4/8/2020 Study 57 Terms | MICROBIOLOGY NCA-CLS Flashcards | Quizlet

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Created by

Cesar_Sarmiento9

Terms in this set (57)

Which of the following Pitting on sheep blood agar.

characteristics is not
used to characterize Pitting is not a characteristic of typical of
Staph. aureus? staph aureus, pitting is more characteristic
of Eikenella corrodens. Staph aureus
A: Pitting on sheep ferments mannitol, produces, coagulase
blood agar enzymes. It is also characterized by gram
B: Fermentation of positive cocci in clusters.
mannitol
C:Positive catalase test
D:Positive coagulase test

To differentiate species Furazolidone (100ug) susceptibility.

between coagulase
negative Staph species
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and a micrococcus All members of the microccocus species

species, which of the are resistant to furazolidone.
following tests can be
used?

A: Furazolidone (100ug)
susceptibility
B:Catalase
C:Novobiocin
susceptibility
D: Urease

A pustule drainage Coagulase,

submitted for culture is
platted onto primary to confirm that it is not strep or
media. After an 18h micrococcus.
incubation, the sheep
blood agar plate reveals
a predominance of beta-
hemolytic white
porcelain colonies. Gram
stain shows gram
positive cocci. The
colonies are catalase
positive. The most
appropriate test for
additional identification
of the isolate is?

A: bacitracin
B: Bile esculin
C:Bile solubility
D: Coagulase

A 43 year old female identify the beta-hemolytic streptococcus

patient complaints of a species.
very sore throat. The
throat swab that is Routine throat cultures on persons over
submitted for routine approximately 10 years of age are taken to
culture grows a variety of detect the presence of Strep. pyogenes
diphteroids, alpha and
beta helmolytic streps,
staphs; and neisseria. The
next step is to?

A: report it as normal
flora
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B: ask for a repeat

collection to get a better
specimen
C: identify the beta-
hemolytic streptococcus
species
D: identify the Neisseria
species

What is group A strep? Streptococcus pyogenes

What is group B strep? Streptococcus agalactiae

What is group E strep? Group E - Enterococci.

A nasopharyngeal Group A.
culture grows a
predominance of a beta- Strep. pyogenes or group A strep is beta-
hemolytic colony type hemolytic and is the most common cause
on a sheep blood agar at of acute bacterial pharyngitis
18h. The isolate is
susceptible to a .04 unit
of bacitracin. The most
likely identification of this
organism is?

A: Group A
B:Group B
C:Group D
D: Not group A,B,D

Which of the following Positive catalase test.

characteristics is not
consistent with Strep pneumo is catalase negative, on
streptococcus sheep blood agar they show alpha
pnemoniae? hemolysis.

A: alpha hemolysis on
sheep blood agar
B:Bile solubility positive
C:ram positive, oval
shaped cocci in pairs
D: Positive catalase test.

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Neisseria species can be Carbohydrate utilization. MGAL

identified and
differentiated by ?

A: Bile- esculin
hydrolysis
B: Carbohydrate
utilization
C: Nitrate test
D: oxidase test

A small gram positive Listeria monocytogenes

rod that causes neonatal
meningitis and
septicemia is?

A: E.coli
B: Cornybacterium
diphteriae
C: Listeria
monocytogenes
D: Streptococcus
agalactiae

The X and V factors chocolate agar.

required for growth of
Haemophilus influenzae
are contained in

A: brain/heart infusion
broth
B: chocolate agar
C: sheep blood agar
D:Thiogycollate broth

What is the name for the Hemin

X factor?

What is the name for the NAD

V factor?

On sheep blood agar, H. Staph. aureus

influenzae sattelites
around?

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A: diphteroids
B: Strep, pyogenes
C: H. Parainfluenzae
D: Staph. aureus

The specimen of choice Nasopharyngeal swab

for the isolation of
Bordetella pertussis is ?

A: Blood
B: Cerebrospinal fluid
C:Nasopharyngeal swab
D: Throat swab

Family characteristics of fermentation of glucose

the enterobactericiae
family include?
A:fermentation of
glucose
B:fermentation of lactose
C: production of
indophenol oxidase
D: Failure to reduce
nitrates

The most common cause E. coli

of urinary tract infections
is?

A: E. coli
B: Enterobacter cloacae
C:Enterobacter
aerogenes
D: Proteus Vulgaris

A mucoid, lactose Klebsiella pneumoniae.

positive colony type on
MacConkey agar that is
indole negative and
citrate positive and non
motile is?

A: E. coli
B: Klebsiella pneumoniae
C: Enterobacter cloacae
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D: Enterobacter
aerogenes

E. coli, Klebsiella, and Gastrointestinal tract

Proteus species are
common flora of the ?

A: Gastrointestinal tract
B: Respiratory tract
C: Superficial skin
surfaces
D: Urinary tract

A discharge from an Proteus mirabilis

infected ear grows a
colorless gray colony Proteus vulgaris is indole positive and
type on MacConkey ornithine negative.
agar, that swarms on
SBA. The it is oxidase
negative, gram negative
rod with the following
characteristics.

PAD: pos
Ornithine: pos
H2S: Pos
Urease: pos
Lysine: neg
Indole:Neg
Citrate: pos

The organism described

is?

A: C. freundii
B: Morganella morganii
C: Proteus mirabilis
D: Proteus vulgaris

A gram negative rod Boil a saline suspension of the organism

biochemichally for 15 min, cool and retype in Salmonella
compatible compatible Polyvalent antiserum.
with the genus
Salmonella fails to Heating the bacterium inactivates the
agglutinate in the antigens that prevent agglutination with
polyvalent somatic polyvalent serum.
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antisera for Salmonella

serotyping. What is the
next step in the definite
identification of this
organism.

A:report the organism as

a Salmonella polyvalent
O-positive species and
send the isolate
elsewhere for additional
identification.
B: Wash a suspension of
the isolate in sale and
retest the salmonella in
polyvalent antiserum
C: Boil a saline
suspension of the
organism for 15 min, cool
and retype in Salmonella
Polyvalent antiserum.
D: Retest the isolate
using the individual
somatic antisera from
each serogroup, A-e

test used to differentiate Catalase

staphs from streps

which test is definitive for Coagulase

S. aureus

this spot test is specific PYR - pyrrolidonase pepetide

for Strep pyogenes

A gram negative rod is Pseudomonas.

isolated from a patient
with second and third
degree burns. The
isolate produces a bluish
green pigment and a
characteristic fruity odor.
The isolate produces
these results/

TSI: K/K
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Motility: +
Oxidase: +
Oxidative/fermentation:
oxidative utilization only

What is the most

probable genus of the
organism?

A: Acenitobacter
B: Alcaligenes
C:Moraxella
D: Pseudomonas

After 48H of incubation Large flat colony with a double zone of

on anaerobic sheep hemolysis
blood agar, clostridium
perfringens appears as?

A: Large flat colony with

a double zone of
hemolysis
B: White, butyrous non
hemolytic colony with a
glistering surface.
C: Gray mucoid colony
with a zone of alpha
hemolysis
D: Colony with a pearl
like surface and a single
zone of beta hemolysis

Isolation of A microaerophilic environment.

Campylobacter jejuni
from a patient with C.jejuni is an oxidase positive, gram
gastroenteritis is negative curved rod that is a strict
optimized by? microaerophile.

A: Incubation at 35-37C
B:Selective enrichment
with selenite broth
C:A microaerophilic
environment
D: An anaerobic
environment without
CO2

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In the N-acetyl-L Digestant

cysteine-alkali method
of processing sputum
specimens for
mycobacterial culture
the N-acetyl-L cysteine
serves as a ?

A: Buffer
B: Decontaminant
C: Digestant
D:pH stabilizer

A sputum specimen is Use of concentrated potassium hydroxide

submitted to the for decontamination procedure.
laboratory accompanied
by a request for an AFB Potassium hydroxide is not used and
culture. All of the neither is a concentrated solution.
following are standard
protocols for processing
this specimen except?

A: Use of a refrigerated
centrifuge with bucket
covers and safety domes
for high speed
centrifugation
B: Use of liquid and solid
media for setup of AFB
culture
C: Use of concentrated
potassium hydroxide for
decontamination
procedure
D: Use of a laminar flow
biological safety cabinet
for processing of the
specimen

Routine sterilization of 15 psi at 121C for 15 min

artificial culture media by
autoclaving is
recommended at?

A: 15 psi at 121C for 15

min

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B:10 psi at 121C for 10 min

C:15 psi at 200F for 15
min
D:10 psi at 200 for 10 min

When acetone-alcohol is Purple and Purple

inadvertently omitted
from the gram staining
procedure,
streptococcus and
Neisseria will be stained

A: Purple and red

B: red and red
C: Purple and Purple
D: Red and Purple

The color of a non acid Colorless.

fast bacillus following
the acid-alcohol step
and before
counterstaining in the
acid fast procedure is

A: blue
B: red
C: colorless
D: purple

MacCkonkey agar is Inhibitory and differential

used for the isolation of
members of the family
enterobacteriaceae
because the medium is

A: Inhibitory and
differential
B: differential and
enriched
C: enriched and
selective
D: Selective and
supplemented

Optochin is a chemical Streptococus pneumoniae from alpha

used to differentiate? hemolytic streptococcus
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A: Catalase positive
Streptococcus from
catalase negative
Staphylococcus
B:Streptococus
pneumoniae from alpha
hemolytic streptococcus
C:Enterobacteriaceae
from non-
Enterobacteriaceae
D:Group D-enterococci
non Group D non-
enterococci

A lysine-iron agar (LIA) Deaminates Lysine

slant shows a red slant
over a yellow shunt. This LIA tests for fermentation of glucose,
indicates that this lysine decarboxilization (LDC), H2S
organism? production and Lysine deaminase.

A:Deaminates Lysine Yellow butt= glucose fermentaton

B:Decarboxylates Lysine Red Slant over yellow shunt= lysine
C:Ferments Lactose deaminase
D:Produces H2S Purple butt= LDC
Black precipitate= H2S

Which of the following glucose is the carbohydrate in the medium

statesments regarding
Simmons citrate agar is Citrate is the only source of carbon in the
incorrect? medium.

A: Blue is an alkaline
reaction.
B:Citrate is the only
source of carbon in the
medium
C: glucose is the
carbohydrate in the
medium
D:Growth on the slant is
interpreted as a positive
reaction.

The reagent(s) used to Ferric chloride.

detect a positive

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phenylalanine This turns the slant from yellow to green in

deaminase reaction is? a positive result. Only members of the
proteus family are able to do this.
A: Sulfanilic acid and
alpha naphthylamine
B: P-
Aminodemethylbenzade
hyde
C: Alpha-naphtol and
potassium chloride
D: Ferric chloride

To eliminate the 1:10.

antibacterial properties
of blood and
simultaneously introduce
an adequate volume of
blood for recovery of
microorganisms from
septicemia, the
recommended blood to
broth ratio in blood
culture bottles is
approximately?

A: 1:2
B: 2:1
C: 1:10
D: 10:1

Which of the following Only Peritoneal fluid and other aspirated

specimens is acceptable fluids.
for the evaluation of
clinically important
anaerobes?
A: Feces
B: Sputum
C: Peritoneal fluid
D: Superficial wound

A urine specimen is In the refrigerator.

received in the
laboratory for culture
and cannot be plated
immediately, it should be
held in the?

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A: In the refrigerator
B: in the freezer
C: at room temperature
D: 35 C incubator

Standard testing Incubation at 8-10% CO2

conditions for the Kirby
Bauer agar disk diffusion
antimicrobial
susceptibility test include
all of the following
except?

A:Use of Mueller Hinton

media
B:Standard Inoculum size
C:Incubation at 35C
D:Incubation at 8-10%
CO2

Phenylethyl Alcohol Selects for the growth of gram positive

Agar (PEA) is used for? microorganisms, because Phenylethyl
Alcohol is inhibitory to the growth of gram
A: Selective growth of negative organisms
Gram negative
organisms including
E.coli and inhibits gram
positive organisms
B: Selective for the
growth of anaerobes
C: Selects for the growth
of gram positive
microorganisms and
inhibits gram negative
organisms
D:Is not a selective
medium, just differential.

A fungal colony grows Aspergillus.

rapidly on Sabouraud's
dextrose agar as a white
colony with a dense
production of aerial,
blue green spores. On
lactophenol cotton blue

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preparation, swollen-
tipped conidiophores
bear sterigmata and
conidia in chains. This is
most likely?

A: Aspergillus
B: Paeliomyces
C: Penicillium
D: Scopularis

A saprobic yeast that Rhodotorula

inhabits airborne
dust,skin, mucosa and
grows rapidly and
produces orange to red
color is?

A: Cryptococcus
B:Geotrichum
C:Rhodotorula
D:Sacchromyces

The function of 10% Clear and dissolve debris

potassium hydroxide in
the direct examination of
skin, hair and nail
scrapings is to?

A: Preserve fungal
elements
B:Kill contaminating
bacteria
C: Clear and dissolve
debris
D: Fix preparatio for
subsequent staining

A potentially pathogenic Candida albicans.

yeast that is in normal
flora of the Thrush is characterized as white tongue
oropharyngeal tract that thick layer.
may produce thrush is?

A: Trichosporon beigelii
B: Candida albicans

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C: Cryptococcus
neoformans
D: Geotrichum

In an Iodine preparation Iodamoeba butschlii.

of fececs, an amoebic
cyst appears to have Entamoebas can have large glycogen
single nucleus with a masses but only when very immature but
large karyosome and they have 1-4 nuclei small karyosomes and
chromatin bodies do not chromatid bars.
appear slong the nuclear
membrane. A large
glycogen mass that
stains reddish brown
occupies the cytoplasm.
The most probable
identity of the cyst is?

A: Entamoeba histolytica
B: Iodamoeba butschlii
C: Entamoeba coli
D: Entamoeba hartmanni

The infective stage of Enterobius vermicularis

this parasite consists of
an egg with a thin hookworm: are thin shelled with four to
hyaline shell with one eight "nuclei" inside
flattened side and
usually a fully developed Ascaris lumbricoides: has a very thick
larvae within this is? outer layer very round egg

A: Enterobius Trichuris: has 2 polar plugs on an oval egg

vermicularis
B: hookworm
C: Ascaris lumbricoides
D: Trichuris trichiura

The direct Iodine cysts

preparation is used to
best detect protozoan?

A: trophozites
B:eggs
C:cysts
D: larvae

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Parasites that are Plasmodium (malaria)

detected by direct
visualization in
peripheral blood smears
are?

A:Plasmodium
B:Giardia
C: Entamoeba
D:Ascars

Chlamydiae differ from are true bacteria

other viruses in that
Chlamydiae

A: are true bacteria

B:are obligate
intracellular organisms
C: produce intracellular
inclusions
D: are isolated in tissue
culture systems

A specimen for viral 4C

culture is collected on
friday but must be held
for analysis until the next
day. The optimal
temperature for this
specimen is?

A: 35C
B:4C
C: -20C
D:-80C

A procerue that directly Increased acidity due to the release of

determines beta- penicilloic acid
lactamase production by
a organism is based on Beta-lactamase production is most
detection of an? commonly performed by demonstrating
the ability of the microbe to concert
A: one of inhibition penicillin to penicilloic acid
around an ampicillin disk
B: Zone of inhibition
around an oxacillin disk
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C: Increased acidity due

to the release of
penicilloic acid
D: increased pH due to
the reduction of Iodine

In a broth dilution Inhibitory concentration. MIC( minimal

method of antimicrobial inhibitory concentration)
susceptibility testing the
tube with the lowest
concentration of
antimicrobial in which
there is no visible growth
is the minimal.

A: Antimicrobial
concentration
B: Bactericidal
concentration
C: Inhibitory
concentration
D: Lethal concentration

An intestinal parasite Malabsorption syndrome. The parasite in

which is recovered from question is Giardia lamblia . patients
steatorrhea stool and is produce large steatorrhea stool and gas.
round dark staining will
produce?

A: Malabsorption
syndrome
B: Iron deficiency anemia
C:Intestinal obstruction
D: Extraintestinal
infection
E: Vitamin B12 deficiency

what are good defining Pain brush like, they are common in fungal
characteristics of infections involving immunosuppressed
Aspergillus? individuals and those who have
undergone organ transplants and
chemotherapy.

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