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2019 IPC Questionnaire PDF

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
124 views8 pages

2019 IPC Questionnaire PDF

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james
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ECU RE The Instrument Rating INITIAL ISSUE/I.P.C. QUESTIONNAIRE The following questions are designed as revision of the Flight Test Report Form requirements. They are set out in a practical scenario type format which is what you can expect on test or proficiency check day. 1. AIRCRAFT EQUIPMENT REQUIREMENTS ‘a. Label the following diagram to represent the flight instrument requirements for a PVT/AWK category IFR fight. Oo 600 L000 “ b. What variation is required for a CHTR flight? c. Ifanaircraft has an remote reading magnetic compass what additional requirement is made? WHY? d. What are “Balanced Static Ports?” e. List the Aircraft Lighting Requirements for a PVT/AWK category fight. How does this vary for a CHTR category fight? What communication requirement must be met for an IFR aircraft? ‘What is the MINIMUM radio navigation aid requirement for an IFR aircraft? ze If an IFR aircraft has a NAV receiver with GS capability, what other equipment item is required? If an aircraft is not fitted with an Assigned Altitude Indicator or Altitude Alerting System, is it eligible for IFR operation? j. Canan IFR aircraft operate to those rules with an unserviceable autopilot? k. Where would you find whether the carriage of headphones on an IFR flight was mandatory? 104 ‘Avacan Aviation - Instrument Rating and Muli-Engine Briefing Notes Inga VOUOUUVOUUUVVUVVUVUUDDDS 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 > 2 2 2 2 2 2 > 2 2 2 2 - 3 2 2 2 2 2 The Instrument Rating 2. FLIGHT TIME LIMITATIONS a. You are delayed at intermediate landing point during the course of conducting a CHTR flight whilst your passengers attend to business. Your tour of duty commenced at 1030 local time that morning, ‘You anticipate completion of the CHTR at 2230. Is it possible to continue this tour? If so, what time off must be observed? In one week standing alone you have completed 25 hours of flight time. On the last day of the working week you are scheduled for a CHTR involving an anticipated fight time of 6:30. Can you take the CHTR? How many hours of fight time may be flown in a month? In a year? ‘What is the maximum tour of duty permitted in a fortnight? 3. PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS a Your licence has these abbreviations in the ‘Initial Issue — Operational Ratings and Endorsements’ section: IR MEA IAP 20 IAP 80 Explain what each of these abbreviations represent. Your Instrument Rating is endorsed SEA only. You subsequently are checked to fly a Piper PA44 Seminole such that you now have MEA (Class Rating) on your licence. Is your IR valid now also for MEA? 4. RECENT EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENT a. You have been scheduled for a single pilot IFR CHTR on the following day. On checking your logbook, you note that you have done 4 such charters within the previous 8 months, but only 2 AP's within the last 90 days, Are you current for this flight? Refer to the Melbourne/Essendon (YMEN) runway 26 I.L.S. approach plate. What type of approach is the FULL I.L.S. (LOC and Glideslope) known as and what is the recency requirement? What would the approach type become if Glideslope were not to be available and what would be the requirement for recency now? 5. METEOROLOGICAL REQUIREMENTS a You are to conduct an IFR Flight from Hobart to Moorabbin and Moorabbin requires an alternate for which Albury is suitable. ETD HB O100 ETA = MB_ 0330 Flight time to AY 1:00 What time must the Graphical Area Forecast (GAF) be valid for? ‘A TAF is valid 2008. What is the earliest and latest times you could arrive based on this TAF? ‘Avscan Aviation - Instrument Rating and Muit-Engine Bring Notes 105 The Instrument Rating c. The following TAF is issued for Inverell (IVL) NSW. TAF YIVL 121830 1220/1308 160 15 KTS 6000 SH BKN 014 TEMPO 1305/1307 4000 RA Your ETA is 0435 What MET requirements, if any, is there on IVL? d. A TAF indicates: TAF YIVL 120500 1206/1218 180 10 KTS 3000 RA BKN 010 FM 120900 6000 RA SCT 015 Your ETA is 0915 The actual QNH is not known, Is there an alternate requirement on IVL? e. Whats a forecast endorsed PROV? 1. What operational requirement is placed on a TAF so endorsed? 6. ALTERNATE REQUIREMENTS. You are to conduct an FR CHTR from Hobart (HB) to Strahan (SRN) in a Beech Baron that has one of each radio communication and navigation aid on board and a TSO 146 (WAAS) GNSS on August 15th. The following TAF on SRN is issued: TAF YSRN 141800 1420/1508 20015 6000 SH BKN 011 INTER 1502/1505 3000 RA ETA - 0528. a. Is an alternate required and if so, for what reasons? Your departure HB is delayed so that the ETA SRN becomes 09002. You obtain a new TAF for ‘SRN and this indicates no further weather alternate requirements. b. Are there any further alternate considerations other than weather and nav aids? ‘The following TAF is issued on Moorabbin (YMMB): TAF YMMB 221830 2220/2808 19020G35 6000 SH BKNO15 BECMG 2306/2308 24025640 4000 RA BKNOO9 ETA MB 0545 ©. Do you have a weather alternate requirement? d. You are planning an IFR fight from Bendigo (YB0G) to Ararat (YARA). Since YARA is a no-aid aerodrome it would require an alternate but if you wished to avoid the alternate requirements, what weather criterla must be met? 7. CLASS D AIRSPACE SEPARATION a) What is the V.M.C. criteria in Class D airspace if you elect to depart VER? b) Who is responsible for traffic separation during this VER. departure? ©) Ifan LER. departure is required due to non-V.M.C. who will provide LF-R. to IER. separation? 106 ‘Avecan Aviation - Instrument Rating and Mult-Engine Briefing Notes The Instrument Rating [=the 8. INTERPRETATION OF DAP Refer to Brisbane Runway 01 ILS/DME approach plate. a. Explain the meaning of the following symbols: 1000 AN, SA? b. What criteria is used to place an airoraft in Category A and Category 8? cc. Howis the circling area defined for a Category A and B aircraft? d. List the speed limitations imposed on your category aircraft during the conduct of an approach and missed approach. e. What is the minimum gradient assumed on the missed approach profile? f. How can you determine if a multi engine aircraft on an asymmetric missed approach can meet the climb gradient? g. Whatis a DA? h. What is an MDA? i. Explain Pressure Error Correction (PEC). j. Explain Temperature Correction. k. If the HIAL is not functioning for a LOC approach, what is the required landing visibility? Refer to Bundaberg RWY 14 NDB, for questions |. to n. |. What do the shaded boxes in the minima and alternate table refer to? m. What is the significance of the 10 nm circle on the approach plate? 1. What is the Base Turn? 0. What is the required visibility for an ILS for an aircraft that is not Category | capable? ‘Avscan Aviation - Instrument Rating and Mu-Engine Sreting Notes 407 =) = 2 2 > = > 2 = 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 = = = = = = 2 = 2 2 2 a 2 2 2 2 a = a a The Instrument Rating 9, DESCENT BELOW LSALT You are tracking from ONAGI to Moorabbin at A040 in cloud. The aircraft is equipped with one of each of the following: ‘ADF VOR ILS/MARKER BEACONS/DME TSO'D GNSS Your instrument rating is endorsed on each. a. How will you plan the descent to MB assuming IMC? How will this plan change if a GNSS RAIM loss occurred? b. What would you do if you established visual reference en route to the aid by day? By night? ¢. What other circumstances, not applicable at YMMB. would enable descent below the LSALT? 10. DESCENT BELOW APPROACH MINIMA. You are flying the Moorabbin 4000 NDB approach. Inbound and at minima you establish visual reference. a, How will you set up further descent and position for the landing? 'b. What is the minimum obstacle clearance for a Category A and B aircraft within the circling area on anew oriteria chart? 11, ERSA EMERGENCY PROCEDURES. You have flight planned Essendon (YMEN) to Albury (YMAY) at A070. The departure YMEN is from Runway 26 with the following information: “Assigned Heading Turn Right 030 Maintain 3000 Call Departures 118.9 airborne, clear for take off” After becoming airborne you enter cloud and find that you have a communication failure. All the navaids are still serviceable. a. Detail all of your actions regarding the comm failure. 5. Assuming you establish VMC en route how would this effect your actions regarding this comm failure? 12. DME OR GNSS ARRIVALS AND DME ARCS. Refer to Adelaide DME/GNSS arrivals plate. You are tracking 319 from MTG to AD VOR/DME. a. Explain each of the ‘steps’ relating to this Arrival. b. Where is the missed approach executed from? Refer to the East Sale Runway 22 ILS/DME chart. You are tracking into ESL 270° and are instructed to track via the 10 DME arc to intercept the LOC. c. How would this be done? d. Whatis the track tolerance? 108 ‘Avscan Aviation - Instrument Rating and Mut ne Briafng Notes ALALALALA LAI VVUVUVVUVUVUVUUVUVUVUUUUUUYVUUUVUUUUUUUUUUUUVUVUVUVYEY The Instrument Rating 13. LSALT CALCULATIONS: Determine the criteria for working out the LSALT in each of the following cases. a. Aid to Aid, b. Aid to No Aid, ¢. No Aid to Aid. d. Aid to a Turning point then Aid. ie. e. Use of T.S.0. GNSS alone. 14, STANDARD TAKE OFF MINIMA a. What is standard take off minima for your training aircraft from an aid aerodrome? b. From a no-aid aerodrome? Explain your reasoning in each case. INSTRUMENT PROFICIENCY CHECKS : INTRODUCTION ‘ In this part we will show you what to typically expect during the instrument rating proficiency flight test assuming renewal of ILS and NDB and GNSS RNAV, GROUND WORK Questions will be asked from the Flight Test Report Form. The study material for this is included in this section of the manual - Flight Test Report Form Requirements. FLIGHT TEST On the following pages we have presented the typical fight test route that will be used for the LP.C. ‘Avscan Aviation - Instrument Rating and Muit-Engine Briefing Notes. 109 The Instrument Rating MB-AV AV 18 ILS/MB 4000 NDB/RWY 35R RNAV FM MMBSA USING GNS 530+430 tod INFLIGHT INSTRUMENT ADJ, ' EXPECT AV APP EXPECT VECTORS 13355 WTH ATS AVATIS118.2 = “ESTABLISHED! SETAVILS 1085 * CLEAR LS IDENT + COURSE = EXPECT TWA 120.1 panto 176 Senay ee ae + < 270 >} [AV ILS APP. SAMIG. J ov FAF (FO9 FOR LOG (NON PRECISION) 3 a KANO. FAP (POINT) FORILS (PRECISION |APPROACH) (6 URreeerroerencs CLEAR OF ZONE? AV (23 MB} MU CENTRE 135.7, MAINTAINING 4000 REQUEST CLEARANOE MB 4000 NDB WITH SECTOR ENTRY AND 1 HOLD 110 ‘Avscan Aviation - Instrument Rating and Mult-Engine Being Notes, 1. “HEADS UP CALL" THRU, CTA*MB GND ABC IFR FOR MB TAXING Vi RUNUP BAYS" 2. TAXI CALL 3. CLEARANCE AND CODE FREQ DEP 129.4 VUUUUUUUUUUUBUUUUUUUY | The Instrument Rating F=CuCE = FLAN (#77) * MB-SAMIG-TEMPLAV.-MB, Yu ‘* ACTATE PLAN ‘= LOAD APR SELECT PROC" RNAV RWY 358 MBSA = RAMCALC * AVATIS ON 118: MB NDB APP) PUSH 08S ‘SECTOR 1 PARALLEL ENTRY VPUUUUUUUUEUUUUY CANCEL OBS: IF NO PATTERN REQUIRED = = = = = = = = = = MB RNAV APP. MISSED APPROACH | ae CANCEL “SUSP” PUSH OBS ‘TO CONDUCT MISSED APA TO MMESH 5 Ce eee ey *CARFUM 1500 UB VISUAL (FLIGHT CONDITIONS) REC'D ANS" NOTE TLNAV (146) arR(i20) [perecesruomoxes | ‘Aveean Aviation - Instrument Rating and Mult-Engine Briefing Notes CHANGING THE APPROACH. © SELECT PROC’ * SELECT APPROACH? ‘ENT APPROACH THEN |” ACTIVATE WHEN READY FOR THE APPROACH ‘+ OBS MODE IF MANEUVERING NECESSARY m1

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