F.S.

C Chemistry Solved Mcqs

for Exam
Q.1 Smallest particle of an element which
may or may not have independent existence
(a) a molecule  (b) an atom
(c) an ion (d) an electron
Q.2 Swedish chemist J. Berzelius determined
the
(a) atomic no. (b) atomic volume
(c) atomic mass (d) atomic density
Q.3 The number of atoms present in a
molecule determine its
(a) molecularity (b) basicity
(c) acidity (d) atomicity
Q.4 When an electron is added to a
unipositive ion we get
(a) anion (b) cation
(c) neutral atom (d) molecule
Q.5 CO+ is an example of:
(a) free radical (b) cationic molecular ion
(c) an ionic molecular ion
(d) stable molecule
Q.6 Relative atomic mass is the mass of an
atom of an element as compared to the mass
of
(a) oxygen (b) hydrogen
(c) nitrogen (d) carbon
Q.7 Isotopes are the sister atoms of the same
element with similar chemical properties and
different
(a) atomic number (b) atomic mass
(c) atomic volume (d) atomic structure
Q.8 The instrument which is used to measure
the exact masses of different isotopes of an
element called
(a) I.R. Spectrophotometer (b) U.V.
Spectrophotometer
(c) Mass Spectrometer (d) Calorimeter
Q.9 Mass spectrometer separates different
positive isotopic ions on the basis of their
(a) mass value (b) m/e value
(c) e/m value (d) change value

Q.10 Simplest formula that gives us

information about the simple ratio of atoms in
a compound is called
(a) structural formula (b) molecular formula
(c) empirical formula (d) molar ratio
Q.11 Percentage of oxygen in H2O is
(a) 80% (b) 88.8%
(c) 8.8% (d) 9.8%
Q.12 More abundant isotope of an element is
one with
(a) even atomic no. (b) odd atomic no.
(c) Even mass no. (d) odd mass no.
Q.13 Large no. of isotopes are known for the
elements whose masses are multiple of
(a) two (b) four
(c) six (d) eight
Q.14 When 0.01 kg of CaCO3 is decomposed
the CO2 produced occupies a volume at S.T.P.
(a) 2.2414 dm3 (b) 22.414 dm3
(c) 22414 dm3 (d) 224014 dm3
Q.15 The no. of covalent bond in 10gm of NH3
are
(a) 6.022 x 1023 (b) 1.062 x 1023
(c) 10.62 x 1024 (d) 1.062 x 1024
Q.16 No. of molecules present in 10gm of
water are
(a) 3.37 x 1023 (b) 33.7 x 1023
(c) 3.37 x 1024 (d) 3.037 x 1024
Q.17 The no. of covalent bonds present in
10gm of water are
(a) 6.074 x 1023 (b) 6.74 x 1023
(c) 6.074 x 1024 (d) 6.74 x 1024
Q.18 The least no. of molecules present in 30
gm of
(a) N2O (b) NO
(c) NO2 (d) N2O3
Q.19 Which of the following has highest
percentage of nitrogen
(a) (NH4)2SO4 (b) NH4H2PO4
(c) (NH4)2HPO4 (d) (NH4)3PO4
Q.20 0.1 mole of Na3PO4 completely
dissociates in water to produce Na+
(a) 6.02 x 1022 (b) 6.02 x 1023
(c) 1.806 x 1023 (d) 1.806 x 1022
Q.21 Efficiency of chemical reaction can be
checked by calculating
(a) amount of limiting reactant
(b) amount of the reactant in excess
(c) amount of the product formed
(d) amount of the reactant unused
Q.22 A limiting reactant is one
(a) which is present in least amount
(b) which produces minimum no. of moles of
product
(c) which produces maximum no. of moles of
product
(d) does not effect the amount of product
Q.23 Stoichiometry is the branch
of chemistry which deals with the study
of quantitative relationship among the various
(a) reactants (b) products
(c) Reactants and products (d) all of above
Q.24 500 cm3 of H2 gas at STP contradictions
of hydrogen
(a) 6.02 x 1023 (b) 3.01 x 1022
(c) 2.68 x 1022 (d) 1.34 x 1022
Q.25 Largest number of H+ ions are produced
by complete ionization of
(a) 0.01 mole of HCl (b) 0.0050 mole of
H2SO4
(c) 0.000334 moles of H3PO4
(d) all above
Q.26 The Avogadro’s number is
(a) 6.02 x 1024 (b) 6.02 x 10–24
(c) 6.02 x 10–23 (d) 6.02 x 1023
Q.27 The largest number of H+ are produced
by complete ionization of
(a) 0.100 2 moles of HCl (b) 0.051 moles of
H2SO4
(c) 0.0334 moles of H3PO4 (d) All of the above
Q.28 A sample of pure matter is
(a) element (b) compound
(c) substance (d) mixture
Q.29 nm stands for
(a) Newton meter (b) Nanometer
(c) Newton square meter (d) none of the
above
Q.30 One calorie is equal to
(a) 4.184 J (b) 41.84 J
(c) 0.4184 J (d) 0.04184 J
Q.31 The number of moles of CO2 which
contains 8.0 gm of oxygen
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.50
(c) 1.0 (d) 1.50
Q.32 27 grams of Al will react completely with
how much mass of O2 to produce Al2O3
(a) 8 gm of oxygen (b) 16 gm of oxygen
(c) 32 gm of oxygen (d) 24 gm of oxygen
Q.33 Mole of SO2 contains
(a) 6.02 x 1023 atoms of oxygen
(b) 18.1 x 1023 molecules of SO2
(c) 6.023 x 1023 atom of sulphur
(d) 4 gram of SO2
Q.34 The largest number of molecules are
presenting
(a) 3.6 gram of H2O (b) 4.8 gram of C2H5OH
(c) 2.8 gm of CO (d) 5.4 gms of N2O5
Q.35 The mass of one mole of electron is
(a) 1.008 mg (b) 0.184 mg
(c) 1.673 mg (d) 0.55 mg
Q.36 Isotopes differ in
(a) properties which depend on mass
(b) arrangements of electrons in orbital
(c) chemical properties
(d) the extent to which they may be affected
in electromagnetic field
Q.37 The volume occupied by 1.4 gm of N2 at
STP is
(a) 224 dm3 (b) 22.4 dm3
(c) 1.12 dm3 (d) 112 cm3
Q.38 Many elements have fractional atomic
mass. This is because
(a) the mass atom is itself fractional
(b) atomic masses are average masses of
isobars
(c) atomic masses are averages masses of
isotopes
(d) atomic masses are average masses of
isotopes proportional to relative abundance
Q.39 A limiting reactant is one which
(a) is taken in lesser quantity in grams as
compared to other reactants
(b) is taken in lesser quantity in volume as
compared to the other
(c) gives the maximum amount of the product
which is required
(d) gives the minimum amount of the product
under consideration
Q.40 Isotopes when even atomic masses are a
comparatively abundant
(a) demper’s spectrograph is superior to that
of Aston’s
(b) 0.1 mg of H2O has greater number of
molecules then 0.1 mg of CH4
(c) the number of H+ and PO–3 ions are not
equal but the number of positive and negative
charges
(d) are equal when 100 molecules of H3PO4
are thrown in excess of water
Q.41 A molecule having two atoms is called
(a) monoatomic molecules (b) diatomic
molecules
(c) Polyatomic molecules (d) homoatomic
molecule
Q.42 An ordinary misoscope is used to
measure the object of size
(a) upto 500 nm (b) upto 850 nm
(c) upto 1000 nm (d) upto 1200 nm
Q.43 1 atomic masses unit (amu) is equation
(a) 1.66 x 10–27 kg (b) 1.56 x 10–27 kg
(c) 1.76 x 10–21 kg (d) 1.8 x 10–27 kg
Q.44 Nickel has isotopes
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 7
Q.45 Cadmium has isotopes
(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 7 (d) 9
Q.46 The pressure of vapours in the
separating isotopes by mass spectrometry is
kept at
(a) 10–6 torr (b) 10–4 torr
(c) 10–3 torr (d) 10–5 torr
Q.47 Number of gram atoms in 0.1 gm of Na
is
(a) 0.0043 (b) 0.0403
(c) 0.403 (d) None of these
Q.48 Molecule of haemoglobin contains atoms
(a) 15,000 (b) 12,000
(c) 10,000 (d) 8,000
Q.49 Haemoglobin is heavier than a hydrogen
atom
(a) 65,000 (b) 68,000
(c) 62,000 (d) 60,000
AnswersQuestions
Questions 1 2 3 4 5
Answers b C d c b
Questions 6 7 8 9 10
Answers d b c b c
Questions 11 12 13 14 15
Answers b c b a d
Questions 16 17 18 19 20
Answers a b d d c
Questions 21 22 23 24 25
Answers c b d c d
Questions 26 27 28 29 30
Answers d d a b a
Questions 31 32 33 34 35
Answers a d c a d
Questions 36 37 38 39 40
Answers a c d d c
Questions 41 42 43 44
Answers c a a c
Questions 45 46 47 48 49
Answers d a a c b
Q.1 Science of the chemical characterization
is stand under the heading of
(a) industrial chemistry (b)
experimental chemistry
(c) analytical chemistry (d) physical chemistry
Q.2 Several types of filter media are used for
filtration depending on
(a) nature of reaction (b) nature of reactants
(c) nature of precipitate (d) nature of
filter paper
Q.3 Filtration by a glass funnel and filter
paper is very
(a) time consuming (b) difficult
(c) fast (d) accurate
Q.4 Date of filtration through conical funnel
can be considerably increased by using
(a) fine filter paper (b) ordinary filter paper
(c) fluted filter (d) under suction crucible
Q.5 Gooch crucible is used to filter the
solution of
(a) K2Cr2O7 (b) KMnO4
(c) KOH (d) under suction crucible
Q.6 Basic principles of crystallization is that
solute should be soluble in a suitable solution
at
(a) freezing temperature (b) room
temperature
(c) high temperature (d) low temperature
Q.7 Premature crystallization of solution of
filter paper or in funnel can be avoided
(a) filtering hot saturated solution using hot
funnel
(b) filling warm solution
(c) quick filtration
(d) filtering cold solution
Q.8 Safe and reliable method of drying crystal
in through
(a) pressing it between folds of filter paper
(b) drying it in oven
(c) evaporation of solution
(d) vacuum desiccator
Q.9 In solvent extraction solute can be
separated from solution by shaking the
solution with solvent which the solute is
(a) more soluble (b) partially soluble
(c) insoluble (d) soluble at high temperature
Q.10 Repeated extraction using small portions
of solvent are more
(a) accurate (b) efficient
(c) slow (d) rapid
Q.11 To achieve a good separation the two
liquids are gently shaken to increase their
area of
(a) miscibility (b) separation
(c) contact (d) solubility
Q.12 Chromatography in which stationary
phase is solid is called
(a) partition chromatography
(b) paper chromatography
(c) high pressure
(d) adsorption chromatography
Q.13 Chromatography involves these
distribution of a solution between
(a) two stationary phase
(b) two mobile phase
(c) a stationary phase and a mobile phase
(d) two stationary and two mobile phase
Q.14 Chromatography in which the stationary
phase is liquid is called
(a) partition chromatography
(b) descending chromatography
(c) column chromatography
(d) Adsorption chromatography
Q.15 In paper chromatography the rate at
which solutes move depends on
(a) distribution law (b) distribution coefficients
(c) law of partial pressure (d) law of specific
proportion
Q.16 Solvent extraction is an equilibrium
process and it is controlled by
(a) law of mass action (b) the amount of
solvent used
(c) distribution law (d) the amount of solute
Q.17 The comparative rates at which the
solutes move in paper chromatography
depend on
(a) the size of paper used
(b) Rf values of solutes
(c) temperature of the experiment
(d) size of the chromatographic tank used
Q.18 A filtration process could be very time
consuming if it were not aided by the gentle
suction, which is developed
(a) if the paper covers the funnel up to its
circumference
(b) if the paper has got small sized pores in it
(c) if the stem of the funnel is large so that it
dips into the filtrate
(d) if the paper fits tightly
Q.19 Solvent extraction method is particularly
useful technique for separation, when product
to be separated is
(a) non–volatile or thermally unstable
(b) volatile or thermally stable
(c) non volatile or thermally stable
(d) non–volatile or thermally unstable
Q.20 During the process of crystallization, the
hot saturated solution
(a) is cooled very slowly to get large sized
crystals
(b) is cooled at a moderate rate to get
medium sized crystals
(c) is evaporated to get the pure crystals of
the product
(d) is mixed with an immiscible liquid, to get
the pure crystals of the product
Q.21 Aqueous solution of iodine is prepared
first by dissolving which compound in water
(a) KBr (b) KI
(c) KCl (d) NaCl
Q.22 The meaning of chromatos
(a) colour writing (b) colour writing
(c) colour forming (d) colour spreading
Q.23 Which is not common way of carrying
chromatography
(a) ascending (b) descending
(c) radial/circular (d) spreading irregularly
Q.24 In paper chromatography the stationary
phase is
(a) water (b) organic liquid
(c) inorganic liquid (d) none of the above
Q.25 In paper chromatography the mobile
phase is
(a) organic liquid (b) water
(c) inorganic liquid (d) none of the above
ANSWERS
Questions 1 2 3 4 5
Answers c c a c b
Questions 6 7 8 9 10
Answers c a d a b
Questions 11 12 13 14 15
Answers c d c a b
Questions 16 17 18 19 20
Answers c b d d b
Questions 21 22 23 24 25
Answers b a d a a
Q.1 The order of the rate of diffusion of gases
NH3, SO2, Cl2 and CO2 is:
(a) NH3 > SO2 > Cl2 > CO2
(b) NH3 > CO2 > SO2 > Cl2
(c) Cl2> SO2 > CO2 > NH3
(d) None of these
Q.2 Pressure remaining constant at which
temperature the volume of gas will become
twice of what it is at 0C.
(a) 546 oC (b) 200 oC
(c) 546 K (d) 273 K
Q.3 Equal masses of methane and oxygen are
mixed in an empty container at 25oC. The
fraction of the total pressure exerted by the
oxygen is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q.4 Which of the following of will have the
same number of molecules at STP?
(a) 280 cm3 of CO2 and 280 cm3 of N2O
(b) 11.2 dm3 of O2 and 32 g of O2
(c) 44g of CO2 and 11.2 dm3 of CO
(d) 28g of N2 and 5.6 dm3 of oxygen
Q.5 Number of molecules in one dm3 of water
is close to:
(a) x 1023 (b) x 1023
(c) x 1023 (d) 55.6 x 6.02 x 1023
Q.6 If absolute temperature of a gas is
doubled and the pressure is reduced to one
half the volume of gas
will.
(a) remain unchanged (b) increases four times
(c) reduce to (d) be double
Q.7 How should the conditions be changed to
prevent the volume of a given mass of gas
from expanding when its mass is increased
(a) temperature is lowered and pressure is
increased
(b) temperature is increased and the pressure
is lowered
(c) temperature and pressure both are
lowered
(d) temperature and pressure both are
increased
Q.8 The molar volume of CO2 is maximum at
(a) STP
(b) 127 oC and 1 atm
(c) 0 oC and 2 atm
(d) 273 oC and 2 atm
Q.9 Gases deviate from ideal behaviour at
high pressure. Which of the following is
correct for non–ideality?
(a) At high pressure, the gas molecules move
in one direction only
(b) At high pressure, the collisions between,
the gas molecules are increased manifold
(c) At high pressure, the volume of gas
becomes insignificant
(d) AT high pressure, the intermolecular
attractions, become significant
Q.10 The deviation of a gas from ideal
behaviour is maximum at,
(a) – 10 oC and 5.0 atm (b) – 10 oC and 2.0
atm
(c) 100 oC and 2.0 atm (d) 0 oC and 2.0 atm
Q.11 At high temperature isotherm moves
away from both the axis because of increase
in,
(a) pressure (b) volume
(c) no. of moles (d) all above
Q.12 Values of Charle’s law constant K
depends upon.
(a) mass of gas (b) pressure gas
(c) no. of moles of gas (d) all above
Q.13 Equal volumes of H2 and He are inserted
in the same vessel. The pressure exerted by
H2 and He are in the ratio:
(a) 1:1 (b) 2:1
(c) 1:2 (d) all above
Q.14 Which of the following have same no. of
molecules at STP
(a) 1000 cm3 of N2H4 and O2
(b) 200 cm3 of CO2 and N2O
(c) 50 cm3 each of CO and N2
(d) all above
Q.15 If absolute temperature is doubled and
the pressure is increased 4 times. The volume
is
(a) half (b) double
(c) four times (d) remains the changed
Q.16 Density of a gas is usually expressed in
(a) kg m3 (b) kg dm3
(c) g dm–3 (d) g cm–3
Q.17 Units of gas constant R in SI system is:
(a) 0.0821 dm3 atm k–1 mol–1
(b) 82.1 cm3 atm k–1
(c) 8.31 Nm k–1 mol–1
(d) 1.987 cal k–1 mol–1
Q.18 Concept of distribution of velocities
among the gas molecules was developed by
(a) Claudius (b) Maxwell
(c) Boltzman (d) Vanderwaal
Q.19 Absolute temperature of gas is
proportional to
(a) translational kinetic energy
(b) rotational kinetic energy
(c) vibrational kinetic energy
(d) potential energy
Q.20 Deviation a gas from ideal behaviour is
maximum at
(a) low temperature, low pressure
(b) low temperature, high pressure
(c) high temperature, low pressure
(d) high temperature high pressure
Q.21 Most ideal gas at room temperature is:
(a) CO2 (b) NH3
(c) SO2 (d) N2
Q.22 22.414 dm3 of various ideal gases at
STP will have Avogadro’s number of
molecules
(a) 6.02 x 1023 (b) 6.02 x 1024
(c) 0.602 x 1023 (d) 6.02 x 1022
Q.23 Gases are ideal at
(a) low pressure and high temperature
(b) low temperature and high pressure
(c) high pressure and high temperature
(d) low pressure and low temperature
Q.24 The value of compressibility factor for an
ideal gas is equal to:
(a) 1 (b) 1.5
(c) 2 (d) 2.5
Q.25 An ideal gas obeys
(a) Boyle’s law (b) Charle’s law
(c) Avogadro’s law (d) all above
Q.26 A real gas obeying Vander Waal’s
equation will resemble ideal gas if:
(a) both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are large
(b) both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are small
(c) ‘a’ is small and ‘b’ is large
(d) ‘a’ is large and ‘b’ is small
Q.27 Deep sea divers breath mixture of
nitrogen and oxygen in a ratio of:
(a) 96% N2 and 4% O2 (b) 4% and N2 and
96% O2
(c) 80% N2 and 20% O2 (d) 20% N2 and 80%
O2
Q.28 One mole of any gas at STP occupies
volume
(a) 2.24 dm3 (b) 22.4 dm3
(c) 44.4 dm3 (d) 48.4 dm3
Q.29 K.E. of gas molecules is equal to:
(a) (b) m v2
(c) (d)
Q.30 All gases solidify before reaching at
(a) 373 oK (b) 273 oC
(c) – 473 oC (d) 0 oK
Q.31 Kinetic equation is equal to
(a) P V = n R T (b) P V = R T
(c) PV = m n c2 (d) PV = m n c2
Q.32 Root mean square velocity is equal to
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q.33 Kinetic energy associated with one
molecule of a gas due to translational motion
is given by
(a) EK = (b) Ek = m v2
(c) Ek = m n c2 (d) Ek =
Q.34 Density of gas is usually expressed as
(a) kg m–3 (b) kg dm–3
(c) g dm–3 (d) g cm–3
Q.35 Weight of one dm3 of O2 at STP is
(a) 1.4384 gm (b) 1.4394 gm
(c) 1.6384 gm (d) 1.3384 gm
ANSWERS
Questions 1 2 3 4 5
Answers b c a a a
Questions 6 7 8 9 10
Answers b a b d a
Questions 11 12 13 14 15
Answers b d a d a
Questions 16 17 18 19 20
Answers c c b a b
Questions 21 22 23 24 25
Answers d a a a d
Questions 26 27 28 29 30
Answers b a b d d
Questions 31 32 33 34 35
Answers c a a c a
Q.1 Ionic solids are characterized by
(a) low melting points
(b) good conductivity in solid state
(c) high vapour pressure
(d) solubility in polar solvents
Q.2 Amorphous solids.
(a) have sharp melting points
(b) undergo clean cleavage when cut with
knife
(c) have perfect arrangements of atoms
(d) can presses small regions of orderly
arrangements of atoms
Q.3 The force of attraction between the atoms
of helium is
(a) hydrogen bonding
(b) coordinate covalent bond
(c) covalent bond
(d) london dispersion force
Q.4 Which of the following is a pseudo-solid
(a) CaF2 (b) Glass
(c) NaCl (d) All
Q.5 Diamond is a bad conductor because
(a) It has a tight structure (b) It has a high
density
(c) There is no free electron present in the
crystal of diamond to conduct electricity
(d) None of the above
Q.6 The weakest intermolecular for a
(a) dipole–dipole force
(b) electrostatic force between ions
(c) ion–dipole force
(d) dipole–induced dipole force
Q.7 In liquids intermolecular forces are
(a) very weak (b) very strong
(c) reasonably strong (d) ion–dipole force
Q.8 Values of heat of vaporization for liquids,
with strong dipole–dipole forces will be
(a) very high (b) very low
(c) reasonably high (d) negligible
Q.9 Instantaneous dipole–induced dipole force
is also called
(a) dipole force (b) london dispersion
(c) hydrogen bonding (d) none of the above
Q.10 Down the group polarizability generally
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains constant (d) do not follow a
regular trend
Q.11 Trend of boiling points of halogens from
fluorine to iodine is that it.
(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) remains constant (d) negligible
Q.12 Molecules of hydro carbons with large
chain lengths experience
(a) repulsive forces (b) strong attractive force
(c) weaker attractive forces
(d) no attractive force
Q.13 Hydrocarbons which generally have high
molecular masses exist is.
(a) solid form (b) liquid form
(c) vapour form (d) gaseous form
Q.14 Exceptionally low acidic strength of HF is
due to
(a) strong polar bond (b) small size of fluorine
(c) strong hydrogen bonding (d) Vander
Waal’s forces
Q.15 Long chain of amino acids are coiled
about one another into spiral by.
(a) covalent bond (b) ionic bond
(c) hydrogen bond (d) Vander Waal’s forces
Q.16 Evaporation of water is possible at
(a) 100oC (b) 0oC
(c) at all temperatures (d) above 100oC
Q.17 Boiling point is low for liquid with
(a) high vapour pressure at given
temperature
(b) low vapour pressure at a given
temperature
(c) very high vapour pressure
(d) very low vapour pressure
Q.18 At equilibrium rate of evaporation and
rate of condensation
(a) become very high (b) become very low
(c) can never be equal (d) become equal
Q.19 In an open system vapour pressure of
water at 100oC at sea level is
(a) 700 mm of Hg (b) 760 mm of Hg
(c) 670 mm of Hg (d) 1000 mm of Hg
Q.20 Molar heat of vaporization of water is
(a) 140.6 kJ/mol (b) 14.06 kJ/mol
(c) 18 kJ/mol (d) 40.6 kJ/mol
Q.21 When external pressure is 23.7 torr
boiling point of water is
(a) 100oC (b) 200oC
(c) 98oC (d) 25oC
Q.22 Distillation under very reduced pressure
is called
(a) fractional distillation (b) distillation
(c) vacuum destructive distillation
(d) destructive distillation
Q.23 Water may boil at 120oC when external
pressure is
(a) 760 torr (b) 100 torr
(c) 1489 torr (d) 700 torr
Q.24 Amount of heat absorbed when one
mole of solid melts into liquid form at its
melting point is called
(a) molar heat of sublimation
(b) heat of vaporization
(c) latent heat of fusion
(d) molar heat of fusion
Q.25 Ethanol is much more soluble in water
than ethyl ethanuate which one of the
following statement correctly account for this
(a) ethanol is polar molecule but ethyl
ethanoate is non–polar
(b) ethanol is non polar molecule but ethyl
ethanoate is polar
(c) a hydrogen bond is formed between H–
atom of the OH group in ethanol and O–atom
of water molecule
(d) a hydrogen bond is formed between the
H–atom of the OH group in ethanol and
hydrogen of the water molecule
Q.26 The boiling point of a liquid will be
(a) lower at high altitude
(b) higher at high altitude
(c) same at sea level and high altitudes
(d) equal to atmospheric pressure
Q.27 The process in which liquids can be
made to boil at low temperature is called
(a) vacuum distillation
(b) destructive distillation
(c) distillation
(d) vacuum destructive distillation
Q.28 Why is the boiling point of methane
greater than that of neon
(a) a molecule of methane has a greater mass
(b) a molecule of methane has more electrons
than a molecule of neon
(c) the molecules of methane have stronger
intermolecular forces than those of neon
(d) the molecule of methane is polar but that
of neon is not
Q.29 The amount of heat required to vaporize
one mole of a liquid at its boiling point is
called
(a) molar heat of vaporization
(b) molar heat of fusion
(c) latent heat of fusion
(d) molar heat of sublimation
Q.30 Which of the elements in its crystalline
form will have the lowest enthalpy change of
vaporizations
(a) chlorine (b) argon
(c) phosphorous (d) silicon
Q.31 Crystals show variation in physical
properties depending upon the direction. The
property is called
(a) isomorphism (b) polymorphism
(c) anisotropy (d) isotropy
Q.32 Certain melt to a turbid liquid phase with
properties of liquids as well as some degree of
order like solid. Such turbid liquids are called
(a) anorphous solid (b) vitreous solid
(c) crystalline solid (d) liquid crystal
Q.33 Isomorphous crystals show
(a) same chemical properties
(b) same physical properties
(c) same crystalline form
(d) same melting point
Q.34 Existence of an element in more than
form is known as
(a) allotropy (b) isomorphism
(c) isotropy (d) none of these
Q.35 Crystalline forms of the same, substance
can coexist in equilibrium with each other at
its
(a) melting point (b) transition temperature
(c) boiling point (d) none of these
Q.36 Crystal lattice of substance can be
catagorised into
(a) five types (b) seven types
(c) six types (d) none of these
Q.37 Covalent solids are composed of
(a) ions (b) different molecules
(c) neutral atoms (d) any of the above
Q.38 Carbon atoms of diamond are
(a) sp hybridized (b) sp2 hybridized
(c) sp3 hybridized (d) unhybridized
Q.39 Molecular crystals are generally
(a) hard (b) soft
(c) unstable (d) stable
Q.40 Ionic crystals are
(a) hard (b) soft
(c) brittle (d) amorphous
ANSWERQuestions 1 2 3 4 5
Answers d d d b c
Questions 6 7 8 9 10
Answers d c c b a
Questions 11 12 13 14 15
Answers b b a c c
Questions 16 17 18 19 20
Answers a c d b d
Questions 21 22 23 24 25
Answers d c c d c
Questions 26 27 28 29 30
Answers a a c a b
Questions 31 32 33 34 35
Answers c d c a b
Questions 36 37 38 39 40
Answers b c c b a
Q.1 Splitting of spectral lines when atoms are
subjected to strong electric field is called
(a) Zeeman effect (b) Stark effect
(c) Photoelectric effect (d) Compton effect
Q.2 The velocity of photon is
(a) independent of its wavelength
(b) depends on its wavelength
(c) equal to square of its amplitude
(d) depends on its source
Q.3 The nature of positive rays depend on
(a) the nature of electrode
(b) the nature of discharge tube
(c) the nature of residual gas
(d) all of the above
Q.4 The wave number of the light emitted by
a certain source is 2 x 106 m. The wavelength
of this light is
(a) 500 nm (b) 500 m
(c) 200 nm (d) 5 x 10–1 m
Q.5 Rutherford’s model of atom failed
because
(a) the atom did not have a nucleus and
electrons
(b) it did not account for the attraction
between protons and neutrons
(c) it did account for the stability of the atom
(d) there is actually no space between the
nucleus and the electrons
Q.6 Bohr’s model of atom is contradicted by
(a) Planck’s quantum theory
(b) Pauli exclusion principle
(c) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
(d) All of the above
Q.7 Quantum number value for 2p orbitals are
(a) n = 2, l = 1 (b) n = 1, l = 2
(c) n = 1, l = 0 (d) n = 2, l = 0
Q.8 In the ground state of an atom, the
electron is present
(a) in the nucleus (b) in the second shell
(c) nearest to the nucleus (d) farthest from
the nucleus
Q.9 When the 6d orbital is complete the
entering electron goes into
(a) 7f (b) 7s
(c) 7p (d) 7d
Q.10 Orbitals having same energy are called
(a) hybrid orbitals (b) valence orbitals
(c) degenerate orbitals (d) d–orbitals
Q.11 The e/m value for the positive rays is
maximum for
(a) hydrogen (b) helium
(c) nitrogen (d) oxygen
Q.12 Neutron was discovered by Chadwick in
(a) 1935 (b) 1930
(c) 1932 (d) 1934
Q.13 The velocity of photon is
(a) equal to square of its amplitude
(b) independent of its wavelength
(c) Equal to its wave number
(d) equal to the velocity of light
Q.14 Quantum number values for 3p orbitals
are
(a) n = 0, l = 3 (b) n = 3, l = 1
(c) n = 2, l = 1 (d) n = 1, l = 3
Q.15 The radius of first orbit of hydrogen
atom
(a) 0.329 Ao (b) 0.429 Ao
(c) 0.529 Ao (d) 0.229 Ao
Q.16 All atoms are principally composed of
few fundamental particles which are in
number
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
Q.17 Which scientist gave the name of
electron to the cathode rays
(a) Planck (b) Einstein
(c) Stoney (d) Bohr
Q.18 The divisibility of atom was showed by
(a) Stoney (b) J.J. Thomson
(c) Millikan (d) Rutherford
Q.19 The nature of cathode rays remains the
same irrespective of the material used for
(a) gas (b) cathode
(c) glass (d) electrode
Q.20 Mass of electron is
(a) 9.1 x 10–31 kg (b) 9.109 x 10–32 gm
(c) 8.1 x 10–31 g (d) 9.1 x 10–31 mg
Q.21 The charge on an electron is
(a) 1.602 x 10–19 c (b) 1.602 x 10–18 c
(c) 1.602 x 10–19 c (d) 1.602 x 10–21 c
Q.22 The charge on the proton is
(a) + 1.602 x 10–19 c (b) zero
(c) – 1.602 x 1019 c (d) 1.602 x 10–19 c
Q.23 The charge on the neutron is
(a) 1.602 x 10–19 c (b) zero
(c) – 1.602 x 10–19 c (d) + 1.602 x 10–19 c
Q.24 The calculated e/m value of electron is
(a) 1.602 x 1019 c kg–1 (b) 1.7588 x 10–11 c
kg–1
(c) 1.7588 x 10–13 c kg–1 (d) 1.759 x 109 c
kg
Q.25 The mass of proton is
(a) 9.11 x 10–31 kg (b) 1.676 x 10–27 kg
(c) 1.60 x 10–19 kg (d) 1.675 x 10–27 kg
Q.26 The mass of neutron is
(a) 1.675 x 10–27 kg (b) 1.675 x 10–25 kg
(c) 9.11 x 10–31 kg (d) 1.60 x 10–19 kg
Q.27 The charge on electron was determined
by
(a) J.J. Thomson (b) Millikan
(c) Rutherford (d) Bohr
Q.28 Alpha particles are identical to
(a) hydrogen atoms (b) helium atoms
(c) helium nuclei (d) fast moving electrons
Q.29 Bombardment of Beryllium with alpha
particles generates
(a) proton (b) neutron
(c) electron (d) positron
Q.30 The colour of the glow produced in the
discharge tube depends upon
(a) gas (b) electrodes
(c) composition of gas (d) pressure
Q.31 When the pressure of the gas in
discharge tube is reduced, which of the
following becomes more prominent
(a) gas glows (b) gas ionizes
(c) a discharge takes place (d) gas conducts
electricity
Q.32 Goldstein discovered that besides the
cathode rays, another type of rays are
produced in the discharge tube which are
called
(a) alpha rays (b) beta rays
(c) positive rays (d) gamma rays
Q.33 The e/m value for the positive rays in the
discharge tube depends upon
(a) nature of electrode use
(b) nature of gas used
(c) composition of the gas
(d) pressure
Q.34 The distance between the two adjacent
crests or troughs is called
(a) wave number (b) frequency
(c) wavelength (d) amplitude
Q.35 The value of Planck’s constant “h” is
(a) 6.625 x 10–34 cal (b) 6.625 x 10–34 J sec
(c) 6.625 x 10–34 kJ (d) 6.625 x 10–34 k cal
Q.36 In the Bohr’s model of atom the electron
in an energy level emits or absorbs energy
only when it
(a) remains in the same energy level
(b) dies out
(c) changes its energy level
(d) jumps away
Q.37 The energy associated with an electron
resolving in first orbit is
(a) – 2.178 x 10–18 k J/mol
(b) – 1313.31 k J/mol
(c) – 328.32 k J/mol
(d) – 82.08 k J/mol
Q.38 The regions of spectrum are
(a) three (b) seven
(c) eight (d) five
Q.39 The dispersion of the components of
white light when it is passed through prism is
called
(a) rainbow (b) light pattern
(c) refraction (d) spectrum
Q.40 Which of the following colours has the
shortest wavelength in the visible spectrum of
light
(a) red (b) blue
(c) violet (d) green
Q.41 Which of the following colours has the
longest wavelength in the visible spectrum of
light
(a) red (b) blue
(c) violet (d) green
Q.42 A spectrum containing wavelength of all
wavelengths is called
(a) continuous (b) discontinuous
(c) line (d) atomic
Q.43 A spectrum showing only certain colours
of light is called
(a) continuous (b) line
(c) discontinuous (d) band
Q.44 The wavelength range of visible
spectrum is
(a) 400–750 nm (b) 300–400 nm
(c) 350–600 nm (d) 200–400 nm
Q.45 The spectral lines of Lyman series (uv
region) are produced when electron jumps
from higher orbit to
(a) 1st orbit (b) 2nd orbit
(c) 3rd orbit (d) 4th orbit
Q.46 The spectral lines of Balmer series
(visible region) are produced when electron
jumps from higher orbit to
(a) 1st orbit (b) 2nd orbit
(c) 3rd orbit (d) 4th orbit
Q.47 The spectral lines of Paschen series
(visible region) are produced when electron
jumps from higher orbit to
(a) 1st orbit (b) 2nd orbit
(c) 3rd orbit (d) 4th orbit
Q.48 The spectral lines of Bracket series
(visible region) are produced when electron
jumps from higher orbit to
(a) 1st orbit (b) 2nd orbit
(c) 3rd orbit (d) 4th orbit
Q.49 A dual character of matter particles in
motion was postulated by
(a) De–Broglie (b) Planck
(c) Einstein (d) Schrodinger
Q.50 If an electron is moving with a velocity of
2.188 x 106 m/s then its wavelength will be
(a) 0.33 x 106 nm (b) 0.33 x 10–2 nm
(c) 0.33 nm (d) 0.22 nm
Q.51 If a stone of 1gm is many with a velocity
of 10m/s then its wavelength will be
(a) 6.65 x 10–30 m (b) 6.65 x 10–25 m
(c) 6.65 x 10–28 m (d) 6.65 x 10–12 m
Q.52 The space around the nucleus where the
probability of finding the electron is maximum
is called
(a) an orbital (b) an orbit
(c) energy level (d) a shell
Q.53 Which orbital has dumb–bell shape
(a) s–orbital (b) p–orbital
(c) d–orbital (d) f–orbital
Q.54 Which of the following quantum
numbers describes energy of an electron in
an atom
(a) principal quantum (b) azimuthal quantum
(c) magnetic quantum (d) spin quantum
Q.55 Which of the following quantum
numbers describes shape of an electron in an
atom
(a) principal quantum (b) azimuthal quantum
(c) magnetic quantum (d) spin quantum
Q.56 The degenerate orbital in p–subshell is
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 7
Q.57 When 4p orbital is complete the entering
electron goes into
(a) 4d (b) 4f
(c) 5s (d) 5p
Q.58 x + l value for 3d will be
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6
Q.59 Maximum number of electrons in 3f
orbitals is
(a) 2 (b) zero
(c) 6 (d) 14
Q.60 Maximum number of electrons in M–shell
is
(a) 2 (b) 8
(c) 18 (d) 32
Q.61 An orbital can have maximum electrons
(a) 2 (b) 8
(c) 18 (d) 6
Q.62 n + l value for 4f will
(a) 2 (b) 5
(c) 7 (d) 9
Q.63 When a spectrum of light is formed by
the radiation given off by a substance it is
called
(a) line spectrum (b) continuous spectrum
(c) emission spectrum (d) absorption
spectrum
Q.64 Neutron was discovered by
(a) Chadwick (b) Bohr
(c) J.J. Thomson (d) Einstein
Q.65 Cathode rays can drive a small paddle
wheel which shows that they
(a) are positively charged
(b) possess momentum
(c) do not possess momentum
(d) none of these
Q.66 Slow neutrons are generally more
effective than fastness for the purpose of
(a) effusion (b) fission
(c) penetration (d) absorption
Q.67 The wavelength associated with the
moving stone
(a) can be measured by many methods
(b) cannot be measured by any method
(c) can be measure by some method
(d) none of these
Q.68 Radius of orbit of an electron and
velocity of electron are
(a) directly proportional to each other
(b) inversely proportional to each other
(c) independent to each other
(d) none of these
Q.69 The values of magnetic quantum
number give us information about the number
of orbitals in a
(a) small shell (b) orbit
(c) subshell (d) none of these
Q.70 Which of the following terms are used
for the number of positive charges on the
nucleus of an atom
(a) atomic number (b) atomic mass
(c) nuclear charge (d) atomic charge
Q.71 The uncertainty principle was stated by
(a) de Broglie (b) Heinsenberg
(c) Einstein (d) Schrodinger
Q.72 When a pressure in a discharge tube is
reduced, which of the following phenomenon
becomes very prominent
(a) gas conducts electricity
(b) a discharge takes place
(c) gas ionizes
(d) gas glows
Q.73 Atom bomb is based on the principle of
(a) nuclear fusion
(b) nuclear fission
(c) fusion and fission both
(d) radioactivity
Q.74 A spinning electron creates
(a) magnetic field (b) electric field
(c) quantum field (d) none of these
Q.75 The volume of space in which there is
95% chance of finding an electron is
(a) orbit (b) atomic orbital
(c) degenerate orbital (d) quantized orbital
Q.76 Planck’s equation is
(a) E = mc2 (b) E = hv
(c) E = hv2 (d) E = mc
Q.77 In an atom, the electrons
(a) are stationary in various energy levels
(b) are distributed in three dimensional
charge cloud around the nucleus
(c) embedded in space around the nucleus
(d) revolve around the nucleus at random
Q.78 The mass number of an element is equal
to
(a) number of electrons in an atom
(b) number of protons and neutrons in the
nucleus
(c) number of protons in the nucleus
(d) number of neutrons in the nucleus
Q.79 The energy of bounded electron in H
atom is
(a) positive (b) negative
(c) zero (d) none of these
Q.80 Quantum number which has symbol “n”
is called
(a) principal quantum (b) Azimuthal quantum
(c) Spin quantum (d) Magnetic quantum
ANSWERS
Questions 1 2 3 4 5
Answers b a c a c
Questions 6 7 8 9 10
Answers c a c c c
Questions 11 12 13 14 15
Answers a c d b c
Questions 16 17 18 19 20
Answers b c b d a
Questions 21 22 23 24 25
Answers c a b b b
Questions 26 27 28 29 30
Answers a b c b c
Questions 31 32 33 34 35
Answers c c b c b
Questions 36 37 38 39 40
Answers c b c d c
Questions 41 42 43 44 45
Answers a a b a a
Questions 46 47 48 49 50
Answers b c d a c
Questions 51 52 53 54 55
Answers a a b a b
Questions 56 57 58 59 60
Answers b c c b c
Questions 61 62 63 64 65
Answers a c c a b
Questions 66 67 68 69 70
Answers b b b c a
Questions 71 72 73 74 75
Answers b b b a b
Questions 76 77 78 79 80
Answers b b b b a
An ionic compound A+ B– is most likely to be
formed when
(a) The ionization energy of A is high and
electron affinity of B is low
(b) The ionization energy of A is low and
electron affinity of B is high
(c) Both the ionization energy and electron
affinity of B are high
(d) Both the ionization energy of A and
electron affinity of B are low
Q.2 The number of bonds in nitrogen
molecules
(a) one s and one p
(b) one s and two p
(c) three sigma only
(d) two s and one p
Q.3 Which of the following statements is not
correct regarding bonding molecular orbitals?
(a) bonding molecular orbitals possess less
energy than atomic orbitals from which they
are formed
(b) bonding molecular orbitals have low
electron density between the two nuclei
(c) every electron in the bonding molecular
orbitals contributes to the attraction between
atoms
(d) bonding molecular orbitals are formed
when the electron waves undergo
constructive interference
Q.4 Which of the following molecules has zero
dipole moment?
(a) NH3 (b) CHCl3
(c) H2O (d) BF3
Q.5 Which of the hydrogen halides has the
highest percentage of ionic character
(a) HF (b) HBr
(c) HCl (d) HI
Q.6 Which of the following molecules has
unpaired electrons in anti–bonding molecular
orbitals
(a) O2 (b) N2
(c) Br2 (d) F2
Q.7 Which of the following involve ionic
bonding only?
(a) Li3N (b) NaCl
(c) NCl3 (d) O2
Q.8 Which of the following involve covalent
bonding only?
(a) KF (b) KCl
(c) CH4 (d) MgCl2
Q.9 Which of the following molecules has a
net dipole moment?
(a) CO2 (b) CS2
(c) SO2 (d) CCl4
Q.10 H2S has a net dipole moment while BeF2
has zero dipole moment, because
(a) H2S molecule is linear while BeF2 is
angular
(b) H2S molecule is angular, while BeF2
molecule is linear
(c) Fluorine has more electronegativity than S
(d) Be is more electronegative than S
Q.11 Which of the following ions has larger
ionic radius?
(a) Na+ (b) K+
(c) Mg2+ (d) Al3+
Q.12 Which of the following bonds is least
polar?
(a) H–Se (b) P–Cl
(c) H–Cl (d) N–Cl
Q.13 Which one has the least bond angle?
(a) NH3 (b) CH4
(c) H2O (d) BF3
Q.14 Coordinate covalent bonds are formed
by
(a) sharing of electrons
(b) donation of electrons
(c) transference of electrons
(d) none of these
Q.15 Which of the following molecules would
be expected to have zero dipole moment?
(a) H2S (b) PF3
(c) TeF6 (d) H2O
Q.16 The bond formed between the elements
of low ionization energy and elements of high
electron affinity is
(a) ionic (b) covalent
(c) metallic (d) coordinate
Q.17 The side ways overlap of two–p orbitals
to form a bond is called
(a) sigma bond (b) pi (p) bond
(c) ionic bond (d) covalent bond
Q.18 The head overlap of p–orbitals of two
atoms give rise to bond called
(a) sigma bond (b) pi (p) bond
(c) ionic bond (d) covalent bond
Q.19 Which element would be the most
electronegative element with
(a) high ionization energy (IE) and low
electron affinity (EA)
(b) low ionization energy (IE) and high
electron affinity (EA)
(c) low ionization energy and low electron
affinity
(d) high ionization energy and high electron
affinity
Q.20 Which element would be the least
electronegative element with
(a) high I.E. and low E.A. (b) low I.E. and high
E.A.
(c) low I.E. and low E.A. (d) high I.E. and low
E.A.
Q.21 Which of the following substances has
the least ionic character in its bond?
(a) CCl4 (b) KCl
(c) BeCl2 (d) MgCl2
Q.22 Which of the following best describes
ionization energy?
(a) energy needed to remove the most loosely
bound electron from its ground state
(b) it decreases from left to right across a
period
(c) it increases down the periodic table
(d) it is represented by x + e– ® x– + energy
Q.23 Which one of the following
characteristics is not usually attributed to
ionic substances
(a) high melting point (b) deform when struck
(c) crystalline in solid state
(d) well defined three dimensional structure
Q.24 Which of the following bond is less
polar?
(a) B–Cl (b) C–Cl
(c) H–I (d) C–I
Q.25 Which type of the orbital hybridization
and geometry is used by the central atom of
NH2–?
(a) sp2 hybridization and trigonal planar
(b) sp hybridization and tetrahedral geometry
(c) sp2 hybridization and trigonal planar
(d) sp3 hybridization and tetrahedral
geometry
Q.26 Which of the following compounds has
most likely been formed by covalent bonding
of atoms
(a) CaF2 (b) MgO
(c) SiH4 (d) NaCl
Q.27 Identify the compound below which has
bonds formed by an overlap of sp and p–
orbitals
(a) BF3 (b) BeCl2
(c) NH3 (d) H2O
Q.28 The most electronegative of these group
I element is
(a) Na (b) K
(c) Li (d) Cs
Q.29 The type of bonding in HBr is
(a) ionic (b) polar covalent
(c) non–polar covalent (d) coordinate covalent
Q.30 Which of the following statement is not
correct
(a) sigma bond is weaker than a pi bond
(b) sigma bond is stronger than a pi bond
(c) double bond is stronger than a single bond
(d) double bond is shorter than a single bond
Q.31 Which of the following molecules has a
pyramidal structure?
(a) CH4 (b) NH3
(c) H2O (d) C2H4
Q.32 The bond angle in water is
(a) 109–5o (b) 104.5o
(c) 107.0o (d) 120o
Q.33 During the formation of chemical bond,
the potential energy of the system
(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) does not change (d) none of these
Q.34 H2O molecule has
(a) no lone pair (b) one lone pair
(c) two lone pairs (d) none of these
Q.35 NH3 molecule has
(a) no lone pair (b) one lone pair
(c) two lone pairs (d) three lone pairs
Q.36 In NH3 the covalent bond formed are
due to
(a) s–sp overlap (b) s–sp2 overlap
(c) s–sp3 overlap (d) sp2–sp2 overlap
Q.37 Which of the following is largest atom
(a) Mg (b) Be
(c) Sr (d) Ca
Q.38 As compared to covalent compounds,
ionic compounds generally have
(a) low melting points and low boiling points
(b) low melting points and high boiling points
(c) high melting points and high boiling points
(d) high melting points and low boiling points
Q.39 The attractive force that holds atoms
together in a molecule is called
(a) force of attraction (b) electrostatic force
(c) bond (d) chemical bond
Q.40 Which of the following bonds will be
formed between alkali metals and halogens
(a) ionic (b) covalent bond
(c) metallic bond (d) coordinate covalent bond
Q.41 The bond formed between the atoms by
mutual sharing of electrons is
(a) ionic (b) coordinate covalent bond
(c) covalent (d) metallic
Q.42 A chemical bond formed between two
similar atoms is purely
(a) ionic (b) covalent
(c) metallic (d) coordinate
Q.43 On the basis of VSEPR model the
geometry of BeCl2 is
(a) linear (b) trigonal
(c) tetrahedral (d) angular
Q.44 On the basis of VSEPR theory, a
molecule with three bond pair and no lone
pair of electrons will have a structure
(a) linear (b) trigonal planar
(c) tetrahedral (d) trigonal pyramidal
Q.45 The geometry of NH3 on the basis of
VSEPR model is
(a) trigonal planar (b) trigonal pyramidal
(c) tetrahedral (d) linear
Q.46 In which of the following theories the
hybridization is considered
(a) VSEPR (b) Lewis
(c) molecular orbital (d) valence bond
Q.47 The angle between 3 sp2 hybrid orbital
is
(a) 90o (b) 120o
(c) 130o (d) 180o
Q.48 The unhybridized “p” orbital in sp2
hybridization is
(a) parallel to sp2 (b) in the same plane
(c) perpendicular to sp2 orbitals
(d) out of plane
Q.49 Which of the following theories gives the
idea of delocalization of electrons
(a) Lewis theory (b) VSEPR theory
(c) valence bond theory (d) molecular orbital
theory
Q.50 The tandency of an atom to attract, a
shared electron pair towards itself is called
(a) electron affinity (b) electronegativity
(c) dipole moment (d) ionization potential
Q.51 Energy needed to remove an electron
from its gaseous atom is called
(a) electron affinity (b) ionization energy
(c) lattice energy (d) electronegativity
Q.52 A bond having partial positive and
negative charges is
(a) ionic (b) covalent
(c) polar covalent (d) non–polar covalent
Q.53 A bond formed by the linear overlap of
atomic orbitals is called
(a) sigma (b) ionic
(c) pi (d) polar
Q.54 Which of the following elements is the
most electronegative
(a) Li (b) F
(c) O (d) Cl
Q.55 Some covalent compounds dissolve in
water due to
(a) hydrolysis (b) hydration
(c) hydrogen bonding (d) metallic bonding
Q.56 Which of the following compounds will
have the lowest boiling point?
(a) PH3 (b) ASH3
(c) NH3 (d) SbH3
Q.57 Which of the following molecules has a
coordinate bond?
(a) NH4Cl (b) NaCl
(c) HCl (d) AlCl3
Q.58 The half of the difference between the
number of electrons in bonding MO and
antibonding MO is called
(a) molecule order (b) bond order
(c) proton order (d) electron order
Q.59 The bond order for He2 molecule is
(a) zero (b)
(c) 1 (d) 2
Q.60 The bond order for H2 is
(a) zero (b)
(c) 1 (d) 1.5
Q.61 The bond order in N2 molecule is
(a) zero (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
Q.62 The bond order in O2 molecule is
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) zero
Q.63 Which one of the following is
diamagnetic
(a) B2 (b) C2
(c) N2 (d) O2–
Q.64 Which one of the following molecule is
paramagnetic
(a) B2 (b) C2
(c) N2 (d) F2
Q.65 Which of the following ions is
diamagnetic
(a) O (b) O
(c) O (d) N
Q.66 Pi bond consists of two regions of
electron cloud density
(a) along the bond axis
(b) along and perpendicular to bond axis
(c) above and below the bond axis
(d) none of these
Q.67 Sigma bond consists of one region of
electron density
(a) along the bond axis
(b) along and perpendicular to bond axis
(c) above and below the bond axis
(d) none of these
Q.68 The electron cloud density is
symmetrical along the bond axis in
(a) sigma bond (b) pi bond
(c) both sigma and pi bond
(d) neither sigma nor pi bond
Q.69 The electron cloud density is not
symmetrical along the bond axis in
(a) sigma bond (b) pi bond
(c) both sigma and pi bond
(d) neither sigma nor pi bond
Q.70 Covalent bonds are
(a) rigid and directional
(b) rigid and non–directional
(c) neither rigid nor directional
(d) non–rigid and directional
Q.71 Ionic bonds are
(a) rigid and directional
(b) rigid and non–directional
(c) non rigid non directional
(d) non–rigid and directional
Q.72 Which of the following statements is
correct regarding the covalent compounds
(a) covalent compounds do not exhibit
isomerism
(b) covalent compounds exhibit isomerism
(c) covalent compounds are soluble in water
(d) covalent compounds are insoluble in non–
polar solvents
Q.73 The C–C bond length in ethane (C2H6) is
(a) 154 pm (b) 133 pm
(c) 120 pm (d) 105 pm
Q.74 The C–C bond length in ethene (C2H4) is
(a) 154 pm (b) 133 pm
(c) 120 pm (d) 105 pm
Q.75 The C–C bond length in ethyne is
(a) 154 pm (b) 133 pm
(c) 120 pm (d) 105 pm
Q.76 The atomic radii of the elements have a
general trend of fluctuating periodically
throughout the
(a) group (b) period
(c) periodic table (d) series
Q.77 Which of the following atom has the
shortest atomic radius
(a) N (b) F
(c) O (d) B
Q.78 The half of the single bond length
between two atoms in a molecule is called
(a) ionic radius of an element
(b) covalent radius of an element
(c) both ionic and covalent
(d) none of these
Q.79 Octet rule is not followed in the
formation of
(a) CH4 (b) NF3
(c) BCl3 (d) H2O
Q.80 Select the atom with the largest
ionization energy in the following atoms
(a) N (b) P
(c) AS (d) Sb
Q.81 Select the largest atom in the following
atoms
(a) O (b) S
(c) Se (d) Te
Q.82 Which of the following group of elements
on the average has the highest ionization
energies
(a) IA (b) IIIA
(c) IVA (d) VIIIA
Q.83 Molecular orbital theory has
(a) the superiority over the VB theory
(b) the inferiority over the VB theory
(c) neither superiority nor inferiority over VB
theory
(d) none of these
Q.84 The bond between H–H is
(a) stronger than the bond between H–Cl
(b) weaker than the bond between H–Cl
(c) neither stronger nor weaker than the bond
between H–Cl
(d) none of these
Q.85 In which of the following molecules, the
value of bond order in maximum
(a) H2 (b) O2
(c) N2 (d) Cl2
Q.86 When the S–character of hybridized
orbital decreases the bond angle
(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) does not change (d) becomes zero
Q.87 One of the causes of reactions is that the
systems attains the energy state which is of
(a) higher in energy (b) lower in energy
(c) balanced in energy (d) equal in energy
Q.88 The increase in the bond energy of a
covalent bond is due to
(a) electronegativity (b) ionization energy
(c) polarity (d) symmetry
Q.89 The polarity of a molecule is expressed
by
(a) bond strength (b) dipole moment
(c) bond length (d) shape
Q.90 Dipole moment of H2O is
(a) 1.85 (b) 1.82
(c) 1.87 (d) 1.83
ANSWERS
Questions 1 2 3 4 5
Answers b b b d a
Questions 6 7 8 9 10
Answers a a c c b
Questions 11 12 13 14 15
Answers b d c b c
Questions 16 17 18 19 20
Answers a b a d c
Questions 21 22 23 24 25
Answers a a b d d
Questions 26 27 28 29 30
Answers c b c b b
Questions 31 32 33 34 35
Answers b b a c b
Questions 36 37 38 39 40
Answers c b c d a
Questions 41 42 43 44 45
Answers c b a b b
Questions 46 47 48 49 50
Answers d b d d b
Questions 51 52 53 54 55
Answers b b a b c
Questions 56 57 58 59 60
Answers c a b a b
Questions 61 62 63 64 65
Answers d b d a c
Questions 66 67 68 69 70
Answers c a a b a
Questions 71 72 73 74 75
Answers c d b b c
Questions 76 77 78 79 80
Answers c b b c a
Questions 81 82 83 84 85
Answers d d a b c
Questions 86 87 88 89 90
Answers a b c b a
Which of the following statements is contrary
to the first law of thermodynamics?
(a) energy can neither be created nor
destroyed
(b) one form of energy can be transferred into
an equivalent amount of other kinds of energy
(c) in an adiabatic process, the work done is
independent of its path
(d) continuous production of mechanical work
with out equivalent amount of heat is possible
Q.2 The change in heat energy of a chemical
reaction at constant temperature and
pressure is called
(a) enthalpy change (b) bond energy
(c) heat of sublimation (d) internal energy
change
Q.3 For the reaction NaOH + HCl ® NaCl +
H2O, the change in enthalpy is called as:
(a) heat of reaction (b) heat of formation
(c) heat of neutralization (d) heat of
combustion
Q.4 Calorie is equivalent to
(a) 0.4184 J (b) 41.84 J
(c) 4.184 J (d) 418.4 J
Q.5 For a given process, the heat change at
pressure (qp) and constant volume (qv) are
related to each other as
(a) qp = qv (b) qp < qv
(c) qp > qv (d) qp =
Q.6 The net heat change in a chemical
reaction is same whether. It is brought about
in two or more different ways in one or
several steps. It is known as
(a) Henry’s law (b) Joule’s principle
(c) Hess’s law (d) Law of conservation of
energy
Q.7 Enthalpy of neutralisation of all the strong
acids and strong bases has the same value
because
(a) neutralisation leads to the formation of
salt and H2O
(b) strong acid and bases are ionic substances
(c) acids always give rise to H+ ions and
bases always furnish OH– ions
(d) the net chemical change involve the
combination of H+ and OH– ions to form
water
Q.8 If an endothermic reaction is allowed to
take place very rapidly in the air. The
temperature of the surrounding air
(a) remains constant (b) increase
(c) decrease (d) remain unchanged
Q.9 In endothermic reactions, the heat
content of the
(a) products is more than that of reactants
(b) reactants is more than that of products
(c) both (a) and (b)
Q.10 Hess’s law is also called
(a) first law of thermodynamics
(b) second law of thermodynamics
(c) first law of thermochemistry
(d) second law of thermochemistry
Q.11 Pressure – volume work is
(a) P D v (b) F x d
(c) h D v (d) H + p v
Q.12 Kinetic energy of molecules is due to
(a) rotational energy (b) vibrational energy
(c) translational energy (d) all of these
Q.13 The condition for standard enthalpy
change is
(a) 1 atm 30oC (b) 1 atm 0oC
(c) 1 atm 25oC (d) 760 atm 25oC
Q.14 The unit of enthalpy change is
(a) calorie (b) joule
(c) volt (d) coulomb
Q.15 The sum of all kinds of a system is ions
or molecules of a system is
(a) vibrational energy (b) potential energy
(c) kinetic energy (d) internal energy
Q.16 An endothermic reaction is one is which
(a) enthalpy of reactants and products are
same
(b) enthalpy of products is greater than
reactant
(c) enthalpy of products is lesser than
reactants
(d) heat is evolved from system
Q.17 Bomb calorimeter is used to determine
(a) enthalpy of solution
(b) enthalpy of atomization
(c) enthalpy of combustion
(d) enthalpy of neutralization
Q.18 Glass calorimeter is used to determine
(a) enthalpy of combustion
(b) enthalpy of reaction
(c) pressure–volume work
(d) none of above
Q.19 Born–Haber cycle is used to calculate
(a) enthalpy of combustion
(b) lattice energy of ionic camps
(c) both a and b
(d) none of above
Q.20 Born–Haber cycle is an application of
(a) first law of thermodynamics
(b) second law of thermodynamics
(c) first law of thermochemistry
(d) Hess’s law
Q.21 An exothermic reaction is one in which
(a) enthalpy of reactants and products are
same
(b) heat is absorbed by system
(c) enthalpy of products is greater than
reactants
(d) enthalpy of reactants is lesser than
products
Q.22 A substance under observation during an
experiment
(a) surrounding (b) system
(c) state function (d) universe
Q.23 Enthalpy of neutralization is merely
(a) heat of solution (b) heat of atomization
(c) heat of combustion
(d) heat of formation of H2O
Q.24 Lattice energy of NaCl is
(a) + 500 kJ (b) – 344 kJ
(c) – 776 kJ (d) – 411 kJ
Q.25 Standard enthalpy of Al2O3 cannot be
measured because
(a) it does not catch fire
(b) it reacts with CO2
(c) protective layer of oxide cover the surface
(d) none of above
Q.26 Ammonium chloride dissolve in water
this process is
(a) endothermic process (b) exothermic
process
(c) simple hydration (d) none of above
Q.27 First law of thermodynamics is
represented as
(a) D E = q + R T (b) D E = q + D P
(c) D E = q + D P (d) D E = q + w
Q.28 Pumping of water uphill is
(a) spontaneous reaction (b) exothermic
reaction
(c) non–spontaneous reaction
(d) endothermic
Q.29 In exothermic reaction D H is
(a) positive (b) negative
(c) zero (d) none of above
ANSWERSQuestions 1 2 3 4 5
Answers D a c c C
Questions 6 7 8 9 10
Answers c d c c D
Questions 11 12 13 14 15
Answers a d c a d
Questions 16 17 18 19 20
Answers b c b b d
Questions 21 22 23 24 25
Answers c b d c c
Questions 26 27 28 29
Answers a d b b
Q.1 A reaction is reversible because
(a) reactants are reactive (b) products are
reactive
(c) products are stable (d) reactants are
stable
Q.2 A large value of Kc means that at
equilibrium
(a) less reactants and more products
(b) more reactants and less product
(c) same amount
(d) none
Q.3 Extent to H2 + I2 ® 2HI can be increased
by
(a) increasing pressure (b) increasing product
(c) increasing temp (d) adding a catalyst
Q.4 Strength of an acid can be determined by
(a) PKa (b) PKp
(c) POH (d) PKw
Q.5 In an exothermic reversible reaction
increase in temp shifts the equilibrium to
(a) reactant side (b) product side
(c) remains unchanged (d) none
Q.6 Units of Kw are
(a) mole dm–3 (b) mole2 dm–3
(c) mole2 dm–6 (d) mole2 dm–3
Q.7 A basic Buffer solution can be prepared
by mixing
(a) weak acid and its salt with strong base
(b) strong acid and its salt with weak base
(c) weak base and its salt with strong acid
(d) strong base and its salt with weak acid
Q.8 Buffer action can be explained by
(a) common ion effect (b) law of mass action
(c) Le–Chatlier’s principle (d) all above
Q.9 Ionization of weak acid is expressed in
term of following constant
(a) Kw (b) Kn
(c) Ka (d) Kb
Q.10 Solubility of Ca(OH)2 is exothermic. If
solubility will increase
(a) at high temp (b) at low temp
(c) temp independent (d) none
Q.11 For which system does the equilibrium
constant, Kc has units of concentration
(a) N2 + 3H2 2NH3 (b) H2 + I2 2 HI
(c) 2NO2 N2O4 (d) 2HF H2 + F2
Q.12 Which statement about the following
equilibrium is correct
2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) D H = – 188.3 kJ
mol–1
(a) the value of Kp falls with a rise in temp
(b) the value of Kp falls with increasing
pressure
(c) adding V2O5 catalyst increase the
equilibrium yield of sulphur trioxide
(d) the value of Kp is equal to Kc
Q.13 The PH of 10–3 mole dm–3 of an
aqueous solution of H2SO4 is
(a) 3.0 (b) 2.7
(c) 2.0 (d) 1.5
Q.14 The solubility product of AgCl is 2.0 x
10–10 mole2 dm–6. The max concentration of
Ag+ ions in the solution is
(a) 2.0 x 10–10 mol dm–3 (b) 1.41 x 10–5 mol
dm–3
(c) 1.0 x 10–10 mol dm–3 (d) 4.0 x 10–20 mol
dm–3
Q.15 An excess of aqueous silver nitrate to
added to aqueous barium chloride and
precipitate is removed by filtration what are
the main ions in the filtrate
(a) Ag+ and NO only (b) Ag+ and Ba2+ and
NO3
(c) Ba2+ and NO only (d) Ba+2 and NO and
Cl–
Q.16 For N2 + 3H2 2NH3
(a) Kc = Kp (b) Kp = Kc RT
(c) Kp = Kc (RT)–2 (d) Kp = Kc (RT)–1
Q.17 H2 + I2 2HI
In the above equilibrium system, if the conc.
of reactants of 25oC is increased, the value of
Kc will
(a) increase (b) decrease
(c) remains constant
(d) depends upon nature of reactants
Q.18 In a chemical reaction, equilibrium is
said to have established when
(a) opposing reactions stops
(b) concentrations of reactants and products
are equal
(c) rate constants of opposing reactions are
equal
Q.19 The relation between Kc and Kp is
(a) Kc = Kp (RT) Dn (b) Kp = Kc (RT) Dn
(c) Kp = Kc (RT) Dn (d) Kp = Kc
Q.20 The precipitation occurs if the ionic
concentration is
(a) less than Ksp (b) more than Ksp
(c) equal to Ksp (d) is present at any moment
Q.21 The PH of oranges is
(a) 3.5 (b) 3.1
(c) 4.6 (d) 4.2
Q.22 Which one of following solution have
zero PH
(a) 1M HCl (b) 0.5 MH2SO4
(c) 0.1 M HNO3 (d) 1M CH3COOH
Q.23 The solubility product expression for
BaF2 can be written as
(a) [Ba2+] [F–] (b) [Ba2+] [2F]
(c) [Ba2+] [F–]2 (d) [Ba+] [F–]2
Q.24 To prepare a buffer with PH close to 9.0,
you could use a mixture of
(a) NH4OH and NH4Cl
(b) CH3COOH and CH3COONa
(c) HNO2 + NaNO2
(d) NaHCO3 + H2CO3
Q.25 For which reaction the numerical value
of Kc and Kp are same
(a) N2 + 3H2 2NH3 (b) 2SO2 + O2 2SO3
(c) H2 + Cl2 2HCl (d) N2O4 2NO2
Q.26 For which system does the equilibrium
constant Kc have units (mole dm–3)–1
(a) H2 + I2 2HI (b) N2 + 3H2 2NH3
(c) 2NO2 N2O4
(d) CH3COOH + C2H5OH CH3COOC2H5 +
H2O
Q.27 What can affect the magnitude of
equilibrium constant Kp of a reversible
gaseous reaction
(a) temperature (b) pressure
(c) catalyst (d) none of above
Q.28 Which gas can change the PH towards
acidic
(a) argon (b) carbon dioxide
(c) nitrogen (d) oxygen
Q.29 The solution having zero PH will be
(a) basic (b) high basic
(c) neutral (d) highly acidic
Q.30 A solution have H+ ions concentration 1
x 10–7 its PH will be
(a) acid (b) basic
(c) neutral (d) zero
Q.31 Which one of the following has highest
PH
(a) 0.1 M HCl (b) 1.0 M HCl
(c) gastric juice (d) lemons
Q.32 Which PH is considered as basic
(a) 1 (b) 7
(c) 2 (d) 11
Q.33 The sum of PH and POH is
(a) 2 (b) 7
(c) 14 (d) 13.5
Q.34 A buffer solution can be prepared by
mixing
(a) a strong acid and weak base
(b) a weak acid and weak base
(c) a strong acid and its salt
(d) a weak base and its salt with strong acid
Q.35 Law of mass action was presented by
(a) Henderson (b) Lewis
(c) Guldberg and Waage (d) Arrehenius
Q.36 The unit of Kc for reaction
N2 + O2 2NO
(a) mol dm–3 (b) mol–1 dm3
(c) mol–2 dm6 (d) no units
Q.37 PH of pure water is
(a) 3.2 (b) 4.2
(c) 7.0 (d) 0
Q.38 Which of following change will favour the
formation of more SO3 at equilibrium
2SO2 + O2 2SO3 + heat
(a) by adding SO3 at equilibrium
(b) by increasing temp
(c) by decreasing temp
(d) by decreasing pressure
Q.39 When pressure is applied to the given
equilibrium
ice water which of the following will happen
(a) more ice will be formed
(b) more water will be formed
(c) equilibrium will not be disturbed
(d) water will formed
Q.40 Which of following change will favour the
formation of more HI in the given reaction
H2 + I2 2HI
(a) increasing pressure
(b) decreasing pressure
(c) by adding more HI
(d) by adding more H2 and I2
ANSWERS
Questions 1 2 3 4 5
Answers b a c a A
Questions 6 7 8 9 10
Answers a a d c b
Questions 11 12 13 14 15
Answers a a b b c
Questions 16 17 18 19 20
Answers c a c b b
Questions 21 22 23 24 25
Answers a a c a c
Questions 26 27 28 29 30
Answers b b b d c
Questions 31 32 33 34 35
Answers d d c d c
Questions 36 37 38 39 40
Answers d c c d d
Q.1 Which of the following solutions has the
highest boiling point?
(a) 5.85% solution of NaCl
(b) 18.0% solution of glucose
(c) 6.0% solution of urea
(d) all have same boiling point
Q.2 Two solutions of NaCl and KCl are
prepared separately by dissolving same
amount of the solute in water. Which of the
following statements is true for these
solutions
(a) KCl solution will have higher boiling point
than NaCl solution
(b) both the solutions have same boiling point
(c) KCl and NaCl solutions possess same
vapour pressure
Q.3 Molarity of pure water is
(a) 1 (b) 18
(c) 55.5 (d) 6
Q.4 18 gm glucose is dissolved in 90 gm of
water. The relative lowering of vapour
pressure is equal to
(a) (b) 5.1
(c) (d) 6
Q.5 The molar boiling point constant is the
ratio of the elevation in boiling point to
(a) molarity (b) molality
(c) mole fraction of solvent (d) less than that
of water
Q.6 An aqueous solution of methanol in water
has vapour pressure
(a) equal to that of water (b) equation to that
of methanol
(c) more than that of water (d) less than that
of water
Q.7 An ozeotropic mixture of two liquids boils
at a lower temperature than either of them
when
(a) it is saturated
(b) it shows positive deviation from Raoult’s
law
(c) it shows negative deviation from Raoult’s
law
(d) it is metastable
Q.8 In azeotropic mixture showing positive
deviation from Raoult’s law, the volume of
mixture is
(a) slightly more than the total volume of
components
(b) slightly less than the total volume of the
component
(c) equal to the total volume of the
components
(d) none of these
Q.9 A solution of glucose is 10%. The volume
in which 1 gm mole of it is dissolved will be
(a) 1 dm3 (b) 1.8 dm3
(c) 200 cm3 (d) 900 cm3
Q.10 Colligative properties are the properties
of
(a) dilute solutions which behave as nearly
ideal solutions
(b) concentrated solutions which behave as
nearly non–ideal solutions
(c) both (i) and (ii) (d) neither (i) nor (ii)
Q.11 The freezing mixture used in ice cream
machine consists of ice and
(a) NaCl (b) CaCl2
(c) KNO3 (d) both a & c
Q.12 1 kg of sea water contains 4.96 x 10–3
gm of dissolved oxygen. The concentration of
oxygen in sea water in ppm is
(a) 4.96 x 10–2 (b) 0.496
(c) 4.96 (d) 49.6
Q.13 A solution of sucrose is 34.2%. The
volume of solution containing one mole of
solute
(a) 500 cm3 (b) 1000 cm3
(c) 342 cm3 (d) 3420 cm3
Q.14 Salt of a weak acid with strong base
when dissolved in water gives
(a) acidic solution (b) basic solution
(c) neutral solution (d) none
Q.15 Mole fraction of 10% urea is
(a) 0.042 (b) 0.023
(c) 0.032 (d) 0.072
Q.16 Which of the following mixtures of
liquids show negative deviation
(a) ethyl alcohol ether (b) HCl and water
(c) phenol – water
(d) chlorobenzene – bromobenzene
Q.17 The term cryoscopy is used
(a) depression of freezing point
(b) elevation in boiling point
(c) lowering of vapour pressure
(d) osmotic pressure
Q.18 The term ebullioscopy is used
(a) depression of freezing point
(b) elevation in boiling point
(c) lower of vapour pressure
(d) none of above
Q.19 Azeotropic mixture
(a) obey Henry’s law
(b) obey Raoult’s law
(c) do not obey Raoult’s law
(d) obey Dalton’s law
Q.20 Hydrolysis of potassium acetate produce
(a) acidic solution (b) neutral solution
(c) basic solution (d) none of these
Q.21 Which one of the following salts will not
hydrolyse
(a) NaCl (b) AlCl3
(c) Na2CO3 (d) CH3COONa
Q.22 The sum of mole fractions (X) of
components of a solution is equal to
(a) 100 (b) 200
(c) one (d) zero
Q.23 Which pair of mixture is called idea
solution
(a) nicotine–water
(b) chlorobenzene & bromobenzene
(c) water–ether
(d) water–alcohol
Q.24 The vapour pressure of aqueous solution
of sugar solution is
(a) equal to vapour pressure of water
(b) more than vapour pressure of pure water
(c) less than vapour pressure of pure water
(d) none of above
Q.25 When NaCl is dissolved in water
(a) melting point decrease
(b) boiling point decrease
(c) both melting and boiling point decrease
(d) none of above
Q.26 The solution which distils without change
in composition is called
(a) unsaturated solution (b) saturated solution
(c) zeotropic mixture (d) azeotropic mixture
Q.27 Solubility curve of Na2SO4 10 . H2O
shows
(a) constant increase of solubility
(b) constant decrease of solubility
(c) discontinuous solubility with temp
(d) none of above
Q.28 Use of glycol as antifreeze in the
automobile is an important application of
(a) colligative property
(b) Roault’s law
(c) fractional crystallization
(d) hydrolysis
Q.29 Use of NaCl in ice cream making is an
important application of
(a) constitutive property
(b) additive property
(c) colligative property
(d) Roault’s law
Q.30 Which one of the following solutions will
have higher vapour pressure than that of
water
(a) aqueous solution of CH3OH
(b) aqueous solution of H2SO4
(c) aqueous solution of sugar
(d) aqueous solution of urea
Q.31 Ethylene glycol is mixed with water as
anti freeze in radiator because
(a) it has low vapour pressure
(b) it raises the boiling point of water
(c) it lowers the freezing point of water
(d) it changes osmotic pressure
(e) it has all characters
Q.32 Which one of following is not soluble in
alcohol
(a) KCl (b) urea
(c) acetone (d) ether
Q.33 Mixture of alcohol and water can be
separated by
(a) solvent extraction (b) crystallization
(c) filtration (d) fractional distillation
Q.34 Which one of following is not a conjugate
solution
(a) ether + water (b) phenol + water
(c) nicotine + water (d) ethanol + water
Q.35 Which one of the following has
discontinuous solubility curve
(a) NaCl (b) KCl
(c) NaNO3 (d) CaCl2 . 6H2O
Q.36 Which one of following has continuous
solubility curve
(a) NaCl (b) NaNO3
(c) Na2SO4 . 10H2O (d) both a and b
Q.37 Solubility of following decrease with
increase in temp
(a) Ce2(SO4)3 (b) CaCl2 . 6H2O
(c) Pb(NO3)2 (d) K2Cr2O7
Q.38 According to Roault’s law
(a) relative lowering of V.P. is equal to mole
fraction of solute
(b) the lowering of V.P. is directly proportional
to the mole fraction of solute
(c) V.P. of a solvent above a solution is equal
to product of V.P. of pure solvent and mole
fraction of solvent in solution
(d) all the above
Q.39 The solution of KCl
(a) acidic (b) basic
(c) neutral (d) none of above
Q.40 Na2SO4 solution is
(a) acidic (b) basic
(c) neutral (d) none of above
Q.41 The solution of CuSO4 is
(a) acidic (b) basic
(c) neutral (d) none of above
Q.42 The solution of AlCl3 is
(a) acidic (b) basic
(c) neutral (d) none of above
Q.43 The solution of CH3COONa
(a) acidic (b) basic
(c) neutral (d) none of above
Q.44 The no. of water of crystallization of
MgCl2
(a) 12 (b) 6
(c) 3 (d) 4
Q.45 The no. of water of crystallization of
MgSO4
(a) 12 (b) 7
(c) 5 (d) 3
Q.46 Freezing point depression is measured
by
(a) Beckmann’s apparatus
(b) Land’s Berger’s
(c) Antifreeze apparatus
(d) all the above
Q.47 Elevation of boiling is measured by
(a) Beckmann’s apparatus
(b) Lands berger’s method
(c) Antifreeze apparatus
(d) none of above
Q.48 Colligative properties are the properties
of solution that depends upon
(a) nature of molecules (b) quality
(c) physical property (d) no. of molecules
Q.49 Aqueous solution of glucose boils at
100.52oC. The solution contains
(a) 180 gm glucose in 1 litre water
(b) 90 gm glucose in 1 litre water
(c) 18 gm glucose in 1 litre water
(d) 3.6 gm glucose in 1 litre water
Q.50 Aqueous solution of methanol is
zeotropic mixture because
(a) it does not obey the Roalt’s law
(b) mixture cannot be separated by sublimate
(c) mixture can be separated by distillation
(d) greater volume than the volume of
component
Q.51 When equal volumes of ether and water
are shaken, then two layers are formed the
ether layer contains water
(a) 5.3% (b) 6.3%
(c) 1.2% (d) 2.1%
ANSWERSQuestions 1 2 3 4 5
Answers d b c c B
Questions 6 7 8 9 10
Answers c b a b a
Questions 11 12 13 14 15
Answers d c b b c
Questions 16 17 18 19 20
Answers b a b c c
Questions 21 22 23 24 25
Answers a c b e a
Questions 26 27 28 29 30
Answers d c a c d
Questions 31 32 33 34 35
Answers e a d d d
Questions 36 37 38 39 40
Answers d a d c c
Questions 41 42 43 44 45
Answers a a b b b
Questions 46 47 48 49 50
Answers a b d a c
Questions 51
Answers c