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Soal Toefl Ok

This document provides instructions for Part A of the Listening Comprehension section of an English proficiency test. It explains that test-takers will hear short conversations followed by questions about the conversations. For each question, they should choose the best answer from four options. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. An example is provided to demonstrate. The document also provides 30 sample questions that may appear on the test.

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Rizka Daeng
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100% found this document useful (2 votes)
2K views34 pages

Soal Toefl Ok

This document provides instructions for Part A of the Listening Comprehension section of an English proficiency test. It explains that test-takers will hear short conversations followed by questions about the conversations. For each question, they should choose the best answer from four options. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. An example is provided to demonstrate. The document also provides 30 sample questions that may appear on the test.

Uploaded by

Rizka Daeng
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 34

SECTION 1

LISTENING COMPREHENSION 1
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to
understand conversation and talks in English. There are three parts to this section with
special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or
implied by speakers in this test. Do not turn the pages until you are told to do so
Part A
Direction : In part A, you will hear short coversation between two people. After each
conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and
question will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four posible answer in your
test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answers sheet, find the number of the
question and fill in the space that correspons to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Here is an example.

On the recording you hear:

Sample Answer
B C D

In your test book, you read : (A) He does not like the painting either.
(B) He does not know how to paint.
(C) He does not have any paintings.
(D) He does not know what to do.

You learn from the conversation that neither the man nor the wonan likes the painting. The
best answer to the questation “What does the man mean?” is (A), “He does not like the
painting either. “Therefore, the correct choice is (A)

Wait

1
1 1 1 1 1 1
1. (A) He is not worried about his 6. (A) His flight took three hours.
(B) His flight arrived late.
Scheduled class work (C) Emma had a long drive to the
airport
(B) He will help the woman catch
(D) Emma had trouble finding the
Up with the class. airport

(C) The woman did not miss any of 7. (A) They should wait for him.
(B) They should go without him.
The homwork. (C) He will try to join them later.
(D) The woman will have a problem (D) They should bring him some
pizza
Making up the work bay the due
8. (A) She will request more time to
Date. finish the project.
(B) She will help the man to finish
his project.
2. (A) She does not know many (C) She finished her project in
two weeks.
artists. (D) She is almost finished working
on her project
(B) She does not know much
About art. 9. (A) He cannot go to the art exhibit.
(B) He will introduce the woman to
(C) She admires the man’s art. the people in his class.
(C) He plans to take the same
(D) She likes many artists. painting cals as the woman.
(D) He needs directions to the
art exhibit.
3. (A) He expects to sell all of the
10. (A) She skipped some of the
calculators soon. intructions in the recipe.
(B) She bought the pie.
(B) The woman should look in a (C) She will give the recipe to the
man later.
difference section of the store.
(D) She does not think the pie
(C) The store does not have any tastes good.

calculators to sell now.


(D) Calculators are on sale this
week

2
4. (A) She cannot work on Fridays
(B) She is not available to work
before six-thirty on Fridays
(C) She needs to leave work early on
Friday
(D) Her class on Fridays has been
canceled

5. (A) He will be studying tomorrow.


(B) He will see the game at night.
(C) He does not like baseball.
(D) He has a ticket for the game.

1 1 1 1 1 1

11. (A) He has to meet with his 16. (A) He was not sick.
professor soon. (B) He refuses to take medicine.
(B) He enjoyed the photography (C) He is feeling much better.
club meeting. (D) He is at the health center now.
(C) He was with his professor during
the club 17. (A) She will help the man find his
meeting. library card.
(D) He was looking for the meeting (B) She does not have a library car
place. (C) She is not sure if she can
borrow materials for the man.
12. (A) He plans to visit more national (D) She has the journals the
parks man needs at her home.
(B) He wanted to go but could not
(C) The park was very crowded 18. (A) It is not her favorite shirt.
(D) The park was better than he (B) The shirt was a gift.
expected. (C) She went on vacation with her
sister

3
13. (A) Leave work earlier (D) The shirt belongs to her sister.
(B) Join a different fitness center
(C) Go to the fitness center in the 19. (A) Ed is happy with his job.
morning (B) Ed is not as good a worked
(D) Use a different parking lot as the boss thinks.
(C) The boss plans to give Ed a
14. (A) She is also sad that he raise in salary.
professor is retiring. (D) The boss has not treated Ed Well
(B) She has taken many of the
professor’s classes. 20. (A) Change the time on his watch.
(C) She knows why the professor is (B) Tell the woman what time it is
retiring. (C) Take the woman’s watch to a
(D) She doubts that the professor is repair shop.
lanning to retire. (D) Help the woman buy a watch.

15. (A) He needs the woman’s help.


(B) He will complete the report
when the complete the report.
(C) The report was much longer
than he thought it would be.
(D) The report was finished a couple
of days ago.

1 1 1 1 1 1
21. (A) She disagrees with the man’s 26. (A) He may apply for a job at the
opinion. bookstore.
(B) She listens to the show’s music (B) His friends need to buy something
regulary. at the bookstore
(C) She did not attend the (C) He will give the woman a ride to
performance. the
(D) She preferred the slow songs. bookstore
(D) He will be too busy to work at the
22. (A) He paid a higher fee than the bookstore
woman did.
(B) He understands why his phone 27. (A) She will not be a candidate in the
bill increased. election
(C) He did not receive his phone (B) She has to quit her job.
bill this month. (C) She could not attend the student
(D) He paid the same amount as he council meeting.
did the previous mount. (D) She plans to take fewer classes.

23. (A) She is neater than the woman’s 28. (A) He has to go to eye doctor .
previous roommate. (B) He has a new style of glasses.

4
(B) She does not like the woman’s (C) He lost one of his contact lenses.
last rommate. (D) He rarely wears his glasses.
(C) She does not like to clean.
(D) She will probably move soon. 29. (A) Watch the news on TV.
(B) Turn the TV on at six o’clock.
24. (A) He does not know much about (C) Turn the TV off in a few minutes.
lab reports. (D) Watch another comedyy show
(B) He can meet with the woman later
(C) He thinks the lab report needs 30. (A) Tell her which evening the
work. professor will come.
(D) He cannot help the woman. (B) Pay for the professor’s meal
ahead of time.
25. (A) Listen to a weather report (C) Find out the evening schedule of
(B) Decide whether to cancel the trip the dining hall.
(C) Schedule the trip for a later date (D) Find out which students will
(D) Ask other students for their attend.
opinion about the trips

1 1 1 1 1 1

Part B

Direction : In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each
conversation, you will hear serveral questions. The conversation and questions will not be
repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the
best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space
correnponds to the letter of the answer your have chosen.

Wait

5
1 1 1 1 1 1
31 . (A) A famous poet. 35. (A) Reasons that theater attendance
(B) Research the man is doing for a has recently increased.
paper. (B) Tecniques used to generate public
(C) How to get help at the library. interest in a production.
(D) The man’s new job. (C) Why shakespeare’s plays attract a
large audience.
32. (A) He puts them back on the shelves. (D) Modern productions of plays
(B) He repairs damage to their pages written long ago.
and covers.
(C) He enters information about them 36. (A) Play wrights and actors spoke
in the computer. about their plays.
(D) He brings them to the front desk. (B) Pictorial advertisement were
posted
33. (A) He talks to his friends. throughout the city.
(B) He does his homework. (C) Audience members gathered to
(C) He plays computer games. eat.
(D) He meets a lot of new people. (D) Advertisements were printed in
newspaper.
34. (A) His boss can talk with her about a
job 37. (A) Actorsperformed short scenes

6
(B) His boss can help her find books downtown for free.
for her research paper. (B) Announcements were made in
(C) His boss knows a lot about Emily public
Dickinson. squares.
(D) His boss wants to hear student’s (C) Flags were raised to attract
comment about the library’s attention.
service. (D) Advertainsements were printed in
newspaper.

38. (A) It has decreased due to


improvements in tecnology.
(B) It may force some theaters to
close down.
(C) It has become an important part
of running a successful theater.
(D) It will probably not increase
much in the near future.

1 1 1 1 1 1

Part C
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. After each talk, you will
hear some questions. The talks and the questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the
best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space
that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Here is an example.

On the recording, you hear:

Now listen to a sample question.

Sample Answer
7 A B D
In your test book, you read: (A) To demonstrate the latest use of computer
graphics
(B) To discuss the possibility of an economic
depression
(C) To explain the workings of the brain
(D) To dramatize a famous mystery story

The best answer to the question "What is the main purpose of the program?" is (C), "TO
explain the workings of the brain." Therefore, the correct choice is (C).
Now listen to another sample question.
Sample Answer
A B C

In your test book, you read: (A) It is required of all science majors,
(B) It will feature the professor's research.
(C) It can help viewers improve their memory
skills.
(D) It will help with course work.

The best answer to the question “Why does the professor recommend watching the
program?" is (D), “It will help with course work." Therefore, the correct choice is (D).

1 1 1 1 1 1

39. (A) The formation of asteroids and 43. (A) The cost of analyzing
meteorites in space productdesigns
(B) The discovery and origin of (B) Designing products so they are
space diamonds easy to use
(C) The process by which diamonds (C) Redesigning old products for
form on Earth new uses
(D) Various potential uses for space (D) Psychological aspects of
diamonds consumer spending

40. (A) They could not cut through it.


(B) They could not x-ray it.

8
(C) They could not determine its 44. (A) The accuracy of some of
composition. theirinstruments
(D) They could not move it. (B) The layout of their instruments
(C) The type of training they
41. (A) Space diamonds are very received
expensive. (D) The complexity of their flight
(B) Space diamonds are very routes
beautiful.
(C) Space diamonds are smaller than 45. (A) Increased employee loyalty
regular diamonds. (B) Reduced marketing costs
(D) Space diamonds are commonly (C) Increased product sales.
found on Earth. (D) Improved efficiency in factories

42. (A) Deep in Earth's crust


(B) On the ocean floor 46. (A) It was too small for most cups.
(C) In volcanic rock (B) It did not hold cups securely.
(D) In meteor craters
(C) It interfered with access to the
radio.

(D) It was too far from the driver.

47. (A) They were very expensive.


(B) They were unattractive.
(C) They were designed by a
psychologist.
(D) They were often difficult to use.

1 1 1 1 1 1

9
48. (A) Why early societies needed to 50. (A) Its design changed around 1500
measure time B.C.E.

(B) Similarities between obelisks and (B) Its usefulness was limited.
sundials
(C) It was very precise when used along
(C) The evolution of early with a water clock.
timekeeping devices
(D) It was less accurate than the water
(D) A new theory about early clock.
timekeeping devices

49. (A) They were used to predict the


Sun's path across the sky.

(B) They were more accurate in


morning than in afternoon."

(C) They were invented around the


same time.

(D) They only worked on sunny days.

10
2
Section 2
Structure and
Written Expression
Time: 25 minutes
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for
standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special
directions for each type.
Structure

Directions: Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see
four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best
completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill
in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Example I Sample Answer

A C D

Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes ------- they both emit hot liquids from
below Earth's surface.
(A) despite
(B) because
(C) in regard to
(D) as a result of

The sentence should read, “Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes because they
both emit hot liquids from below Earth's surface." Therefore, you should choose (B).

Example II Sample Answer


A B C

During the early period of ocean navigation ------


any need for sophisticated instruments and techniques.
(A) so that hardly
(B) when there hardly was
(C) hardly was
(D) there was hardly

The sentence should read, “During the early period of ocean navigation, there was hardly any
need for sophisticated instruments and techniques.” Therefore, you should choose (D).
Now begin work on the questions.

11
Go on to the next page

2 2 2 2 2 2 2
1. The wood of the black cherry tree, 5. About two and a half million yearsago,
------- to North America, has a reddish early humans started ------- use basic tools,
brown color and a warm luster when such as hand axes,
finished.
(A) making
(A) which is native (B) to make
(B) which it is native (C) to make and
(C) native of which (D) and making to
(D) that which, being native
6. ------- human tongue has about10,000
2. In 1983 astronaut Sally Ride nerve endings, known as taste buds,
became ------- from the United States to embedded in its surface.
travel into space.
(A) In
(A) she was the first woman (B) The
(B) the first woman was (C) In the
(C) of the first woman (D) There are in the
(D) the first woman
7. Hares generally have longer earsand hind
3. When -------, the electrons in their legs than rabbits and move by jumping
outer rings are exchanged or shared. ------running.

(A) do atoms join (A) rather to be


(B) two joining atoms (B) rather than
(C) two atoms join (C) are rather
(D) joint atoms (D) as rather

4. Just as remote-controlled satellites 8. Article 2 of the United StatesConstitution,


can be employed to explore outer modified by the Twelfth Amendment,
space, -------employed to specifies -------
investigate the deep sea. (A) how the President andVice President
are to beselected
(A) can be robots (B) the President and Vice President how
(B) robots can be to be selected
(C) can robots (C) the selection of President andVice
(D) can robots that are President is
(D) how are the President andVice
President to be selected

12
Go on to the next page

2 2 2 2 2 2 2
9. An affidavit is a written statementused 13. The introduction of center-pivotirrigation
mostly in lawsuits to lay necessary facts devices in the 1970s ------- the
before courts ------- no formal oral cultivation of lands in Nebraska that
evidence is required. previously could not be irrigated.

(A) where is (A) was possible


(B) where (B) it became possible
(C) where there is (C) made it possible
(D) is (D) made possible

10. In Earth's infancy, its surfacewas warm 14. In neither of the two types of
enough for life ------ the young Sun was Cubistpainting ------- to reproduce in
fainter than it is today. detail the appearance of natural objects.

(A) in spite of (A) any attempt is there


(B) whether (B) is there any attempt
(C) neither of which (C) in which there is any attempt
(D) even though (D) there is any attempt

11. The novelist John Dos Passosdeveloped a 15. ------- 2,500 federal libraries
style of fiction incorporating several andinformation centers are located in
documentary devices ------- to his works. United States government offices and in
independent agencies.
(A) lent realism (A) More
(B) that lending realism (B) More of
(C) to lend realism (C) The more that
(D) of whose realism lent (D) More than

12. Before the Europeans arrived,American


Indians were using virgin copper -------
into ornaments, knives, and other
artifacts.

(A) which was hammering


(B) which hammered
(C) was hammered
(D) hammered

13
Go on to the next page

the nage

2 2 2 2 2 2 2
Written Expression
Directions: In questions 16-40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four
underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one
underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the
letter of the answer you have chosen.

Example I Sample Answer

Guppies are sometimes call rainbow fish due to the


A B
bright colors of the males.
C D

The sentence should read, “Guppies are sometimes called rainbow fish due to the bright
colors of the males." Therefore, you should choose (A).

Example II Sample Answer

Serving several term in the United States Congress,


A B
Shirley Chisholm became a respected political figure.
C D

The sentence should read, “Serving several terms in the United States Congress, Shirley
Chisholm became a respected political figure." Therefore, you should choose (B).

Now begin work on the questions.

14
the nage

2 2 2 2 2 2 2
16. Throughout her life, Edith Wharton produced more than fifty volumes of fiction,
A B C
poetry, and another writings.
D
17. Georgia O'Keeffe is known for hers use of organic, abstract forms painted in clear,
A B C
strong colors.
D
18. Researchers have found subtle neurological differences between the brains of men
A B
and women either in physical structure and in the way they function.
C D
19. Between 1905 and 1907, floodwaters from the Colorado River poured into a
A B C

salt-covered depression and creating the Salton Sea.


D
20. Styles of social dancing vary with the changes in fashion, manners, and musically of a
A B C D
given period.

21. Although complete paralysis is rare with neuritis, some degree of muscle
A B C
weakness common.
D
22. One kind of discourse structure is based on the fact that people takes turns speaking

A B C

in most kinds of interaction.

23. Unlike fantasy stories, which deal with events impossible, science fiction describes

A B C

events that could actually occur according to accepted or likely scientific theories.

D
24. A uniform mingling of molecules, which it occurs in homogeneous chemical

15
A
compounds, results from the chemical constituents melting, dissolving, or diffusing
B C
into one another.
D
25. First reported by Spanish explorers in 1769, the asphalt in California's
A B
La Brea Tar Pit was mined commercial for many years.
C D

2 2 2 2 2 2 2
26. The Progressive Movement is an umbrella term refer to a number of reform efforts
A B C
that emerged in the early 1900s.
D
27. The food and water that people consume them come from the environment, provided
A B
either by nature or through the work of farmers and other producers.
C D
28. Atoms form the building blocks for everything in universe.
A B C D
29. Because of the need to maintain the correct balance of salts and minerals in the
A B
water, keeping saltwater fish in aquariums requires more work that keeping
C D
Fresh water fish.
30. The conceptual of musical harmony is generally traced to the ninth century because
A B C
it is first mentioned in treatises of that period.
D
31. One of the major branches of the discipline of philosophy is ethics, the study of the
A B
types, sources, and justifies of moral values and principles.
C D

32. During Arkansas was admitted to the United States as the twenty-fifth state in
A B
June 1836, it had barely the required minimum of 50,000 residents.
C D
33. The most important parameters affecting a rocket's maximum flight velocity
A
is the relationship between the vehicle's mass and the amount of propellant
B C
it can carry.
D
34. Mitosis is the normal process by which a cell divides, each new cell ending up with
A B C

16
a same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
D
35. In addition to their usefulness as scavengers, birds are of enormous value to humans
A B
because of they eat insects and control the spread of weeds.
C D

2 2 2 2 2 2 2
36. Licorice has long been used to treat sore throats and is often added to medicine to
A B C
mask disagreeably tastes.
D
37. In artifacts from as early as the Stone Age, mathematics and art can be seen
A
to have fused in the geometric patterns decorate pottery, weaving, and carpentry.
B C D
38. After his death, Jackson Pollock came to be recognized as a significant influenced
A B
on American art, having opened new boundaries of texture, line, and expression.
C D
39. Atypical orb-weaving spider, the garden cross spider products six different kinds
A B C
of silk from its posterior ducts.
D
40. Much of California's coastline is rocky and rugged, such as in region just north of
A B C
San Luis Obispo, but Southern California has numerous large sand beaches.
D

17
Section 3

Reading Comprehension 3
Time: 55 minutes

Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several
questions about it. For questions 1-50, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or
(D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in
the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that
passage.
Read the following passage:

The railroad was not the first institution to impose regularity on society, or to draw
attention to the importance of precise timekeeping. For as long as merchants
have set out their wares at daybreak and communal festivities have been celebrated, Line
Line 5 people have been in rough agreement with their neighbors as to the time of day. The
value of this tradition is today more apparent than ever. Were it not for public acceptance
of a single yardstick of time, social life would be unbearably chaotic: the massive daily
transfers of goods, services, and information would proceed in fits and starts; the very
fabric of modern society would begin to unravel.

Example 1 Sample Answer

A B C D
What is the main idea of the passage?
(A) In modern society we must make more time
for our neighbors.
(B) The traditions of society are timeless.
(C) An accepted way of measuring time is essential
for the smooth functioning of society,
(D) Society judges people by the times at which
they conduct certain activities.
The main idea of the passage is that societies need to agree about how time is to be measured
in order to function smoothly. Therefore, you should choose (C).

Example II Sample Answer

A B C

18
In line 5, the phrase "this tradition” refers to
(A) the practice of starting the business day at dawn
(B) friendly relations between neighbors
(C)the railroad's reliance on time schedules
(D) people's agreement on the measurement of time

The phrase "this tradition” refers to the preceding clause, "people have been in rough
agreement with their neighbors as to the time of day.” Therefore, you should choose (D).
Now begin work on the questions.

3 3 3 3 3 3 3

Questions 1 - 9

Earth holds only a finite amount of water, and virtually all the water now at Earth's
surface has been there almost since the planet was born, yet it never seems to run out.

The ever-filled purse that represents our water resource comes about because water,
Line like rock, moves through cycles, constantly being used, constantly being
Line replenished.

5 Any water that might have been on Earth's surface when it first cooled off would
probably have been blown off by the impact of meteorites or the solar wind-the intense
stream of particles emitted by the newborn Sun. The water that now fills the oceans, as
well as the gases that make up the atmosphere, must have waited out this

early violent period in our planet's history safely stored in solid rock. Only later did 10
10 they come to the surface through volcanic activity.

Oceans and atmospheres are not an inevitable consequence of planet formation.


Smaller worlds, like Mercury and the Moon, are too small to retain any surface fluids.
Fast-moving gas molecules like water vapor, nitrogen, or oxygen gradually escape the

weak gravitational pull of these bodies. If Earth had been much smaller, there would 15
15 have been no oceans and no life to enjoy them.

Our planetary reservoir holds almost 500 billion gallons of surface water in its
oceans, lakes, rivers, ice caps, groundwater, and atmosphere. An unknown (but
probably larger) amount is locked up in minerals in the crust and mantle layers of

Earth, though this bound water is obviously not readily available for human use. The 20
20 oceans account for more than 97 percent of the vast surface-water budget and an

19
additional two percent is frozen in ice caps and glaciers, leaving less than one percent
as usable freshwater. These percentages may change slightly, for example during ice
ages, but freshwater will never account for more than a small fraction of the total
supply.
25
The most familiar illustrations of the water cycle depict water evaporating from the
oceans forming clouds that rain on the land, and finally collecting in streams and rivers
that return to the sea. This simple water cycle, which takes a few weeks or months to
complete, is certainly a part of the story, but the complete cycle is much more complex.

3 3 3 3 3 3 3

1. The word "it" in line 2 refers to 6. The phrase "account for” in line 20 is
closest in meaning to
(A) Earth
(A) make up
(B) water
(B) ensure that
(C) surface
(C) depend on
(D) planet
(D) determine that

2. The word "resource” in line 3 is closest in


meaning to 7. Approximately how much of Earth's
surface water is frozen?
(A) supply

20
(B) use (A) More than 97 percent

(C) management (B) Approximately 2 percent

(D) requirement (C) Less than 1 percent

(D) More than 500 billion gallons

3. According to the first paragraph, water and


rock are alike in that they both
8. The word "depict” in line 25 is closest in
(A) have similar chemical compositions meaning to

(B) exist on all planets (A) start with

(C) are available in almost unlimited (B) suggest


quantities
(C) show
(D) are regularly used and replenished
(D) leave out

9. The author arranges the description of the


4. The word "retain" in line 12 is water cycle in the fifth paragraph
according to the
closest in meaning to
(A) order in which the events of the cycle
(A) create occur

(B) keep (B) level of importance of the events of the


cycle
(C) release
(C) effect the cycle has on the overall amount
(D) change of water

(D) time it takes to complete the steps in the


cycle
5. The amount of water contained in minerals
in Earth's crust and mantle is likely to
be

(A) less than 500 billion gallons

(B) greater than the amount of surface water

(C) equal to the amount of water available for


humans to use

(D) less than the amount frozen in ice caps


and glaciers

21
3 3 3 3 3 3 3

Questions 10-20

During the 1880s and 1890s, modern mass-circulation magazines came into being in
the United States. For the author they provided an important outlet for work and a

major source of income. Before 1880, serious authors had only a few respectable Line
Line magazines in which they could publish-Scribner's, Harper's, the Century, and three

5 or four others. Such magazines were usually allied with book publishing firms and addressed
a relatively well-educated audience. They tended, in editorial philosophy, to pattern
themselves after such British models as Blackwood's, the Edinburgh Review, and the
Fortnightly. In the 1890s and early 1900s, however, editors and publishers in

the United States began to produce mass-circulation magazines for a vast middle-class
10 readership that previously had not been addressed successfully. Advances in printing

technology-especially in the reproduction of illustrations-made it possible to manufacture


visually attractive magazines in huge printing runs and to price them at ten or fifteen cents,
well within reach of these new audiences. During this same time period, the United States
was making the final transition from a largely agricultural
15
economy to a predominantly industrial one. Urbanization, growth in average income, better
public education, and an increase in leisure time combined to produce a ready audience for
magazines that published popular fiction and articles of general interest. During the first half
of the twentieth century, authors in the United States could publish stories and serialize
novels in an unprecedented number and variety of such magazines.
20
The great boom in national retailing and the growing importance of brand-name
products made mass-circulation magazines the ideal advertising medium for business. Indeed,
it was the partnership between advertising and magazines that made possible the enormous
growth of the periodical industry in the United States. Magazine

publishers could sell their magazines for less than production costs and still take
25
substantial profits from advertising revenues. A publisher had to devise an editorial

philosophy that would appeal to a particular body of readers and acquire material to fit that
philosophy. Then advertising space had to be sold to advertisers who wanted to present their
products to that segment of the retail market.

10. What does the passage mainly discuss? 11. The phrase "allied with” in line 5 is
(A) The connection between book-publishing closest in meaning to
firms and mass-circulation magazines

22
(B) Improvements in the technology of (A) resulted from
magazine printing
(C) The development of mass-circulation (B) linked to
magazines in the United States
(D) The effects of advertising on publishing (C) consisted of
in the United States
(D) agreed with

3 3 3 3 3 3 3

12. It can be inferred from the first paragraph 17. Which of the following statements is
that magazines in the United States supported by the passage?

(A) often originated in Britain (A) The cost of advertising increases the
price of magazines.
(B) resembled books in appearance
(B) The book-publishing industry was
(C) often had articles about agriculture harmed by the expansion of the
magazine industry.
(D) had a relatively small circulation before
1880 (C) A magazine's editorial philosophy was
not considered important by advertisers.

(D) Mass-circulation magazines are more


13. The word “them" in line 12 refers to likely to exist in an industrial society
than in an agricultural society.
(A) editors and publishers

(B) advances
18. Which of the following is NOT
(C) illustrations mentioned as a factor in the growth of
the magazine industry in the second
(D) magazines paragraph?

(A) The partnership between advertising and


magazines
14. Advances in printing technology allowed
publishers to produce magazines that (B) The growing importance of brand-name
products
(A) had more pictures than text
(C) The ability to deliver magazines to

23
(B) weighed less and were easier to ship people's homes

(C) were attractive as well as affordable (D) The expansion of national Retailing

(D) were longer and more complete The


questions for this passage
19. The word “devise” in line 25 is closest in
meaning to

15. The word "ready” in line 16 is closest in (A) Convince


meaning to
(B) Create
(A) receptive
(C) Change
(B) organized
(D) Notice
(C) quick

(D) skilled
20. The word “segment” in line 28 is closest
in meaning to

16. According to the passage, the growth of (A) Portion


mass-circulation magazines in the early
1900s produced a market for authors of (B) Structure

(A) popular fiction (C) Company

(B) science fiction (D) Exchange

(C) plays

(D) poetry

3 3 3 3 3 3 3

Questions 21-31

Waste has been generated since the human race began. In early societies, waste
included food scraps, sewage, unused animal parts, and broken tools and pottery.

However, the amount of waste generated was usually very little because of the
Line scarcity of materials and tools.

24
As populations grew, waste management increasingly became a problem. Trash that
had been improperly disposed of attracted small animals and insects carrying bacteria
and viruses, resulting in diseases and creating a serious health threat. For example, in
North America, initial colonial settlements were located on lands adjacent to navigable
waterways for trade and protection; this encouraged the dumping of waste in the water
10 where currents transported it downstream. Although such dumping reduced the health
hazard for those doing the dumping, it had an impact on both the receiving river as well
as people living downstream. However, the health and environmental impact from
garbage was relatively limited, the most serious threat coming from human sewage.

As the ability to extract raw materials and produce goods increased, the sophistication
15 and complexity of products correspondingly increased. The volume of waste likewise
increased, and the waste was composed of a wider variety of materials. By the nineteenth
century, mining by-products, acids, and heavy metal waste, in addition to traditional
human waste, were being produced at an ever-increasing rate to fulfill increasing
demands for new products and materials. Although the Industrial Revolution of the late
20 1800s brought many advances in technology and unsurpassed wealth for some, it also
brought a new generation of waste, whose management received little attention.
Furthermore, the unprecedented explosion of synthetic (made by human beings) organic
chemicals during the twentieth century increased both the volume and toxicity of waste.
25
Although goods can be produced that were unimaginable a few decades ago, the
ability to minimize the amount of waste produced, from food packaging to highly
radioactive waste that remains hazardous for millions of years, is not as impressive.
Additionally, the ability and desire to manage these unwanted by-products has lagged far
behind technological achievements in other areas. Knowledge of the health and
environmental effects of the mismanagement of waste has also been deficient.

21. What does the passage mainly discuss? 24. The word "impact” in line 11 is closest in
meaning to
(A) The recycling of industrial waste
(A) effect
(B) The production and disposal of waste
(B) obstacle
(C) The technology used in waste
management (C) reduction

(D) The development of policies on (D) surface


environmental protection

3 3 3 3 3 3 3

25
22. It can be inferred in the first paragraph that 25. In the initial colonial settlements in
in early human societies the management North America, the greatest health
of waste risk associated with water came from

(A) was dependent on the use of (A) garbage


(B) Interfered with economic developed
(C) Rarely involved using waste materials (B) animal waste

to make other products (C) human sewage

(D) Was generally a minor problem (D) insects

23. It can be inferred that the waterways near 26. The word "correspondingly" in line
the initial colonial settlements in North 15 is closest in meaning to
America were affected by waste because
(A) to the same degree
(A) too many trading ships used the waterways
(B) of a similar type
(B) settlers were not allowed to leave their
waste on the land (C) at a faster rate

(C) it was convenient for settlers to put their (D) at a different time
waste in the waterways

(D) the currents were not strong enough to


transport the waste 27. Why had the rate of waste production
increased by the nineteenth
century?

28. The word "it" in line 21 refers to (A) Regulations controlling industry had
been relaxed.
(A) the Industrial Revolution
(B) Mining areas had expanded because
(B) technology few metals remained in the ground.

(C) wealth (C) Falling costs of raw materials had


led to less efficient manufacturing
(D) generation
(D) Consumer demand had led to a rise
in the manufacture of goods.

29. The author uses the word “explosion” in


Line 22 to indicate that

(A) manufacturing synthetic chemicals was


dangerous

(B) there was a rapid development of

26
synthetic chemicals

(C) strong pressure was put on the synthetic-


chemicals industry to reduce waste

(D) the cost of producing synthetic chemicals


had a dramatic effect on the economy

3 3 3 3 3 3 3

30. The author mentions food packaging and radioactive waste in the fourth paragraph as
examples of

(A) the most common types of waste materials

(B) the great variety of waste Materials

(C) waste that can be easily reduced in volume

(D) the kinds of waste that are easy to remove

31. The word "desire” in line 28 is closest in meaning to

(A) opportunity

(B) necessity

(C) investment

(D) willingness

27
3 3 3 3 3 3 3

Questions 32-41

Most sources of illumination generate light over an appreciable period, and


indeed if an object is lit for a very brief time (less than 1/25 second), the human
eye will not react in time to see the object. A photographic emulsion - that is, a
Line Line light - sensitive coating on photographic film, paper, or glass-will, however,
record much shorter bursts of light. A photographic flash can therefore be used to
5 capture high-speed movement on film as well as to correct deficiencies of the
normal surrounding lighting. Photoflash is now generated electronically, but the
earliest form, first used in 1864, was a paper bag containing magnesium wire and
some oxygen-rich substance, such as potassium chlorate. When the bag was
10
28
ignited, the metal burned with an intense flash. A contemporary observer reported
that “this quite unsafe deviceseems to have done nothing worse than engulf the
room in dense smoke and lead to pictures of dubious quality and odd poses."

The evolution of the photoflash was slow; flashbulbs, containing fine wire made
of a metal, such as magnesium or aluminum, capable of being ignited in an
15 atmosphere of pure oxygen at low pressure, were introduced only in the 1920s. In
the earliest type, the metal was separated from the oxygen by a thin glass bulb. The
flash was fired by piercing the bulb and allowing the oxygen to come into contact
with the metal, which ignited spontaneously. Later bulbs were fired by an electric
battery, which heated the wire by passing a small current through it. Other
20 combinations, such as the pairing of oxygen difluoride with zirconium, have also
been used. In each case enough energy is given out to heat the oxidizable metal
momentarily to a white-hot emission of visible light. The smoke particles are so
small that they cool rapidly; but since they are white, they contribute to the
brilliance by reflecting the light from their still-glowing neighbors. A slightly
bigger form of the metal will burn for a longer time.

32. What does the passage mainly discuss? 34. According to the passage, an advantage
of using a photoflash is that it
(A) The history of the photoflash
(A) can produce repeated bursts of Light
(B) Theories about how the eye reacts to
light (B) intensifies colors in photographs

(C) The technology of modern photography (C) is short enough not to bother human
eyes
(D) The dangers of using the early photoflash
(D) supplements existing lighting

33. Which of the following phrases is defined


in the first paragraph? 35. The word "ignited” in line 9 is closest
in meaning to
(A) “appreciable period” (line 1)
(A) set on fire
(B) “photographic emulsion” (line 3)
(B) cut into
(C) "high-speed movement” (line 6)
(C) opened
(D) "odd poses” (line 12)
(D) shaken

3 3 3 3 3 3 3

29
36. The word "engulf' in line 11 is 39. The word "it" in line 19 refers to
closest in meaning to
(A) oxygen
(A) fill
(B) battery
(B) brighten
(C) wire
(C) record
(D) current
(D) make dangerous

40. The word "momentarily" in line 21 is closest


37. The word "evolution” in line 13 is in meaning to
closest in meaning to
(A) effortlessly
(A) publicity
(B) briefly
(B) adoption
(C) electronically
(C) development
(D) gradually
(D) manufacture

41. According to the passage, the white color of


38. The function of the glass in the first the smoke particles generated by a
flashbulbs was to flashbulb contributes to

(A) produce the spark that initiated the (A) rapid cooling
flash
(B) bright illumination
(B) magnify the light produced by the
flash (C) electrical conductivity

(C) protect the photographer from the (D) intense heat


heat of the flash

(D) keep the metal and oxygen apart


before the flash

30
3 3 3 3 3 3 3

Questions 42-50

Two Chinese inventions, block printing and paper, are linked with the beginnings
of typographic printing in western Europe. Xylography, or block printing, originated in
China in the early eighth century. The printers drew in reverse on a block of wood the
Line Line text or the picture they wished to reproduce, carved the wood so that the graphic
pattern stood out in relief, inked the block, and transferred the design to a sheet of
5 paper. The process sounds simple, but it is not well adapted to the alphabetic writing of
Europe, which relies on different arrangements of the same letters. Its transmission to
Europe---probably during the century from A.D. 1250 to 1350.-had little direct
importance for the development of typographic printing. However, its indirect
10 importance was great. It probably suggested the next crucial step: cutting up an old
carved-text block into individual letters and then rearranging these letters to spell out a
new text. Xylography certainly spread the idea of printing and of the printed book,
while the lively commercial success starting in the late fourteenth century of printed
playing cards (another Chinese invention), religious prints, and crude block books
15 showed the size of the European market and the potential profit to be gained from book
printing.

Paper was indispensable, but for economic rather than technical reasons. Hand-
printed books were traditionally copied on parchment (made from split sheepskin) or on
vellum (calfskin), and these materials were also used by typographic printers when the
20 aim was magnificence rather than usefulness. But since a single large book like the
Bible required as many as 170 calfskins or 300 sheepskins, the cheap, rapid, and
mechanized production of books in large numbers would have been impossible without
paper. Paper manufacture was introduced in Spain during the twelfth century by the
Arabs, who had themselves received the technique from China. It spread slowly during
25 the next two centuries to much of Europe. In Europe the chiefraw material was old rags.
Paper makers shredded the rags in a stamping mill and then mixed them with water to
form a liquid pulp. The pulp was molded on large flat wire sieves and then squeezed in
a press and dried to form paper.

42. What is the first paragraph mainly about? 43. The word “It” in line 10 refers to the

31
(A) The differences between Chinese and
European printing
(A) process of xylography
(B) The development of alphabetic writing in
Europe (B) alphabetic writing of Europe

(C) The influence of Chinese block printing (C) century from A.D. 1250 to 1350
on European printing
(D) development of typographic printing
(D) The popularity of Chinese books in
Europe

3 3 3 3 3 3 3

44. The passage suggests which of the 48. According to the passage, what factor
following about typographic limited the number of books that were
printing?  printed on parchment or vellum?
(A) It is poorly suited to European
texts. (A) The preference of most readers for hand-
(B) It uses small carved blocks that can printed books
be rearranged.
(C) It is most often used to reproduce (B) The limited knowledge of typographic
pictures. printing techniques
(D) It is primarily effective for small
printing jobs.  (C) The large quantities of resources required to
produce a book
45. The author mentions "playing
cards” (line 14) in order to show  (D) The general lack of interest in books with
(A) the popularity of printed  materials religious themes
among European buyers
(B) the many drawbacks of typographic
printing
(C) the success of European printing 49. The passage suggests that which of the
before xylography following existed in Europe before the
(D) the limitations of the European twelfth century A.D.?
market 
(A) Typographic printing technology
46. The introduction of xylography
affected Europeans in all of the (B) Crude block-printed books
following ways EXCEPT:
(A) They gradually stopped using the (C) Paper manufactured from old rags
typographic method of printing
books.

32
(B) They became more aware of (D) Hand-printed parchment books
different kinds of printed
materials.
(C) They began to consider effective 50. The work “Shredded” in line 26 is closest In
ways of printing their own books. meaning to
(D) They realized the possible
financial gains of book printing (A) Stetctched out
(B) Folded
47. The word "magnificence” in line 20 (C) Tore Apart
is closest in meaning to (D) Flattened
(A) beauty

(B) permanence

(C) speed

(D) availability

ETS. TOEFL ITP


General Directions
General Directions
This is a test of your ability to understand and use the English language. The test is divided
into three sections, and each section or part of a section begins with a set of specific
directions. The directions include sample questions. Before you begin to work on a section or
part, be sure that you understand what you will need to do.
The supervisor will tell you when to start each section and when to stop and go on to the next
section. You should work quickly but carefully. Do not spend too much time on any one
question. If you finish a section early, you may review your answers on that section only.
You may not go on to a new section, and you may not return to a section that you have
already left.
ba
You will find that some of the questions are more difficult than others, but you should try to
answer every one. Your score will be based on the number of correct answers you give. If
you are not sure of the correct answer to a question, make the best guess you can. It is to your
advantage to answer every question, even if you have to guess the answer.
Do not mark your answers in the test book. You must mark all of your answers on the
separate answer sheet that the supervisor will give to you. When you mark your answer to a
question on your answer sheet, you must:

 Use a medium-soft (#2 or HB) black lead pencil. .


 Check the number of the question, and find that number on your answer sheet. Then,
after that number, find the circle with the letter of the answer you have chosen.

33
 Carefully make a dark mark that completely fills the circle so that you cannot see
the letter inside the circle.
 Mark only one answer to each question.
 Erase all extra marks completely. If you change your mind about an answer after
you have marked it on your answer sheet, erase your old answer completely, and mark
your new answer.
 After the supervisor tells you to stop your work, you will not be permitted to make
any additional corrections.

The examples below show you the correct way and wrong ways of marking an answer sheet.

34

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