persistent 22. At the ward, as the intern is walking
fever for the last 6 days. A transient along the corridor, he saw a man with
rash was seen called the Rose spots. an open wound and he noted a fruity
The probable diagnosis is smell. The probable culture of the
a. Kwashiorkor wound will yield a
b. Scarlet fever a. Pneumococcal infection
c. Dengue fever b. Gonococcal infection
d. Typhoid fever c. Pseudomonas infection
16. The best specimen on week 3 of d. E. coli infection
typhoid fever is derived from the
23. A child suddenly developed low d. Pseudomonas
grade fever. There are some nodules on 4. Part of the management of whooping
the skin and said to be (+) to MITSUDA cough
TEST. The probable diagnosis is a. Antitoxin administration
a. Pseudomonas b. Tetracycline
b. Leprosy c. Erythromycin
c. Chlamydia d. Mucolytic
d. E. coli 5. DOC for H. Influenza infection
24. Conjunctivitis, pain on the calf area, a. Pen G
high grade fever with jaundice is seen b. Erythromycin
in c. Chloramphenicol
a. Measles d. Ampicillin
b. Leptospirosis 6. Community acquired pneumonia in
c. Hepatitis children less than 5 years old is
d. Liver failure commonly secondary to
25. A child waas noted to have a notch a. H. Influenzae and S. aureus
at edge of central incision, with some b. S. aureus and S. Pneumoniae
form of paralysis. The probable etiologic c. H. influenzae and S. pneumoniae
agent is d. H. influenzae and N.
a. Gonococcal infection meningitides
b. Syphilis 7. In a 4 year old child with meningitis
c. Leptospirosis who is noted to have petechiae in the
d. Chlamydia lower extremities, the most likely
etiologic agent is
FINALS SEPTEMBER 2003 a. S. aureus
b. N. meningitides
1. The infection can be considered as c. E. coli
differential diagnosis of congenital d. H. influenzae
syphilis 8. The drug of choice for Staphylococcal
a. Rubella pneumonia is
b. Hepatitis a. Cefuroxime
c. Typhoid fever b. Ampicillin
d. Gonorrhea c. Cephalexin
2. --- inclusion conjunctivitis is secondary d. Oxacillin
to 9. The cell wall of this organism is
a. Pseudomonas composed mainly of peptidoglycan
b. Chlamydia techoic acid and protein A
c. Gonorrhea a. S. pneumoniae
d. Syphilis b. E. coli
3. Formation of bacterial exotoxin is the c. S. aureus
culprit in this infection d. H. influenzae
a. Tetanus 10. Scalded fever is secondary to
b. Leptospirosis a. S. pneumonia
c. Typhoid fever b. S. aureus
 c. Streptococci and S. aureus a. N. gonorrhea
d. H. influenzae b. Strep. Pyogenes
11. DOC for MASA c. Treponema pallidum
a. Pen G d. Group B Strep.
b. Monomycin 19. Vaccine for this organism is
c. Rifampicin recommended in patients with sickle
d. Oxacillin cell disease
12. The etiologic agent of impetigo is a. H. influenzae
a. S. aureus b. S. aureus
b. S. epidermidis c. H. influenzae and Pneumococcus
c. N. meningitides d. S. aureus and Pneumococcus
d. Group A streptococci 20. DOC for meningococcemia
13. It has become the leading cause of a. Ceftriaxone
neonatal sepsis in developed countries b. Pen G
a. H. influenzae c. Chloramphenicol
b. Group B Strep. d. Cefotaxime
c. E. coli
d. S. aureus MATCHING TYPE:
14. Most common cause of UTI in A. PSEUDOMONAS AEROGINOSA
infants and children B. CLOSTRIDIUM TETANI
a. S. aurues C. S. AUREUS
b. E. coli D. AGALACTIAE
c. Shigella E. E. STREP. PYOGENES
d. Pseudomonas
15. Antibiotic that can be given in cases 21. Neonatal Sepsis (D)
of cholera to shorten the duration of 22. Toxic Shock syndrome ( C )
diarrhea
a. Chloramphenicol BACTERIAL FINALS (APRIL 7, 2005)
b. Ampicillin 1. A wart like moist lesion was seen in
c. Tetracycline the genitalia. Upon microscopic
d. Erythromycin examination of the secretions, a
16. DOC for early stage of Syphilis slender long tightly spirochete with
a. Pen G Procaine tapered ends was noted. Short of
b. Ceftriaxone any other history. I will be
c. Pen G Benzathine suspicious of
d. Pen G Crystalline a. Chlamydial infection
17. DOC for a 4 year old male child with b. Gonorrheal infection
S. pneumoniae infection c. Syphilis
a. Ampicillin d. Mycoplasma infection
b. Erythromycin 2. The drug of choice for Chlamydial
c. Cephalexin Pneumonia is
d. Pen G a. Penicillin
18. Neonatal Ophthalmia is secondary b. Cotrimoxazole
to c. Macrolide
 d. Lincomycins d. Pneumococcus
3. A 5 year old child was noted to have 9. A nine year old child attended a
spiking fever associated with kiddie party. He was noted to eat
conjunctivitis. He also complained of salad noodles and chicken. After 4
calf pain and developed jaundice in hours he was noted to have severe
five days time after onset of vomiting and diarrhea. A number of
symptoms. I would be highly people who attended the party
considering suffered the same fate. The most
a. Leptospirosis probable diagnosis is
b. Hepatitis a. Streptococcus
c. Measles b. Staphylococcus
d. Chlamydial infection c. Mycoplasma
4. One of the ff. are manifestations of d. Pneumococcus
Early syphilis except 10. Cloxacillin is the drug of
a. Fever choice for
b. Failure to thrive a. Streptococcus
c. Vesicular rash b. Staphylococcus
d. Olympian brow c. Mycoplasma
5. The stage where MITSUDA test is d. Pneumococcus
positive is 11. Strawberry tongue, sand
a. T.T. Tuberculoid paper rash and circumoral pallor
b. Borderline Tuberculoid was seen in the child with fever. The
c. Borderline most probable diagnosis is
d. Lepromatous a. Streptococcus
6. The toxin Staph that is responsible b. Staphylococcus
for tissue necrosis and platelet c. Mycoplasma
aggregation is d. Pneumococcus
a. Alpha toxin 12. The most common etiology of
b. Beta hemolysin Rheumatic fever is
c. Kappa hemolysin a. Streptococcus
d. Delta hemolysin b. Staphylococcus
7. The leading cause of pneumonia c. Mycoplasma
among malnourished children is d. Pneumococcus
a. Streptococcus 13. Asplenic patients should take
b. Staphylococcus this vaccine every five years because
c. Mycoplasma of increase susceptibility to this
d. Pneumococcus organism
8. A child was noted to have measles. a. Diptheria
He was noted to developed b. Typhoid
pneumonia together with measles. c. Pertussis
The most common etiologic agent is d. Pneumococcal
a. Streptococcus 14. Exposed hospital personnel to
b. Staphylococcus meningococcemia is often advised to
c. Mycoplasma take
 a. Penicillin 19. This organism is motile gram
b. Erythromycin positive anaerobic rods that forms
c. Lincomycin terminal spores resembling
d. Ciprofloxacin drumsticks. The most common
15. Infection of Gonococcus in the disease presentation is that of
newborn usually involves a. Pharyngitis
a. Joints b. Tetanus
b. Eyes c. Pseudomembrane formation
c. Teeth d. Pleural effusion
d. Lungs 20. A child had an accidental
16. Epiglottitis in children is sustaining wounds from a rusty iron
usually caused by bar. After 14 days, he developed
a. H. Influenzae trismus, generalized stiffness and
b. Streptococcus spasms. He was however oriented to
c. Staphylococcus time, place and person. The most
d. Meningococcus probable disease condition affecting
17. A child was suffering from the patient is
cough. The attacks are described as a. Rabies
paroxysmal with bursts of short b. Tetanus
expiration followed by long c. Seizure d/o secondary to CNS
inspiration producing a distinct infection
sound. The probable cause of this d. Acute encephalitis
cough is 21. The treatment of food
a. Bordatella pertussis poisoning due to Salmonellosis in a
b. Streptococcus 10 year old child is
c. H. influenzae a. Cotrimoxazole
d. Pneumococcus b. Chloramphenicol
18. One of the ff. statements c. Ceftriaxone
about the treatment of pertussis is d. Supportive only
true 22. The gold standard for all the
a. Exposure to the --- is diagnosis of typhoid fever is
conventional therapy a. Widal test
b. Ampicillin do not shorten the b. Typhi dot test
duration but decreases the c. Blood culture yield of
communicability salmonella
c. The organism is eradicated in d. Elisa test
the first twenty four hours 23. The most common cause of
after intake of antibiotic body diarrhea is
d. The current recommendation a. Amoebiasis
therapy is 7 days b. Shigellosis
c. Enteroinvasive E. coli
d. Salmonellosis
24. The most common
complication of cholera
 a. Dehydration a. Answer Syphillis
b. Meningitis 7. An 18 year old boy tripped over a barb-
c. Metabolic acidosis wired fence and landed in a pile of
d. Hypocalcemia manure also sustaining a cut on his
25. The drug of choice that is right leg. Which is not an appropriate
sensitive to Pseudomonas is treatment for this boy??
a. Ceftraixone a. Answer: Administration of
b. Penicillin Tetannus Ig alone
c. Vancomycin 8. Which of the following conditions
d. Erythromycin decreases susceptibility to infection
with salmonella??
Pedia Prelim Answers (3rd Year Special a. Answer: Gastric hyperacidity
Class 2008) 9. The presence of Gram (-) kidney, bean
shaped diplocci in erythro smears in
1. One of the following statements is true
males is diagnostic of:
about Diptheria: a. Answer: Gonococcal Infection
a. Incubation period 1-2 weeks
10. On direct visualization of the
b. Incidence has remains unchanged epiglottis, an acute epiglottitis would
despite vigorous immunization
appear:
c. Incidence is highest among health a. Answer: cherry red
care personnel
11. Case #1: A 7 year old patient was
d. It occurs primarily in un- brought to your clinic with complains
immunized individuals
of moderate grade fever. On P.E., you
2. Which statement is correct concerning
note the presence of deeply red tonsils
the prevention of Staph. Infection:
with purulent exudates. Your most
a. Prophylactic immunization is likely diagnosis for this case is:
effective in preventing cord
a. Answer: strep throat
colonization 12. The organism that is responsible for
b. Prevention is thorough hand
the above diagnosis is:
washing a. Answer: Group A Beta-
3. One of the following is NOT a poor
hemolytic Streptococci
prognostic sign of the patient with 13. The definitive diagnosis for the
Meningococcal infection:
above diagnosis is by:
a. Answer: Meningitis
a. Answer: throat culture and
4. Which of the following is an antibiotic
sensitivity
of choice of patients with
14. The drug of choice for this case is:
Meningococcemia:
a. Answer: penicilin
a. Answer: Penicillin G
15. Does for Number #14 is:
5. Pertussis is best treated with which of
a. Answer: 50,000 – 100,000
the following??
units
a. Answer: Erythromycin
16. A dreaded non-suppurative
6. Which of the following is the most
complication of this case is:
likely the congenital cause of
a. Answer: Rheumatic Fever
rhinorrhea??
17. Which is not a differential 23. The most likely diagnosis in this
Diagnosis for the above case: case is:
a. Answer: Koplik Spots a. Answer: Otitis Media of the
18. Which of the following lesions may Left Ear
lead to a complication of Acute 24. Which of the following would NOT
GlomeruloNephritis?? be an appropriate antibiotic treatment
a. Answer: Impetigo for Jose:
19. A complication of Varicella Infection a. Answer: Benzathine penicillin
with a distinct purple color is: G
a. Answer: Necrotizing Fasciitis 25. Confirmatory Test of the offending
20. Which cell wall protein confers organism relies on which of the
virulence: following:
a. Answer: M protein a. Answer: Isolation of the
21. CASE #2: It is morning and the Organism
phone rings in your home. You reach
NEPHRO FINALS
the nurse and she says that Mrs. Dela
APRIL 7, 2005
Cruz is online and would like to talk
with you about her 9 month year old
1. The part of the nephrono that
son, Jose. Your conversation is listed in
reabsorbs 80% of sodium and
the following: Jose was well until 2
majority of the amino acids and
days ago when he developed a runny
glucose is
nose and cough. At about 8 pm he
a. Glomerulus
suddenly developed a temperature of
b. Proximal tubule
39 degrees Celsius and began crying.
c. Distal tubule
He would not sleep and would only
d. Loop of Henle
occasionally nurse on the left breast
2. Renal function is basically assessed
(he refused the right breast). She had
by getting the
given him Paracetamol without success
a. Urinalysis
and when it appeared that things were
b. Ultrasound of the kidney
not improving she called. At this point
ureter bladder
you should:
c. Serum creatinine and BUN
a. Meet Dela Cruz and Jose in the
d. Kidney biopsy
E.R. of Fatima Medical Center
3. A kidney biopsy report includes the
22. On arrival to the E.R., you find an
ff., except
irritable baby with temperature of 39
a. Light microscopic examination
degrees Celsius and physical findings
b. Immunoflourense studies
of soft anterior fontanelle, serum
c. Electron microscopic
packed ear canals, mildly injected
examination
pharynx, slightly enlarged cervical
d. Gram staining
lymph nodes. Which of the following
4. Edema is the accumulation of fluid
would you do now??
in the
a. Answer: Try to remove the
a. Plasma
serum and try to visualize the
b. Intravascular compartment
ear drum
 c. Interstitial space 10. One of the ff. statements is
d. Serosal space true of Acute Glomerulonephritis
5. Hypertension is defined in pediatrics a. Very common among non
as developed countries
a. Blood pressure of greater than b. Boy’s are affected more than
110/80 girls
b. A blood pressure that is c. Pyoderma related AGN is
greater than 95% percentile common during cold months
for age and sex d. Subclinical cases are not
c. a blood pressure that is common
greater than 95% percentile 11. This is the most common
for height cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in
d. a blood pressure of greater adults
than 140/90 a. Minimal change disease
6. Hypertension, Hematuria, Oliguria b. Membranous glomerulopathy
and Azotemia are symptoms of c. Mambranoproliferative
a. Acute glomerulonephritis glomerulopathy
b. Nephritic syndrome d. Focal segmental
c. UTI glomerulonephritis
d. Henoch Schoenlein Purpura 12. A 14 year old female was
7. One of the ff. statements about noted to have hematuria. She later
Alport Syndrome is true on developed edema. Laboratory
a. It is common on the first findings revealed a decrease C3.
decade of life Other symptoms noted were the
b. Females are more affected presence of a round distinct rash at
than males the extremities and was noted to
c. Patients with Alport Syndrome have oral ulcers. The probable
are good transplant diagnosis of the patients is
candidates a. Acute glomerulonephritis
d. Conductive hearing loss is b. Henoch Schoenlein Purpura
usually present c. Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome
8. In Idiopathic Hypercaluria, the drug d. Systemic Lupus
of choice is Erythematosus
a. Oral Cyclophosphamide 13. The drug of choice for patient
b. Oral thiazides with Nephrotic Syndrome, minimal
c. Fish oil change is
d. Prednisone a. Penicillin
9. The pathophysiology of acute b. Cyclophosphamide
glomerulonephritis is c. Prednisone
a. Complement activation d. Furosemide
b. Immune – complex mediated 14. Proteinuria which warrant
c. Hypersensitivity type 1 further investigation is
d. Idiopathic a. Transient
b. Orthostatic
 c. Persistent a. 100,000 cfu of multiple
d. Minimal organism
15. A chronic renal patient has b. 10,000 cfu of multiple
a. Normal sized kidney by organism
ultrasound c. 100,000 cfu of single
b. Delayed bone aging organism
c. A height a bigger than usual d. 10,000 cfu of single organism
children 22. Initially depressed C3 and
d. Low blood pressure normalizes after 6 – 8 weeks is seen
16. The type of renal failure in in patients with
patients with posterior urethral a. Acute glomerulonephritis
valve is b. Membranoproliferative disease
a. Pre – renal c. Systemic Lupus
b. Renal Erythematous
c. Post – renal d. Bacterial Endocarditis
17. Problems noted in patient 23. The ff. statements about
with renal failure are Nephrotic Syndrome is true
a. Alkalosis a. It is commonly seen in the
b. Hypokalemia adolescent age group
c. Uremia b. It is more common in females
d. Hypocalcemia than in males
18. The best treatment option for c. Increased cholesterol --- of the
children with end stage renal main feature
disease is d. They are usually prone to
a. peritoneal dialysis infection caused by
b. hemodialysis encapsulated bacteria
c. conservative management 24. Patients presenting with
d. transplantation microangiopathic anemia,
19. The absolute need for a donor increasing BUN and Crea is usually
is diagnosed to have
a. ABO compatible a. Goodpasture syndrome
b. HLA typing compatible b. Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome
c. DNA matching c. Henoch Schoenlein Purpura
d. No absolute need d. SLE
20. The usual screening test for 25. The ff. are the features of
obstruction acute renal failure
a. Ultrasound of the kidney a. It is irreversible
ureter and bladder b. It is mostly renal in etiology
b. DMSA Scan among children
c. DTPA Scan c. It has a sudden onset
d. VCUG d. It necessitates transplantation
21. A positive urine culture in a all the time
mid stream clean catch collection
FINALS 2002 d. VCUG
1. Pre- renal failure is usually seen in 8. In patients with post streptococcal
patient with acute Glomerulonephritis
a. MPGN a. Renal biopsy is routine
b. PUV b. It is more common in males
c. Nephritic Syndrome c. Edema is the most common
d. HUS complaint
2. Alport Syndrome is characterized by d. It is associated with heavy
a. Sensorineural hearing defect proteinuria
b. Usually with Nephrotic 9. Among children it is the most
Syndrome common histologic finding in patient
c. Seen at birth with Nephrotic Syndrome
d. Usually more severe among a. Minimal change Nephrotic
females Syndrome
3. The most common cause of b. Membranous nephropathy
hematuria in the world among c. Membranoproliferative
children nephritic syndrome
a. IgA nephropathy d. Focal Segmental
b. UTI glomerulonephrosis
c. Acute Glomerulonephritis 10. A (+) urine culture in a mid
d. Isoniazid stream clean catch collection
4. Proteinuria among adolescent is a. 100,000 cfu of multiple
a. Most of the time pathologic organism
b. Associated with severe b. 10,000 cfu of multiple
hypertension organism
c. Good prognosis c. 100,000 cfu of single
d. Associated with pain organism
5. Urgency, incontinence and dysuria d. 10,000 cfu of single organism
are symptoms of 11. The best way to collect urine
a. Acute glomerulonephritis in child 6 months of age is
b. Nephritic syndrome a. ---
c. UTI b. Suprapubic tap
d. HUS c. Catherization
6. Blood pressure is affected by a d. Bag collection
SMALL CUFP in which manner 12. Systemic Lupus
a. Inc BP Erythematosus is
b. Dec BP a. A disease that most satisfy 4
c. No change at all out of the 11 criteria
7. The best screening tool in the b. Illness that has 4 classes
diagnosis of urinary abnormality is c. Specific renal disease with no
a. Urinalysis other involvement
b. Ultrasound of the kidney d. Seen commonly in male
ureter and bladder adolescents
c. DMSA
13. Initially depress C3 and d. C3
normalizes after 6 – 8 weeks is seen 20. Kidneys are usually
in patients with a. Bilateral structures
a. Acute glomerulonephritis b. Retroperitoneally located
b. Membranoproliferative disease c. Can regenerate
c. Systemic Lupus d. A, C not fully developed
Erythematosus 21. Pyuria is defined as
d. Bacterial endocarditis a. WBC >10/hpf
14. The most common etiology of b. WBC > 5/hpf
UTI is c. WBC >10/hpf
a. E. coli d. WBC > 5/hpf
b. Entamoeba coli 22. Age of continence among
c. Proteus Filipino is
d. Pseudomonas a. 2 y/o
15. Patient who presents with b. 3 y/o
pulmonary hemorrhage and c. 10 y/o
nephritis will usually have a d. 6 y/o
diagnosis of 23. The most common drug
a. Goodpasture syndrome causing rod urine in Philippines
b. HUS a. Rifampicin
c. Henoch Schoenolein Purpura b. Prednisone
d. SLE c. INH
16. The most common cause of d. PZA
acute renal failure in children is 24. Acute renal failure
a. Goodpasture syndrome a. Usually irreversible
b. HUS b. Associated with short stature
c. Henoch Schoenolein Purpura c. Delayed bone aging
d. SLE d. Normal size kidney
17. Nephrotic is not part of the 25. Transplantation is
syndrome a. The most definitive treatment
a. Goodpasture syndrome of CRF
b. HUS b. Always pre- emptive
c. Henoch Schoenlein Purpura c. Treatment for UTI
d. SLE d. Treatment for AGN
18. DOC in patients with
Nephrotic syndrome is Pediatric respiratory, September 2011
a. Penicillin
1. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia is
b. Cyclophosphamide
formed at this stage of lung
c. Prednisone
development
d. Azathhioprine
a. Embryonic stage
19. Most specific test of SLE
b. Pesudoglandular stage
a. dsDNA
c. Cannalicular stage
b. ANA
d. Terminal stage
c. LE prep
 e. Alveolar stage a. Fever
2. Refers to the inflammation of the b. Facial pain
lung parenchyma c. Periobital edema
a. Pneumonia d. A and B only
b. Bronchitis e. A, B and C
c. Emphysema 9. Choanal atresia is a condition
d. Bronchiectasis characterized by
3. Lung volume inside the lung during a. It is the most common
normal breathing congenital anomaly of the
a. Tidal valume nose
b. Total lung capacity b. Inability to pass a firm
c. Inspiratory reserve volume catheter through each
d. Expiratory reserve volume nostril
e. Residual volume c. Cyanosis is more intense
4. The most reliable sign of pneumonia when the baby is crying
in children d. A and B only
a. Cyanosis e. A, B and C
b. Chest indrawing 10. Acute airway obstruction in
c. Tachypnea children
d. Fever a. Most commonly caused by
e. wheezing virus
5. A high pitched muscle sound b. Croup brassy cough are the
produced by air passing through an most common
obstructed airway with increased manifestations
resistant caused by edema and c. Edema is worst at the
mucus cricoid cartilage
a. Rales d. A and B
b. Ronchi e. A, B and C
c. Stridor 11. Acute epiglottitis in children
d. Grunting a. Peak incidence occurs
6. Stridor is clinical manifestation of between 2-5 y/o
a. Upper airway obstruction b. Has a fulminating course
b. Lower always obstruction c. Most common etiology is RSV
7. A 5 y/o child is said to have PTB respiratory synctitial virus
class III if d. A and B
a. He has a PPD of 15mm e. A, B, C
induration 12. Croup is clinical manifestation
b. Presence of fever of >3 of
weeks a. Laryngotracheobronchitis
c. Chest xray showing b. Pneumonia
presence of ghon complex c. Bronchial asthma
d. A and C only d. A and B only
e. A, B and C
8. Clinical manifestation of sinusitis
13. The following clinical 18. The following is/are the
condition should be considered in a characteristics of hydrocarbon
child with unilateral persistent aspiration pneumonia
wheezing not responsive to a. Hydrocarbon has low
broncodilators viscosity and high volatility
a. Bronchial asthma properties
b. Bronchiolitis obliterans b. Pulmonary complication
c. Bronchial foreign body wuch as pneumothorax may
obstruction occur
d. A and B only c. Patient should be observed
14. Bacterial trachitis children for at least 6 hours before
a. Most commonly caused by S sending home
aureous d. A and B only
b. Life threatening disease e. A, B and C
c. Antibiotic of choice are 19. The following statement are
axacillin, vancomyacin, truth regarding nose bleeding in
methicillin children
d. A and B only a. It is most often translent
e. A, B and C b. It is most commonly caused
15. A condition characterized by by trauma
progressive granuloma formation of c. The bleeding source is
the small airways usually the kisselbach
a. Bronchial asthma plexus
b. Acute bronchitis d. A and B only
c. Bronchiolitis obliterans e. A, B and C
d. Bronchilectasis 20. Based on the CARI protocol, a
e. Acute bronchitis child who has RR>60 chest in
16. A clinical condition drawing and cyanosis is said to have
characterized by presence of a. No pneumonia
cartilaginous plate at the posterior b. Severe pneumonia
pharynx c. Very severe pneumonia
a. Obstruction sleep apnea d. Mild pneumonia
b. Ondino’s curse e. Bronchopneumonia
c. Choanal atresia 21. Clinical manifestation of
d. Tetralogy of fallot retropharyngeal abscess
17. Aspiration pneumonia should a. Fever difficulty of
be considered in patients with the swallowing
following conditions b. Bulging of the posterior
a. Esophageal atresia pharyngeal wall
b. Gastro esophageal reflux c. Wheezing
c. Debilitated patient d. A and B only
d. A and B only e. A, B and C
e. A B and C 22. Clinical manifestation of
epiglottitis
 a. Fever, stridor
b. Patient assume a tripod
sign
c. Presence of air fluid levels and
complete opacification is seen
in sinus
d. A and B only
e. A B and C
23. What management for a
newborn infant with laryngomalacia
a. Surgery
b. Observe
c. Salbutamol nebulization
d. Steroids
24. Lung cyst located at the
middle between the trachea and the
esophagus
a. Pulmonary obstruction
b. Bronchitis cyst
c. Congenital labor pneumonia
d. CCAM
25. Gold standard diagnosis tool
use to confirm the diagnosis of
pulmonary obstruction
a. Chest xray
b. Angiogram
c. Barium swallow
d. Lateral neck sray