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Computer Science Exam Questions

The document contains 31 multiple choice questions related to computer science topics such as boolean functions, 8085 assembly language instructions, relational algebra queries, database concepts, computer graphics, programming language concepts, compiler design, data communication, and graph theory. The questions cover a wide range of fundamental computer science concepts and each question provides 4 possible answer choices with one being the correct answer.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
135 views18 pages

Computer Science Exam Questions

The document contains 31 multiple choice questions related to computer science topics such as boolean functions, 8085 assembly language instructions, relational algebra queries, database concepts, computer graphics, programming language concepts, compiler design, data communication, and graph theory. The questions cover a wide range of fundamental computer science concepts and each question provides 4 possible answer choices with one being the correct answer.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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PAPER – III

COMPUTER SCIENCE

Note : Attempt all the questions. Each question carries two (2) marks.

1. A combinational circuit is to be designed to implement a boolean function with 3


boolean variables which gives output 1 if all the inputs have same value, otherwise
give 0. If only basic gates (AND, OR and NOT) are available and if complimented
variable is not available, then determine the minimum number of gates to design the
circuit ?
1) 3 2) 4
3) 5 4) 6

2. What are the status of the Auxiliary Carry (AC) and Carry Flag (CY) after executing
the following 8085 program?
MVI H, 5DH
MVI L, 6BH
MOV A, H
ADD L
1) AC = 0 and CY = 0
2) AC = 1 and CY = 1
3) AC = 1 and CY = 0
4) AC = 0 and CY = 0

3. Assume the contents of registers HL are 20H and 50H, respectively. Memory location
2050H contains 9FH. Which of the following instruction is used to transfer the
content of memory location to register B?
1) MOV M,B
2) MOV M,2050H
3) MOV B,M
4) MOV B,9FH

4. If each address space represents one byte of storage space, how many address lines
are needed to access RAM chips arranged in a 4 × 6 array, where each chip is 8K × 4
bits?
1) 13
2) 15
3) 16
4) 17

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5. The architecture in which the hardware decides which instructions are to be issued
concurrently at run time is
1) Multiple instruction issue
2) Very long instruction word architecture
3) Super scalar architecture
4) Super pipelined architecture

6. How many times, the following program jump to LOOP?


LOOP MVI C, FFH
DCR C
JNZ LOOP
HLT
1) 256 2) 255
3) 155 4) 156

7. Consider the following schemes: Branch = (Branch-name, Assets, Branch-city)


Customer = (Customer-name, Bank name, Customer-city) Borrow = (Branch-name,
loan number, customer account-number) Deposit = (Branch-name, Account number,
Customer-name, Balance) Using relational Algebra, the Query that finds customers
who have balance more than 10, 000 is
1)  customer-name (  balance > 10000 (Deposit))
2)  customer-name (  balance > 10000 (Deposit))
3)  customer-name (  balance > 10000 (Borrow))
4)  customer-name (  balance > 10000 (Borrow))

8. Which one of the following statements is false?


1) The data dictionary is normally maintained by the database administrator
2) Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dictionary
3) The data dictionary contains the name and description of each data element
4) The data dictionary is a tool used exclusively by the database administrator

9. Conceptual design
1) is a documentation technique
2) needs data volume and processing frequencies to determine the size of the
database
3) involves modelling independent of the DBMS
4) is designing the relational model

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10. The student marks should not be greater than 100 and less than zero. This is
1) Integrity constraint 2) Referential constraint
3) Over-defined constraint 4) Feasible constraint

11. Consider the following database table having A, B, C and D as its four attributes and
four possible candidate keys (I, II, III and IV) for this table:
A B C D
a1 b1 c1 d1
a2 b3 c3 d1
a1 b2 c1 d2
1) I : {B} 2) II : {B, C}
3) III : {A, D} 4) IV : {C}

12. Which character function can be used to return a specified portion of a character
string?
1) INSTR 2) SUBSTRING
3) SUBSTR 4) POS

13. The parametric form of 3D slope lines are


1) X  f t , y  g t , z  ht  2) X  a0 ,Y  b0 , Z  C0

3) F t   0, g t   0, ht   0 4) F t   0, g t   0, ht   1

14. Resolution is defined as


1) The number of pixels in the horizontal direction X the number pixels in the
vertical direction.
2) The number of pixels in the vertical direction X the number pixels in the
horizontal direction.
3) The number of pixels in the vertical direction + the number pixels in the
horizontal direction.
4) The number of pixels in the vertical direction – the number pixels in the
horizontal direction

15. .A raster color display processor supports a resolution of 1024 x 800 with display of
16 million colors simultaneously. What will be the approximate size of
frame buffer used in the display processor?

1) 1.2  10 6 2) 2.4  10 6

3) 16  10 6 4) 1  105

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16. In Bresenham's algorithm, while generating a circle, it is easy to generate

1) One octant first and other by successive reflection

2) One octant first and other by successive rotation

3) One octant first and other by successive translation

4) All octants

17. Color depth that can be displayed on a display unit can be defined by

1) Bits per pixel 2) Bytes per pixel

3) Megabyte per pixel 4) Pixel

18. The origin of computer graphics was developed in

1) 1950 2) 1960

3) 1970 4) 1990

19. CISC stand for

1) Complete Instruction Set Computer

2) Complex Instruction Set Computer

3) Combined Instruction Set Computer

4) Compiled Instruction Set Computer

20. The constructor which needs parameters with the objects is called

1) default constructor 2) parameterized constructor

3) copy constructor 4) Self constructor

21. Any syntactic construct that can be described by a regular expression can also be
described by a

1) Context sensitive grammar 2) Non-context free grammar

3) Context-free grammar 4) Both 1) and 2)

22. Type checking is normally done during

1) Lexical Analysis 2) Syntax Analysis

3) Syntax Directed Translation 4) Code Optimization

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23. LR parsers are attractive because
1) They can be constructed to recognize CFG corresponding to all programming
construct
2) There is no need of backtracking
3) Both 1) and 2)
4) None of these

24. The evaluation strategy which delay the evaluation of an expression until its value is
needed and which avoids repeated evaluation is
1) Early evaluation 2) Late evaluation
3) Lazy evaluation 4) Critical evaluation

25. If the band rate is 400 for a QPSK signal, the bit rate is ———————bit/s.
1) 100 2) 400
3) 800 4) 1600

26. In Ethernet, when Manchester encoding is used, the bit rate is


1) Half the baud rate 2) Twice the baud rate
3) Same as the baud rate 4) Thrice the baud rate

27. An organization has a class B network and wishes to form subnets for 64
departments. The subnet mask would be
1) 255.255.0.0 2) 255.255.64.0
3) 255.255.128.0 4) 255.255.252.0

28. Amplitude modulation of a carrier wave is represented by


1) a longer or shorter wavelength
2) an increased or decreased wave height
3) a shift or departure from the normal continuous pattern
4) a square wave

29. Most local loops physically connected to the PSTN supply switched, dial-up service
over which of the following?
1) four-wire circuits 2) eight-wire circuits
3) leased lines 4) two-wire circuits

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30. IEEE 1394 supports speeds of up to

1) 1.5 Mbps 2) 12 Mbps

3) 1.544 Gpbs 4) 3.2 Gps

31. An undirected graph G V , E  contains nn  2 nodes named v1 ,v2 ,....vn Two nodes

vi ,v j are connected if and only if 0  i  j  2 . Each edge vi ,v j  is assigned a weight

i  j . A sample graph with n  4 is shown below. What will be the cost of the

minimum spanning tree?

1) 1 12 (11n^2–5n) 2) n^2–n+1

3) 6n–11 4) 2n–1

32. Circularly linked list is used to represent a Queue. A single variable p is used to

access the Queue. To which node should p point such that both the operations

enQueue and deQueue can be performed in constant time?

1) Rear node

2) Front node

3) Not possible with a single pointer

4) Node next to front

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33. The elements 32, 15, 20, 30, 12, 25, 16 are inserted one by one in the given order into
a maxheap. The resultant max heap is

1) A 2) B
3) C 4) D

34. B+ Trees are considered BALANCED because

1) The lengths of the paths from the root to all leaf nodes are all equal

2) The lengths of the paths from the root to all leaf nodes differ from each other by

at most 1.

3) The number of children of any two non-leaf sibling nodes differ by at most 1

4) The number of records in any two leaf nodes differs by at most 1

35. Which of the following infix expression is obtained on converting the postfix

expression ABC+ –?

1) A–B+C 2) B+C–A

3) A+B–C 4) C–A+B

36. The characters ‘D’,’C’,’B’,’A’ are placed in a queue(in that order) and then removed one

at a time, in what order will they be removed?

1) ABCD 2) ABDC

3) DCAB 4) DCBA

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37. Preventing direct access of data-members of the class from outside world is known as

1) Polymorphism 2) Encapsulation

3) Data Hiding 4) Scope resolution

38. The ____________ includes hundred of classes and methods grouped into several
function packages.

1) API 2) JVM

3) JAVAC 4) JRE

39. The paint method accepts ___________ type of argument.

1) Graphics 2) Graphic

3) Drawing 4) Pixel

40. Which tag allows programs and other binary objects to be directly embedded in
webpage?
1) <base> 2) <link>
3) <object> 4) <script>

41. Which is also called as abstract class?

1) virtual function 2) pure virtual function

3) derived class 4) function

42. The main purpose of using Javascript is

1) To design HTML page 2) To perform server side script

3) To add interactivity to HTML 4) To execute database query

43. In a software project, COCOMO (Constructive Cost Model) is used to estimate

1) effort and duration based on the size of the software

2) size and duration based on the effort of the software

3) effort and cost based on the duration of the software

4) size, effort and duration based on the cost of the software

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44. What is the appropriate pairing of items in the two columns listing various activities
encountered in a software life cycle?

P. Requirements Capture a. Module Development and Integration

Q. Design b. Domain Analysis

R. Implementation c. Structural and Behavioural Modeling

S. Maintenance d. Performance Tuning

1) P-c, Q-b, R-d, S-a

2) P-b, Q-c, R-a, S-d

3) P-c, Q-b, R-a, S-d

4) P-b, Q-c, R-d, S-a

45. A software project was estimated at 352 Function Points (FP). A four person team will
be assigned to this project consisting of an architect, two programmers, and a tester.
The salary of the architect is Rs.80,000 per month, the programmer Rs.60,000 per
month and the tester Rs.50,000 per month. The average productivity for the team is 8
FP per person month. Which of the following represents the projected cost of the
project?

1) Rs. 28,16,000 2) Rs. 20,90,000

3) Rs. 26,95,000 4) Rs. 27,50,000

46. Consider the following statements about the cyclomatic complexity of the control flow
graph of a program module. Which of these are TRUE?

I. The cyclomatic complexity of a module is equal to the maximum number of


linearly independent circuits in the graph

II. The cyclomatic complexity of a module is the number of decisions in the module
plus one, where a decision is effectively any conditional statement in the module

III. The cyclomatic complexity can also be used as a number of linearly independent
paths that should be tested during path coverage testing

1) I and II 2) II and III

3) I and III 4) I, II and III

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47. Match the following

List – I List II

a. Condition coverage i. Black-box testing

b. Equivalence partitioning ii. System testing

c. Volume testing iii. White box testing

d. Alpha testing iv Performance testing

Codes :

a b c d

1) ii iii i iv

2) iii iv ii i

3) iii i iv ii

4) iii i ii iv

48. The purpose of earned value analysis is to


1) Determine how to compensate developers based on their productivity
2) Provide a quantitative means of assessing software project progress
3) Provide a qualitative means of assessing software project progress
4) Set the price point for a software product based on development effort

49. A system has 4 processes sharing 6 resources. If each process needs a maximum of 2
units, then
1) Deadlock may occur 2) Deadlock never occur
3) Deadlock has to occur 4) Deadlock may not occur

50. Consider a system with a two-level paging scheme in which a regular memory access
takes 150 nanoseconds, and servicing a page fault takes 8 milliseconds. An average
instruction takes 100 nanoseconds of CPU time, and two memory accesses. The TLB
hit ratio is 90%, and the page fault rate is one in every 10,000 instructions. What is
the effective average instruction execution time?
1) 645 ns 2) 1050 ns
3) 1215 ns 4) 1230 ns

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51. Consider a system with 4 types of resources R1 (3 units), R2 (2 units), R3 (3 units), R4

(2 units). A non-preemptive resource allocation policy is used. At any given instance, a

request is not entertained if it cannot be completely satisfied. Three processes P1, P2,

P3 request the sources as follows if executed independently.

Process P1: Process P2: Process P3:

t=0: requests 2 units of R2 t=0: requests 1 unit of R4 t=0: requests 2 units of R3

t=1: requests 1 unit of R3 t=2: requests 2 units of R1 t=2: requests 1 unit of R4

t=3: requests 2 units of R1 t=5: releases 2 units of R1 t=4: requests 1 unit of R1

t=5: releases 1 unit of R2 t=7: requests 1 unit of R2 t=6: releases 1 unit of R3

and 1 unit of R1. t=8: requests 1 unit of R3 t=8: Finishes

t=7: releases 1 unit of R3 t=9: Finishes

t=8: requests 2 units of R4

t=10: Finishes

Which one of the following statements is TRUE if all three processes run concurrently

starting at time t=0?

1) Only P1 and P2 will be in deadlock.

2) Only P2 and P3 will be in a deadlock.

3) P1, P2 and P3 will be in deadlock

4) All processes will finish without any deadlock

52. Which technique is based on compile-time program transformation for accessing

remote data in a distributed-memory parallel system.

1) cache coherence scheme

2) computation migration

3) remote procedure call

4) message passing

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53. A large number of disks in a system improves the rate at which data can be read or

written

1) if the disks are operated on sequentially

2) if the disks are operated on selectively

3) if the disks are operated in random

4) if the disks are operated in parallel

54. Routine is not loaded until it is called. All routines are kept on disk in a relocatable

load format. The main program is loaded into memory & is executed. This type of

loading is called

1) Dynamic Processing

2) Dynamic loading

3) Dynamic linking

4) Overlays

55. Consider f(N) = g(N) + h(N) Where function g is a measure of the cost of getting from

the start node to the current node N and h is an estimate of additional cost of getting

from the current node N to the goal node. Then f(N) = h(N) is used in which one of the

following algorithms ?

1) A* algorithm

2) AO* algorithm

3) Greedy best first search algorithm

4) Iterative A* algorithm

56. What was originally called the "imitation game" by its creator?

1) The Turing Test

2) LISP

3) The Logic Theorist

4) Cybernetics

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57. The First Order Logic (FOL) statement  R  Q   P  Q  is equivalent to which of

the following?

1) R  Q   P  Q   R  P 

2) R  Q   P  Q   R  P 

3) R  Q   P  Q   R  P 

4) R  Q   P  Q   R  P 

58. The most important reason for failure of MIS is

1) Use of improper tools for design

2) Non involvement of end-user

3) Improper Specification

4) Timeliness

59. The major function of the language system is

1) to perform various processing tasks

2) to provide artificial-intelligence capabilities to the DSS

3) to provide data to the DSS

4) to enable the users to interact with the DSS

60. The cost associated with a node in A* algorithm with g(n) represents the cost of the

path from the initial state to node n and h(n) is the heuristic estimate or the cost or a

path from node n to a goal is

1) f(n) = g(n) + h(n)

2) f(n) = g(n) * h(n)

3) f(n) = g(n) / h(n)

4) f(n) = g(n) % h(n)

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61. The major difference between a moore and mealy machine is that

1) The output of the former depends only on the present input

2) The output of the former depends on the input of the present state and present
input

3) The output of the former depends on the input of the present state

4) None of the above

62. The intersection of a CFL and a regular Language

1) Need not be a regular

2) Need not be a context free

3) Is always regular

4) Is always context Free

63. A PDM behaves like a TM when the number of auxiliary memory has

1) Zero

2) 1 or more

3) 2 or more

4) None of the above

64. In digital communication system, smaller the code rate,__________ are the redundant
bits.

1) less

2) more

3) equal

4) unpredictable

65. A image is considered to be a function of a(x,y) where ‘a’ represent

1) height of image

2) width

3) amplitude

4) resolution

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66. If L a A .  is the codeword length of symbol ai, then the average codeword length is
given by,
Symbol Probability Assigned Code

a4 0.6 0

a1 0.2 10

a2 0.1 110

a3 0.05 1110

a5 0.05 1111

The average code word length is,


1) 1.7 bits 2) 2.5 bits
3) 1 bit 4) 2.3 bits

67. When there is no feasible region formed by the constraints in conjunction with non-
negativity conditions, then the solution is
1) No Solution 2) Unbounded Solution
3) Optimum Solution 4) Feasible Solution

68. In LPP Dual of the dual is


1) Dual 2) Alternative
3) Primal 4) Optimal

69. The expected duration in PERT is estimated


1) te  1 3 2m  1 2 a  b

2) te  1 6 2m  1 2 a  b

3) te  1 3 m  a  b

4) te  1 6 m  a  b

70. Consider a fuzzy set A defined on the interval x  0,10 of integers by the
membership function A x   x x  2

 cut corresponding to   0.5 will be


1) {0, 1, 2 , 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
2) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
3) {2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
4) {}

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71. Let A={0/0, 0.2/10, 0.35/20, 0.65/30, 0.85/40, 1/50} and B={0/0, 0.35/10, 0.25/20, 0.8/30,
0.95/40, 1/50} be the two fuzzy sets. Apply max operator on A and B. Which of the
following is the correct result.
1) {0/0, 0.35/10, 0.35/20, 0.8/30, 0.95/40, 1/50}
2) {0/0, 0.2/10, 0.25/20, 0.65/30, 0.85/40, 1/50}
3) {1/0, 0.8/10, 0.65/20, 0.35/30, 0.15/40, 0/50}
4) {0/0, 0.2/10, 0.35/20, 0.65/30, 0.85/40, 1/50}

72. Find the net input to the output neuron of the following neural net.

1) 0.07 2) –0.07
3) 0.29 4) –0.29

73. dev directory contain files for controlling


1) input/output
2) CPU
3) OS
4) Both 1) and 2)

74. Which one of the option is used to turn debugging with set command?
1) –vx 2) –dx
3) +vx 4) +dx

75. To allow only one user to work with a particular file at a particular time, one has to
use
1) Semaphore
2) Critical region
3) Locking
4) Dedicated mode

————————

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ROUGH WORK

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ROUGH WORK

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