PAPER – III
COMPUTER SCIENCE
Note : Attempt all the questions. Each question carries two (2) marks.
1.   A combinational circuit is to be designed to implement a boolean function with 3
     boolean variables which gives output 1 if all the inputs have same value, otherwise
     give 0. If only basic gates (AND, OR and NOT) are available and if complimented
     variable is not available, then determine the minimum number of gates to design the
     circuit ?
     1)   3                                     2)    4
     3)   5                                     4)    6
2.   What are the status of the Auxiliary Carry (AC) and Carry Flag (CY) after executing
     the following 8085 program?
      MVI H, 5DH
      MVI L, 6BH
      MOV A, H
      ADD L
     1)   AC = 0 and CY = 0
     2)   AC = 1 and CY = 1
     3)   AC = 1 and CY = 0
     4)   AC = 0 and CY = 0
3.   Assume the contents of registers HL are 20H and 50H, respectively. Memory location
     2050H contains 9FH. Which of the following instruction is used to transfer the
     content of memory location to register B?
     1)   MOV M,B
     2)   MOV M,2050H
     3)   MOV B,M
     4)   MOV B,9FH
4.   If each address space represents one byte of storage space, how many address lines
     are needed to access RAM chips arranged in a 4 × 6 array, where each chip is 8K × 4
     bits?
     1)   13
     2)   15
     3)   16
     4)   17
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5.   The architecture in which the hardware decides which instructions are to be issued
     concurrently at run time is
     1)   Multiple instruction issue
     2)   Very long instruction word architecture
     3)   Super scalar architecture
     4)   Super pipelined architecture
6.   How many times, the following program jump to LOOP?
     LOOP MVI C, FFH
            DCR C
            JNZ LOOP
            HLT
     1)   256                                     2)   255
     3)   155                                     4)   156
7.   Consider the following schemes: Branch = (Branch-name, Assets, Branch-city)
     Customer = (Customer-name, Bank name, Customer-city) Borrow = (Branch-name,
     loan number, customer account-number) Deposit = (Branch-name, Account number,
     Customer-name, Balance) Using relational Algebra, the Query that finds customers
     who have balance more than 10, 000 is
     1)    customer-name (  balance > 10000 (Deposit))
     2)    customer-name (  balance > 10000 (Deposit))
     3)    customer-name (  balance > 10000 (Borrow))
     4)    customer-name (  balance > 10000 (Borrow))
8.   Which one of the following statements is false?
     1)   The data dictionary is normally maintained by the database administrator
     2)   Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dictionary
     3)   The data dictionary contains the name and description of each data element
     4)   The data dictionary is a tool used exclusively by the database administrator
9.   Conceptual design
     1)   is a documentation technique
     2)   needs data volume and processing frequencies to determine the size of the
          database
     3)   involves modelling independent of the DBMS
     4)   is designing the relational model
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10.   The student marks should not be greater than 100 and less than zero. This is
      1)    Integrity constraint                                2)     Referential constraint
      3)    Over-defined constraint                             4)     Feasible constraint
11.   Consider the following database table having A, B, C and D as its four attributes and
      four possible candidate keys (I, II, III and IV) for this table:
                                                A   B       C    D
                                                a1 b1 c1 d1
                                                a2 b3 c3 d1
                                                a1 b2 c1 d2
      1)    I : {B}                                             2)     II : {B, C}
      3)    III : {A, D}                                        4)     IV : {C}
12.   Which character function can be used to return a specified portion of a character
      string?
      1)   INSTR                                                2)      SUBSTRING
      3)    SUBSTR                                              4)      POS
13.   The parametric form of 3D slope lines are
      1)    X  f t , y  g t , z  ht                    2)      X  a0 ,Y  b0 , Z  C0
      3)    F t   0, g t   0, ht   0                   4)      F t   0, g t   0, ht   1
14.   Resolution is defined as
      1)    The number of pixels in the horizontal direction X the number pixels in the
            vertical direction.
      2)    The number of pixels in the vertical direction X the number pixels in the
            horizontal direction.
      3)    The number of pixels in the vertical direction + the number pixels in the
            horizontal direction.
      4)    The number of pixels in the vertical direction – the number pixels in the
            horizontal direction
15.   .A raster color display processor supports a resolution of 1024 x 800 with display of
      16   million       colors    simultaneously.      What         will   be     the    approximate       size   of
      frame buffer used in the display processor?
      1)    1.2  10 6                                          2)     2.4  10 6
      3)    16  10 6                                           4)     1  105
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16.   In Bresenham's algorithm, while generating a circle, it is easy to generate
      1)   One octant first and other by successive reflection
      2)   One octant first and other by successive rotation
      3)   One octant first and other by successive translation
      4)   All octants
17.   Color depth that can be displayed on a display unit can be defined by
      1)   Bits per pixel                          2)    Bytes per pixel
      3)   Megabyte per pixel                      4)    Pixel
18.   The origin of computer graphics was developed in
      1)   1950                                    2)    1960
      3)   1970                                    4)    1990
19.   CISC stand for
      1)   Complete Instruction Set Computer
      2)   Complex Instruction Set Computer
      3)   Combined Instruction Set Computer
      4)   Compiled Instruction Set Computer
20.   The constructor which needs parameters with the objects is called
      1)   default constructor                     2)    parameterized constructor
      3)   copy constructor                        4)    Self constructor
21.   Any syntactic construct that can be described by a regular expression can also be
      described by a
      1)   Context sensitive grammar               2)    Non-context free grammar
      3)   Context-free grammar                    4)    Both 1) and 2)
22.   Type checking is normally done during
      1)   Lexical Analysis                        2)    Syntax Analysis
      3)   Syntax Directed Translation             4)     Code Optimization
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23.   LR parsers are attractive because
      1)   They can be constructed to recognize CFG corresponding to all programming
           construct
      2)   There is no need of backtracking
      3)   Both 1) and 2)
      4)   None of these
24.   The evaluation strategy which delay the evaluation of an expression until its value is
      needed and which avoids repeated evaluation is
      1)   Early evaluation                        2)   Late evaluation
      3)   Lazy evaluation                         4)   Critical evaluation
25.   If the band rate is 400 for a QPSK signal, the bit rate is ———————bit/s.
      1)   100                                     2)   400
      3)   800                                     4)   1600
26.   In Ethernet, when Manchester encoding is used, the bit rate is
      1)   Half the baud rate                      2)   Twice the baud rate
      3)   Same as the baud rate                   4)   Thrice the baud rate
27.   An organization has a class B network and wishes to form subnets for 64
      departments. The subnet mask would be
      1)   255.255.0.0                             2)   255.255.64.0
      3)   255.255.128.0                           4)   255.255.252.0
28.   Amplitude modulation of a carrier wave is represented by
      1)   a longer or shorter wavelength
      2)   an increased or decreased wave height
      3)   a shift or departure from the normal continuous pattern
      4)   a square wave
29.   Most local loops physically connected to the PSTN supply switched, dial-up service
      over which of the following?
      1)   four-wire circuits                      2)   eight-wire circuits
      3)   leased lines                            4)   two-wire circuits
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30.   IEEE 1394 supports speeds of up to
      1)   1.5 Mbps                                   2)    12 Mbps
      3)   1.544 Gpbs                                 4)    3.2 Gps
31.   An undirected graph G V , E  contains nn  2 nodes named v1 ,v2 ,....vn Two nodes
      vi ,v j are connected if and only if 0  i  j  2 . Each edge vi ,v j  is assigned a weight
      i  j . A sample graph with n  4 is shown below. What will be the cost of the
      minimum spanning tree?
      1)   1 12 (11n^2–5n)                            2)    n^2–n+1
      3)   6n–11                                      4)    2n–1
32.   Circularly linked list is used to represent a Queue. A single variable p is used to
      access the Queue. To which node should p point such that both the operations
      enQueue and deQueue can be performed in constant time?
      1)   Rear node
      2)   Front node
      3)   Not possible with a single pointer
      4)   Node next to front
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33.   The elements 32, 15, 20, 30, 12, 25, 16 are inserted one by one in the given order into
      a maxheap. The resultant max heap is
      1)   A                                       2)    B
      3)   C                                       4)    D
34.   B+ Trees are considered BALANCED because
      1)   The lengths of the paths from the root to all leaf nodes are all equal
      2)   The lengths of the paths from the root to all leaf nodes differ from each other by
           at most 1.
      3)   The number of children of any two non-leaf sibling nodes differ by at most 1
      4)   The number of records in any two leaf nodes differs by at most 1
35.   Which of the following infix expression is obtained on converting the postfix
      expression ABC+ –?
      1)   A–B+C                                   2)    B+C–A
      3)   A+B–C                                   4)    C–A+B
36.   The characters ‘D’,’C’,’B’,’A’ are placed in a queue(in that order) and then removed one
      at a time, in what order will they be removed?
      1)   ABCD                                    2)    ABDC
      3)   DCAB                                    4)    DCBA
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37.   Preventing direct access of data-members of the class from outside world is known as
      1)   Polymorphism                              2)   Encapsulation
      3)   Data Hiding                               4)   Scope resolution
38.   The ____________ includes hundred of classes and methods grouped into several
      function packages.
      1)   API                                       2)   JVM
      3)   JAVAC                                     4)   JRE
39.   The paint method accepts ___________ type of argument.
      1)   Graphics                                  2)   Graphic
      3)   Drawing                                   4)   Pixel
40.   Which tag allows programs and other binary objects to be directly embedded in
      webpage?
      1)   <base>                                    2)   <link>
      3)   <object>                                  4)   <script>
41.   Which is also called as abstract class?
      1)   virtual function                          2)   pure virtual function
      3)   derived class                             4)   function
42.   The main purpose of using Javascript is
      1)   To design HTML page                       2)   To perform server side script
      3)   To add interactivity to HTML              4)   To execute database query
43.   In a software project, COCOMO (Constructive Cost Model) is used to estimate
      1)   effort and duration based on the size of the software
      2)   size and duration based on the effort of the software
      3)   effort and cost based on the duration of the software
      4)   size, effort and duration based on the cost of the software
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44.   What is the appropriate pairing of items in the two columns listing various activities
      encountered in a software life cycle?
      P.     Requirements Capture          a.        Module Development and Integration
      Q.     Design                        b.        Domain Analysis
      R.     Implementation                c.        Structural and Behavioural Modeling
      S.     Maintenance                   d.        Performance Tuning
      1)     P-c, Q-b, R-d, S-a
      2)     P-b, Q-c, R-a, S-d
      3)     P-c, Q-b, R-a, S-d
      4)     P-b, Q-c, R-d, S-a
45.   A software project was estimated at 352 Function Points (FP). A four person team will
      be assigned to this project consisting of an architect, two programmers, and a tester.
      The salary of the architect is Rs.80,000 per month, the programmer Rs.60,000 per
      month and the tester Rs.50,000 per month. The average productivity for the team is 8
      FP per person month. Which of the following represents the projected cost of the
      project?
      1)     Rs. 28,16,000                             2)    Rs. 20,90,000
      3)     Rs. 26,95,000                             4)    Rs. 27,50,000
46.   Consider the following statements about the cyclomatic complexity of the control flow
      graph of a program module. Which of these are TRUE?
      I.     The cyclomatic complexity of a module is equal to the maximum number of
             linearly independent circuits in the graph
      II.    The cyclomatic complexity of a module is the number of decisions in the module
             plus one, where a decision is effectively any conditional statement in the module
      III.   The cyclomatic complexity can also be used as a number of linearly independent
             paths that should be tested during path coverage testing
      1)     I and II                                   2)   II and III
      3)     I and III                                  4)   I, II and III
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47.   Match the following
           List – I                              List II
      a.   Condition coverage             i.          Black-box testing
      b.   Equivalence partitioning       ii.         System testing
      c.   Volume testing                 iii.        White box testing
      d.   Alpha testing                  iv          Performance testing
      Codes :
           a     b     c    d
      1)   ii    iii   i    iv
      2)   iii   iv    ii   i
      3)   iii   i     iv   ii
      4)   iii   i     ii   iv
48.   The purpose of earned value analysis is to
      1)   Determine how to compensate developers based on their productivity
      2)   Provide a quantitative means of assessing software project progress
      3)   Provide a qualitative means of assessing software project progress
      4)   Set the price point for a software product based on development effort
49.   A system has 4 processes sharing 6 resources. If each process needs a maximum of 2
      units, then
      1)   Deadlock may occur                           2)    Deadlock never occur
      3)   Deadlock has to occur                        4)    Deadlock may not occur
50.   Consider a system with a two-level paging scheme in which a regular memory access
      takes 150 nanoseconds, and servicing a page fault takes 8 milliseconds. An average
      instruction takes 100 nanoseconds of CPU time, and two memory accesses. The TLB
      hit ratio is 90%, and the page fault rate is one in every 10,000 instructions. What is
      the effective average instruction execution time?
      1)   645 ns                                       2)    1050 ns
      3)   1215 ns                                      4)    1230 ns
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51.   Consider a system with 4 types of resources R1 (3 units), R2 (2 units), R3 (3 units), R4
      (2 units). A non-preemptive resource allocation policy is used. At any given instance, a
      request is not entertained if it cannot be completely satisfied. Three processes P1, P2,
      P3 request the sources as follows if executed independently.
Process P1:                    Process P2:                     Process P3:
t=0: requests 2 units of R2    t=0: requests 1 unit of R4      t=0: requests 2 units of R3
t=1: requests 1 unit of R3     t=2: requests 2 units of R1     t=2: requests 1 unit of R4
t=3: requests 2 units of R1    t=5: releases 2 units of R1     t=4: requests 1 unit of R1
t=5: releases 1 unit of R2     t=7: requests 1 unit of R2      t=6: releases 1 unit of R3
and 1 unit of R1.              t=8: requests 1 unit of R3      t=8: Finishes
t=7: releases 1 unit of R3     t=9: Finishes
t=8: requests 2 units of R4
t=10: Finishes
      Which one of the following statements is TRUE if all three processes run concurrently
      starting at time t=0?
      1)   Only P1 and P2 will be in deadlock.
      2)   Only P2 and P3 will be in a deadlock.
      3)   P1, P2 and P3 will be in deadlock
      4)   All processes will finish without any deadlock
52.   Which technique is based on compile-time program transformation for accessing
      remote data in a distributed-memory parallel system.
      1)   cache coherence scheme
      2)   computation migration
      3)   remote procedure call
      4)   message passing
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53.   A large number of disks in a system improves the rate at which data can be read or
      written
      1)   if the disks are operated on sequentially
      2)   if the disks are operated on selectively
      3)   if the disks are operated in random
      4)   if the disks are operated in parallel
54.   Routine is not loaded until it is called. All routines are kept on disk in a relocatable
      load format. The main program is loaded into memory & is executed. This type of
      loading is called
      1)   Dynamic Processing
      2)   Dynamic loading
      3)   Dynamic linking
      4)   Overlays
55.   Consider f(N) = g(N) + h(N) Where function g is a measure of the cost of getting from
      the start node to the current node N and h is an estimate of additional cost of getting
      from the current node N to the goal node. Then f(N) = h(N) is used in which one of the
      following algorithms ?
      1)   A* algorithm
      2)   AO* algorithm
      3)   Greedy best first search algorithm
      4)   Iterative A* algorithm
56.   What was originally called the "imitation game" by its creator?
      1)   The Turing Test
      2)   LISP
      3)   The Logic Theorist
      4)   Cybernetics
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57.   The First Order Logic (FOL) statement  R  Q   P  Q  is equivalent to which of
      the following?
      1)    R  Q   P  Q   R  P 
      2)    R  Q   P  Q   R  P 
      3)    R  Q   P  Q   R  P 
      4)    R  Q   P  Q   R  P 
58.   The most important reason for failure of MIS is
      1)   Use of improper tools for design
      2)   Non involvement of end-user
      3)   Improper Specification
      4)   Timeliness
59.   The major function of the language system is
      1)   to perform various processing tasks
      2)   to provide artificial-intelligence capabilities to the DSS
      3)   to provide data to the DSS
      4)   to enable the users to interact with the DSS
60.   The cost associated with a node in A* algorithm with g(n) represents the cost of the
      path from the initial state to node n and h(n) is the heuristic estimate or the cost or a
      path from node n to a goal is
      1)   f(n) = g(n) + h(n)
      2)   f(n) = g(n) * h(n)
      3)   f(n) = g(n) / h(n)
      4)   f(n) = g(n) % h(n)
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61.   The major difference between a moore and mealy machine is that
      1)      The output of the former depends only on the present input
      2)      The output of the former depends on the input of the present state and present
              input
      3)      The output of the former depends on the input of the present state
      4)      None of the above
62.   The intersection of a CFL and a regular Language
      1)      Need not be a regular
      2)      Need not be a context free
      3)      Is always regular
      4)      Is always context Free
63.   A PDM behaves like a TM when the number of auxiliary memory has
      1)      Zero
      2)      1 or more
      3)      2 or more
      4)      None of the above
64.   In digital communication system, smaller the code rate,__________ are the redundant
      bits.
      1)      less
      2)      more
      3)      equal
      4)      unpredictable
65.   A image is considered to be a function of a(x,y) where ‘a’ represent
      1)      height of image
      2)      width
      3)      amplitude
      4)      resolution
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66.   If L a A .  is the codeword length of symbol ai, then the average codeword length is
      given by,
                              Symbol Probability Assigned Code
                                   a4            0.6               0
                                   a1            0.2               10
                                   a2            0.1              110
                                   a3            0.05             1110
                                   a5            0.05             1111
      The average code word length is,
      1)   1.7 bits                                          2)   2.5 bits
      3)   1 bit                                             4)   2.3 bits
67.   When there is no feasible region formed by the constraints in conjunction with non-
      negativity conditions, then the solution is
      1)   No Solution                                       2)   Unbounded Solution
      3)   Optimum Solution                                  4)   Feasible Solution
68.   In LPP Dual of the dual is
      1)   Dual                                              2)   Alternative
      3)   Primal                                            4)   Optimal
69.   The expected duration in PERT is estimated
      1)    te  1 3 2m  1 2 a  b
      2)    te  1 6 2m  1 2 a  b
      3)    te  1 3 m  a  b
      4)    te  1 6 m  a  b
70.   Consider a fuzzy set A defined on the interval x  0,10 of integers by the
      membership function A x   x x  2
       cut corresponding to   0.5 will be
      1)   {0, 1, 2 , 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
      2)   {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
      3)   {2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
      4)   {}
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71.   Let A={0/0, 0.2/10, 0.35/20, 0.65/30, 0.85/40, 1/50} and B={0/0, 0.35/10, 0.25/20, 0.8/30,
      0.95/40, 1/50} be the two fuzzy sets. Apply max operator on A and B. Which of the
      following is the correct result.
      1)    {0/0, 0.35/10, 0.35/20, 0.8/30, 0.95/40, 1/50}
      2)    {0/0, 0.2/10, 0.25/20, 0.65/30, 0.85/40, 1/50}
      3)    {1/0, 0.8/10, 0.65/20, 0.35/30, 0.15/40, 0/50}
      4)    {0/0, 0.2/10, 0.35/20, 0.65/30, 0.85/40, 1/50}
72.   Find the net input to the output neuron of the following neural net.
      1)    0.07                                      2)     –0.07
      3)    0.29                                      4)     –0.29
73.   dev directory contain files for controlling
      1)    input/output
      2)    CPU
      3)    OS
      4)    Both 1) and 2)
74.   Which one of the option is used to turn debugging with set command?
      1)    –vx                                       2)     –dx
      3)    +vx                                       4)     +dx
75.   To allow only one user to work with a particular file at a particular time, one has to
      use
      1)    Semaphore
      2)    Critical region
      3)    Locking
      4)    Dedicated mode
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    ROUGH WORK
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        ROUGH WORK
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