MENTORS EDUSERV TALENT REWARD EXAM (METRE)

SAMPLE TEST PAPER

[For Students presently in Class 9 going to Class 10 in 2020]

Time : 2 hours Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS ON THIS BOOKLET, AWAIT INSTRUCTIONS FROM THE INVIGILATOR.

[A] General
1. This Question paper contains FIVE Parts, A to E (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics, Biology
& Mental Ability).
2. This Question Paper contains 15 pages including cover page.
3. This question paper contains total 100 questions (20 questions each in Physics, Chemistry,
Mathematics, Biology and Mental Ability).
4. The Question Paper has blank spaces at the bottom of each page for rough work. No additional
sheets will be provided for rough work.
5. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
gadgets, in any form, are NOT allowed.

SEAL
6. The OMR (Optical Mark Recognition) sheet shall be provided separately.
[B] Answering on the OMR
7. In all the parts, each question will have 4 choices out of which only one choice is correct.
8. Darken the bubble with Ball Pen (Blue or Black) ONLY.
[C] Filling OMR
9. On the OMR sheet, fill all the details properly and completely, otherwise your OMR will not be
checked.
10. Do not write anything or tamper the barcode in the registration no. box.

[D] Marking Scheme:

11. For each question you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer ONLY and zero (0) marks if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark
will be awarded.

Name :.............................................................................................................

Registration No.:

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[2] For Students in Class 9 going to Class 10 in 2020 | [SAMPLE TEST PAPER ]

PART-A : PHYSICS
1. The engine of a car produces an acceleration of 6 m/s2 in the car. If this car pulls a block of the
same mass, then the acceleration would be
(A) 6 m/s2 (B) 12 m/s2 (C) 3 m/s2 (D) 1.5 m/s2
2. Pascal
(A) is a unit of pressure (B) is unit of force
(C) is a unit of energy (D) is a vector quantity
3. Which of the following is true about static friction ?
(A) It is automatically self-adjusting. (B) It always opposes motion.
(C) It is not helpful in walking. (D) None of the above
4. The initial velocity of a particle is 10 m/s and its retardation is 2 m/s2. the distance moved by
the particle in 5th second of its motion is
(A) 31 m (B) 52 m (C) 1 m (D) 1 cm
5. A ball thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 19.6 m/s from the top of a tower returns to the
ground in 6s. Find the height of tower.
(A) 60 m (B) 58.7 m (C) 58 m (D) 58.8 m
6. A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (a) versus time (t) is as shown in the figure. The
maximum speed of the particle will be

(A) 110 m/s (B) 55 m/s (C) 550 m/s (D) 660 m/s
7. An iron ball and aluminium ball has same mass then
(A) inertia of iron is greater than that of aluminium.
(B) both the ball have same inertia.
(C) inertia of iron is less than that of Aluminium.
(D) None of these

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8. A gun of mass 1 kg fires 4 bullets per sec each of mass 20 g with a velocity 300 m s–1. The
force required to hold the gun is

(A) 24 N (B) 28 N (C) 32 N (D) 10 N

9. Force of friction is directly proportional to

(A) size (B) area

(C) Normal reaction (D) None of these

10. A body of mass 2 kg collides with a wall with speed 100 m/s and rebounds with the same
speed. If the time of contact was 1/50 s, the force exerted on the wall is

(A) 8 × 103 N (B) 2 × 104 N (C) 4 × 104 N (D) 104 N

11. A truck running along a straight line increases its speed uniformly from 30 m/s to 60 m/s in a
time interval of 1 min. The distance travelled during this time interval is

(A) 900 m (B) 1800 m (C) 2700 m (D) 3600m

12. Choose the correct statement.

(A) Action and reaction forces act on same object.

(B) Action and reaction forces act on different objects.

(C) both (A) and (B) are possible.

(D) Neither (A) nor (B) is correct.

13. A bullet of mass ‘a’, velocity ‘b’ is fired into a large block of wood of mass ‘c’ which is at rest.
After that, both the block of wood and bullet move with a common velocity ‘v’, then find the
common velocity.

ab ab a b ba
(A) (B) (C) (D)
ac a c ac ac

14. A ball dropped from a height ‘h’ reaches the ground in time ‘T’. What is its height from the
ground at time T/2?

h h h 3h
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 4 2 4

15. A car moving at a speed of 20 m/s undergoes uniform retardation of 5 m/s2. It stops in a time
of

(A) 100 s (B) 4 s (C) 3 s (D) 5 s

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16. A particle moves for 20 seconds with velocity 3 m/s and then with velocity 4 m/s for
another 20 seconds and finally moves with velocity 5 m/s for next 20 seconds. What is
the average velocity of the particle ?

(A) 3 m/s (B) 4 m/s (C) 5 m/s (D) zero

17. In the shown figure, if F = 20 N, m1 = m2 = 3 kg and the acceleration is 0.5 m/s2 If the friction
forces on the two blocks are equal, what is the magnitude of frictional force on either block?

m1 m2 F

(A) 10 N (B) 17 N (C) 8.5 N (D) 0 N

18. Area under a velocity-time graph represents a physical quantity which has the unit

(A) m 2 (B) m (C) m 3 (D) m s–1

19. Displacement-time graph of an object of mass 2 kg is shown in fig. The force required to
move the object for first four seconds is
Displacement

8
in (meter)

0 2 4
Time in seconds

(A) 0 N (B) 4 N (C) 2 N (D) 8 N

20. Two bodies A and B of masses 100 g and 200 g respectively are dropped near the earth’s
surface. Let the acceleration of A and B be a1 and a2 respectively. Then

(A) a1 = a2 (B) a1 < a2 (C) a1 > a2 (D) a1  a2

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PART-B : CHEMISTRY
21. Two substances P and Q when brought together, form substance R with the evolution of heat.
The properties of R are different from both P and Q. What is substance R?
(A) A compound (B) An element (C) A metal (D) A mixture
22. Which of the following pairs of colloidal solutions have dispersed phase as liquid and dispersing
medium as gas?
(A) Fog, mist (B) Butter, milk (C) Fog, smoke (D) Smoke, foam
23. Which of the following is a true solution?
(A) Copper in gold (B) Sulphur in water
(C) Milk (D) KCI in sulphur dioxide
24. Which of the following solutions shows Tyndall effect?
(A) A solution of common salt (B) A solution of sodium carbonate
(C) Starch solution (D) Sugar solution
25. The size of a colloidal particle is
(A) 10–1 to 10–3 cm. (B) 10–5 to 10–7 cm.
(C) 10–8 to 10–5 cm. (D) 10–6 to 10–8 cm.
26. Which of these statements is/are true?
(A) The components of a suspension can be separated by filtration.
(B) The particles of a colloid can pass through a filter paper.
(C) The constituents of a compound can be separated easily.
(D) Both (A) and (B)
27. At what temperature should all the gases occupy zero volume?
(A) O°C (B) –273°C (C) 273°C (D) 100°C
28. On which of the following factors, does the molecular arrangement of a substance depend?
(A) Temperature and pressure
(B) Concentration and temperature
(C) Temperature, pressure and concentration
(D) Volume and pressure
29. What does conversion of 475 K into celsius scale give?
(A) 301.85 °C (B) 273 °C (C) 207°C (D) 201.85°C
30. Which of the following properties is different for solids, liquids and gases?
(A) Movement of molecules (B) Particle size of the substance
(C) Mass of the substance (D) Energy changes

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31. Identify the freezing point of pure water.

(A) –4 °C (B) 100°C (C) 10 °C (D) 0°C
32. Which of the following is a suspension ?
(A) Alcohol in water (B) Common salt in water
(C) Barium sulphate in water (D) Sucrose in water
33. What happens when ice is converted into water?
(A) Heat is absorbed. (B) Heat is released.
(C) Temperature increases. (D) Temperature decreases.
34. Which of the following processes involve absorption of energy?
(i) Boiling (ii) Sublimation (iii) Condensation
(A) Only (i) and (ii) (B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (i) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
35. Which of the following apparatus is used to separate a mixture of immiscible liquids?
(A) Centrifuge (B) Condenser
(C) Separating funnel (D) Distillation flask
36. What is the technique used to separate dirt particles from clothes in a washing machine?
(A) Magnetic separation (B) Filtration
(C) Evaporation (D) Centrifugation
37. What kind of change is undergone when an electric bulb glows?
(A) A physical change
(B) A chemical change
(C) Both a physical and a chemical change
(D) A permanent change
38. Which of the following is a solid-in-solid colloid?
(A) Shaving cream (B) Milk of magnesia
(C) Milky glass (D) Cheese
39. What is a solution of Iodine in carbon tetrachloride called?
(A) Aqueous solution (B) Alcoholic solution
(C) Non-aqueous solutlon (D) Tincture of lodine
40. What kind of solution is drinking soda?
(A) Gas in liquid (B) Liquid in gas (C) Gas in gas (D) Solid in liquid

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PART-C : MATHEMATICS
41. The points (– 2, 10), (– 2, 2) and (6, 2) are the vertices of
(A) an equilateral triangle (B) a right-angled isosceles triangle
(C) a scalene triangle (D) an obtuse-angled triangle
42. The value of ‘n’ for which the expression 9x – 12x3 – nx2 – 8x + 4 becomes a perfect square
4

is4
(A) 12 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 24
43. The autorikshaw fare in a city is charged Rs. 10 for the first kilometer and Rs. 4 per kilometer
for subsequent distance covered. Then the linear equation to express the above statement
(Let total distance be x km and fare charged Rs. y) is
(A) y = 4x + 6 (B) y = 4x – 6 (C) y = 10x + 4 (D) None of these
44. In the adjoining kite ABCD, diagonals intersect at O. If ABO  32 and OCD  40 then
BAD is equal to

40°
A C
O
32°

(A) 98° (B) 78° (C) 88° (D) None of these

45. In the given figure, if P(1, 2), Q(4, 6), R(5, 7) and S(a, b) are the vertices of a parallelogram
PQRS, then

(a, b) S R (5, 7)

Q(4, 6)
(1, 2) P

(A) a = 2, b = 4 (B) a = 3, b = 4 (C) a = 2, b = 3 (D) a = 3, b = 5

1
 2 1/ 3  4
  1     7m , then the value of m is
46. If  2  
 7  
   

(A) – 3 (B) 1/3 (C) – 1/3 (D) – 1

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47. The value of p and q, if (x + 3) and (x – 4) are factors x3 – px2 – qx + 24

(A) p = 2, q = 9 (B) p = 1, q = 8 (C) p = 3, q = 10 (D) None of these
48. In the given figure the value of x° is
D

30°

A 40° C x°

20°
E
B
(A) 95° (B) 85° (C) 80° (D) 90°
49. If centres and one end of diameter of circle are respectively (5, 6) and (7, 8) then sum of
ordinate and abscissa of other end is equal to
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 7

 1 1 1  1
50. When simplified the product  1    1    1   ................  1   becomes
 2  3  4  n

n 1 n 1 n
(A) n (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2
51. Which of the following equations represents a line parallel to y-axis ?
(A) 2y = 5x (B) 2y = 5 (C) 2x = 5 (D) 2x + 3y = 5

2m  n 1
a3m  n  p 
52. If  64 and
a  5 7 , then evaluate : 1
2n m
am  2n  2p 
(A) 100 (B) 125 (C) 225 (D) 250

 5xy 
53. If 3 x  5y  52 and 3x  1  5 y  1  14 , then find the value of :  
 3 
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10

5 3
, then find the value of :  4x  5x  6 
2
54. If x 
80  45  48  27
(A) 2 (B) 12 (C) 3 (D) 15
55. The polynomial f  x   px 2  qx  6 on division by (2x + 1) leaves remainder as 1. Another

polynomial, g  x   2qx 2  6x  p on division by  3x  1 leaves remainder as 2. Then find the

value of  p  q  :
2 2

(A) 90 (B) 85 (C) 64 (D) 105

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56. The HCF of 3240, 3600 and a third number is 36 while their LCM is 24  35  52  72 . Then the
third number is :
(A) 22  53  72 (B) 25  52  7 2 (C) 22  35  72 (D) 23  35  7 2

p3
57. For the given system of linear equations, evaluate :  
q3

1 1 3 1 1 1
  ,  
3p  q 3p  q 4 2  3p  q  2  3p  q  8

(A) 1 (B) -2 (C) -1 (D) 2

58. In the figure below, BAC  BCD, BD  9cm, CD  6cm and BC  12 cm . Then evaluate,

perimeter  ADC  A

perimeter  ABC 
D
(A) 7 : 12 (B) 8 : 9

(C) 9 : 16 (D) 3 : 4 B C
59. In the figure below, AB = AC, AE = AD, BAD  30 , CDE  x , then value of x is

30° E

x
B C
D

(A) 15° (B) 20° (C) 25° (D) 30°

60. In  PQR, PX  QR. Find the value of PQ2 + QR2 – 2QR.QX
P

Q R
X
(A) PR2 (B) 2 PR2
(C) QR2.QX 2 (D) 2 PR2 + PQ2

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PART-D : BIOLOGY
61. Using fertilizers in farming is an example of
(A) No cost production (B) Low cost production
(C) High cost production (D) None of these
62. Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium are examples of
(A) Micro-nutrients (B) Macro-nutrients (C) Fertilizers (D) Both I and II
63. What is the function of nuclear pores?
(A) To allow cells to communicate with one another
(B) To aid in the production of new nuclei
(C) To allow molecules such as proteins to move into and, out of the nucleus
(D) To form connections between different organelles
64. Cyperinus and Parthenium are types of
(A) Diseases (B) Pesticides (C) Weeds (D) Pathogens
65. Which of the following statement is correct about the cell shown in figure ?

(A) P receives nerve impulse from Q and conveys it to other cells.

(B) P conducts impulse away from cyton while S conducts impulse towards cyton.
(C) R is called node of Ranvier.
(D) All of these
66. Mullets, prawns, mussels are examples of
(A) Marine fishes (B) Fresh water fishes
(C) Finned fishes (D) Shell fish
67. Which cell organelle ‘plays a crucial role in detoxifying many poisons and drugs in a cell?
(A) Golgi apparatus (B) Lysosomes
(C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (D) Vacuoles
68. What is the other name for Apis cerana indica ?
(A) Indian cow (B) Indian buffalo (C) Indian bee (D) None of the above

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69. Why does salted cucumber slice exudes water?

(A) Due to active transport (B) Due to filtration
(C) Exosmosis (D) Endomosis
70. The management and production of fish is called
(A) Pisciculture (B) Apiculture (C) Sericulture (D) Aquaculture
71. Observe and identify most important function of the cell organelle shown in the diagram.

(A) formation of glycoprotein (B) synthesis of carbohydrates

(C) packaging of materials (D) formation of cell wall
72. Rohu and Catla are types of
(A) Freshwater fish (B) Marine water fish
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
73. The walls of cork cells are thickened by the deposition of an organic substance which make
these cells impermeable to water and gases. This substance is
(A) Pectin (B) Suberin (C) Lignin (D) None of these
74. Why do eukaryotic cells have membrane bound compartments?
(A) To add complexity
(B) To carry genetic information
(C) To synthesise protein
(D) To separate diverse kinds of chemical reactions
75. Find the odd one.
(A) Leucoplast (B) Chromoplast (C) Chloroplast (D) Tonoplast
76. Choose the cell that transport oxygen

(A) (B) (C) (D)

77. Which of the following statement regarding apical meristem is incorrect ?

(A) It brings about increase in length of the root and stem.
(B) It develops by dedifferentiation of permanent tissues.
(C) It constitutes primary meristem.
(D) None of these

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78. The tissue shown here is ________

(A) Simple squamous epithelial tissue

(B) Striated muscle tissue

(C) Areolar tissue

(D) Ciliated columnar epithelial tissue

79. The matrix of bone is in the form of thin concentric rings, called ______ Bone cells, called
______ are present in fluid filled spaces called ______ . These fluid filled spaces of the bone
communicate with each other by network of fine canals, called _________

Select the correct sequence of words to complete the above passage.

(A) Lacunae, Osteoblasts, Lamellae, Canaliculi

(B) Lamellae, Osteocytes, Lacunae, Canaliculi

(C) Lamellae, Chondrocytes, Canaliculi, Lacunae

(D) Lacunae, Adipocytes, Canaliculi, Sarcoplasm

80. A person met with an accident in which two long bones of hand were dislocated. Which
among the following may be the possible reason?
(A) Tendon break (B) Break of skeletal muscle
(C) Ligament break (D) Areolar tissue break

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PART-E : MENTAL ABILITY

DIRECTION : In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given
words on one side of (::) and one word is given on another side (::) while another word is to be found
from the given alternatives having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair
bear. Choose the correct alternative.
81. Birds : Ornithology : : Diseases : ?
(A) Citology (B) Mycology (C) Pathology (D) Phycology
82. Calendar : : Dates : : Dictionary ?
(A) Vocabulary (B) Language (C) Words (D) Book
DIRECTION : In the following questions, two words are given which are related to each other in a
particular manner and you have to find the word from the alternatives which bears exactly same
relationship to the third word, as the first two bear.
83. PS : KH : : CD : ?
(A) VU (B) WX (C) UV (D) XW
84. 08 : 28 : : 15 : ?
(A) 63 (B) 65 (C) 126 (D) 124
85. Which letter comes in the middle of 12th letter from left and 19th letter from right ?
(A) L (B) J (C) N (D) O
86. If in a certain code language ‘nik ka pa’ means ‘who are you’, ‘ka na ta da’ means ‘you may
come here’ and ‘ho ta sa’ means ‘come and go’, then what does ‘nik’ mean in that language ?
(A) who (B) are (C) ‘who’ or ‘are’ (D) Data inadequate
87. If in a certain code language ‘how can you go’ is written as ‘ja da ka pa’; ‘you come here’ is
written as ‘na ka sa’ and ‘come and go’ is written as ‘ra pa sa’, then how will ‘here’ be written
in that language ?
(A) ja (B) na (C) pa (D) Data inadequate
DIRECTION : In the following series, replace the question mark (?) with the suitable option.
88. 30, 42, 56, 72, 90, ____________ ?
(A) 115 (B) 112 (C) 110 (D) 108
89. 110, 132, 156, 182, 210, _______ ?
(A) 178 (B) 210 (C) 185 (D) 240
90. 78, 97, 118, 141, 166, _______ ?
(A) 163 (B) 193 (C) 181 (D) 203

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DIRECTION : In the each of the following questions, one number is wrong in the series. Find out the
wrong number.

91. 3691, 6931, 9361, 3691, _____ ?

(A) 6931 (B) 9631 (C) 9613 (D) 6913

DIRECTION : What comes in place of question mark(s) in the following letter series ?

92. ZBA, XFE, UJI, _________ ?

(A) QNM (B) OAB (C) TJI (D) ULK

93. OTE, PUF, QVG, RWH, ?

(A) SYJ (B) TXI (C) SXJ (D) SXI

DIRECTION : In the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that
order as one of the alternatives below it. Select the correct alternative.

94. __ bc__ ca __ aba__ c__ ca

(A) bcbba (B) babac (C) bbcba (D) abcbb

DIRECTION : In following question, a set of figures carrying certain characters is given. Assuming
that the characters in the set follow some pattern, find the missing character in the set.

1 2 3 36
95. 4 2 3 81
1 7 5 ?

(A) 225 (B) 169 (C) 196 (D) 144

DIRECTION : In the following question, which character when placed at the sign of interrogation (?)
shall complete the given question.

1 4 1
3 2 5 0 8 2

141 421 ?
96.
4 1 9 1 3 0
5 2 7

(A) 562 (B) 425 (C) 875 (D) 303

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97. Meena correctly remembers that her father's birthday is after 18th May but before 22nd May.
Her brother correctly remembers that their father's birthday is before 24th May but after 20th
May. On which date in May was definitely their father's birthday ?

(A) 20th (B) 19th (C) 18th (D) None of these

98. If A means ‘×’ B means ‘÷’ C means ‘–’ and D means ‘+’, then

19 D 72 B 8 C 17 A 3 = ?

(A) 33 (B) 36 (C) 30 (D) 39

99. If A means ‘–’, B means ‘÷’, C means ‘+’ and D means ‘×’, then

(105 A 63 B 7) B 24 D 14 = ?

(A) 54 (B) 56 (C) 52 (D) 48

100. Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the classes given below
pen, pencil, stationary

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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Helpline No. : 9569668800 | 7544015993/4/6/7
 MENTORS EDUSERV
MENTORS EDUSERV TALENT REWARD EXAM (METRE)
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
[For Students presently in Class 9 going to Class 10 in 2020]

Time : 2 hours Maximum Marks: 300

PHYSICS
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (D)
6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (B)
16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (A)

CHEMISTRY
21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B)
26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (D) 30. (A)
31. (D) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (C)
36. (D) 37. (A) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (A)

MATHEMATICS
41. (B) 42. (B) 43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (C)
46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (C)
51. (C) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (C) 55. (B)
56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (A) 59. (A) 60. (A)

BIOLOGY
61. (C) 62. (B) 63. (C) 64. (C) 65. (C)
66. (A) 67. (C) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (A)
71. (C) 72. (A) 73. (B) 74. (D) 75. (D)
76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (B) 80. (C)
MENTAL ABILITY
81. (C) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (B) 85. (B)
86. (C) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (D) 90. (B)
91. (A) 92. (A) 93. (D) 94. (D) 95. (B)
96. (A) 97. (D) 98. (A) 99. (B) 100. (B)