Exam Name : PGP - CET 2019
Total Questions : 100
Questions 1.
Bronchopulmonary segment contains the following structure EXCEPT.
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A Bronchial artery
B Segmental bronchus
C Pulmonary venule
D Pulmonary arteriole
Questions 2. Anterior interventricular groove contains
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A Left anterior descending artery
B Circumflex coronary artery
C Middle cardiac vein
D Anterior cardiac vein
Questions 3. Superior radioulnar joint is which type of synovial joint
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A Hinge joint
B Pivot joint
C Ellipsoid joint
D Ball and socket joint
Questions 4.
Anatomical snuff box is formed by all EXCEPT
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A Extensor pollicis longus
B Extensor pollicis brevis
C Abductor pollicis longus
D Abductor pollicis brevis
Questions 5. Surfactant is secreted by
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A Endothelium of the pulmonary capillary
B Type 2 alveolar epithelial cells
C Bronchial cells
D Type 1 alveolar epithelial cells
Questions 6. Which of the following is an activated rhodopsin
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A Metarhodopsin II
B Metarhodopsin I
C Lumirhodopsin
D Bathorhodopsin
Questions 7. Maximum ventricular filling occurs during
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A Isovolumetric contraction period
B Ejection Period
C Atrial diastole
D Atrial systole
Questions 8. The structural and functional unit of muscle is
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A Sarcolemma
B Sarcoplasm
C Sarcomere
D Motor end plate
Questions 9. Deficiency of which of the following vitamin causes Pellagra.
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A Riboflavin
B Thiamine
C Pyridoxine
D Niacin
Questions 10. In competitive inhibition of enzymes, the correct statement is
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A Km increases and Vmax decreases
B Km increases and Vmax remains unchanged
C Km decreases and Vmax increases
D Km remains unchanged and Vmax decreases
Questions 11. Toe standing is an example of ____________.
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A Stable equilibrium
B Unstable equilibrium
C Neutral equilibrium
D Positive equilibrium
Questions 12. The following is an example of third order of lever:
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A Brachialis
B Brachioradialis
C Calf muscles
D Hip extensors
Questions 13. When the angle of pull is obtuse, energy is wasted in:
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A Pulling
B Mobility
C Stability
D Pushing
Questions 14. The following is a technique of progressive resistance exercise
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A de Lorme’s technique
B Theraband exercise technique
C Yoga exercise
D Aquatic exercise
Questions 15. Laura Mitchell technique of relaxation is based on the following principle
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A Passive Movements
B Progressive Relaxation
C Reciprocal Relaxation
D Active Relaxation
Questions 16. Originally, Faradic current was ___ current.
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A Alternating
B Direct
C Interrupted
D Modified
Questions 17. While applying DC, the important parameter for therapeutic purpose is
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A Current intensity
B Circuit resistance
C Current density
D Treatment duration
Questions 18.
What is the best therapeutic use of iontophoresis?
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A For local anaesthesia
B To apply antibiotics
C To apply anti inflammatory drug
D For treatment of hyper hydrosis
Questions 19.
Which is NOT TRUE for iontophoresis
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A Eliminates first pass metabolism
B Uncontrolled drug delivery
C Avoids pain that accompanies injection
D Decreases risk of infection.
Questions 20. For Calcific deposit , the ion selected while treating with iontophoresis is
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A Copper
B Acetate
C Calcium
D Magnesium
Questions 21. Drug administered through the following route is most likely to be subjected to first pass
metabolism:
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A Oral
B Sublingual
C Subcutaneous
D Rectal
Questions 22.
The following general anaesthetic has poor muscle relaxant action:EXCEPT
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A Ether
B Nitrous oxide
C Halothane
D Isoflurane
Questions 23.
The following host tissue responses can be seen in acute inflammation, EXCEPT
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A Exudation
B Vasodilation
C Margination
D Granuloma formation
Questions 24. Collapse of lung is called
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A Emphysema
B Bronchiectasis
C Atelectasis
D Bronchitis
Questions 25.
All are the flagellated organisms EXCEPT
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A Escherichia coli
B Proteus
C Klebsiella
D Vibrio cholerae
Questions 26. Reflected light is used in
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A Light microscope
B Dark field microscope
C Electron microscope
D Fluorescent microscope
Questions 27. “Mind and behaviour are adaptive- they enable an individual to changing environment” is seen
in which school of psychology
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A Structuralism
B Behaviourism
C Gestalt psychology
D Functionalism
Questions 28. Preoccupation with body diseases is seen in
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A Obsession
B Somatization
C Hypochondriasis
D Conversion Disorder
Questions 29. The most susceptible peripheral nerve fibres affected by cold are
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A B
B C
C A alpha
D A delta
Questions 30. The Progression of E2 dosage in UVR is
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A 25%
B 50%
C 75%
D 100%
Questions 31. Name the ion that is used for the treatment of wounds
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A Chloride
B Salicylate
C Iodine
D Acetate
Questions 32. Conventional TENS is ____ stimulation
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A High intensity, low frequency
B Low intensity, low frequency
C High intensity, high frequency
D High frequency, low intensity
Questions 33. What would be the ideal positioning of the SWD electrodes relative to the tissues
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A Placing at an angle to each other
B Placing parallel to each other
C Placing parallel to the skin
D Placing perpendicular to each other
Questions 34. The shape of curve in a strength duration curve indicates
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A The site of lesion
B Onset of lesion
C Proportion of denervation
D Duration of lesion
Questions 35. Whenever deeply placed structures are to be treated with the capacitor field method, which of
the following is used
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A Co planar
B Cross fire
C Contra planar
D Cable method
Questions 36. Which descriptive term is not associated with stance phase of the gait cycle?
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A Heel strike
B deceleration
C Loading response
D midstance
Questions 37. If the axillary nerve is severed, what muscle could laterally rotate the humerus?
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A Teres major
B Subscapularis
C Infraspinatus
D Teres minor
Questions 38. The most common site for an ulnar nerve injury is at the
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A Brachial plexus
B Medial epicondyle of the humerus
C Superficial surface of the retinaculum
D Distal wrist crease
Questions 39. During hydrotherapy,following factor is responsible for the patient’s ability to walk in water
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A buoyancy
B pressure
C cohesion
D viscosity
Questions 40. A physical therapist performs manual muscle test on a patient with unilateral lower extremity
weakness. The therapist should test the patient’s hip adductor with patient positiend in
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A prone
B side lying
C standing
D supine
Questions 41. A physical therapist designs a treatment plan for a 8 year old boy with cystic fibrosis. Which of
the following lung segments would be inappropriate for bronchial drainage?
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A Left middle lobe
B Left upper lobe
C Right upper lobe
D Right lower lobe
Questions 42. A patient positioned in supine lying on a mat is instructed to bring her right hip and knee
towards chest. This evaluative technique can be used to assess the length of the
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A Hamstring on the left
B Hamstring on the right
C Hip flexor on the right
D Hip flexor on the left
Questions 43. The worst position for scars is
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A Back
B Shoulder
C Sternum
D Abdomen
Questions 44. The most commonly affected peripheral nerve in leprosy is
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A Ulnar
B Radial
C Median
D Lateral popiteal
Questions 45. Dupuytrens contracture of the hand commonly starts in
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A Thumb
B Index finger
C Middle finger
D Ring finger
Questions 46. The pathognomonic sign of traumatic fracture is
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A Crepitus
B Redness
C Swelling
D Tenderness
Questions 47. Gold standard for diagnosis of osteoporosis is -
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A Qualitative computed tomography
B DEXA
C Single beam densitometry
D Bone histomorphometry
Questions 48.
True about fracture healing EXCEPT-
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A Nutrition affects healing
B Stable fixation promotes healing
C Compression at fracture site causes nonunion.
D Hormonal status may affect healing
Questions 49.
All of the following heart sounds occur shortly after S2 EXCEPT
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A Opening snap
B Pericardial knock
C Ejection click
D Tumor plop
Questions 50. Bad prognostic factor in Lupus Nephritis
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A Anti ds DNA
B Hyponitramia
C Persistent proteinuria ( > 3 gm/day)
D Anti-La (SS-B)
Questions 51. Transfusing blood after prolonged storage could lead to
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A Citrate intoxication
B Potassium intoxication
C Circulatory overload
D Hemorrhagic diathesis
Questions 52. In facial palsy, food accumulated in the mouth due to paralysis of
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A Masseter
B Temporalis
C Mentalis
D Buccinator
Questions 53. Earliest valvular lesion in a case of rheumatic fever is
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A Mitral regurgitation(MR)
B Aortic regurgitation (AR)
C Mitral stenosis (MS)
D Aortic stenosis (AS)
Questions 54.
All are seen in ARDS EXCEPT
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A Pulmonary edema
B Hypoxia
C Hypercapnia
D Stiff lung
Questions 55. Ovarian cycle is initiated by
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A LH
B FSH
C GRH
D Estrogen
Questions 56. In primigravida during active phase of labor, the rate of cervical dilatation per hour is
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A 1.2 cm
B 1.5 cm
C 1.7 cm
D 2 cm
Questions 57.
Contraindications to use of oral contraceptive pills are all EXCEPT
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A Breast CA
B Kidney disease
C Smoking
D Liver disease
Questions 58. A weak and painful contraction on isometric assessment of contractile structure indicates:
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A Tendinitis
B Partial Tear
C Complete Tear
D Neurological Involvement
Questions 59. The supply to the following region of the tongue will be affected by a Facial Nerve Palsy:
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A Anterior 2/3rd
B Posterior 2/3rd
C Anterior 1/3rd
D Posterior 1/3rd
Questions 60. Obesity, Diabetes and Hypertension together present as:
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A Metabolic disorder
B Hypermetabolism
C Metabolic Syndrome
D Hypometabolism
Questions 61. An objective measurement of the extent of Oedema can be brought about by:
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A Gravimetric measurements
B Palpatory analysis
C Observatory analysis
D Volumetric measurements
Questions 62. A large amplitude mobilisation which reaches the end range is referred to as ______ Maitland
technique
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A Grade I
B Grade II
C Grade III
D Grade IV
Questions 63. When there is a significant base deficit, the appropriate terminology is
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A Acidosis
B Acidaemia
C Alkalaemia
D Alkalosis
Questions 64. The ULTT3 is a test that is biased towards______ Nerve
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A Median
B Radial
C Axillary
D Ulnar
Questions 65. A Faradic Galvanic Test is performed to assess
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A Tendon continuity
B Nerve continuity
C Chronaxie
D Rheobase
Questions 66. The following movement restriction needs to be imposed in the case of a Total Hip
Replacement with a posterior lateral approach:
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A Hip Flexion beyond 90° and abduction
B Hip adduction and Internal Rotation
C Hip Extension and external rotation
D Hip flexion to 90° and external rotation
Questions 67. Close chain exercises are helpful following an ACL reconstruction surgery as they:
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A Offer compressive forces
B Increase Shear Stresses
C Eliminate co-contraction of muscles
D Offer Proprioceptive loads
Questions 68. Presence of the scoliotic curvature in the standing position and not in sitting could be due to
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A Unilateral Gluteal Atrophy
B Congenital segmental Bar
C Limb length discrepancy
D Unilateral Rib fusion
Questions 69. MET technique of Post Isometric relaxation to the triceps will help to increase:
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A Passive Elbow Flexion
B Passive Elbow Extension
C Active Elbow Flexion
D Active Elbow Extension
Questions 70. The mainstay of management of Phase III Periarthritis of the shoulder is:
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A Pain management
B Restoration of Scapulo Humeral Rhythm
C Strengthening of the Gleno Humeral Muscles
D Mobility of Scapulothoracic Joint
Questions 71. Inability of a patient to perform active abduction at the shoulder in the absence of a
neurological involvement may indicate:
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A Capsular restriction
B Ligamentous Instability
C Muscular tendinitis
D Muscular Tear
Questions 72. The following is the most common long term complication of a stress shielding device used to fix
a fracture of a long bone:
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A Decreased mobility of the adjacent joints
B Reduced weight bearing capacity of the bone
C Decreased strength of the surrounding muscles
D Non Union of the fracture
Questions 73. Flexion biased exercises are preferred in a patient with Spinal Canal Stenosis because:
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A They have a stabilizing effect on the spine
B They are functional in nature
C They cause a decrease in pain
D They increase the neural canal diameters
Questions 74. The initial phase physiotherapy management of a patient post TKR focusses on preventing
following complication:
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A Knee flexion deformity
B DVT
C Atelectasis
D TA tightness
Questions 75. The type of exercises that should be administered in a patient with Osteoporosis is:
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A Cycling
B High impact weight bearing
C Low impact weight bearing
D Swimming
Questions 76. While conducting EMG studies the characteristic picture at rest in normal subject shows…….
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A Small Action potential
B Electrical silence
C Positive sharp wave
D Fibrillation potential
Questions 77. Vertigo is seen in a lesion of ……
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A IVth cranial nerve
B Vth cranial nerve
C VIIth cranial nerve
D VIIIth cranial nerve
Questions 78. The ability to integrate information from environment to produce movement is……
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A Stimulus identification
B Sensory integration
C Information processing
D Perception
Questions 79.
All are seen in Horner’s syndrome EXCEPT ….
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A mutism
B ptosis
C miosis
D Decreased sweating on opposite side of face
Questions 80. Decreased arm swing in case of Parkinson’s Disease is due to…
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A Reduced arm strength
B Trunk muscle weakness
C Truncal rigidity
D Decreased ROM at shoulder
Questions 81. Primitive grasp reflex disappears by the age of….
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A 0-1month
B 2-3months
C 4-5months
D 12-18 months
Questions 82. In Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy ,EMG picture shows …..
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A Polyphsia
B Increased amplitude
C Short duartions
D Large MUP with fast firing rate
Questions 83. The ability of brain to change and adapt is called…..
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A Neural substitution
B Neural irradiation
C Neuroplasticity
D Neural Reinforcement
Questions 84. Scanning speech is characteristic of
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A ACA infarct
B Cerebellar disorder
C Parkinson’s Disease
D Cerebral Palsy
Questions 85. ……..approach gives emphasis on environment and musculoskeletal components
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A Motor re-learning programme
B NDT
C PNF
D Sensory integration
Questions 86. Unstick phase of autogenic drainage involves following lung volume
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A Low lung volume
B Mid lung volume
C High lung volume
D Tidal volume
Questions 87.
Pump handle movement of thorax is a feature of -----------
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A Lower ribs
B Upper ribs
C Mid ribs
D Diaphragm
Questions 88. Mediastinal shift towards the affected side is seen in which of the following condition?
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A Lung collapse
B Pleural effusion
C Pneumonia
D Pneumothorax
Questions 89.
PEP devices can be used in any position EXCEPT one device that is position dependent
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A Acapella
B Thera PEP
C Flutter
D Cornet
Questions 90. Following acts as a pacemaker in the human heart
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A SA node
B AV node
C Bundle of His
D Purkinje fibers
Questions 91. Which of the following AV blocks are considered as incomplete heart blocks
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A Only First degree
B Only Second degree
C First and Second degree
D First and Third degree
Questions 92. In metabolic acidosis which of following respiration is seen?
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A Biot’s
B Chyne Stoke’s
C Eupnea
D Kussmaul
Questions 93. As the respiratory rate increases the inspiration to expiration (I:E) ratio------
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A Increases
B decreases
C Remains same
D Can increase or decrease
Questions 94. Loud, high pitched, hollow quality, louder on expiration, distinct pause between inspiration and
expiration are the characteristics of the ------- breath sounds
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A Bronchial
B Broncho-vesicular
C Vesicular
D Crackles
Questions 95.
How many centimeters above the sternal angle, normally the jugular pulse is Not Visible when the
individual is positioned at a 45 degree angle?
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A 1 cm
B 2 cms
C 5 cms
D 7 cms
Questions 96. Cystocoele involves prolapse of
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A Rectum
B Intestines
C Bladder
D Vagina
Questions 97. The following is age related change in the respiratory system
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A decrease in the pulmonary diffusion pressure
B increase in the pulmonary arterial pressure
C decrease in the airways resistance
D increase in the diastolic blood pressure
Questions 98.
Factors contributing to work related cumulative trauma disorders are the following EXCEPT
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A Nature of work
B Work posture
C Force application
D Work duration
Questions 99. The energy system utilised in aerobic exercises is
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A Phosphocreatine
B ATP
C Phosphorylation
D lactic acid
Questions 100. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment is a component of which rehabilitation domain?
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A Primordial
B Primary
C Secondary
D Tertiary
