CCNA 2 (v5.0.3 + v6.

0) Chapter 3 Exam Answers 2019 –

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1. Which dynamic routing protocol was developed to interconnect different

Internet service providers?

BGP*
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP

BGP is a protocol developed to interconnect different levels of ISPs as well as ISPs and
some of their larger private clients.

2. Which routing protocol is limited to smaller network implementations because

it does not accommodate growth for larger networks?

OSPF
RIP*
EIGRP
IS-IS

The RIP protocol was created with a metric that does not support larger networks. Other
routing protocols, including OSPF, EIGRP, and IS-IS, scale well and accommodate growth
and larger networks.

3. What two tasks do dynamic routing protocols perform? (Choose two.)

discover hosts
update and maintain routing tables*
propagate host default gateways
network discovery*
assign IP addressing
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4. When would it be more beneficial to use a dynamic routing protocol instead of
static routing?

in an organization with a smaller network that is not expected to grow in size

on a stub network that has a single exit point
in an organization where routers suffer from performance issues
on a network where there is a lot of topology changes*

Dynamic routing protocols consume more router resources, are suitable for larger
networks, and are more useful on networks that are growing and changing.

5. When would it be more beneficial to use static routing instead of dynamic

routing protocols?

on a network where dynamic updates would pose a security risk*

on a network that is expected to continually grow in size
on a network that has a large amount of redundant paths
on a network that commonly experiences link failures

Dynamic routing protocols are viewed as less secure than static routing because they
commonly forward routing information on the same links that data traffic is crossing.

6. What is a purpose of the network command when configuring RIPv2 as the

routing protocol?

It identifies the interfaces that belong to a specified network.*

It specifies the remote network that can now be reached.
It immediately advertises the specified network to neighbor routers with a classful
mask.
It populates the routing table with the network entry.

The network command is used to advertise the directly connected networks of a router.
It enables RIP on the interfaces that belong to the specified network.

7. A network administrator configures a static route on the edge router of a

network to assign a gateway of last resort. How would a network administrator
configure the edge router to automatically share this route within RIP?

Use the auto-summary command.

Use the passive-interface command.
Use the network command.
Use the default-information originate command.*

The default-information originate command instructs a router to propagate the static

default route in RIP or OSPF.

8. What is the purpose of the passive-interface command?

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 allows a routing protocol to forward updates out an interface that is missing its IP
address
allows a router to send routing updates on an interface but not receive updates via
that interface
allows an interface to remain up without receiving keepalives
allows interfaces to share IP addresses
allows a router to receive routing updates on an interface but not send
updates via that interface*

9. Which route would be automatically created when a router interface is activated

and configured with an IP address?

D 10.16.0.0/24 [90/3256] via 192.168.6.9

C 192.168.0.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet 0/0*
S 192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet 0/1
O 172.16.0.0/16 [110/65] via 192.168.5.1

Directly connected networks are identified with a C and are automatically created
whenever an interface is configured with an IP address and activated.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which two types of routes could be used to describe the
192.168.200.0/30 route? (Choose two.)

ultimate route*
level 1 parent route
level 1 network route
level 2 child route*
supernet route

A level 2 child route is a route that has a network with a mask that is greater than the
classful equivalent. An ultimate route is a route that uses a next-hop IP address or exit
interface to forward traffic.
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11. What occurs next in the router lookup process after a router identifies a
destination IP address and locates a matching level 1 parent route?

The level 2 child routes are examined.*

The level 1 supernet routes are examined.
The level 1 ultimate routes are examined.
The router drops the packet.

When a router locates a parent route that matches the destination IP address of a
packet, the router will then examine the level 2 child routes contained within it.

12. Which route would be used to forward a packet with a source IP address of
192.168.10.1 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.1?

C 192.168.10.0/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1

S 10.1.0.0/16 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0
O 10.1.1.0/24 [110/65] via 192.168.200.2, 00:01:20, Serial0/1/0*
S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 172.16.1.1

Even though OSPF has a higher administrative distance value (less trustworthy), the best
match is the route in the routing table that has the most number of far left matching
bits.

13. Which two requirements are used to determine if a route can be considered as
an ultimate route in a router’s routing table? (Choose two.)

contain subnets
be a default route
contain an exit interface*
be a classful network entry
contain a next-hop IP address*

An ultimate route is a routing table entry that contains either a next-hop IP address
(another path) or an exit interface, or both. This means that directly connected and link-
local routes are ultimate routes. A default route is a level 1 ultimate route, but not all
ultimate routes are default routes. Routing table entries that are subnetted are level 1
parent routes but do not meet either of the two requirements to be ultimate routes.
Ultimate routes do not have to be classful network entries.

14. What is a disadvantage of using dynamic routing protocols?

They are only suitable for simple topologies.

Their configuration complexity increases as the size of the network grows.
They send messages about network status insecurely across networks by
default.*
They require administrator intervention when the pathway of traffic changes.

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By default, dynamic routing protocols forward messages across a network without
authenticating the receiver or originator of traffic. Static routes increase in configuration
complexity as the network grows larger and are more suitable for smaller networks.
Static routes also require manual intervention when a network topology changes or links
become disabled.

15. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose
two.)

sends subnet mask information in routing updates*

sends complete routing table update to all neighbors
is supported by RIP version 1
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same
topology*
reduces the amount of address space available in an organization

16. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the partial output from the show ip route
command, what two facts can be determined about the RIP routing protocol?
(Choose two.)

RIP version 2 is running on this router and its RIP neighbor.*

The metric to the network 172.16.0.0 is 120.
RIP version 1 is running on this router and its RIP neighbor.
The command no auto-summary has been used on the RIP neighbor router.*
RIP will advertise two networks to its neighbor.

The router learned, via RIP, that 172.16.0.0 is variably subnetted, and that there are two
subnet and mask entries for that network. This means that RIP version 2 is running on
both routers and that the command no auto-summary has been applied on the
neighbor router. RIPv2 has an administrative distance of 120 and this router will
advertise all connected networks to the neighbor via 192.168.1.1.

17. While configuring RIPv2 on an enterprise network, an engineer enters the

command network 192.168.10.0 into router configuration mode. What is the result
of entering this command?

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 The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending version 1 and version 2
updates.
The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is receiving version 1 and version 2
updates.
The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending only version 2 updates.*
The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending RIP hello messages.

The command being entered by the engineer will cause RIPv2 to activate on the interface
for the 192.168.10.0 network. If RIPv1 is configured, the router will send only version 1
updates, but will listen for both version 1 and version 2 updates. If RIPv2 is configured,
the router will send and listen to only version 2 updates.

18. A destination route in the routing table is indicated with a code D. Which kind
of route entry is this?

a static route
a route used as the default gateway
a network directly connected to a router interface
a route dynamically learned through the EIGRP routing protocol*

Routes in a routing table are manually created or dynamically learned. Letter D indicates
that the route was learned dynamically through the EIGRP routing protocol.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which interface will be the exit interface to forward a data
packet with the destination IP address 172.16.0.66?

Serial0/0/0
Serial0/0/1*
GigabitEthernet0/0
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 GigabitEthernet0/1

The destination IP address 172.16.0.66 belongs to the network 172.16.0.64/26. In the

routing table there is a route learned by EIGRP (identified with code “D”) with 192.168.1.6
as the next-hop address and Serial 0/0/1 as the exiting interface.

20. Which type of route will require a router to perform a recursive lookup?

an ultimate route that is using a next hop IP address on a router that is not
using CEF*
a level 2 child route that is using an exit interface on a router that is not using CEF
a level 1 network route that is using a next hop IP address on a router that is using
CEF
a parent route on a router that is using CEF

When Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) is not being used on a router, a recursive lookup
must be performed when a route using a next-hop IP address is selected as the best
pathway to forward data.​

21. Which route is the best match for a packet entering a router with a destination
address of 10.16.0.2?

S 10.0.0.0/8 [1/0] via 192.168.0.2

S 10.16.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9*
S 10.16.0.0/16 is directly connected, Ethernet 0/1
S 10.0.0.0/16 is directly connected, Ethernet 0/0

Before the administrative distance of a route is compared, the route with the most
specific best match is utilized. The 192.168.14.0/26 network contains the best match to
the destination IP address of 192.168.14.20 and thus the 192.168.14.0/26 RIP route is
utilized over the EIGRP and OSFP routes, regardless of administrative distance.

22. A router is configured to participate in multiple routing protocol: RIP, EIGRP,

and OSPF. The router must send a packet to network 192.168.14.0. Which route will
be used to forward the traffic?

a 192.168.14.0/26 route that is learned via RIP*

a 192.168.14.0/24 route that is learned via EIGRP
a 192.168.14.0/25 route that is learned via OSPF
a 192.168.14.0/25 route that is learned via RIP

23. What is different between IPv6 routing table entries compared to IPv4 routing
table entries?

IPv6 routing tables include local route entries which IPv4 routing tables do not.
By design IPv6 is classless so all routes are effectively level 1 ultimate
routes.*

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 The selection of IPv6 routes is based on the shortest matching prefix, unlike IPv4
route selection which is based on the longest matching prefix.
IPv6 does not use static routes to populate the routing table as used in IPv4.

Routers running IOS release 15 have link local routing table entries for both IPv4 and
IPv6. The selection of both IPv6 routes and IPv4 routes is based on the longest matching
prefix. The routing tables of both IPv6 and IPv4 use directly connected interfaces, static
routes, and dynamically learned routes.

24. Match the dynamic routing protocol component to the characteristic. (Not all
options are used.)

data structures
tables or databases that are stored in RAM*
routing protocol messages
exchanges routing information and maintains accurate information about
networks*
algorithm
a finite list of steps used to determine the best path*

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The three components of dynamic routing protocols include:
Data structures
Routing protocol messages
Algorithm

25. Match the characteristic to the corresponding type of routing. (Not all options
are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

[+] typically used on stub networks *
[+] less routing overhead *
[#] new networks are added automatically to the routing table *
[#] best choice for large networks*

Both static and dynamic routing could be used when more than one router is involved.
Dynamic routing is when a routing protocol is used. Static routing is when every remote
route is entered manually by an administrator into every router in the network topology.

Older Version:

26. Which three statements accurately describe VLAN types? (Choose three).

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 A management VLAN is any VLAN that is configured to access management
features of the switch.*
A data VLAN is used to carry VLAN management data and user-generated traffic.
After the initial boot of an unconfigured switch, all ports are members of the
default VLAN. *
An 802.1Q trunk port, with a native VLAN assigned, supports both tagged and
untagged traffic.*
Voice VLANs are used to support user phone and e-mail traffic on a network.
VLAN 1 is always used as the management VLAN.

27. Which type of VLAN is used to designate which traffic is untagged when
crossing a trunk port?

data
default
native*
management

28. What are three primary benefits of using VLANs? (Choose three.)

security*
a reduction in the number of trunk links
cost reduction *
end user satisfaction
improved IT staff efficiency*
no required configuration

29. Refer to the exhibit. A frame is traveling between PC-A and PC-B through the
switch. Which statement is true concerning VLAN tagging of the frame?

A VLAN tag is added when the frame leaves PC-A.

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 A VLAN tag is added when the frame is accepted by the switch.
A VLAN tag is added when the frame is forwarded out the port to PC-B.
No VLAN tag is added to the frame.*

30. Which command displays the encapsulation type, the voice VLAN ID, and the
access mode VLAN for the Fa0/1 interface?

show vlan brief

show interfaces Fa0/1 switchport*
show mac address-table interface Fa0/1
show interfaces trunk

31. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1
from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?

Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.
Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration
mode.*
Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default
configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.

32. A Cisco Catalyst switch has been added to support the use of multiple VLANs as
part of an enterprise network. The network technician finds it necessary to clear
all VLAN information from the switch in order to incorporate a new network
design. What should the technician do to accomplish this task?

Erase the startup configuration and reboot the switch.

Erase the running configuration and reboot the switch.
Delete the startup configuration and the vlan.dat file in the flash memory of
the switch and reboot the switch.*
Delete the IP address that is assigned to the management VLAN and reboot the
switch.

33. Which two characteristics match extended range VLANs? (Choose two.)

CDP can be used to learn and store these VLANs.

VLAN IDs exist between 1006 to 4094. *
They are saved in the running-config file by default.*
VLANs are initialized from flash memory.
They are commonly used in small networks.

34. What happens to switch ports after the VLAN to which they are assigned is
deleted?

The ports are disabled.

The ports are placed in trunk mode.
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 The ports are assigned to VLAN1, the default VLAN.
The ports stop communicating with the attached devices.*

35. A Cisco switch currently allows traffic tagged with VLANs 10 and 20 across
trunk port Fa0/5. What is the effect of issuing a switchport trunk allowed vlan 30
command on Fa0/5?

It allows VLANs 1 to 30 on Fa0/5.

It allows VLANs 10, 20, and 30 on Fa0/5.
It allows only VLAN 30 on Fa0/5.*
It allows a native VLAN of 30 to be implemented on Fa0/5.

36. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set
to the default value?

All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.*

Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.

37. Which command should the network administrator implement to prevent the
transfer of DTP frames between a Cisco switch and a non-Cisco switch?

S1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

S1(config-if)# switchport nonegotiate*
S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
S1(config-if)# switchport mode access
S1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan none

38. Under which two occasions should an administrator disable DTP while
managing a local area network? (Choose two.)

when connecting a Cisco switch to a non-Cisco switch*

when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic auto
when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic desirable
on links that should not be trunking*
on links that should dynamically attempt trunking

39. In a basic VLAN hopping attack, which switch feature do attackers take
advantage of?

an open Telnet connection

automatic encapsulation negotiation
forwarding of broadcasts
the default automatic trunking configuration*

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40. Which two Layer 2 security best practices would help prevent VLAN hopping
attacks? (Choose two.)

Change the native VLAN number to one that is distinct from all user VLANs
and is not VLAN 1.*
Change the management VLAN to a distinct VLAN that is not accessible by regular
users.
Statically configure all ports that connect to end-user host devices to be in trunk
mode.
Disable DTP autonegotiation on end-user ports.*
Use SSH for all remote management access.

41. Refer to the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 is connected to a PC. Fa0/2 is a trunk link to
another switch. All other ports are unused. Which security best practice did the
administrator forget to configure?

Disable autonegotiation and set ports to either static access or static trunk.
Change the native VLAN to a fixed VLAN that is distinct from all user VLANs and to a
VLAN number that is not VLAN 1.
Configure all unused ports to a ‘black-hole’ VLAN that is not used for anything on
the network.
All user ports are associated with VLANs distinct from VLAN 1 and distinct
from the ‘black-hole’ VLAN.*

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42. A network administrator is determining the best placement of VLAN trunk
links. Which two types of point-to-point connections utilize VLAN trunking?
(Choose two.)

between two switches that utilize multiple VLANs*

between a switch and a client PC
between a switch and a server that has an 802.1Q NIC*
between a switch and a network printer
between two switches that share a common VLAN

43. What is the effect of issuing a switchport access vlan 20 command on the Fa0/18
port of a switch that does not have this VLAN in the VLAN database?

The command will have no effect on the switch.

VLAN 20 will be created automatically.*
An error stating that VLAN 20 does not exist will be displayed and VLAN 20 is not
created.
Port Fa0/18 will be shut down.

44. Port Fa0/11 on a switch is assigned to VLAN 30. If the command no switchport
access vlan 30 is entered on the Fa0/11 interface, what will happen?

Port Fa0/11 will be shutdown.

An error message would be displayed.
Port Fa0/11 will be returned to VLAN 1.*
VLAN 30 will be deleted.

45. Which command is used to remove only VLAN 20 from a switch?

delete vlan.dat
delete flash:vlan.dat
no vlan 20 *
no switchport access vlan 20

46. Refer to the exhibit. PC-A and PC-B are both in VLAN 60. PC-A is unable to
communicate with PC-B. What is the problem?

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 CCNA 2 Chapter 3 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

The native VLAN should be VLAN 60.

The native VLAN is being pruned from the link.
The trunk has been configured with the switchport nonegotiate command.
The VLAN that is used by PC-A is not in the list of allowed VLANs on the
trunk.*

47. What happens to a port that is associated with VLAN 10 when the
administrator deletes VLAN 10 from the switch?

The port becomes inactive.*

The port goes back to the default VLAN.
The port automatically associates itself with the native VLAN.
The port creates the VLAN again.

48. In a basic VLAN hopping attack, which switch feature do attackers take
advantage of?

an open Telnet connection

automatic encapsulation negotiation
forwarding of broadcasts
the default automatic trunking configuration*

49. Which two Layer 2 security best practices would help prevent VLAN hopping
attacks? (Choose two.)

15/24
 Change the native VLAN number to one that is distinct from all user VLANs
and is not VLAN 1.*
Change the management VLAN to a distinct VLAN that is not accessible by regular
users.
Statically configure all ports that connect to end-user host devices to be in trunk
mode.
Disable DTP autonegotiation on end-user ports.*
Use SSH for all remote management access.

50. Refer to the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 is connected to a PC. Fa0/2 is a trunk link to
another switch. All other ports are unused. Which security best practice did the
administrator forget to configure?

Disable autonegotiation and set ports to either static access or static trunk.
Change the native VLAN to a fixed VLAN that is distinct from all user VLANs and to a
VLAN number that is not VLAN 1.
Configure all unused ports to a ‘black-hole’ VLAN that is not used for anything on
the network.
All user ports are associated with VLANs distinct from VLAN 1 and distinct
from the ‘black-hole’ VLAN.*

51. A network administrator is determining the best placement of VLAN trunk

links. Which two types of point-to-point connections utilize VLAN trunking?​
(Choose two.)
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 between two switches that share a common VLAN
between a switch and a server that has an 802.1Q NIC*
between a switch and a client PC
between a switch and a network printer
between two switches that utilize multiple VLANs*

52. What happens to a port that is associated with VLAN 10 when the
administrator deletes VLAN 10 from the switch?

The port automatically associates itself with the native VLAN.

The port creates the VLAN again.
The port goes back to the default VLAN.
The port becomes inactive.*

53. Refer to the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 is connected to a PC. Fa0/2 is a trunk link to
another switch. All other ports are unused. Which security best practice did the
administrator forget to configure?

Configure all unused ports to a ‘black-hole’ VLAN that is not used for anything on
the network.
Disable autonegotiation and set ports to either static access or static trunk.
Change the native VLAN to a fixed VLAN that is distinct from all user VLANs and to a
VLAN number that is not VLAN 1.

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 All user ports are associated with VLANs distinct from VLAN 1 and distinct
from the ‘black-hole’ VLAN.*

54. Which command is used to remove only VLAN 20 from a switch?

no switchport access vlan 20

delete flash:vlan.dat
no vlan 20*
delete vlan.dat

55. What is the effect of issuing a switchport access vlan 20 command on the
Fa0/18 port of a switch that does not have this VLAN in the VLAN database?

VLAN 20 will be created automatically.*

The command will have no effect on the switch.
Port Fa0/18 will be shut down.
An error stating that VLAN 20 does not exist will be displayed and VLAN 20 is not
created.

56. Place the options in the following order:

– not scored –
dynamic auto
nonegotiate
dynamic desirable
trunk

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57. Port Fa0/11 on a switch is assigned to VLAN 30. If the command no switchport
access vlan 30 is entered on the Fa0/11 interface, what will happen?

Port Fa0/11 will be returned to VLAN 1.*

VLAN 30 will be deleted.
An error message would be displayed.
Port Fa0/11 will be shutdown.

58. Which two Layer 2 security best practices would help prevent VLAN hopping
attacks? (Choose two.)

Disable DTP autonegotiation on end-user ports.*

Change the management VLAN to a distinct VLAN that is not accessible by regular
users.
Statically configure all ports that connect to end-user host devices to be in trunk
mode.
Change the native VLAN number to one that is distinct from all user VLANs
and is not VLAN 1.*
Use SSH for all remote management access.

59. In a basic VLAN hopping attack, which switch feature do attackers take
advantage of?

automatic encapsulation negotiation

the default automatic trunking configuration*
an open Telnet connection
forwarding of broadcasts

60. Refer to the exhibit. PC-A and PC-B are both in VLAN 60. PC-A is unable to
communicate with PC-B. What is the problem?

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 The native VLAN is being pruned from the link.
The VLAN that is used by PC-A is not in the list of allowed VLANs on the
trunk.*
The trunk has been configured with the switchport nonegotiate command.
The native VLAN should be VLAN 60.

61. Under which two occasions should an administrator disable DTP while
managing a local area network? (Choose two.)

when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic desirable

on links that should dynamically attempt trunking
when connecting a Cisco switch to a non-Cisco switch*
when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic auto
on links that should not be trunking*

62. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then
answer the question.

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Which PCs will receive the broadcast sent by PC-C?

PC-D, PC-E*
PC-A, PC-B, PC-D, PC-E
PC-A, PC-B
PC-A, PC-B, PC-D, PC-E, PC-F
PC-A, PC-B, PC-E

63. Which two statements are true about VLAN implementation? (Choose two.)

The network load increases significantly because of added trunking information.

Devices in one VLAN do not hear the broadcasts from devices in another
VLAN.*
The size of the collision domain is reduced.
VLANs logically group hosts, regardless of physical location.*
The number of required switches in a network decreases.

64. Which switch feature ensures that no unicast, multicast, or broadcast traffic is
passed between ports that are configured with this feature?

switch port security

PVLAN protected port*
ACL
VLAN

65. Fill in the blank. Use the full command syntax.

The ” show vlan brief* ” command displays the VLAN assignment for all ports as well as
the existing VLANs on the switch.

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66. Which combination of DTP modes set on adjacent Cisco switches will cause the
link to become an access link instead of a trunk link?

dynamic auto – dynamic auto*

dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable
dynamic desirable – trunk
dynamic desirable – dynamic auto

67. An administrator has determined that the traffic from a switch that
corresponds to a VLAN is not being received on another switch over a trunk link.
What could be the problem?

trunk mode mismatch

allowed VLANS on trunks*
native VLANS mismatch
dynamic desirable mode on one of the trunk links

68. What is the default DTP mode on Cisco 2960 and 3560 switches?

trunk
dynamic auto*
access
dynamic desirable

69. Refer to the exhibit.

What can be determined from the output that is shown?

Interface FastEthernet 0/1 is configured with the switchport protected

command.*
Interface FastEthernet 0/1 is configured with the nonegotiate keyword.
Interface FastEthernet 0/1 is trunking and using Native VLAN 1.

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 Interface FastEthernet 0/1 is configured as dynamic auto by the administrator.

70. Match the IEEE 802.1Q standard VLAN tag field in the description. (not all
options are used)

Place the options in the following order:

User Priority – value that supports level or service implementation
Type – value for the tag protocol ID value
Canonical Format Identifier – identifier that enables Token Ring frames to be
carried across Ethernet Links
– not scored – -value for the application protocol of the user data in a frame*
VLAN ID – VLAN number

71. Which two modes does Cisco recommend when configuring a particular switch
port? (Choose two.)

trunk*
IEEE 802.1Q
access*
Gigabit Ethernet
FastEthernet
ISL
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