Technical Document Analysis
Technical Document Analysis
Mnemonic:
ã #
Tendency to submerse unpleasant
ideas in subconscious as a defense mechanism
ã c# #
Tendency to forget ideas because
other experiences have overshadowed them
ã
Tendency to forget things which are not
used.
7. How the transfer of learning affects the learning process.
ã Application of what has been learned in one task to another subsequent task
þ All new learning is based on previously learned experience
þ Plan for transfer by organizing lessons in meaningful sequence
ã $# : Learning one skill helps learn another
þ Example: speedometer and airspeed indicator
ã *$$# : Learning one skill hinders learning another
þ Example: steering wheel vs. cyclic
8. How the formation of habit patterns affects the learning process.
ã The formation of positive habits promotes learning and safety
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REFERENCE: FAA-H-8083-9.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements related to human behavior by describing:
1. Control of human behavior.
ã #$!'': (MBTI) attempts to explain behavior based on how
individuals use their judgment and perception.
ã c#$#%%#!$#): Instructor is responsible for determining
the best way of teaching a student.
2. Development of student potential.
ã Relationship between CFI and student has a profound impact on how much the
student learns
ã To a student, CFI is a symbol of authority CFI's challenge is to know what
controls are best for what circumstances
ã To mold a solid relationship depends on CFI's knowledge of the student's needs,
drives and desires.
3. Relationship of human needs to behavior and learning.
$!-.$)' %.
ã )'!*$!: Maintenance of the human body, i.e. Air food water. A student
that is not well will not perform well.
ã ': A need to feel safe.
ã +!#*#*: People seek to overcome feelings of loneliness and alienation.
ã &: Humans have a need for a stable, firmly based, high level of self
respect and respect from others.
ã ! ($!/$#: ³be all you can be.´
þ Being problem focused.
þ A concern about personal growth.
þ The ability to have peak experiences.
þ Incorporating an ongoing freshness of appreciation of life.
4. Relationship of defense mechanisms to student learning and pilot decision making.
ã &#$#
Emphasizing more positive quality to offset weak one
ã #
Blame own shortcomings on others, or weather
ã $#$!/$#
Can't accept real reasons for behavior, uses excuses
ã #$! $!'
Refuse to acknowledge disagreeable realities
ã $# &$#
Conscious attitudes/behaviors opposite of desires
ã !*)
Escape from frustration, physically or mentally
ã **#
Acting out anger in response to frustration
ã *#$#
Losing interest and giving up as a result of frustration
5. General rules which a flight instructor should follow during student training to ensure
good human relations.
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REFERENCE: FAA-H-8083-9.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements of critique and evaluation by describing:
1. Purpose and characteristics of an effective critique.
ã A critique should improve students¶ performance and provide them with
something constructive with which to work and upon which they can build.
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þ Focused on student performance.
ã !"!
þ Considers student's entire performance.
þ Considers requirements of the moment.
ã $!
þ Instructor must have credibility and trust.
ã &)#
þ Captures the significant points without overload.
ã #
þ Positive critique when earned.
þ Negative critique points toward improvement.
ã *$#/%
þ Follows some pattern of organization.
' Chronological
' Order of importance
ã )*) !
þ Student needs self-esteem, recognition and approval.
ã
þ Say what's wrong and how to fix it.
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ã c#3%# 5: Instructor leads a group discussion and
members of the class are invited to critique.
ã %#(!%5: Instructor asks the student to lead the critique.
ã &$!! * 5: Divide the class into small groups and assign a
specific area to analyze.
ã c#%%$! %# 5 ' $#) %#: Another student presents
the entire critique.
ã ! (5: Require the student to critique personal performance.
ã â# 5: Written critiques provide a record for the student. The
instructor can devote more time.
2. Difference between critique and evaluation.
ã Evaluation is making a judgment of students¶ abilities. Critique is providing
comprehensive constructive feedback.
4. Characteristics of effective oral questions and what type to avoid.
ã Apply to the subject.
ã Brief and concise
ã Be appropriate to the stage of training
ã Centered on one idea
ã Present a challenge
Types of questions to avoid
ã //!
þ Lots of parts and subparts.
ã /
þ Too general, covering wide area.
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þ More than one correct answer.
ã +-!%&#
þ Unclear about question's content.
ã 65#
þ Challenge to battle of wits with CFI.
ã c!$#
þ Unrelated to topic of discussion.
Responses to student questions.
ã Must be understood by CFI before answering
ã May defer question until later unit or lesson
ã CFI should admit not knowing an answer. Promise to get the answer or help
student to look it up
ã Encourage students to ask more questions.
5. Characteristics and development of effective written tests.(5-4)
ã !$!'
þ Consistent with repeated measurement
ã ,$!%'
þ Measures what it was intended to
ã $!'
þ Functionality for student
ã '
þ Singleness of scoring, avoid bias
ã &)##
þ Measures overall objectives
ã &#$#
þ Measure differences in achievement
Development
ã Decide on the ! $##*.
ã List indicators of the result of learning. (test completion standards)
6. Characteristics and uses of performance tests, specifically, the FAA practical test
standards.
ã CFI uses same standards preparing students for it
ã Practical Test Standards (PTS) set standards for FAA examiners
þ Broken down into areas of operation and tasks
þ Areas of operation range from preflight to post-flight
þ Criterion based.
' Knowledge areas
' Flight procedures
' Maneuvers
ã PTS are already set high - not minimum standards.
ã !$!'
þ Consistent with repeated measurement
ã ,$!%'
þ Measures what it was intended to
ã $!'
þ Functionality for student
ã '
þ Singleness of scoring, avoid bias
ã &)##
þ Measures overall objectives
ã &#$#
þ Measure differences in achievement
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REFERENCE: FAA-H-8083-9.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements of flight instructor characteristics and responsibilities by describing:
1. Major characteristics and qualifications of a professional flight instructor.
ã #'
þ Straightforward and honest
þ Facades will only cause student to lose confidence
ã $# )%#
þ As they are, with faults and problems
þ Acceptance encourages learning
ã #$!$$$#$#%)$
þ Important effect on professional image.
ã &$#
þ Calm, thoughtful, disciplined, but not somber.
ã $ '$$#%$%###
þ Emphasis on safety by CFI has long-lasting effect.
þ CFI leads by example ± ³practice what you preach.´
ã !$#*$*
þ Profanity detracts from professional image.
þ Define and encourage proper use of aviation terms.
ã ! (&&#
þ CFI should seek improvement of own qualifications. A good pilot is always
learning.
þ CFI is the expert many pilots refer questions to.
4$! $#
17 789A:92
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2. Role of the flight instructor in dealing with student stress, anxiety, and psychological
abnormalities.
ã Calm, professional demeanor while maintaining control of the aircraft.
ã Break training and maneuvers down into digestible chunks.
3. Flight instructor's responsibility with regard to student pilot supervision and
surveillance.
ã $!$# %#!!'
þ Determine that student understands maneuver
þ Instructor demonstrates, student practices
þ Evaluation must be based on standards
' Consider student's experience and stage of training
' Not all PTS standards may apply on first practice
' But have a reasonable standard for completion
þ Evaluate mastery of all elements of a maneuver
not just overall performance
þ Maintain training files
ã !#
þ Guidance and restraint for solo student operations
þ Instructor alone determines student ready for solo
þ Require performance of fundamental maneuvers
þ Should be able to handle ordinary problems
' Traffic pattern congestion
' Change in active runway
' Unexpected crosswinds
þ Instructor must retain control of situation
4. Flight instructor's authority and responsibility for endorsements and
recommendations.
ã !*)c##%&#
þ From FAR Part 61 and Advisory Circular 61-65
þ Instructor must ensure student or pilot meets requirements prior to
issuing endorsement
þ ³You can never have too much ink´
' When in doubt if an endorsement is needed, assume so
þ Examples of endorsements:
' Student solo and cross-country
' Knowledge tests
' Practical tests - logbook and Form 8710-1
' Flight reviews and instrument proficiency checks
7. Flight instructor's responsibility in the conduct of the required FAA flight review.
ã )$##*$#%#%&#
þ Flight reviews
' Not a test or check ride - assesses pilot's knowledge.
' Instructor must meet the qualifications in SFAR73.
' Provide awareness and flight training required.
' Ensure that the pilot is competent and safe.
' Standards based on ratings held.
þ Instrument proficiency checks
' Advisory Circular 61-98 and Instrument Rating PTS
þ Aircraft checkouts/transitions
' CFI must be thoroughly familiar with aircraft & systems
' Record in logbook exact extent of checkout
ã If pilot performance is insufficient, debrief on problem areas and schedule
more instruction.
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REFERENCE: FAA-H-8083-9.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements related to the planning of instructional activity by describing:
1. Development of a course of training.
ã $##*
þ Complete series of studies leading to attainment of a specific goal by
determining the objectives and standards that may be tailored to Levels of
Learning or Domains of Learning.
2. Content and use of a training syllabus.
ã Step-by-step building block progression of learning
ã Training syllabus can help keep up with
þ Technology advances
þ Increasingly complicated regulations
ã Syllabus should be an abstract or digest of a course
þ Brief yet comprehensive
ã CFI may use own course or commercial product
þ Order of actual training can be altered as necessary
þ Consider relationships of blocks taken out of order
ã Ground training focuses on cognitive domain
ã Flight training on knowledge and psychomotor
ã Can be used as a checklist of what to teach
3. Purpose, characteristics, proper use, and items of a lesson plan.
ã
þ Ensures the instructor has learned the lesson first
þ Assists wise selection of material
' Minimizes unimportant material
þ Due consideration given to each part of lesson
þ Aid in presenting material in suitable sequence
þ Outline of teaching procedure
þ Relates lesson to its objectives
þ Gives inexperienced instructor confidence
þ Promotes uniformity of instruction
ã )$$(6-7)
þ #' ± lesson is a unified segment of instruction
þ ## ± each lesson contains new material
þ ± each lesson is reasonable scope
þ $$!' ± planned for conditions where the training will be conducted
þ !"!' ± CFI may adapt/modify as needed
þ !$# $##* ± should be taught so that relevance is
clear to student
þ c##$! ± use steps of teaching process
þ Preparation, presentation, Application, evaluation
ã -$#!$#!'
þ Be familiar with the lesson plan
' CFI should study the plan and be familiar
þ Use the lesson plan as a guide
' Avoids getting off track or omitting important details
þ Adapt the lesson plan to the class or student
' If desired results aren't happening, change the approach
þ Revise the lesson plan periodically
' Up-to-date for regulations and technology
' Availability of instructional aides & equipment
ã c& $#!$#
þ Objective
þ Completion Standards
þ Content of the lesson.
' Preflight discussion
' Review
' Introduction
' Post flight critique and preview.
4. Flexibility features of a course of training, syllabus, and lesson plan required to
accommodate students with varying backgrounds, levels of experience, and ability.
ã %#*%5$c##
þ Analyze student's personality, thinking and ability
þ No two students are alike
þ Same methods of instruction are not equally effective on each student
þ Learn the student's background, interests, temperament and way of
thinking
þ Instruction methods may change as student progresses through stages of
training
ã $#%$% &$#
þ Flight instructors must continuously evaluate
' their own effectiveness
' Standard of learning
' Performance achieved by their students
þ Desire to maintain pleasant personal relationship with student must not
lead to acceptance of slow rate of learning or substandard performance
þ An earnest student will not resent reasonable standards that are fairly and
consistently applied
ã &)$/#*)
þ Flight instructors have a tremendous influence on students' perception of
aviation
þ Positive or negative impressions formed by
' The way instructors conduct themselves
' The attitudes instructors display
' The manner in which they develop their instruction
þ Success depends largely on instructor's ability to present instruction so
students have a positive image of aviation
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The examiner shall select TASK L and at least one other TASK.
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-25; AIM.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements related to aero medical factors by describing:
1. Hypoxia, its symptoms, effects, and corrective action.
a. Hypoxia.
1. Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body sufficient to impair functions of the brain
and other organs. Hypoxia from exposure to altitude is due only to the reduced barometric
pressures encountered at altitude, for the concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere remains
about 21 percent from the ground out to space.
2. Although deterioration in night vision occurs at a cabin pressure altitude as low as 5,000 feet,
other significant effects of altitude hypoxia usually do not occur in the normal healthy pilot
below 12,000 feet. From 12,000 to 15,000 feet of altitude, judgment, memory, alertness,
coordination and ability to make calculations are impaired, and headache, drowsiness, dizziness
and either a sense of well-being (euphoria) or belligerence occur. The effects appear following
increasingly shorter periods of exposure to increasing altitude. In fact, pilot performance can
seriously deteriorate within 15 minutes at 15,000 feet.
3. At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet, the periphery of the visual field grays out to a
point where only central vision remains (tunnel vision). A blue coloration (cyanosis) of the
fingernails and lips develops. The ability to take corrective and protective action is lost in 20 to
30 minutes at 18,000 feet and 5 to 12 minutes at 20,000 feet, followed soon thereafter by
unconsciousness.
4. The altitude at which significant effects of hypoxia occur can be lowered by a number of
factors. Carbon monoxide inhaled in smoking or from exhaust fumes, lowered hemoglobin
(anemia), and certain medications can reduce the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood to the
degree that the amount of oxygen provided to body tissues will already be equivalent to the
oxygen provided to the tissues when exposed to a cabin pressure altitude of several thousand
feet. Small amounts of alcohol and low doses of certain drugs, such as antihistamines,
tranquilizers, sedatives and analgesics can, through their depressant action, render the brain
much more susceptible to hypoxia. Extreme heat and cold, fever, and anxiety increase the body's
demand for oxygen, and hence its susceptibility to hypoxia.
. The effects of hypoxia are usually quite difficult to recognize, especially when they occur
gradually. Since symptoms of hypoxia do not vary in an individual, the ability to recognize
hypoxia can be greatly improved by experiencing and witnessing the effects of hypoxia during
an altitude chamber "flight." The FAA provides this opportunity through aviation physiology
training, which is conducted at the FAA Civil Aero medical Institute and at many military
facilities across the U.S. To attend the Physiological Training Program at the Civil Aero medical
Institute, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, Oklahoma City, OK, contact by telephone (405)
954-6212, or by writing Aerospace Medical Education Division, AAM-400, CAMI, Mike
Monroney Aeronautical Center, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125.
6. Hypoxia is prevented by heeding factors that reduce tolerance to altitude, by enriching the
inspired air with oxygen from an appropriate oxygen system, and by maintaining a comfortable,
safe cabin pressure altitude. For optimum protection, pilots are encouraged to use supplemental
oxygen above 10,000 feet during the day and above 5,000 feet at night. The CFRs require that at
the minimum, flight crew be provided with and use supplemental oxygen after 30 minutes of
exposure to cabin pressure altitudes between 12,500 and 14,000 feet and immediately on
exposure to cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet. Every occupant of the aircraft must be
provided with supplemental oxygen at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet.
a. Hyperventilation, or an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out of the
lungs, can occur subconsciously when a stressful situation is encountered in flight. As
hyperventilation "blows off" excessive carbon dioxide from the body, a pilot can experience
symptoms of lightheadedness, suffocation, drowsiness, tingling in the extremities, and coolness
and react to them with even greater hyperventilation. Incapacitation can eventually result from
incoordination, disorientation, and painful muscle spasms. Finally, unconsciousness can occur.
b. The symptoms of hyperventilation subside within a few minutes after the rate and depth of
breathing are consciously brought back under control. The buildup of carbon dioxide in the body
can be hastened by controlled breathing in and out of a paper bag held over the nose and mouth.
c. Early symptoms of hyperventilation and hypoxia are similar. Moreover, hyperventilation and
hypoxia can occur at the same time. Therefore, if a pilot is using an oxygen system when
symptoms are experienced, the oxygen regulator should immediately be set to deliver 100
percent oxygen, and then the system checked to assure that it has been functioning effectively
before giving attention to rate and depth of breathing.
3. Middle ear and sinus problems, their causes, effects, and corrective action.
Ear Block.
1. As the aircraft cabin pressure decreases during ascent, the expanding air in the middle ear
pushes the Eustachian tube open, and by escaping down it to the nasal passages, equalizes in
pressure with the cabin pressure. But during descent, the pilot must periodically open the
Eustachian tube to equalize pressure. This can be accomplished by swallowing, yawning, tensing
muscles in the throat, or if these do not work, by a combination of closing the mouth, pinching
the nose closed, and attempting to blow through the nostrils (Valsalva maneuver).
2. Either an upper respiratory infection, such as a cold or sore throat, or a nasal allergic condition
can produce enough congestion around the Eustachian tube to make equalization difficult.
Consequently, the difference in pressure between the middle ear and aircraft cabin can build up
to a level that will hold the Eustachian tube closed, making equalization difficult if not
impossible. The problem is commonly referred to as an "ear block."
3. An ear block produces severe ear pain and loss of hearing that can last from several hours to
several days. Rupture of the ear drum can occur in flight or after landing. Fluid can accumulate
in the middle ear and become infected.
4. An ear block is prevented by not flying with an upper respiratory infection or nasal allergic
condition. Adequate protection is usually not provided by decongestant sprays or drops to reduce
congestion around the Eustachian tubes. Oral decongestants have side effects that can
significantly impair pilot performance.
. If an ear block does not clear shortly after landing, a physician should be consulted.
Sinus Block.
1. During ascent and descent, air pressure in the sinuses equalizes with the aircraft cabin pressure
through small openings that connect the sinuses to the nasal passages. Either an upper respiratory
infection, such as a cold or sinusitis, or a nasal allergic condition can produce enough congestion
around an opening to slow equalization, and as the difference in pressure between the sinus and
cabin mounts, eventually plug the opening. This "sinus block" occurs most frequently during
descent.
2. A sinus block can occur in the frontal sinuses, located above each eyebrow, or in the maxillary
sinuses, located in each upper cheek. It will usually produce excruciating pain over the sinus
area. A maxillary sinus block can also make the upper teeth ache. Bloody mucus may discharge
from the nasal passages.
3. A sinus block is prevented by not flying with an upper respiratory infection or nasal allergic
condition. Adequate protection is usually not provided by decongestant sprays or drops to reduce
congestion around the sinus openings. Oral decongestants have side effects that can impair pilot
performance.
4. If a sinus block does not clear shortly after landing, a physician should be consulted.
4. Spatial disorientation, its causes, effects, and corrective action.
Various complex motions and forces and certain visual scenes encountered in flight can create
illusions of motion and position. Spatial disorientation from these illusions can be prevented only
by visual reference to reliable, fixed points on the ground or to flight instruments.
Vhe leans. An abrupt correction of a banked attitude, which has been entered too slowly to
stimulate the motion sensing system in the inner ear, can create the illusion of banking in the
opposite direction. The disoriented pilot will roll the aircraft back into its original dangerous
attitude, or if level flight is maintained, will feel compelled to lean in the perceived vertical plane
until this illusion subsides.
Coriolis illusion. An abrupt head movement in a prolonged constant-rate turn that has ceased
stimulating the motion sensing system can create the illusion of rotation or movement in an
entirely different axis. The disoriented pilot will maneuver the aircraft into a dangerous attitude
in an attempt to stop rotation. This most overwhelming of all illusions in flight may be prevented
by not making sudden, extreme head movements, particularly while making prolonged constant-
rate turns under IFR conditions.
Graveyard spin. A proper recovery from a spin that has ceased stimulating the motion sensing
system can create the illusion of spinning in the opposite direction. The disoriented pilot will
return the aircraft to its original spin.
Graveyard spiral. An observed loss of altitude during a coordinated constant-rate turn that has
ceased stimulating the motion sensing system can create the illusion of being in a descent with
the wings level. The disoriented pilot will pull back on the controls, tightening the spiral and
increasing the loss of altitude.
Somatogravic illusion. A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of being in a
nose up attitude. The disoriented pilot will push the aircraft into a nose low, or dive attitude. A
rapid deceleration by a quick reduction of the throttles can have the opposite effect, with the
disoriented pilot pulling the aircraft into a nose up, or stall attitude.
cnversion illusion. An abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can create the
illusion of tumbling backwards. The disoriented pilot will push the aircraft abruptly into a nose
low attitude, possibly intensifying this illusion.
Elevator illusion. An abrupt upward vertical acceleration, usually by an updraft, can create the
illusion of being in a climb. The disoriented pilot will push the aircraft into a nose low attitude.
An abrupt downward vertical acceleration, usually by a downdraft, has the opposite effect, with
the disoriented pilot pulling the aircraft into a nose up attitude.
False horizon. Sloping cloud formations, an obscured horizon, a dark scene spread with ground
lights and stars, and certain geometric patterns of ground light can create illusions of not being
aligned correctly with the actual horizon. The disoriented pilot will place the aircraft in a
dangerous attitude.
Auto kinesis. In the dark, a static light will appear to move about when stared at for many
seconds. The disoriented pilot will lose control of the aircraft in attempting to align it with the
light.
1. Motion is sensed by the brain through three different pathways of the nervous system that send
signals coming from the inner ear (sensing motion, acceleration, and gravity), the eyes (vision),
and the deeper tissues of the body surface (proprioceptors). When the body is moved
intentionally, for example, when we walk, the input from all three pathways is coordinated by
our brain. When there is unintentional movement of the body, as occurs during motion when
driving in a car, the brain is not coordinating the input, and there is thought to be discoordination
or conflict among the input from the three pathways. It is hypothesized that the conflict among
the inputs is responsible for motion sickness.
2. The symptoms of motion sickness include nausea, vomiting, and dizziness (vertigo). Other
common signs are sweating and a general feeling of discomfort and not feeling well.
3. Always ride where your eyes will see the same motion that your body and inner ears feel.
÷edication.
2. The CFRs prohibit pilots from performing crewmember duties while using any medication
that affects the faculties in any way contrary to safety. The safest rule is not to fly as a
crewmember while taking any medication, unless approved to do so by the FAA.
Alcohol.
1. Extensive research has provided a number of facts about the hazards of alcohol consumption
and flying. As little as one ounce of liquor, one bottle of beer or four ounces of wine can impair
flying skills, with the alcohol consumed in these drinks being detectable in the breath and blood
for at least 3 hours. Even after the body completely destroys a moderate amount of alcohol, a
pilot can still be severely impaired for many hours by hangover. There is simply no way of
increasing the destruction of alcohol or alleviating a hangover. Alcohol also renders a pilot much
more susceptible to disorientation and hypoxia.
2. A consistently high alcohol related fatal aircraft accident rate serves to emphasize that alcohol
and flying are a potentially lethal combination. The CFRs prohibit pilots from performing
crewmember duties within 8 hours after drinking any alcoholic beverage or while under the
influence of alcohol. However, due to the slow destruction of alcohol, a pilot may still be under
influence 8 hours after drinking a moderate amount of alcohol. Therefore, an excellent rule is to
allow at least 12 to 24 hours between "bottle and throttle," depending on the amount of alcoholic
beverage consumed.
a. Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless, and tasteless gas contained in exhaust fumes. When
breathed even in minute quantities over a period of time, it can significantly reduce the ability of
the blood to carry oxygen. Consequently, effects of hypoxia occur.
b. Most heaters in light aircraft work by air flowing over the manifold. Use of these heaters
while exhaust fumes are escaping through manifold cracks and seals is responsible every year for
several nonfatal and fatal aircraft accidents from carbon monoxide poisoning.
c. A pilot who detects the odor of exhaust or experiences symptoms of headache, drowsiness, or
dizziness while using the heater should suspect carbon monoxide poisoning, and immediately
shut off the heater and open air vents. If symptoms are severe or continue after landing, medical
treatment should be sought.
8. How evolved gas from scuba diving can affect a pilot during flight.
1. A pilot or passenger who intends to fly after scuba diving should allow the body sufficient
time to rid itself of excess nitrogen absorbed during diving. If not, decompression sickness due to
evolved gas can occur during exposure to low altitude and create a serious in-flight emergency.
2. The recommended waiting time before going to flight altitudes of up to 8,000 feet is at least
12 hours after diving which has not required controlled ascent (no decompression stop diving),
and at least 24 hours after diving which has required controlled ascent (decompression stop
diving). The waiting time before going to flight altitudes above 8,000 feet should be at least 24
hours after any SCUBA dive. These recommended altitudes are actual flight altitudes above
mean sea level (AMSL) and not pressurized cabin altitudes. This takes into consideration the risk
of decompression of the aircraft during flight.
Fatigue.
1. Fatigue continues to be one of the most treacherous hazards to flight safety, as it may not be
apparent to a pilot until serious errors are made. Fatigue is best described as either acute (short-
term) or chronic (long-term).
2. A normal occurrence of everyday living, acute fatigue is the tiredness felt after long periods of
physical and mental strain, including strenuous muscular effort, immobility, heavy mental
workload, strong emotional pressure, monotony, and lack of sleep. Consequently, coordination
and alertness, so vital to safe pilot performance, can be reduced. Acute fatigue is prevented by
adequate rest and sleep, as well as by regular exercise and proper nutrition.
3. Chronic fatigue occurs when there is not enough time for full recovery between episodes of
acute fatigue. Performance continues to fall off, and judgment becomes impaired so that
unwarranted risks may be taken. Recovery from chronic fatigue requires a prolonged period of
rest.
cllness
÷edication
Stress
Alcohol
Fatigue
Emotion
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-25; AC 90-48; AIM.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements related to visual scanning and collision avoidance by describing:
In darkness, vision becomes more sensitive to light, a process called dark adaptation. Although
exposure to total darkness for at least 30 minutes is required for complete dark adaptation, a pilot
can achieve a moderate degree of dark adaptation within 20 minutes under dim red cockpit
lighting. Since red light severely distorts colors, especially on aeronautical charts, and can cause
serious difficulty in focusing the eyes on objects inside the aircraft, its use is advisable only
where optimum outside night vision capability is necessary. Even so, white cockpit lighting must
be available when needed for map and instrument reading, especially under IFR conditions. Dark
adaptation is impaired by exposure to cabin pressure altitudes above 5,000 feet, carbon
monoxide inhaled in smoking and from exhaust fumes, deficiency of Vitamin A in the diet, and
by prolonged exposure to bright sunlight. Since any degree of dark adaptation is lost within a
few seconds of viewing a bright light, a pilot should close one eye when using a light to preserve
some degree of night vision.
Various surface features and atmospheric conditions encountered in landing can create illusions
of incorrect height above and distance from the runway threshold. Landing errors from these
illusions can be prevented by anticipating them during approaches, aerial visual inspection of
unfamiliar airports before landing, using electronic glide slope or VASI systems when available,
and maintaining optimum proficiency in landing procedures.
1. Runway width illusion. A narrower-than-usual runway can create the illusion that the
aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion
will fly a lower approach, with the risk of striking objects along the approach path or landing
short. A wider-than-usual runway can have the opposite effect, with the risk of leveling out high
and landing hard or overshooting the runway.
2. Runway and terrain slopes illusion. An up sloping runway, up sloping terrain, or both, can
create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not
recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach. A down sloping runway, down sloping
approach terrain, or both, can have the opposite effect.
3. Featureless terrain illusion. An absence of ground features, as when landing over water,
darkened areas, and terrain made featureless by snow, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at
a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower
approach.
4. Atmospheric illusions. Rain on the windscreen can create the illusion of greater height, and
atmospheric haze the illusion of being at a greater distance from the runway. The pilot who does
not recognize these illusions will fly a lower approach. Penetration of fog can create the illusion
of pitching up. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will steepen the approach, often
quite abruptly.
. Ground lighting illusions. Lights along a straight path, such as a road, and even lights on
moving trains can be mistaken for runway and approach lights. Bright runway and approach
lighting systems, especially where few lights illuminate the surrounding terrain, may create the
illusion of less distance to the runway. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a
higher approach. Conversely, the pilot overflying terrain which has few lights to provide height
cues may make a lower than normal approach.
3. ³See and avoid´ concept.
FAR 91.113 See and Avoid. Vigilance for other air traffic must be maintained at all times by
each pilot
Studies show that the time a pilot spends on visual tasks inside the cabin should represent no
more than 1/4 to 1/3 of the scan time outside, or no more than 4 to 5 seconds on the instrument
panel for every 16 seconds outside. Since the brain is already trained to process sight
information that is presented from left to right, one may find it easier to start scanning over the
left shoulder and proceed across the windshield to the right.
1. Scanning the sky for other aircraft is a key factor in collision avoidance. It should be used
continuously by the pilot and copilot (or right seat passenger) to cover all areas of the sky visible
from the cockpit. Although pilots must meet specific visual acuity requirements, the ability to
read an eye chart does not ensure that one will be able to efficiently spot other aircraft. Pilots
must develop an effective scanning technique which maximizes one's visual capabilities. The
probability of spotting a potential collision threat obviously increases with the time spent looking
outside the cockpit. Thus, one must use timesharing techniques to efficiently scan the
surrounding airspace while monitoring instruments as well.
2. While the eyes can observe an approximate 200 degree arc of the horizon at one glance, only a
very small center area called the fovea, in the rear of the eye, has the ability to send clear, sharply
focused messages to the brain. All other visual information that is not processed directly through
the fovea will be of less detail. An aircraft at a distance of 7 miles which appears in sharp focus
within the foveal center of vision would have to be as close as 7/10 of a mile in order to be
recognized if it were outside of foveal vision. Because the eyes can focus only on this narrow
viewing area, effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short, regularly spaced eye
movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field. Each movement
should not exceed 10 degrees, and each area should be observed for at least 1 second to enable
detection. Although horizontal back-and-forth eye movements seem preferred by most pilots,
each pilot should develop a scanning pattern that is most comfortable and then adhere to it to
assure optimum scanning.
3. Pilots should realize that their eyes may require several seconds to refocus when switching
views between items in the cockpit and distant objects. The eyes will also tire more quickly
when forced to adjust to distances immediately after close-up focus, as required for scanning the
instrument panel. Eye fatigue can be reduced by looking from the instrument panel to the left
wing past the wing tip to the center of the first scan quadrant when beginning the exterior scan.
After having scanned from left to right, allow the eyes to return to the cabin along the right wing
from its tip inward. Once back inside, one should automatically commence the panel scan.
4. Effective scanning also helps avoid "empty-field myopia." This condition usually occurs when
flying above the clouds or in a haze layer that provides nothing specific to focus on outside the
aircraft. This causes the eyes to relax and seek a comfortable focal distance which may range
from 10 to 30 feet. For the pilot, this means looking without seeing, which is dangerous.
6. Relationship between poor visual scanning habits, aircraft speed differential and
increased collision risk.
ã If the pilot does not use proper visual scanning techniques and/or fixates in the cockpit
his/her risks of a midair collision will increase greatly
ã Studies have shown that the minimum time required for a pilot to spot the traffic, identify it,
realize it¶s a collision threat, react, and maneuver the aircraft is at least 12.5 seconds
ã Therefore at higher speeds extra vigilance must be maintained because of the higher closure
rate
cc c c
c c
REFERENCE: FAA-H-8083-9.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements related to use of distractions during flight training by describing:
1. Flight situations where pilot distraction can be a causal factor related to aircraft
accidents.
Distractions cnterruptions
A distraction is an unexpected event that causes the student¶s attention to be momentarily
diverted. Students must learn to decide whether or not a distraction warrants further attention or
action on their part. Once this has been decided, the students must either turn their attention back
to what they were doing, or act on the distraction.
Use distractions that will not adversely affect the students learning or compromise the safety of
flight.
An interruption is an unexpected event for which the student voluntarily suspends performance
of one task in order to complete a different one. Interruptions are a significant source of errors
and students must be made aware of the potential for errors caused by interruptions and develop
procedures for dealing with them. A classic example is an interruption that occurs while a
student is following the steps in a written procedure or checklist. The student puts down the
checklist, deals with the interruption, and then returns to the procedure²but erroneously picks
up at a later point in the procedure, omitting one or more steps.
For many kinds of tasks, attention switching is the only way to accomplish multitasking. For
example, it is generally impossible to look at two different things at the same time. The area of
focused vision (called the fovea) is only a few degrees in span and can only be directed to one
location at a time. Similarly, people cannot listen to two conversations at the same time. While
both conversations fall upon the ears at once, people must devote their attention to the
comprehension of one, to the exclusion of the other.
Distractions allow the student to decide on the import tasks while harassment inhibits the
student¶s ability to make proper decisions and learn.
c cc
REFERENCE: FAA-H-8083-21.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements related to principles of flight by describing:
A fully articulated rotor system usually consists of three or more rotor blades. The blades are
allowed to flap, feather, and lead or lag independently of each other. Each rotor blade is
attached to the rotor hub by a horizontal hinge, called the flapping hinge, which permits the
blades to flap up and down. Each blade can move up and down independently of the others. The
flapping hinge may be located at varying distances from the rotor hub, and there may be more
than one. The position is chosen by each manufacturer, primarily with regard to stability and
control.
Each rotor blade is also attached to the hub by a vertical hinge, called a drag or lag hinge, that
permits each blade, independently of the others, to move back and forth in the plane of the rotor
disc. Dampers are normally incorporated in the design of this type of rotor system to prevent
excessive motion about the drag hinge. The purpose of the drag hinge and dampers is to absorb
the acceleration and deceleration of the rotor blades. The blades of a fully articulated rotor can
also be feathered, or rotated about their span wise axis. To put it more simply, feathering means
the changing of the pitch angle of the rotor blades.
A semi rigid rotor system allows for two different movements, flapping and feathering. This
system is normally comprised of two blades, which are rigidly attached to the rotor hub. The hub
is then attached to the rotor mast by a trunnion bearing or teetering hinge. This allows the blades
to see-saw or flap together. As one blade flaps down, the other flaps up. Feathering is
accomplished by the feathering hinge, which changes the pitch angle of the blade.
The rigid rotor system is mechanically simple, but structurally complex because operating loads
must be absorbed in bending rather than through hinges. In this system, the blades cannot flap or
lead and lag, but they can be feathered.
2. Effect of lift, weight, thrust, and drag during various flight maneuvers.
LcFV
÷AGNUS EFFECV
The explanation of lift can best be explained by looking at a cylinder rotating in an airstream.
The local velocity near the cylinder is composed of the airstream velocity and the cylinder¶s
rotational velocity, which decreases with distance from the cylinder. On a cylinder, which is
rotating in such a way that the top surface area is rotating in the same direction as the airflow, the
local velocity at the surface is high on top and low on the bottom. As shown in figure 2-7, at
point ³A,´ a stagnation point exists where the airstream line that impinges on the surface splits;
some air goes over and some under. Another stagnation point exists at ³B,´ where the two air
streams rejoin and resume at identical velocities. We now have up wash ahead of the rotating
cylinder and downwash at the rear. The difference in surface velocity accounts for a difference in
pressure, with the pressure being lower on the top than the bottom. This low pressure area
produces an upward force known as the ³Magnus Effect.´ This mechanically induced circulation
illustrates the relationship between circulation and lift. An airfoil with a positive angle of attack
develops air circulation as its sharp trailing edge forces the rear stagnation point to be aft of the
trailing edge, while the front stagnation point is below the leading edge.
BERNOULLc S PRcNCcPLE
Air flowing over the top surface accelerates. The airfoil is now subjected to Bernoulli¶s Principle
or the ³venture effect.´ As air velocity increases through the constricted portion of a venturi tube,
the pressure decreases. Compare the upper surface of an airfoil with the constriction in a venturi
tube that is narrower in the middle than at the ends. The upper half of the venturi tube can be
replaced by layers of undisturbed air. Thus, as air flows over the upper surface of an airfoil, the
camber of the airfoil causes an increase in the speed of the airflow. The increased speed of
airflow results in a decrease in pressure on the upper surface of the airfoil. At the same time, air
flows along the lower surface of the airfoil, building up pressure. The combination of decreased
pressure on the upper surface and increased pressure on the lower surface results in an upward
force. As angle of attack is increased, the production of lift is increased. More up wash is created
ahead of the airfoil as the leading edge stagnation point moves under the leading edge, and more
downwash is created aft of the trailing edge. Total lift now being produced is perpendicular to
relative wind. In summary, the production of lift is based upon the airfoil creating circulation in
the airstream (Magnus Effect) and creating differential pressure on the airfoil (Bernoulli¶s
Principle).
WEcGHV
Normally, weight is thought of as being a known, fixed value, such as the weight of the
helicopter, fuel, and occupants. To lift the helicopter off the ground vertically, the rotor system
must generate enough lift to overcome or offset the total weight of the helicopter and its
occupants. This is accomplished by increasing the pitch angle of the main rotor blades. The
weight of the helicopter can also be influenced by aerodynamic loads. When you bank a
helicopter while maintaining a constant altitude, the ³G´ load or load factor increases. Load
factor is the ratio of the load supported by the main rotor system to the actual weight of the
helicopter and its contents. In steady-state flight, the helicopter has a load factor of one, which
means the main rotor system is supporting the actual total weight of the helicopter. If you
increase the bank angle to 60°, while still maintaining a constant altitude, the load factor
increases to two. In this case, the main rotor system has to support twice the weight of the
helicopter and its contents. [Figure 2-11] Disc loading of a helicopter is the ratio of weight to the
total main rotor disc area, and is determined by dividing the total helicopter weight by the rotor
disc area, which is the area swept by the blades of a rotor. Disc area can be found by using the
span of one rotor blade as the radius of a circle and then determining the area the blades
encompass during a complete rotation. As the helicopter is maneuvered, disc loading changes.
The higher the loading, the more power you need to maintain rotor speed.
VHRUSV
Thrust, like lift, is generated by the rotation of the main rotor system. In a helicopter, thrust can
be forward, rearward, sideward, or vertical. The resultant of lift and thrust determines the
direction of movement of the helicopter. The solidity ratio is the ratio of the total rotor blade
area, which is the combined area of all the main rotor blades, to the total rotor disc area. This
ratio provides a means to measure the potential for a rotor system to provide thrust. The tail rotor
also produces thrust. The amount of thrust is variable through the use of the antitorque pedals
and is used to control the helicopter¶s yaw.
DRAG
The force that resists the movement of a helicopter through the air and is produced when lift is
developed is called drag. Drag always acts parallel to the relative wind. Total drag is composed
of three types of drag: profile, induced, and parasite.
PROFcLE DRAG
Profile drag develops from the frictional resistance of the blades passing through the air. It does
not change significantly with the airfoil¶s angle of attack, but increases moderately when
airspeed increases. Profile drag is composed of form drag and skin friction. Form drag results
from the turbulent wake caused by the separation of airflow from the surface of a structure.
The amount of drag is related to both the size and shape of the structure that protrudes into the
relative wind. [Figure 2-12] Skin friction is caused by surface roughness. Even though the
surface appears smooth, it may be quite rough when viewed under a microscope. A thin layer of
air clings to the rough surface and creates small eddies that contribute to drag.
cNDUCED DRAG
Induced drag is generated by the airflow circulation around the rotor blade as it creates lift. The
high-pressure area beneath the blade joins the low-pressure air above the blade at the trailing
edge and at the rotor tips. This causes a spiral, or vortex, which trails behind each blade
whenever lift is being produced. These vortices deflect the airstream downward in the vicinity of
the blade, creating an increase in downwash. Therefore, the blade operates in an average relative
wind that is inclined downward and rearward near the blade. Because the lift produced by the
blade is perpendicular to the relative wind, the lift is inclined aft by the same amount. The
component of lift that is acting in a rearward direction is induced drag. [Figure 2-13] As the air
pressure differential increases with an increase in angle of attack, stronger vortices form, and
induced drag increases. Since the blade¶s angle of attack is usually lower at higher airspeeds, and
higher at low speeds, induced drag decreases as airspeed increases and increases as airspeed
decreases. Induced drag is the major cause of drag at lower airspeeds.
PARAScVE DRAG
Parasite drag is present any time the helicopter is moving through the air. This type of drag
increases with airspeed. Nonlifting components of the helicopter, such as the cabin, rotor mast,
tail, and landing gear, contribute to parasite drag. Any loss of momentum by the airstream, due
to such things as openings for engine cooling, creates additional parasite drag. Because of its
rapid increase with increasing airspeed, parasite drag is the major cause of drag at higher
airspeeds. Parasite drag varies with the square of the velocity. Doubling the airspeed increases
the parasite drag four times.
VOVAL DRAG
Total drag for a helicopter is the sum of all three drag forces. [Figure 2-14] As airspeed
increases, parasite drag increases, while induced drag decreases. Profile drag remains relatively
constant throughout the speed range with some increase at higher airspeeds. Combining all drag
forces results in a total drag curve. The low point on the total drag curve shows the airspeed
at which drag is minimized. This is the point where the lift-to-drag ratio is greatest and is
referred to as L/Dmax. At this speed, the total lift capacity of the helicopter, when compared to
the total drag of the helicopter, is most favorable. This is important in helicopter performance.
L/Dmax²Vhe maximum ratio between total lift (L) and the total drag (D). Vhis point
provides the best glide speed. Any deviation from best glide speed increases drag and
reduces the distance you can glide.
3. Retreating blade stall.
To generate the same amount of lift across the rotor disc, the advancing blade flaps up while the
retreating blade flaps down. This causes the angle of attack to decrease on the advancing blade,
which reduces lift, and increase on the retreating blade, which increases lift. As the forward
speed increases, at some point the low blade speed on the retreating blade, together with its high
angle of attack, causes a loss of lift (stall).
Retreating blade stall is a major factor in limiting a helicopter¶s top forward speed (VNE) and
can be felt developing by a low frequency vibration, pitching up of the nose, and a roll in the
direction of the retreating blade. High weight, low rotor r.p.m., high density altitude, turbulence
and/or steep, abrupt turns are all conducive to retreating blade stall at high forward airspeeds. As
altitude is increased, higher blade angles are required to maintain lift at a given airspeed. Thus,
retreating blade stall is encountered at a lower forward airspeed at altitude. Most manufacturers
publish charts and graphs showing a VNE decrease with altitude.
When recovering from a retreating blade stall condition, moving the cyclic aft only worsens the
stall as aft cyclic produces a flare effect, thus increasing angles of attack. Pushing forward on the
cyclic also deepens the stall as the angle of attack on the retreating blade is increased. Correct
recovery from retreating blade stall requires the collective to be lowered first, which reduces
blade angles and thus angle of attack. Aft cyclic can then be used to slow the helicopter.
4. Torque effect.
An important consequence of producing thrust is torque. As stated before, for every action there
is an equal and opposite reaction. Therefore, as the engine turns the main rotor system in a
counterclockwise direction, the helicopter fuselage turns clockwise. The amount of torque is
directly related to the amount of engine power being used to turn the main rotor system.
Remember, as power changes, torque changes.
5. Dissymmetry of lift.
DcSSY÷÷EVRY OF LcFV
When the helicopter moves through the air, the relative airflow through the main rotor disc is
different on the advancing side than on the retreating side. The relative wind encountered by the
advancing blade is increased by the forward speed of the helicopter, while the relative wind
speed acting on the retreating blade is reduced by the helicopter¶s forward airspeed. Therefore, as
a result of the relative wind speed, the advancing blade side of the rotor disc produces more lift
than the retreating blade side. This situation is defined as dissymmetry of lift. [Figure 3-14]
If this condition was allowed to exist, a helicopter with a counterclockwise main rotor blade
rotation would roll to the left because of the difference in lift. In reality, the main rotor blades
flap and feather automatically to equalize lift across the rotor disc. Articulated rotor systems,
usually with three or more blades, incorporate a horizontal hinge (flapping hinge) to allow the
individual rotor blades to move, or flap up and down as they rotate. A semi rigid rotor system
(two blades) utilizes a teetering hinge, which allows the blades to flap as a unit. When one blade
flaps up, the other flaps down.
As shown in figure 3-15, as the rotor blade reaches the advancing side of the rotor disc (A), it
reaches its maximum up flap velocity. When the blade flaps upward, the angle between the chord
line and the resultant relative wind decreases. This decreases the angle of attack, which reduces
the amount of lift produced by the blade. At position (C) the rotor blade is now at its maximum
down flapping velocity. Due to down flapping, the angle between the chord line and the resultant
relative wind increases. This increases the angle of attack and thus the amount of lift produced
by the blade.
The combination of blade flapping and slow relative wind acting on the retreating blade normally
limits the maximum forward speed of a helicopter. At a high forward speed, the retreating blade
stalls because of a high angle of attack and slow relative wind speed. This situation is called
retreating blade stall and is evidenced by a nose pitch up, vibration, and a rolling tendency²
usually to the left in helicopters with counterclockwise blade rotation.
You can avoid retreating blade stall by not exceeding the never-exceed speed. This speed is
designated *NE and is usually indicated on a placard and marked on the airspeed indicator by a
red line. During aerodynamic flapping of the rotor blades as they compensate for dissymmetry of
lift, the advancing blade achieves maximum up flapping displacement over the nose and
maximum down flapping displacement over the tail. This causes the tip-path plane to tilt to the
rear and is referred to as blowback. Figure 3-16 shows how the rotor disc was originally oriented
with the front down following the initial cyclic input, but as airspeed is gained and flapping
eliminates dissymmetry of lift, the front of the disc comes up, and the back of the disc goes
down. This reorientation of the rotor disc changes the direction in which total rotor thrust acts so
that the helicopter¶s forward speed slows, but can be corrected with cyclic input.
CONcNG
In order for a helicopter to generate lift, the rotor blades must be turning. This creates a relative
wind that is opposite the direction of rotor system rotation. The rotation of the rotor system
creates centrifugal force (inertia), which tends to pull the blades straight outward from the main
rotor hub. The faster the rotation, the greater the centrifugal force. This force gives the rotor
blades their rigidity and, in turn, the strength to support the weight of the helicopter. The
centrifugal force generated determines the maximum operating rotor r.p.m. due to structural
limitations on the main rotor system.
As a vertical takeoff is made, two major forces are acting at the same time²centrifugal force
acting outward and perpendicular to the rotor mast, and lift acting upward and parallel to the
mast. The result of these two forces is that the blades assume a conical path instead of remaining
in the plane perpendicular to the mast. [Figure 3-4]
7. Coriolis effect.
CORcOLcS EFFECV
(LAW OF CONSER*AVcON OF ANGULAR ÷O÷ENVU÷)
Coriolis Effect, which is sometimes referred to as conservation of angular momentum, might be
compared to spinning skaters. When they extend their arms, their rotation slows down because
the center of mass moves farther from the axis of rotation. When their arms are retracted, the
rotation speeds up because the center of mass moves closer to the axis of rotation.
When a rotor blade flaps upward, the center of mass of that blade moves closer to the axis of
rotation and blade acceleration takes place in order to conserve angular momentum. Conversely,
when that blade flaps downward, its center of mass moves further from the axis of rotation and
blade deceleration takes place. [Figure 3-5] Keep in mind that due to coning, a rotor blade will
not flap below a plane passing through the rotor hub and perpendicular to the axis of rotation.
The acceleration and deceleration actions of the rotor blades are absorbed by either dampers or
the blade structure itself, depending upon the design of the rotor system.
Two-bladed rotor systems are normally subject to Coriolis Effect to a much lesser degree than
are articulated rotor systems since the blades are generally ³under slung´ with respect to the rotor
hub, and the change in the distance of the center of mass from the axis of rotation is small.
[Figure 3-6] The hunting action is absorbed by the blades through bending. If a two-bladed rotor
system is not ³under slung,´ it will be subject to Coriolis Effect comparable to that of a fully
articulated system.
8. Translating tendency.
The main transmission is mounted so that the rotor mast is rigged for the tip-path plane to have
a built in tilt opposite tail thrust, thus producing a small sideward thrust.
Flight control rigging is designed so that the rotor disc is tilted slightly opposite tail rotor thrust
when the cyclic is centered.
The cyclic pitch control system is designed so that the rotor disc tilts slightly opposite tail rotor
thrust when in a hover.
9. Translational lift.
VRANSLAVcONAL LcFV
Translational lift is present with any horizontal flow of air across the rotor. This increased flow is
most noticeable when the airspeed reaches approximately 16 to 24 knots. As the helicopter
accelerates through this speed, the rotor moves out of its vortices and is in relatively undisturbed
air. The airflow is also now more horizontal, which reduces induced flow and drag with a
corresponding increase in angle of attack and lift. The additional lift available at this speed is
referred to as effective translational lift´ (EVL). [Figure 3-12]
When a single-rotor helicopter flies through translational lift, the air flowing through the main
rotor and over the tail rotor becomes less turbulent and more aerodynamically efficient. As the
tail rotor efficiency improves, more thrust is produced causing the aircraft to yaw left in a
counterclockwise rotor system. It will be necessary to use right torque pedal to correct for this
tendency on takeoff. Also, if no corrections are made, the nose rises or pitches up, and rolls to
the right. This is caused by combined effects of dissymmetry of lift and transverse flow effect,
and is corrected with cyclic control.
Translational lift is also present in a stationary hover if the wind speed is approximately 16 to 24
knots. In normal operations, always utilize the benefit of translational lift, especially if maximum
performance is needed.
10. Transverse flow effect.
You can recognize transverse flow effect because of increased vibrations of the helicopter at
airspeeds just below effective translational lift on takeoff and after passing through effective
translational lift during landing. To counteract transverse flow effect, a cyclic input needs to be
made.
c
Since the fuselage of the helicopter, with a single main rotor, is suspended from a single point
and has considerable mass, it is free to oscillate either longitudinally or laterally in the same way
as a pendulum. This pendular action can be exaggerated by over controlling; therefore, control
movements should be smooth and not exaggerated. [Figure 3-3]
cc
REFERENCE: FAA-H-8083-21.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements related to flight controls of the helicopter used for the practical test by
describing:
Changing the pitch angle on the blades changes the angle of attack on each blade. With a change
in angle of attack comes a change in drag, which affects the speed or r.p.m. of the main rotor. As
the pitch angle increases, angle of attack increases, drag increases, and rotor r.p.m. decreases.
Decreasing pitch angle decreases both angle of attack and drag, while rotor r.p.m. increases. In
order to maintain a constant rotor r.p.m., which is essential in helicopter operations, a
proportionate change in power is required to compensate for the change in drag. This is
accomplished with the throttle control or a correlator and/or governor, which automatically
adjusts engine power.
3. Anti-torque control.
ANVcVORQUE PEDALS
The antitorque pedals, located on the cabin floor by the pilot¶s feet, control the pitch, and
therefore the thrust, of the tail rotor blades. [Figure 4-5]. The main purpose of the tail rotor is to
counteract the torque effect of the main rotor. Since torque varies with changes in power, the tail
rotor thrust must also be varied. The pedals are connected to the pitch change mechanism on the
tail rotor gearbox and allow the pitch angle on the tail rotor blades to be increased or decreased.
HEADcNG CONVROL
Besides counteracting torque of the main rotor, the tail rotor is also used to control the heading of
the helicopter while hovering or when making hovering turns. Hovering turns are commonly
referred to as ³pedal turns.´
In forward flight, the antitorque pedals are not used to control the heading of the helicopter,
except during portions of crosswind takeoffs and approaches. Instead they are used to
compensate for torque to put the helicopter in longitudinal trim so that coordinated flight can be
maintained. The cyclic control is used to change heading by making a turn to the desired
direction.
The thrust of the tail rotor depends on the pitch angle of the tail rotor blades. This pitch angle can
be positive, negative, or zero. A positive pitch angle tends to move the tail to the right. A
negative pitch angle moves the tail to the left, while no thrust is produced with a zero pitch angle.
With the right pedal moved forward of the neutral position, the tail rotor either has a negative
pitch angle or a small positive pitch angle. The farther it is forward, the larger the negative pitch
angle. The nearer it is to neutral, the more positive the pitch angle, and somewhere in between, it
has a zero pitch angle. As the left pedal is moved forward of the neutral position, the positive
pitch angle of the tail rotor increases until it becomes maximum with full forward displacement
of the left pedal.
If the tail rotor has a negative pitch angle, tail rotor thrust is working in the same direction as the
torque of the main rotor. With a small positive pitch angle, the tail rotor does not produce
sufficient thrust to overcome the torque effect of the main rotor during cruise flight. Therefore, if
the right pedal is displaced forward of neutral during cruising flight, the tail rotor thrust does not
overcome the torque effect, and the nose yaws to the right. [Figure 4-6]
With the antitorque pedals in the neutral position, the tail rotor has a medium positive pitch
angle. In medium positive pitch, the tail rotor thrust approximately equals the torque of the main
rotor during cruise flight, so the helicopter maintains a constant heading in level flight.
If the left pedal is in a forward position, the tail rotor has a high positive pitch position. In this
position, tail rotor thrust exceeds the thrust needed to overcome torque effect during cruising
flight so the helicopter yaws to the left.
The above explanation is based on cruise power and airspeed. Since the amount of torque is
dependent on the amount of engine power being supplied to the main rotor, the relative positions
of the pedals required to counteract torque depend upon the amount of power being used at any
time. In general, the less power being used, the greater the requirement for forward displacement
of the right pedal; the greater the power, the greater the forward displacement of the left pedal.
The maximum positive pitch angle of the tail rotor is generally somewhat greater than the
maximum negative pitch angle available. This is because the primary purpose of the tail rotor is
to counteract the torque of the main rotor. The capability for tail rotors to produce thrust to the
left (negative pitch angle) is necessary, because during autorotation the drag of the transmission
tends to yaw the nose to the left, or in the same direction the main rotor is turning.
V
VHROVVLE CONVROL
The function of the throttle is to regulate engine r.p.m. If the correlator or governor system does
not maintain the desired r.p.m. when the collective is raised or lowered, or if those systems are
not installed, the throttle has to be moved manually with the twist grip in order to maintain r.p.m.
Twisting the throttle outboard increases r.p.m.; twisting it inboard decreases r.p.m. [Figure 4-2]
CORRELAVOR / GO*ERNOR
A correlator is a mechanical connection between the collective lever and the engine throttle.
When the collective lever is raised, power is automatically increased and when lowered, power is
decreased. This system maintains r.p.m. close to the desired value, but still requires adjustment
of the throttle for fine tuning.
A governor is a sensing device that senses rotor and engine r.p.m. and makes the necessary
adjustments in order to keep rotor r.p.m. constant. In normal operations, once the rotor r.p.m. is
set, the governor keeps the r.p.m. constant, and there is no need to make any throttle adjustments.
Governors are common on all turbine helicopters and used on some piston powered helicopters.
Some helicopters do not have correlators or governors and require coordination of all collective
and throttle movements. When the collective is raised, the throttle must be increased; when the
collective is lowered, the throttle must be decreased. As with any aircraft control, large
adjustments of either collective pitch or throttle should be avoided. All corrections should be
made through the use of smooth pressure.
câc +
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-1, FAA-H-8083-21.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements related to weight and balance by describing:
1. Weight and balance terms.
Ballast. A weight installed or carried in an aircraft to move the center of gravity to a location
within its allowable limits.
Permanent Ballast (fixed ballast). A weight permanently installed in an aircraft to bring its
center of gravity into allowable limits. Permanent ballast is part of the aircraft empty weight.
Vemporary Ballast. Weights that can be carried in a cargo compartment of an aircraft to move
the location of CG for a specific flight condition. Temporary ballast must be removed when the
aircraft is weighed.
Basic Empty Weight. (GA÷A) Standard empty weight plus optional equipment.
Basic Operating cndex. The moment of the airplane at its basic operating weight divided by the
appropriate reduction factor.
Basic Operating Weight (BOW). The empty weight of the aircraft plus the weight of the
required crew, their baggage and other standard item such as meals and potable water.
Bilge Area. The lowest part of an aircraft structure in which water and contaminants collect.
Butt (or buttock) Line Zero. A line through the symmetrical center of an aircraft from nose to
tail. It serves as the datum for measuring the arms used to determine the lateral CG. Lateral
moments that cause the aircraft to rotate clockwise are positive (+), and those that cause it to
rotate counterclockwise are negative (-).
Calendar ÷onth. A time period used by the FAA for certification and currency purposes. A
calendar month extends from a given day until midnight of the last day of that month.
Civil Air Regulation (CAR). predecessor to the Federal Aviation Regulations.
CA÷s. The manuals containing the certification rules under the Civil Air Regulations.
Center of Gravity (CG). (GA÷A) The point at which an airplane would balance if suspended.
Its distance from the reference datum is determined by dividing the total moment by the total
weight of the airplane. It is the mass center of the aircraft, or the theoretical point at which the
entire weight of the aircraft is assumed to be concentrated. It may be expressed in percent of
MAC (mean aerodynamic cord) or in inches from the reference datum.
Center of Lift. The location along the chord line of an airfoil at which all the lift forces
produced by the airfoil are considered to be concentrated.
Centroid. The distance in inches aft of the datum of the center of a compartment or a fuel tank
for weight and balance purposes.
CG Arm. (GA÷A) The arm obtained by adding the airplane¶s individual moments and dividing
the sum by the total weight.
CG Limits. (GA÷A) The extreme center of gravity locations within which the aircraft must be
operated at a given weight. These limits are indicated on pertinent FAA aircraft type certificate
data sheets, specifications, or weight and balance records.
CG Limits Envelope. An enclosed area on a graph of the airplane loaded weight and the CG
location. If lines drawn from the weight and CG cross within this envelope, the airplane is
properly loaded.
CG ÷oment Envelope. An enclosed area on a graph of the airplane loaded weight and loaded
moment. If lines drawn from the weight and loaded moment cross within this envelope, the
airplane is properly loaded.
Chord. A straight-line distance across a wing from leading edge to trailing edge.
Curtailment. An operator created and FAA-approved operational loading envelope that is more
restrictive than the manufacturer¶s CG envelope. It ensures that the aircraft will be operated
within limits during all phases of flight. Curtailment typically accounts for, but is not limited
to, in-flight movement of passengers and crew, service equipment, cargo variation, seating
variation, etc.
Delta Ñ. This symbol, Ñ, means a change in something. ÑCG means a change in the center of
gravity location.
Dynamic Load. The actual weight of the aircraft multiplied by the load factor, or the increase in
weight caused by acceleration.
Empty Weight. The weight of the airframe, engines, all permanently installed equipment, and
unusable fuel. Depending upon the part of the federal regulations under which the aircraft was
certificated, either the undrainable oil or full reservoir of oil is included.
Glossary±
Empty-weight Center of Gravity (EWCG). This is the center of gravity of the aircraft in the
empty condition, containing only the items specified in the aircraft empty weight. This CG is an
essential part of the weight and balance record of the aircraft.
Empty-weight Center of Gravity Range. The distance between the allowable forward and aft
empty-weight CG limits.
Equipment List. A list of items approved by the FAA for installation in a particular aircraft. The
list includes the name, part number, weight, and arm of the component. Installation or removal of
an item in the equipment list is considered to be a minor alteration.
Fleet Weight. An average weight accepted by the FAA for aircraft of identical make and model
that have the same equipment installed. When a fleet weight control program is in effect, the
fleet weight of the aircraft can be used rather than every individual aircraft having to be weighed.
Fuel Jettison System. A fuel subsystem that allows the flight crew to dump fuel in an
emergency to lower the weight of an aircraft to the maximum landing weight if a return to
landing is required before sufficient fuel is burned off. This system must allow enough fuel to be
jettisoned that the aircraft can still meet the climb requirements specified in 14 CFR part 25.
Fulcrum. The point about which a lever balances.
cndex Point. A location specified by the aircraft manufacturer from which arms used in weight
and balance computations are measured. Arms measured from the index point are called index
arms.
cnterpolate. To determine a value in a series between two known values.
Landing Weight. The takeoff weight of an aircraft less the fuel burned and/or dumped en route.
Large Aircraft (14 CFR part 1). An aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds, maximum
certificated takeoff weight.
Lateral Balance. Balance around the roll, or longitudinal, axis.
Lateral Offset ÷oment. The moment, in lb-in, of a force that tends to rotate a helicopter about
its longitudinal axis. The lateral offset moment is the product of the weight of the object and its
distance from butt line zero. Lateral offset moments that tend to rotate the aircraft clockwise are
positive, and those that tend to rotate it counterclockwise are negative.
LE÷AC. Leading Edge of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord.
Load Cell. A component in an electronic weighing system that is placed between the jack and
the jack pad on the aircraft. The load cell contains strain gauges whose resistance changes with
the weight on the cell.
Load Factor. The ration of the maximum load an aircraft can sustain to the total weight of the
aircraft. Normal category aircraft must have a load factor of a least 3.8, Utility category aircraft
4.4, and acrobatic category aircraft, 6.0.
Loading Graph. A graph of load weight and load
moment indexes. Diagonal lines for each item relate
the weight to the moment index without having to use
mathematics.
Loading Schedule. A method for calculating and documenting aircraft weight and balance prior
to taxiing, to ensure the aircraft will remain within all required weight and balance limitations
throughout the flight
Longitudinal Axis. An imaginary line through an aircraft from nose to tail, passing through its
center of gravity.
Longitudinal Balance. Balance around the pitch, or lateral, axis.
÷AC. Mean Aerodynamic Chord.
÷ajor Alteration. An alteration not listed in the aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller
specifications, (1) that might appreciably affect weight, balance, structural strength,
performance, powerplant operation, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting
airworthiness; or (2) that is not done according to accepted practices or cannot be done by
elementary operations.
÷aximum Landing Weight. (GA÷A) Maximum weight approved for the landing touchdown.
÷aximum Permissible Hoist Load. The maximum external load that is permitted for a
helicopter to carry. This load is specified in the POH.
÷aximum Ramp Weight. (GA÷A) Maximum weight approved for ground maneuver. It
includes weight of start, taxi, and run-up fuel.
÷aximum Vakeoff Weight. (GA÷A) Maximum weight approved for the start of the takeoff
run.
÷aximum Vaxi Weight. Maximum weight approved for ground maneuvers. This is the same as
maximum ramp weight.
÷aximum Weight. The maximum authorized weight of the aircraft and all of its equipment as
specified in the Type Certificate Data Sheets (TCDS) for the aircraft.
÷aximum Zero Fuel Weight. The maximum authorized weight of an aircraft without fuel. This
is the total weight for a particular flight less the fuel. It includes the aircraft and everything that
will be carried on the flight except the weight of the fuel.
Glossary±
÷EVO Horsepower (maximum except takeoff). The maximum power allowed to be
continuously produced by an engine. Takeoff power is usually limited to a given amount of time,
such as 1 minute or 5 minutes.
÷inimum Fuel. The amount of fuel necessary for one-half hour of operation at the rated
maximum-continuous power setting of the engine, which, for weight and balance purposes, is
1/12 gallon per maximum-except-takeoff (METO) horse-power. It is the maximum amount of
fuel that could be used in weight and balance computations when low fuel might adversely affect
the most critical balance conditions. To determine the weight of the minimum fuel in pounds,
divide the METO horsepower by two.
÷inor Alteration. An alteration other than a major alteration. This includes alterations that are
listed in the aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller specifications.
÷oment. A force that causes or tries to cause an object to rotate. It is indicated by the product of
the weight of an item multiplied by its arm.
÷oment. (GA÷A) The product of the weight of an item multiplied by its arm. (Moment divided
by a constant is used to simplify balance calculations by reducing the number of digits; see
reduction factor.)
÷oment cndex. The moment (weight times arm) divided by a reduction factor such as 100 or
1,000 to make the number smaller and reduce the chance of mathematical errors in computing
the center of gravity.
÷oment Limits vs. Weight Envelope. An enclosed area on a graph of three parameters. The
diagonal line representing the moment/100 crosses the horizontal line representing the weight at
the vertical line representing the CG location in inches aft of the datum. When the lines cross
inside the envelope, the aircraft is loaded within its weight and CG limits.
Net Weight. The weight of the aircraft less the weight of any chocks or other devices used to
hold the aircraft on the scales.
Normal Category. A category of aircraft certificated under 14 CFR part 23 and CAR part 3 that
allows the maximum weight and CG range while restricting the maneuvers that are permitted.
PAX. Passengers.
Payload. (GA÷A) Weight of occupants, cargo, and baggage.
Pilot s Operating Handbook (POH). An FAA-approved document published by the airframe
manufacturer that lists the operating conditions for a particular model of aircraft and its
engine(s).
Potable Water. Water carried in an aircraft for the purpose of drinking.
Ramp Weight. The zero fuel weight plus all of the usable fuel on board.
Reference Datum. (GA÷A) An imaginary vertical plane from which all horizontal distances
are measured for balance purpose.
Reduction Factor. A number, usually 100 or 1,000 by which a moment is divided to produce a
smaller number that is less likely to cause mathematical errors when computing the center of
gravity.
Residual Fuel. Fuel that remains trapped in the system after draining the fuel from the aircraft
with the aircraft in level flight attitude. The weight of this residual fuel is counted as part of the
empty weight of the aircraft.
Service Ceiling. The highest altitude at which an aircraft can still maintain a steady rate of climb
of 100 feet per minute.
Small Aircraft (14 CFR part 1). An aircraft weighing 2,500 pounds or less, maximum
certificated takeoff weight.
Standard Empty Weight. (GA÷A) Weight of a standard airplane including unusable fuel, full
operating fluids, and full oil.
Static Load. The load imposed on an aircraft structure due to the weight of the aircraft and its
contents.
Station. (GA÷A) A location along the airplane fuselage usually given in terms of distance from
the reference datum.
Strain Sensor. A device that converts a physical phenomenon into an electrical signal. Strain
sensors in a wheel axle sense the amount the axle deflects and create an electrical signal that is
proportional to the force that caused the deflection.
Structural Station. This is a location in the aircraft, such as a bulkhead, which is identified by a
number designating its distance in inches or percent MAC from the datum. The datum is,
therefore, identified as station zero. The stations and arms are identical. An item located at
station +50 would have an arm of 50 inches.
Vakeoff Weight. The weight of an aircraft just before beginning the takeoff roll. It is the ramp
weight less the weight of the fuel burned during start and taxi.
Vare Weight. The weight of any chocks or devices that are used to hold an aircraft on the scales
when it is weighed. The tare weight must be subtracted from the scale reading to get the net
weight of the aircraft.
VE÷AC. Trailing Edge of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord.
Vype Certificate Data Sheets (VCDS). The official specifications issued by the FAA for an
aircraft, engine, or propeller.
Undrainable Oil. Oil that does not drain from an engine lubricating system when the aircraft is
in the normal ground attitude and the drain valve is left open. The weight of the undrainable oil
is part of the empty weight of the aircraft.
Unusable Fuel. (GA÷A) Fuel remaining after a run out test has been completed in accordance
with governmental regulations.
Usable Fuel. (GA÷A) Fuel available for flight planning.
Useful Load. (GA÷A) Difference between takeoff weight, or ramp weight if applicable, and
basic empty weight.
Utility Category. A category of aircraft certificated under 14 CFR part 23 and CAR part 3 that
permits limited acrobatic maneuvers but restricts the weight and the CG range.
Wing Chord. A straight-line distance across a wing from leading edge to trailing edge.
Zero Fuel Weight. The weight of an aircraft without fuel.
.
2. Effect of weight and balance on performance.
Most modern aircraft are so designed that if all seats are occupied, all baggage allowed by the
baggage compartment is carried, and all of the fuel tanks are full, the aircraft will be grossly
overloaded. This type of design requires the pilot to give great consideration to the requirements
of the trip. If maximum range is required, occupants or baggage must be left behind, or if the
maximum load must be carried, the range, dictated by the amount of fuel on board, must be
reduced. Some of the problems caused by overloading an aircraft are:
The aircraft will need a higher takeoff speed, which results in a longer takeoff run.
Both the rate and angle of climb will be reduced.
The service ceiling will be lowered.
The cruising speed will be reduced.
The cruising range will be shortened.
Maneuverability will be decreased.
A longer landing roll will be required because the landing speed will be higher.
Excessive loads will be imposed on the structure, especially the landing gear.
The POH or AFM includes tables or charts that give the pilot an indication of the performance
expected for any weight. An important part of careful preflight planning includes a check of
these charts to determine the aircraft is loaded so the proposed flight can be safely made.
3. Determination of total weight, center of gravity (longitudinal and lateral), and changes
that occur when adding, removing, or shifting weight.
The maximum allowable weight for an aircraft is determined by design considerations. However,
the maximum operational weight may be less than the maximum allowable weight due to such
considerations as high-density altitude or high-drag field conditions caused by wet grass or water
on the runway. The maximum operational weight may also be limited by the departure or arrival
airport¶s runway length. One important preflight consideration is the distribution of the load in
the aircraft. Loading the aircraft so the gross weight is less than the maximum allowable is not
enough. This weight must be distributed to keep the CG within the limits specified in the POH or
AFM.
Weight and balance of a helicopter is far more critical than for an airplane. With some
helicopters, they may be properly loaded for takeoff, but near the end of a long flight when the
fuel tanks are almost empty, the CG may have shifted enough for the helicopter to be out of
balance laterally or longitudinally. Before making any long flight, the CG with the fuel available
for landing must be checked to ensure it will be within the allowable range. Some of the smaller
helicopters also require solo flight be made from a specific seat, either the right, left, or center.
These seating limitations will be noted by a placard, usually on the instrument panel, and they
should be strictly adhered to. As an aircraft ages, its weight usually increases due to trash and
dirt collecting in hard-to-reach locations, and moisture absorbed in the cabin insulation. This
growth in weight is normally small, but it can only be determined by accurately weighing the
aircraft.
Rotorcraft Flying Handbook Chapter 7.
Weight and Balance Handbook.
,cc c c
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-25.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements related to navigation and flight planning by describing:
1. Terms used in navigation.
Sectional Charts
Sectional charts are the most common charts used by pilots today. The charts have a scale of
1:500,000 (1 inch = 6.86 nautical miles (NM) or approximately 8 statute miles (SM)) which
allows for more detailed information to be included on the chart.
The charts provide an abundance of information, including airport data, navigational aids,
airspace, and topography. By referring to the chart legend, a pilot can interpret most of the
information on the chart. A pilot should also check the chart for other legend information, which
includes air traffic control (ATC) frequencies and information on airspace. These charts are
revised semiannually except for some areas outside the conterminous United States where they
are revised annually.
Controlled Airspace
Controlled airspace is a generic term that covers the different classifications of airspace and
defined dimensions within which air traffic control (ATC) service is provided in accordance with
the airspace classification. Controlled airspace consists of:
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E
Class A Airspace
Class A airspace is generally the airspace from 18,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) up to and
including flight level (FL) 600, including the airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical
miles (NM) of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska. Unless otherwise authorized, all
operation in Class A airspace is conducted under instrument flight rules (IFR).
Class B Airspace
Class B airspace is generally airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the
nation¶s busiest airports in terms of airport operations or passenger enplanements. The
configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored, consists of a surface area and
two or more layers (some Class B airspace areas resemble upside-down wedding cakes), and is
designed to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace. An
ATC clearance is required for all aircraft to operate in the area, and all aircraft that are so cleared
receive separation services within the airspace.
Class C Airspace
Class C airspace is generally airspace from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation
(charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced
by a radar approach control, and have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger
enplanements. Although the configuration of each Class C area is individually tailored, the
airspace usually consists of a surface area with a five NM radius, an outer circle with a ten NM
radius that extends from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation, and an outer area.
Each aircraft must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility providing air
traffic services prior to entering the airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while
within the airspace.
Class D Airspace
Class D airspace is generally airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation
(charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower. The
configuration of each Class D airspace area is individually tailored and when instrument
procedures are published, the airspace is normally designed to contain the procedures. Arrival
extensions for instrument approach procedures (IAPs) may be Class D or Class E airspace.
Unless otherwise authorized, each aircraft must establish two-way radio communications with
the ATC facility providing air traffic services prior to entering the airspace and thereafter
maintain those communications while in the airspace.
Class E Airspace
If the airspace is not Class A, B, C, or D, and is controlled airspace, then it is Class E airspace.
Class E airspace extends upward from either the surface or a designated altitude to the overlying
or adjacent controlled airspace. When designated as a surface area, the airspace is configured to
contain all instrument procedures. Also in this class are federal airways, airspace beginning at
either 700 or 1,200 feet above ground level (AGL) used to transition to and from the terminal or
en route environment, and en route domestic and offshore airspace areas designated below
18,000 feet MSL. Unless designated at a lower altitude, Class E airspace begins at 14,500 MSL
over the United States, including that airspace overlying the waters within 12 NM of the coast of
the 48 contiguous states and Alaska, up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL, and the airspace
above FL 600.
Uncontrolled Airspace
Class G Airspace
Uncontrolled airspace or Class G airspace is the portion of the airspace that has not been
designated as Class A, B, C, D, or E. It is therefore designated uncontrolled airspace. Class G
airspace extends from the surface to the base of the overlying Class E airspace. Although ATC
has no authority or responsibility to control air traffic, pilots should remember there are visual
flight rules (VFR) minimums which apply to Class G airspace.
Restricted Areas
Restricted areas are areas where operations are hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft and contain
airspace within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions.
Activities within these areas must be confined because of their nature, or limitations may be
imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities, or both. Restricted areas
denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft (e.g., artillery firing, aerial
gunnery, or guided missiles). IFR flights may be authorized to transit the airspace and are routed
accordingly. Penetration of restricted areas without authorization from the using or controlling
agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants. ATC facilities apply the
following procedures when aircraft are operating on an IFR clearance (including those cleared by
ATC to maintain VFR on top) via a route which lies within joint-use restricted airspace:
1. If the restricted area is not active and has been released to the Federal Aviation Administration
(FAA), the ATC facility allows the aircraft to operate in the restricted airspace without issuing
specific clearance for it to do so.
2. If the restricted area is active and has not been released to the FAA, the ATC facility issues a
clearance which ensures the aircraft avoids the restricted airspace. Restricted areas are charted
with an ³R´ followed by a number (e.g., R-4401) and are depicted on the en route chart
appropriate for use at the altitude or FL being flown. Õ Restricted area information
can be obtained on the back of the chart.
Warning Areas
Warning areas are similar in nature to restricted areas; however, the United States government
does not have sole jurisdiction over the airspace. A warning area is airspace of defined
dimensions, extending from 12 NM outward from the coast of the United States, containing
activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The purpose of such areas is to warn
nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger. A warning area may be located over domestic or
international waters or both. The airspace is designated with a ³W´ followed by a number (e.g.,
W-237). Õ
5. Method of plotting a course, selection of fuel stops and alternates, and appropriate
actions in the event of unforeseen situations.
Landmarks, weather, weight and balance, available fuel, planned alternates and preparations for
forced landing or diversion.
Dead Reckoning: Three properly-performed actions are necessary for dead reckoning navigation
to get you to your destination, at the estimated time of arrival:
1. The pilot must properly calculate the course and fuel consumption.
2. The pilot must accurately fly the aircraft
3. The weather service must correctly predict the winds-aloft.
Pilotage: The identification of present position and direction of flight by seeing features on the
ground.
VOR ground stations transmit within a VHF frequency band of 108.0±117.95 MHz. Because the
equipment is VHF, the signals transmitted are subject to line-of-sight restrictions. Therefore, its
range varies in direct proportion to the altitude of receiving equipment. Generally, the reception
range of the signals at an altitude of 1,000 feet above ground level (AGL) is about 40 to 45
miles. This distance increases with altitude.
*OR/*ORVAC NA*AcDS
Normal Usable Altitudes and Radius Distances
The aircraft equipment includes a receiver with a tuning device and a VOR or omninavigation
instrument. The navigation instrument could be a course deviation indicator (CDI), horizontal
situation indicator (HSI), or a radio magnetic indicator (RMI). Each of these instruments
indicates the course to the tuned VOR.
Keep in mind that VOR signals are ³line-of-sight.´ A weak signal or no signal at all is received
if the aircraft is too low or too far from the station.
When navigating to a station, determine the inbound radial and use this radial. Fly a heading
that will maintain the course. If the aircraft drifts, fly a heading to re-intercept the course then
apply a correction to compensate for wind drift.
If minor needle fluctuations occur, avoid changing headings immediately. Wait momentarily to
see if the needle recenters; if it does not, then correct.
When flying ³TO´ a station, always fly the selected course with a ³TO´ indication. When
flying ³FROM´ a station, always fly the selected course with a ³FROM´ indication. If this is not
done, the action of the course deviation needle is reversed. To further explain this reverse action,
if the aircraft is flown toward a station with a ³FROM´ indication or away from a station with a
³TO´ indication, the course deviation needle indicates in an direction opposite to that which it
should indicate. For example, if the aircraft drifts to the right of a radial being flown, the needle
moves to the right or points away from the radial. If the aircraft drifts to the left of the radial
being flown, the needle moves left or in the direction opposite to the radial.
When navigating using the VOR it is important to fly headings that maintain or re-intercept the
course. Just turning toward the needle will cause overshooting the radial and flying an S turn to
the left and right of course.
8. Diversion to an alternate.
After selecting the most appropriate alternate, approximate the magnetic course to the alternate
using a compass rose or airway on the sectional chart. If time permits, try to start the diversion
over a prominent ground feature. However, in an emergency, divert promptly toward your
alternate. Attempting to complete all plotting, measuring, and computations involved before
diverting to the alternate may only aggravate an actual emergency.
Once established on course, note the time, and then use the winds aloft nearest to your diversion
point to calculate a heading and GS. Once a GS has been calculated, determine a new arrival
time and fuel consumption. Give priority to flying the aircraft while dividing attention between
navigation and planning. When determining an altitude to use while diverting, consider cloud
heights, winds, terrain, and radio reception.
9. Lost procedures.
Lost aircraft procedures
Don't panic, perform the five C's
Without a good flog log record of Ground speed, wind correction angles and last known position,
accurate dead reckoning is impossible.
12. Importance of a weather check and the use of good judgment in making a ³go/no-
go´ decision.
Weather Check
It is wise to check the weather before continuing with other aspects of flight planning to see, first
of all, if the flight is feasible and, if it is, which route is best.
13. Purpose of, and procedure used in, filing a flight plan.
When a VFR flight plan is filed, it is held by the AFSS until 1 hour after the proposed departure
time and then canceled unless: the actual departure time is received; a revised proposed departure
time is received; or at the time of filing, the AFSS is informed that the proposed departure time is
met, but actual time cannot be given because of inadequate communication. The FSS specialist
who accepts the flight plan does not inform the pilot of this procedure, however. When filing a
flight plan by telephone or radio, give the information in the order of the numbered spaces. This
enables the AFSS specialist to copy the information more efficiently. Most of the fields are either
self-explanatory or non-applicable to the VFR flight plan (such as item 13). However, some
fields may need explanation.
Item 3 is the aircraft type and special equipment. An example would be R-22/U means the
aircraft has a transponder. A listing of special equipment codes is found in the Aeronautical
Information Manual (AIM).
Item 6 is the proposed departure time in UTC (indicated by the ³Z´).
Item 7 is the cruising altitude. Normally, ³VFR´ can be entered in this block, since the pilot
chooses a cruising altitude to conform to FAA regulations.
Item 8 is the route of flight. If the flight is to be direct, enter the word ³direct;´ if not, enter the
actual route to be followed such as via certain towns or navigation aids.
Item 10 is the estimated time en route. 5 minutes can be added to the total time to allow for the
climb.
Item 12 is the fuel on board in hours and minutes. This is determined by dividing the total
usable fuel aboard in gallons by the estimated rate of fuel consumption in gallons.
Remember, there is every advantage in filing a flight plan; but do not forget to close the flight
plan on arrival. Do this by telephone to avoid radio congestion.
14. Global positioning system (GPS).
cc
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-21, FAA-H-8083-25; AIM; FAA-S-8081-15.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements related to night operations by describing:
5. Use of position and anti-collision lights prior to, during, and after engine start.
ENGcNE SVARVcNG AND ROVOR ENGAGE÷ENV
Use extra caution when starting the engine and engaging the rotors, especially in dark areas with
little or no outside lights. In addition to the usual call of ³clear,´ turn on the position and anti-
collision lights. If conditions permit, you might also want to turn the landing light on
momentarily to help warn others that you are about to start the engine and engage the rotors.
8. In-flight orientation.
In order to provide a higher margin of safety, it is recommended that you select a cruising
altitude somewhat higher than normal. There are several reasons for this. First, a higher altitude
gives you more clearance between obstacles, especially those that are difficult to see at night,
such as high tension wires and unlighted towers. Secondly, in the event of an engine failure, you
have more time to set up for a landing and the gliding distance is greater giving you more options
in making a safe landing. Thirdly, radio reception is improved, particularly if you are using radio
aids for navigation.
During your preflight planning, it is recommended that you select a route of flight that keeps you
within reach of an airport, or any safe landing site, as much of the time as possible. It is also
recommended that you fly as close as possible to a populated or lighted area such as a highway
or town. Not only does this offer more options in the event of an emergency, but also makes
navigation a lot easier. A course comprised of a series of slight zigzags to stay close to suitable
landing sites and well lighted areas, only adds a little more time and distance to an otherwise
straight course.
10. Recovery from critical flight attitudes by visual references and flight instruments.
Trust the instruments.
There are three standard types of Flight Information Publications (Planning, Enroute and
Terminal) that cover eight geographic areas throughout the world. These items are produced in
increments varying from 28 to 365 days. Sufficient quantities of each product type are produced
and printed to adequately supply all active subscription accounts and limited depot shelf stock.
<
câc 4c
REFERENCES: 14 CFR parts 1, 27, 29, 39, 43, and 91; FAA-H-8083-21.
To determine that the applicant exhibits knowledge of the elements related
to airworthiness requirements by:
1. Explaining²
There are two primary methods of deferring maintenance on small rotorcraft operated under part
91. They are the deferral provision of 14 CFR part 91, section 91.213(d) and an FAA-approved
MEL.
Using the deferral provision of section 91.213(d), the pilot determines whether the inoperative
equipment is required by type design, the CFRs, or ADs. If the inoperative item is not required,
and the aircraft can be safely operated without it, the deferral may be made. The inoperative item
shall be deactivated or removed and an INOPERATIVE placard placed near the appropriate
switch, control, or indicator. If deactivation or removal involves maintenance (removal always
will), it must be accomplished by certificated maintenance personnel.
The FAA considers an approved MEL to be a supplemental type certificate (STC) issued to an
aircraft by serial number and registration number. It therefore becomes the authority to operate
that aircraft in a condition other than originally type certificated.
The special flight permit is issued to allow the aircraft to be flown to a base where repairs,
alterations, or maintenance can be performed; for delivering or exporting the aircraft; or for
evacuating an aircraft from an area of impending danger. A special flight permit may be issued
to allow the operation of an overweight aircraft for flight beyond its normal range over water or
land areas where adequate landing facilities or fuel is not available.
If a special flight permit is needed, assistance and the necessary forms may be obtained from the
local FSDO or Designated Airworthiness Representative (DAR).
a. airworthiness directives.
AcRWORVHcNESS DcRECVc*ES
A primary safety function of the FAA is to require correction of unsafe conditions found in an
aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance when such conditions exist and are likely to exist
or develop in other products of the same design. The unsafe condition may exist because of a
design defect, maintenance, or other causes. 14 CFR part 39, Airworthiness Directives (ADs),
defines the authority and responsibility of the Administrator for requiring the necessary
corrective action. ADs are the means used to notify aircraft owners and other interested persons
of unsafe conditions and to specify the conditions under which the product may continue to be
operated.
1. those of an emergency nature requiring immediate compliance prior to further flight, and
2. those of a less urgent nature requiring compliance within a specified period of time.
Airworthiness Directives are regulatory and shall be complied with unless a specific exemption
is granted. It is the aircraft owner or operator¶s responsibility to ensure compliance with all
pertinent ADs. This includes those ADs that require recurrent or continuing action. For example,
an AD may require a repetitive inspection each 50 hours of operation, meaning the particular
inspection shall be accomplished and recorded every 50 hours of time in service.
Owners/operators are reminded there is no provision to overfly the maximum hour requirement
of an AD unless it is specifically written into the AD. To help determine if an AD applies to an
amateur-built aircraft, contact the local FSDO.
All Airworthiness Directives and the AD Biweekly are free on the Internet at
www.airweb.faa.gov/rgl
b. compliance records.
14 CFR part 91, section 91.417 requires a record to be maintained that shows the current status
of applicable ADs, including the method of compliance; the AD number and revision date, if
recurring; the time and date when due again; the signature; kind of certificate; and certificate
number of the repair station or mechanic who performed the work. For ready reference, many
aircraft owners have a chronological listing of the pertinent ADs in the back of their aircraft,
engine, and propeller maintenance records.
c. maintenance/inspection requirements.
AcRCRAFV ÷AcNVENANCE
AcRCRAFV cNSPECVcONS
14 CFR part 91 places primary responsibility on the owner or operator for maintaining an aircraft
in an airworthy condition. Certain inspections must be performed on the aircraft, and the owner
must maintain the airworthiness of the aircraft during the time between required inspections by
having any defects corrected.
All inspections should follow the current manufacturer¶s maintenance manual, including the
Instructions for Continued Airworthiness concerning inspections intervals, parts replacement,
and life-limited items as applicable to the aircraft.
ANNUAL cNSPECVcON
All aircraft under 12,500 pounds (except turbojet/turbo- propeller powered multiengine airplanes
and turbine powered rotorcraft), used to carry passengers for hire, must have received a 100-hour
inspection within the preceding 100 hours of time in service and have been approved for return
to service. Additionally, an aircraft used for flight instruction for hire, when provided by the
person giving the flight instruction, must also have received a 100-hour inspection. This
inspection must be performed by an FAA certificated A&P mechanic, an appropriately rated
FAA certificated repair station, or by the aircraft manufacturer. An annual inspection or an
inspection for the issuance of an Airworthiness Certificate may be substituted for a required 100-
hour inspection. The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours while en
route to reach a place where the inspection can be done. The excess time used to reach a place
where the inspection can be done must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in
service.
The annual and 100-hour inspection requirements do not apply to large (over 12,500 pounds)
airplanes, turbojets, or turbo-propeller powered multiengine airplanes or to aircraft for which the
owner complies with a progressive inspection program. Details of these requirements may be
determined by reference to 14 CFR part 43, section 43.11 and part 91, subpart E, and by
inquiring at a local FSDO.
14 CFR part 91, section 91.411 requires that the altimeter, encoding altimeter, and related system
be tested and inspected in the preceding 24 months before operated in controlled airspace under
instrument flight rules (IFR).
VRANSPONDER cNSPECVcON
14 CFR part 91, section 91.413 requires that before a transponder can be used under 14 CFR part
91, section 91.215(a), it shall be tested and inspected within the preceding 24 months.
PREFLcGHV cNSPECVcONS
The preflight inspection is a thorough and systematic means by which a pilot determines if the
aircraft is air- worthy and in condition for safe operation. POHs and owner/information manuals
contain a section devoted to a systematic method of performing a preflight inspection.
a) The TTIS (hours, calendar time and cycles, as appropriate) of the helicopter and all life limited
components;
b) The current status of compliance with all mandatory continuing airworthiness information;
c) Appropriate details of modifications and repairs to the helicopter and its major components;
the time in service (hours, calendar time and cycles, as appropriate) since last overhaul of the
helicopter or its components subject to a mandatory overhaul life;
e) The current aircraft inspection status such that compliance with the maintenance manual can
be established; and
f) The detailed maintenance records to show that all requirements in the maintenance manual for
issuance of a maintenance release have been met.
ã The records in (a) to (e) shall be kept for a period of 90 days after the end of the
operating life of the unit to which they refer, and the records in (f) for a period of one
year after the issuance of the maintenance release.
ã The records shall be transferred to the new operator in the event of any change of
operator.
c c;
REFERENCES: 14 CFR part 91; FAA-S-8081-12, FAA-S-8081-14; AIM.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements of the national airspace system by describing:
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section and Sec. 91.157, no person may operate an
aircraft under VFR when the flight visibility is less, or at a distance from clouds that is less, than
that prescribed for the corresponding altitude and class of airspace in the following table:
(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, the
following operations may be conducted in Class G airspace below 1,200 feet above the surface:
(1) !" A helicopter may be operated clear of clouds if operated at a speed that allows the
pilot adequate opportunity to see any air traffic or obstruction in time to avoid a collision.
a. Class A.
Class A Airspace
Class A airspace is generally the airspace from 18,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) up to and
including flight level (FL) 600, including the airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical
miles (NM) of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska. Unless otherwise authorized by
ATC, all flight operations in Class A airspace must be under ATC control, and must be operating
IFR, under a clearance received prior to entry. Since Class A airspace is normally restricted to
instrument flight only, there are no minimum visibility requirements.
b. Class B.
Class B Airspace
Class B airspace is generally airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the
nation¶s busiest airports in terms of airport operations or passenger enplanements. The
configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored, consists of a surface area and
two or more layers (some Class B airspace areas resemble upside-down wedding cakes), and is
designed to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace. An
ATC clearance is required for all aircraft to operate in the area, and all aircraft that are so cleared
receive separation services within the airspace.
Aircraft must be equipped with a two-way radio for communications with ATC and an operating
Mode C transponder, furthermore aircraft overflying the upper limit of any Class B airspace
must have an operating Mode C transponder. Visual Flight Rules (VFR) flights may proceed
under their own navigation after obtaining clearance but must obey any explicit instructions
given by ATC. Some Class B airspaces include special "" for VFR flight that
require communication with ATC but may not require an explicit clearance. Other Class B
airspaces include # $"" through which VFR flights may pass without clearance (and
without technically entering the Class B airspace). In addition to this, some Class B airspaces
prohibit Special VFR flights. Certain Class B airports have a Mode C veil, which is airspace
within thirty nautical miles of the airport in which all aircraft must have an operating Mode C
transponder (up to 10,000 feet (3,000 m) MSL).
VFR flights operating in Class B airspace must have three miles (5 km) of visibility and must
remain clear of clouds (no minimum distance).
Class B airspace has the most stringent rules of all the airspaces in the United States. Class B has
strict rules on pilot and student certification. Pilots operating in Class B airspace must have a
private pilot's certificate, or have met the requirement of CFR 61.95. These are often interpreted
to mean "have an instructor's endorsement for having been properly trained in that specific Class
B space." However, it does not apply to student pilots seeking sport or recreational certificates.
Some Class B airports (within Class B airspaces) prohibit student pilots from taking off and
landing there and are listed in the AIM section 3-2-3(b)2.
c. Class C.
Class C Airspace
Class C airspace is generally airspace from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation
(charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced
by a radar approach control, and have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger
enplanements. Although the configuration of each Class C area is individually tailored, the
airspace usually consists of a surface area with a five NM radius, an outer circle with a ten NM
radius that extends from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation, and an outer area.
All aircraft entering Class C airspace must establish radio communication with ATC prior to
entry, generally about 20 miles out. The aircraft must be equipped with a two-way radio and an
operating Mode C (altitude reporting) radar transponder, furthermore aircraft overflying above
the upper limit of Class C airspace must have an operating Mode C transponder. VFR flights in
Class C airspace must have three miles of visibility, and fly an altitude at least 500 feet below,
1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet laterally from clouds.
There is no specific pilot certification required. Aircraft speeds must be below 200 knots at or
below 2,500 feet above the ground, and within 4 nautical miles of the Class C airport.
d. Class D.
Class D Airspace
Class D airspace is generally airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation
(charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower. The
configuration of each Class D airspace area is individually tailored and when instrument
procedures are published, the airspace is normally designed to contain the procedures. Arrival
extensions for instrument approach procedures (IAPs) may be Class D or Class E airspace. Class
D airspace reverts to Class E during hours when the tower is closed, or under other special
conditions.
Two-way communication with ATC must be established before entering Class D airspace,
generally at 5 to 10 miles out, but no transponder is required. VFR cloud clearance and visibility
requirements must have three miles of visibility, and fly an altitude at least 500 feet below,
1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet laterally from clouds.
e. Class E.
Class E Airspace
If the airspace is not Class A, B, C, or D, and is controlled airspace, then it is Class E airspace.
Class E airspace extends upward from either the surface or a designated altitude to the overlying
or adjacent controlled airspace. When designated as a surface area, the airspace is configured to
contain all instrument procedures. Also in this class are federal airways, airspace beginning at
either 700 or 1,200 feet above ground level (AGL) used to transition to and from the terminal or
en route environment, and en route domestic and offshore airspace areas designated below
18,000 feet MSL. Unless designated at a lower altitude, Class E airspace begins at 14,500 MSL
over the United States, including that airspace overlying the waters within 12 NM of the coast of
the 48 contiguous states and Alaska, up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL, and the airspace
above FL 600.
f. Class G.
Class G Airspace
Uncontrolled airspace or Class G airspace is the portion of the airspace that has not been
designated as Class A, B, C, D, or E. It is therefore designated uncontrolled airspace. Class G
airspace extends from the surface to the base of the overlying Class E airspace. Although ATC
has no authority or responsibility to control air traffic, pilots should remember there are visual
flight rules (VFR) minimums which apply to Class G airspace.
Prohibited Areas
Prohibited areas contain airspace of defined dimensions within which the flight of aircraft is
prohibited. Such areas are established for security or other reasons associated with the national
welfare. These areas are published in the Federal Register and are depicted on aeronautical
charts. The area is charted as a ³P´ followed by a number (e.g., P-49). Examples of prohibited
areas include Camp David and the National Mall in Washington, D.C., where the White House
and the Congressional buildings are located.
Restricted Areas
Restricted areas are areas where operations are hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft and contain
airspace within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions.
Activities within these areas must be confined because of their nature, or limitations may be
imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities, or both. Restricted areas
denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft (e.g., artillery firing, aerial
gunnery, or guided missiles). IFR flights may be authorized to transit the airspace and are routed
accordingly. Penetration of restricted areas without authorization from the using or controlling
agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants. ATC facilities apply the
following procedures when aircraft are operating on an IFR clearance (including those cleared by
ATC to maintain VFR on top) via a route which lies within joint-use restricted airspace:
1. If the restricted area is not active and has been released to the Federal Aviation Administration
(FAA), the ATC facility allows the aircraft to operate in the restricted airspace without issuing
specific clearance for it to do so.
2. If the restricted area is active and has not been released to the FAA, the ATC facility issues a
clearance which ensures the aircraft avoids the restricted airspace. Restricted areas are charted
with an ³R´ followed by a number (e.g., R-4401) and are depicted on the en route chart
appropriate for use at the altitude or FL being flown.Restricted area information can be obtained
on the back of the chart.
Warning Areas
Warning areas are similar in nature to restricted areas; however, the United States government
does not have sole jurisdiction over the airspace. A warning area is airspace of defined
dimensions, extending from 12 NM outward from the coast of the United States, containing
activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The purpose of such areas is to warn
nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger. A warning area may be located over domestic or
international waters or both. The airspace is designated with a ³W´ followed by a number (e.g.,
W-237).
Alert Areas
Alert areas are depicted on aeronautical charts with an ³A´ followed by a number (e.g., A-211)
to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an
unusual type of aerial activity. Pilots should exercise caution in alert areas. All activity within an
alert area shall be conducted in accordance with regulations, without waiver, and pilots of
participating aircraft, as well as pilots transiting the area, shall be equally responsible for
collision avoidance.
(1) Training and aeronautical experience used to meet the requirements for a certificate, rating,
or flight review of this part.
(2) The aeronautical experience required for meeting the recent flight experience requirements of
this part.
(b) a"'""( For the purposes of meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) of this
section, each person must enter the following information for each flight or lesson logged:
(1) General²
(i) Date.
(iii) Location where the aircraft departed and arrived, or for lessons in a flight simulator or flight
training device, the location where the lesson occurred.
(iv) Type and identification of aircraft, flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training
device, as appropriate.
(i) Solo.
(v) Training received in a flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device from
an authorized instructor.
(iii) Simulated instrument conditions in flight, a flight simulator, flight training device, or
aviation training device.
(iv) Use of night vision goggles in an aircraft in flight, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training
device.
(c) a"")"% The pilot time described in this section may be used to:
(1) Apply for a certificate or rating issued under this part or a privilege authorized under this
part; or
FAR. 61.189
Flight instructor records.
(a) A flight instructor must sign the logbook of each person to whom that instructor has given
flight training or ground training.
(b) A flight instructor must maintain a record in a logbook or a separate document that contains
the following:
(1) The name of each person whose logbook or student pilot certificate that instructor has
endorsed for solo flight privileges, and the date of the endorsement; and
(2) The name of each person that instructor has endorsed for a knowledge test or practical test,
and the record shall also indicate the kind of test, the date, and the results.
(c) Each flight instructor must retain the records required by this section for at least 3 years.
ccc c
cc
The examiner shall select at least one TASK.
cc
REFERENCES: 14 CFR parts 43, 61, 67, 91; FAA-H-8083-21, FAA-H-8083-25;
Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements related to certificates and documents by describing:
1. Requirements for the issuance of pilot and flight instructor certificates and ratings,
and the privileges and limitations of those certificates and ratings.
Private Pilot
FAR 61. Subpart E, 102- 117.
FAR 61.113: Private Pilot Privileges and Limitations.
FAR 61 Subpart H, 181-200 Flight Instructor
FAR 61-195 Flight instructor Limitations and Qualifications
(a) Except as provided in §91.715, no person may operate a civil aircraft unless it has within it
the following:
(1) An appropriate and current airworthiness certificate. Each U.S. airworthiness certificate used
to comply with this subparagraph (except a special flight permit, a copy of the applicable
operations specifications issued under §21.197(c) of this chapter, appropriate sections of the air
carrier manual required by parts 121 and 135 of this chapter containing that portion of the
operations specifications issued under §21.197(c), or an authorization under §91.611) must have
on it the registration number assigned to the aircraft under part 47 of this chapter. However, the
airworthiness certificate need not have on it an assigned special identification number before 10
days after that number is first affixed to the aircraft. A revised airworthiness certificate having on
it an assigned special identification number that has been affixed to an aircraft, may only be
obtained upon application to an FAA Flight Standards district office.
(2) An effective U.S. registration certificate issued to its owner or, for operation within the
United States, the second duplicate copy (pink) of the Aircraft Registration Application as
provided for in §47.31(b), or a registration certificate issued under the laws of a foreign country.
(b) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless the airworthiness certificate required by
paragraph (a) of this section or a special flight authorization issued under §91.715 is displayed at
the cabin or cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew.
(c) No person may operate an aircraft with a fuel tank installed within the passenger
compartment or a baggage compartment unless the installation was accomplished pursuant to
part 43 of this chapter, and a copy of FAA Form 337 authorizing that installation is on board the
aircraft.
(d) No person may operate a civil airplane (domestic or foreign) into or out of an airport in the
United States unless it complies with the fuel venting and exhaust emissions requirements of part
34 of this chapter.
1. 0/100-Hour cnspections.
2. Annual cnspection. An annual inspection is required once every 12 calendar months. This
inspection is identical to the 100-hour inspection in scope and detail, but must be performed by a
licensed Airframe and Powerplant (A&P) mechanic with Inspection Authorization (IA). This
inspection shall not be over flown.
4. Vime/Calendar Life cnspections. Various engine and airframe components require hourly or
calendar inspections or replacement. These inspections will normally be performed in
conjunction with other inspections. These inspections shall not be over flown unless the operator
has an FAA-approved extension from the manufacturer.
5. Airworthiness Directives and Service Bulletin Compliance. Special inspections may be
required by the FAA or by the manufacturer. These inspections must be accomplished within the
time frames indicated in the directive or bulletin. The operator is required to provide a
compliance list at the designated base.
+
âc
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REFERENCES: AC 00-6, AC 00-45, AC 61-84; FAA-H-8083-25; AIM.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements related to weather information by describing:
1. Importance of a thorough weather check.
1. It¶s not only important it¶s the law: FAR 91.103, Each pilot in command shall, before
beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. ..To
include, weather reports and forecasts´
2. Obtaining a weather check is the first step in determining if a flight can be conducted
3. If you are aware of the current conditions and forecasts you are prepared for adverse
weather and able to have a predetermined plan of action
1. Start by getting the big picture of the general, overall weather pattern 3 to 4 days
before the flight - Local news weather, weather channel, internet WX sites
3. En Route
· Flight Service Station (FSS)
· En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) - 122.0
· Hazardous In-Flight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS)
· Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB)
1. ÷EVAR ± Aviation Routine Weather Report
METAR KMYF 090453Z 00000KT 10SM OVC013 17/13 A3000 RMK AO2 SLP157
T01670133
· Scheduled hourly, routine weather observation for an airport
· SPECI is a special, unscheduled updated METAR
· Following the type of report are the elements:
a. Four-letter ICAO station identifier - K÷YF
b. Date and time of the report (UTC) ± 0904 3Z
c. Wind direction/speed ± 26009KV, 26012G21KV, *RB04KV, 00000KV
d. Visibility ± 10S÷, 11/2S÷, R28R/1200FV
e. Weather Phenomena c*/"/0"/1'""
#'*:
· Intensity - º, -
· Descriptor ± VS, SH, FZ,
· Precipitation ± RA, SN, GR
· Obstructions to Visibility ± HZ, BR, FG
f. Sky conditions amount/height/type or vert vis
· SKC ± Clear skies
· FEW2 0 ± Less than 1/8 of the sky contains clouds
· SCV1 0 ± 1/8 to ½ of the sky contains clouds
· BKN00 - ½ to 7/8 of the sky contains clouds
· O*C006 ± All the sky contains clouds
· Cloud types CU (Towering cumulous/cumulonimbus) -BKN00CB
· Vertical Visibility ± **006
g. Temperature/dew point in °C ± 1/13, 01/÷0
h. Altimeter setting ± A2992
i. Remarks: Operationally significant weather, beginning/ending times of certain
weather phenomena, and low-level wind shear ± R÷K RAB2 RAE4
p
VAF ± Verminal Aerodrome Forecast
TAF AMD KSAN 090154Z 090224 28009KT P6SM BKN012
FM0400 29005KT P6SM BKN010
FM0900 VRB03KT P6SM OVC009
FM1600 22005KT P6SM SCT015
FM2000 28011KT P6SM SKC
· Scheduled four times daily and each good for 24 hour period
· Uses the same code as the METAR reports with a few additions
· TAF¶s are either routine (VAF), or amended (VAF A÷D)
· Following the type of report are the elements:
a. Four-letter ICAO station identifier ± VAF A÷D KSAN
b. Issuance date and time - 0901 4Z
c. Valid period ± 090224
d. Forecast ± â/#'*/â+/2(*""
· Wind - 2900 KV, *RB03KV, 26012G21KV
· Visibility - P6S÷, 10S÷, 11/2S÷
· Weather ± c*/"/0"/1'""
#'*
· Intensity - º, -
· Descriptor ± VS, SH, FZ,
· Precipitation ± RA, SN, GR
· Obstructions to Visibility ± HZ, BR, FG
e. Probability Forecast ± PROB40
f. Temporary Conditions, lasts for less than an hour ± VE÷PO
g. Forecast Change Groups, significant permanent change - F÷0400,
BEC÷G 060
AC ± Convective Outlook
· Describes the prospects for general thunderstorm activity for the next 24 hours
· Also areas in which there is a high, moderate or slight risk of severe thunderstorms
· Severe thunderstorms can be described as:
1. Surface winds greater than or equal to 50 knots
2. Hail greater than or equal to ¾´ diameter at the surface
3. Tornadoes
· Good for 24 hours
Stability Charts
· Composite Moisture Stability Chart
· Available twice daily with valid times of 12Z and 00Z
· Lifted Index (LI) ± Compares parcel of air lifted from the surface to
500Mb/hPa
1. Positive Index ± If parcel of air were to be lifted it would be colder than the surrounding air
(stable)
2. Negative Index - If parcel of air were to be lifted it would be warmer than the surrounding air
(unstable)
· K Index (K) ± Primarily for the meteorologist
· Examines the temperature moisture profile of the environment
WA ± AcR÷EV
AIRMET TURB...CA
FROM 70WSW OED TO 40S LKV TO FMG TO EED TO BZA TO 40SW EHF TO
OAK TO FOT TO 70WSW OED
OCNL MOD TURB BLW 160 DUE TO GUSTY LOW LVL WNDS AND UPR LOW.
CONDS CONTG BYD 02Z THRU 08Z.
· Advisories of significant weather but with lower intensities than SIGMETS
· Weather that is hazardous to mainly light aircraft (VFR Private Pilots)
· AIRMETS are issued on scheduled basis every 6 hours and good for 6 hours
· AIRMETS are issued for the following:
1. Moderate icing
2. Moderate turbulence
3. Sustained surface winds of 30 knots or more
4. Ceiling less than 1000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles affecting over 50 percent of the
area
5. Excessive mountain obscuration
ScG÷EV
· SIGMET advises of non-convective weather that is hazardous to all aircraft
· SIGMETs are issued for the following:
1. Severe icing not associated with thunderstorms
2. Severe or extreme turbulence (Clear air turbulence) not associated with TS¶s
3. Dust-storms, sand storms, or volcanic ash lowering surface or in-flight visibility to below
three miles
4. Volcanic eruption
· A SIGMET is valid for up to four hours
CON*ECVc*E ScG÷EV
· Convective SIGMETs are issued for any of the following:
1. Severe thunderstorms due to:
· Surface winds greater than or equal to 50 knots
· Hail at the surface greater than or equal to ¾´ diameter
· Tornadoes
2. Embedded thunderstorms
3. A line of thunderstorms
4. Thunderstorms greater than or equal to VIP 4 affecting 40% or more of a 3000 square mile
area
· Any convective SIGMET implies severe or greater turbulence, icing, and low level wind shear
· Hazardous to all types of aircraft
· Each forecast is valid for up to two hours
· According to the 1999 Nall Report, weather-related accidents accounted for about 22 percent of
all fatal pilot-related accidents.
· Weather does not cause accidents ± pilot judgment does.
· Use all available information and be conservative.
· Know the limitations of yourself and the aircraft you fly.
· Take PIREPS seriously and note the aircraft type.
· Check METAR¶s and TAF¶s en-route as well.
· If the weather shows a deteriorating trend seriously consider the need to make the flight at all.
· Set your personal limitations well above the minimums prescribed by the FAA.
c ;
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-21; Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements related to operation of systems, as applicable to the helicopter used for the
practical test, by describing:
3. Anti-torque system.
The R-22 is a single-engine helicopter with a semi-rigid two-bladed main rotor and a two-bladed
tail rotor. The main rotor provides a teetering hinge and two coning hinges. The tail rotor
provides only a teetering hinge.
6. Electrical system.
The electrical system includes a 14 volt, 60 ampere, alternator, voltage controller, battery relay,
and a 12 volt, 25 amp battery. Breakers are on the ledge in front of the left seat and are marked to
indicate function and amperage and are of the push to reset type.
7. Environmental system.
8. Pitot static/vacuum system and associated instruments.
PcVOV-SVAVcC cNSVRU÷ENVS
The pitot-static instruments, which include the airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed
indicator, operate on the principle of differential air pressure. Pitot pressure, also called impact,
ram, or dynamic pressure, is directed only to the airspeed indicator, while static pressure, or
ambient pressure, is directed to all three instruments. An alternate static source may be included
allowing you to select an alternate source of ambient pressure in the event the main port becomes
blocked.
AcRSPEED cNDcCAVOR
The airspeed indicator displays the speed of the helicopter through the air by comparing ram air
pressure from the pitot tube with static air pressure from the static port²the greater the
differential, the greater the speed. The instrument displays the result of this pressure differential
as indicated airspeed
ALVc÷EVER
The altimeter displays altitude in feet by sensing pressure changes in the atmosphere. There is an
adjustable barometric scale to compensate for changes in atmospheric pressure. The main
component of the altimeter is a stack of sealed aneroid wafers. They expand and contract as
atmospheric pressure from the static source changes. The mechanical linkage translates these
changes into pointer movements on the indicator.
9. Anti-icing systems.
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REFERENCES: AC 61-84, FAA-H-8083-1, FAA-H-8083-21; Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements related to performance and limitations by describing:
1. Determination of weight and balance condition.
BALANCE
Helicopter performance is not only affected by gross weight, but also by the position of that
weight. It is essential to load the aircraft within the allowable center of- gravity range specified
in the rotorcraft flight manual¶s weight and balance limitations.
2. Use of performance charts and other data for determining performance in various
phases of flight.
Density Altitude²Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature variations.
Standard Atmosphere²At sea level, the standard atmosphere consists of a barometric pressure
of 29.92 inches of mercury (in. Hg.) or 1013.2 millibars, and a temperature of 15°C (59°F).
Pressure and temperature normally decrease as altitude increases. The standard lapse rate in the
lower atmosphere for each 1,000 feet of altitude is approximately 1 in. Hg. and 2°C (3.5°F). For
example, the standard pressure and temperature at 3,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) is 26.92 in.
Hg. (29.92 ± 3) and 9°C (15°C ± 6°C).
Pressure Altitude²The height above the standard pressure level of 29.92 in. Hg. It is obtained
by setting 29.92 in the barometric pressure window and reading the altimeter.
Vrue Altitude²The actual height of an object above mean sea level.
PERFOR÷ANCE CHARVS
In developing performance charts, aircraft manufacturers make certain assumptions about the
condition of the helicopter and the ability of the pilot. It is assumed that the helicopter is in good
operating condition and the engine is developing its rated power. The pilot is assumed to be
following normal operating procedures and to have average flying abilities.
HO*ERcNG PERFOR÷ANCE
Helicopter performance revolves around whether or not the helicopter can be hovered. More
power is required during the hover than in any other flight regime. Obstructions aside, if a hover
can be maintained, a takeoff can be made, especially with the additional benefit of translational
lift. Hover charts are provided for in ground effect (cGE) hover and out of ground effect
(OGE) hover under various conditions of gross weight, altitude, temperature, and power.
5. Conditions that may cause loss of tail rotor effectiveness/ unanticipated loss of
directional control.
LTE is not related to an equipment or maintenance malfunction and may occur in all single-rotor
helicopters at airspeeds less than 30 knots. It is the result of the tail rotor not providing adequate
thrust to maintain directional control, and is usually caused by either certain wind azimuths
(directions) while hovering, or by an insufficient tail rotor thrust for a given power setting at
higher altitudes.
WEAVHERCOCK SVABcLcVY
(120-240)
In this region, the helicopter attempts to weathervane its nose into the relative wind. [Figure 11-
11] Unless a resisting pedal input is made, the helicopter starts a slow, uncommanded turn either
to the right or left depending upon the wind direction. If the pilot allows a right yaw rate to
develop and the tail of the helicopter moves into this region, the yaw rate can accelerate rapidly.
LVE AV ALVcVUDE
At higher altitudes, where the air is thinner, tail rotor thrust and efficiency is reduced. When
operating at high altitudes and high gross weights, especially while hovering, the tail rotor thrust
may not be sufficient to maintain directional control and LTE can occur. In this case, the
hovering ceiling is limited by tail rotor thrust and not necessarily power available. In these
conditions gross weights need to be reduced and/or operations need to be limited to lower
density altitudes.
ALVcVUDE
As altitude increases, the air becomes thinner or less dense. This is because the atmospheric
pressure acting on a given volume of air is less, allowing the air molecules to move further apart.
Dense air contains more air molecules spaced closely together, while thin air contains less air
molecules because they are spaced further apart. As altitude increases, density altitude increases.
VE÷PERAVURE
Temperature changes have a large affect on density altitude. As warm air expands, the air
molecules move further apart, creating less dense air. Since cool air contracts, the air molecules
move closer together, creating denser air. High temperatures cause even low elevations to have
high density altitudes.
÷OcSVURE (HU÷cDcVY)
The water content of the air also changes air density because water vapor weighs less than dry
air. Therefore, as the water content of the air increases, the air becomes less dense, increasing
density altitude and decreasing performance. Humidity, also called ³relative humidity,´ refers to
the amount of water vapor contained in the atmosphere, and is expressed as a percentage of the
maximum amount of water vapor the air can hold. This amount varies with temperature; warm
air can hold more water vapor, while colder air can hold less. Perfectly dry air that contains no
water vapor has a relative humidity of 0 percent, while saturated air that cannot hold any more
water vapor, has a relative humidity of 100 percent. Humidity alone is usually not considered an
important factor in calculating density altitude and helicopter performance; however, it does
contribute. There are no rules-of-thumb or charts used to compute the effects of humidity on
density altitude, so you need to take this into consideration by expecting a decrease in hovering
and takeoff performance in high humidity conditions.
WEcGHV
Lift is the force that opposes weight. As weight increases, the power required to produce the lift
needed to compensate for the added weight must also increase. Most performance charts include
weight as one of the variables. By reducing the weight of the helicopter, you may find that you
are able to safely take off or land at a location that otherwise would be impossible. However, if
you are ever in doubt about whether you can safely perform a takeoff or landing, you should
delay your takeoff until more favorable density altitude conditions exist. If airborne, try to land
at a location that has more favorable conditions, or one where you can make a landing that does
not require a hover. In addition, at higher gross weights, the increased power required to hover
produces more torque, which means more antitorque thrust is required. In some helicopters,
during high altitude operations, the maximum antitorque produced by the tail rotor during a
hover may not be sufficient to overcome torque even if the gross weight is within limits.
WcNDS
Wind direction and velocity also affect hovering, takeoff, and climb performance. Translational
lift occurs anytime there is relative airflow over the rotor disc. This occurs whether the relative
airflow is caused by helicopter movement or by the wind. As wind speed increases, translational
lift increases, resulting in less power required to hover. The wind direction is also an important
consideration. Headwinds are the most desirable as they contribute to the most increase in
performance. Strong crosswinds and tailwinds may require the use of more tail rotor thrust to
maintain directional control. This increased tail rotor thrust absorbs power from the engine,
which means there is less power available to the main rotor for the production of lift. Some
helicopters even have a critical wind azimuth or maximum safe relative wind chart. Operating
the helicopter beyond these limits could cause loss of tail rotor effectiveness. Takeoff and climb
performance is greatly affected by wind. When taking off into a headwind, effective translational
lift is achieved earlier, resulting in more lift and a steeper climb angle. When taking off with a
tailwind, more distance is required to accelerate through translation lift.
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Examiner shall select at least one maneuver from AREAS OF OPERATION VII
through XII, and ask the applicant to present a preflight lesson on the selected
maneuver as the lesson would be taught to a student. Previously developed lesson
plans from the applicant¶s library may be used.
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16;
Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
selected maneuver by:
1. Using a lesson plan that includes all essential items to make an effective and
organized presentation.
2. Stating the objective.
3. Giving an accurate, comprehensive oral description of the maneuver, including the
elements and associated common errors.
4. Using instructional aids, as appropriate.
5. Describing the recognition, analysis, and correction of common errors.
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The examiner shall select at least one TASK.
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16;
Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a preflight inspection, as
applicable to the helicopter used for the practical test, by describing²
a. reasons for the preflight inspection, items that should be inspected, and how defects
are detected.
b. importance of using the appropriate checklist.
c. removal of control locks, rotor blade tie-down, and wheel chocks, if applicable.
d. determination of fuel, oil, and hydraulic fluid quantity, possible contamination and/or
leaks.
e. inspection of flight controls.
f. detection of visible structural damage.
g. importance of proper loading and securing of baggage and equipment.
h. use of sound judgment in determining whether the helicopter is in condition for safe
flight.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a preflight inspection by
describing²
a. failure to use or improper use of checklist.
b. hazards which may result from allowing distractions to interrupt a preflight inspection.
c. inability to recognize discrepancies.
d. failure to ensure servicing with the proper fuel and oil.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a preflight inspection from an instructional
standpoint.
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, AC 91-32; CFR part 91; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-
16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of crew resource management by
describing²
a. proper arranging and securing of essential materials and equipment in the cockpit.
b. proper use and/or adjustment of such cockpit items as safety belts, shoulder
harnesses, anti-torque pedals, and seats.
c. occupant briefing on emergency procedures, rotor blade avoidance, and use of safety
belts and shoulder harnesses.
d. utilization of all available human resources, maintenance personnel, weather briefers,
and air traffic control, and other groups routinely working with the pilot who are involved
in decisions that are required to operate a flight safely.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to crew resource
management by describing²
a. failure to place and secure essential materials and equipment for easy access during
flight.
b. improper adjustment of equipment and controls.
c. failure to brief occupants on emergency procedures, rotor blade avoidance, and use
of safety belts and shoulder harnesses.
d. failure to utilize all available human resources, maintenance personnel, weather
briefers, air traffic control, and other groups routinely working with the pilot who are
involved in decisions that are required to operate a flight safely.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains crew resource management from an
instructional standpoint.
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21, AC 91-13, AC 91-42; FAA-S-8081-15,
FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of engine starting and rotor
engagement, as appropriate to the helicopter used for the practical test, by describing²
a. safety precautions related to engine starting and rotor engagement.
b. proper positioning of helicopter to avoid hazards.
c. use of external power.
d. effect of atmospheric conditions on engine starting and rotor engagement.
e. importance of proper friction adjustment.
f. importance of following the appropriate checklist.
g. adjustment of engine and flight controls during engine start and rotor engagement.
h. prevention of undesirable helicopter movement during and after engine start and rotor
engagement.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to engine starting and rotor
engagement by describing²
a. failure to use or improper use of checklist.
b. exceeding starter time limitations.
c. excessive engine RPM and/or temperatures during start.
d. failure to ensure adequate main rotor or tail rotor clearance.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains engine starting and rotor engagement
from an instructional standpoint.
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16;
Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of the before takeoff check by
describing²
a. division of attention inside and outside the cockpit.
b. importance of following the checklist and responding to each item.
c. reasons for ensuring suitable engine temperatures and pressures for run-up and
takeoff.
d. method used to determine that the helicopter is in safe operating condition.
e. importance of reviewing emergency procedures.
f. method used for ensuring that takeoff area or path is free of hazards.
g. method used for ensuring adequate clearance from other traffic.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to the before takeoff check
by describing²
a. failure to use or the improper use of the checklist.
b. acceptance of marginal helicopter performance.
c. an improper check of controls.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a before takeoff check from an
instructional standpoint.
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The examiner shall select at least one TASK.
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REFERENCES: AIM; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; 14 CFR part 91.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of radio communications and ATC
light signals by describing²
a. selection and use of appropriate radio frequencies.
b. recommended procedure and phraseology for radio voice communications.
c. receipt, acknowledgment of, and compliance with, ATC clearances and other
instructions.
d. prescribed procedure for radio communications failure.
e. interpretation of, and compliance with, ATC light signals.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to radio communications
and ATC light signals by describing²
a. use of improper frequencies.
b. improper techniques and phraseologies when using radio voice communications.
c. failure to acknowledge, or properly comply with, ATC clearances and other
instructions.
d. use of improper procedures for radio communications failure.
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; 14 CFR part 91; AIM; FAA-S-8081-15,
FAA-S-8081-16, AC 90-42, AC 90-48, AC 90-66
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of traffic pattern operations by
describing²
a. operations at controlled and uncontrolled airports and heliports.
b. adherence to traffic pattern procedures, instructions, and appropriate regulations.
c. how to maintain appropriate spacing from other traffic.
d. how to maintain desired ground track.
e. wind shear and wake turbulence.
f. orientation with landing area or heliport in use.
g. how to establish an approach to the landing area or heliport.
h. use of checklist.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to traffic patterns by
describing²
a. failure to comply with traffic pattern instructions, procedures, and rules.
b. improper correction for wind drift.
c. inadequate spacing from other traffic.
d. improper altitude or airspeed control.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains traffic patterns from an instructional
standpoint.
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REFERENCES: AIM; FAA-H-8083-25; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16. AC 150/5340-
1, AC 150/ 5340-18, AC-150/5340-30
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements of airport and heliport markings and lighting by describing:
1. Identification and proper interpretation of airport and heliport markings.
2. Identification and proper interpretation of airport and heliport lighting.
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The examiner shall select at least one TASK.
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16;
Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a vertical takeoff and landing by
describing²
a. how to establish and maintain proper RPM.
b. proper position of collective pitch, cyclic, and anti-torque pedals prior to initiating
takeoff.
c. ascending vertically, at a suitable rate, to the recommended hovering altitude, in
headwind, crosswind, and tailwind conditions.
d. descending vertically, at a suitable rate, to a selected touchdown point.
e. touching down vertically in headwind, crosswind, and tailwind conditions.
f. how to maintain desired heading during the maneuver.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a vertical takeoff and
landing by describing²
a. improper RPM control.
b. failure to ascend and descend vertically at a suitable rate.
c. failure to recognize and correct undesirable drift.
d. improper heading control.
e. terminating takeoff at an improper altitude.
f. overcontrol of collective pitch, cyclic, or anti-torque pedals.
g. failure to reduce collective pitch to the full-down position, smoothly and positively,
upon surface contact.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a vertical takeoff and landing from an
instructional standpoint.
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This TASK applies only to helicopters equipped with wheel-type landing gear.
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; AIM; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-
16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of surface taxi by describing²
a. positioning of cyclic and collective to begin forward movement.
b. proper use of cyclic, collective, and brakes to control speed while taxiing.
c. use of anti-torque pedals to maintain directional control.
d. use of brakes during minimum radius turns.
e. proper position of tailwheel (if applicable) locked or unlocked.
f. positioning of controls to slow and stop helicopter.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to surface taxi by
describing²
a. improper positioning of cyclic and collective to start and stop movement.
b. improper use of brakes.
c. hazards of taxiing too fast.
d. improper use of anti-torque pedals.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains surface taxi from an instructional
standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to surface taxi. p
1-22
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; AIM; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-
16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of hover taxi by describing²
a. how to maintain proper Revolutions Per Minute (RPM).
b. maintaining desired ground track and heading.
c. how to make precise turns to headings.
d. holding recommended hovering altitude.
e. appropriate groundspeed.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to hover taxi by
describing²
a. improper RPM control.
b. improper control of heading and track.
c. erratic altitude control.
d. misuse of flight controls.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains hover taxi from an instructional
standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to hover taxi. p
1-23
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; AIM; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-
16; Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of air taxi by describing²
a. how to maintain proper RPM.
b. selection of an altitude and airspeed appropriate for the operation.
c. proper use of collective pitch, cyclic, and anti-torque pedals to maintain desired track
and groundspeed in headwind and crosswind conditions.
d. compensation for wind effect.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to air taxi by describing²
a. improper RPM control.
b. erratic altitude and airspeed control.
c. improper use of collective pitch, cyclic, and anti-torque pedals during operation.
d. improper use of controls to compensate for wind effect.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains air taxi from an instructional standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to air taxi. p 1-
24
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight
Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a slope operation by describing²
a. factors to consider in selection of slope.
b. planning and performance of a slope operation, considering wind effect, obstacles,
and discharging of passengers.
c. effect of slope surface texture.
d. how to maintain proper RPM.
e. control technique during descent to touchdown on a slope.
f. use of brakes (if applicable).
g. factors that should be considered to avoid dynamic rollover.
h. technique during a slope takeoff and departure.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a slope operation by
describing²
a. improper planning selection of, approach to, or departure from the slope.
b. failure to consider wind effects.
c. improper RPM control.
d. turning tail of the helicopter upslope.
e. lowering downslope skid or wheels too rapidly.
f. sliding downslope.
g. improper use of brakes (if applicable).
h. conditions that, if allowed to develop, may result in dynamic rollover.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a slope operation from an instructional
standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a slope operation. p
1-25
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The examiner shall select at least one takeoff TASK and one approach TASK.
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16;
Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a normal and crosswind takeoff
and climb by describing²
a. consideration of wind conditions.
b. factors affecting takeoff and climb performance.
c. how to maintain proper RPM.
d. how to establish a stationary position on the surface or a stabilized hover, prior to
takeoff in headwind and crosswind conditions.
e. presence of effective translational lift.
f. acceleration to a normal climb.
g. climb airspeed and power setting.
h. crosswind correction and ground track during climb.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a normal and crosswind
takeoff and climb by describing²
a. improper RPM control.
b. improper use of cyclic, collective pitch, or anti-torque pedals.
c. failure to use sufficient power to avoid settling prior to entering effective translational
lift.
d. improper coordination of attitude and power during initial phase of climb-out.
e. failure to establish and maintain climb power and airspeed.
f. drift during climb.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a normal or a crosswind takeoff and climb
from an instructional standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a normal or a crosswind
takeoff and climb. p 1-26
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16;
Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a maximum performance takeoff
and climb by describing²
a. importance of considering performance data, to include height/velocity diagram.
b. factors related to takeoff and climb performance of the aircraft.
c. how to establish and maintain proper RPM.
d. preparatory technique prior to increasing collective pitch to initiate takeoff.
e. technique to initiate takeoff and establish a forward climb attitude to clear obstacles
f. transition to normal climb power and airspeed.
g. crosswind correction and track during climb.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a maximum
performance takeoff and climb by describing²
a. failure to consider performance data, including height/velocity diagram.
b. improper RPM control.
c. improper use of cyclic, collective pitch, or anti-torque pedals.
d. failure to use the predetermined power setting for establishing attitude and airspeed
appropriate to the obstacles to be cleared.
e. failure to resume normal climb power and airspeed after obstacle clearance.
f. drift during climb.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a maximum performance takeoff and
climb from an instructional standpoint.
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16;
Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a normal and crosswind approach
by describing²
a. factors affecting performance.
b. how to maintain proper RPM.
c. establishment and maintenance of the recommended approach angle and rate of
closure.
d. coordination of flight controls.
e. crosswind correction and ground track.
f. loss of effective translational lift.
g. how to terminate the approach.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a normal and crosswind
approach by describing²
a. improper RPM control.
b. improper approach angle.
c. improper use of cyclic to control rate of closure and collective pitch to control
approach angle.
d. failure to coordinate pedal corrections with power changes.
e. failure to arrive at the termination point at zero groundspeed.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a normal or a crosswind approach from
an instructional standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a normal or a crosswind
approach. p 1-29
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16;
Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a steep approach by describing²
a. purpose of the maneuver.
b. importance of considering performance data, to include height/velocity diagram.
c. selection of proper approach angle for obstacle clearance.
d. how to maintain proper RPM.
e. establishment and maintenance of the appropriate approach angle and rate of
closure.
f. coordination of flight controls.
g. crosswind correction and ground track.
h. location where effective translational lift is lost.
i. how to terminate the approach.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a steep approach by
describing²
a. improper approach angle.
b. improper RPM control.
c. improper use of cyclic to control rate of closure and collective pitch to control
approach angle.
d. failure to coordinate pedal corrections with power changes.
e. failure to arrive at the termination point at zero groundspeed.
f. inability to determine location where effective translational lift is lost.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a steep approach from an instructional
standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a steep approach. p
1-30 µ
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16;
Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a shallow approach and
running/roll-on landing by describing²
a. purpose of the maneuver.
b. effect of landing surface texture.
c. factors affecting performance.
d. how to maintain proper RPM.
e. obstacles and other hazards, which should be considered.
f. establishment and maintenance of the recommended approach angle and rate of
closure.
g. coordination of flight controls.
h. crosswind correction and ground track.
i. loss of effective translational lift.
j. transition from descent to surface contact.
k. flight control technique after surface contact.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a shallow approach and
running/roll-on landing by describing²
a. improper RPM control.
b. improper approach angle.
c. improper use of cyclic to control rate of closure and collective pitch to control
approach angle.
d. failure to coordinate pedal corrections with power changes.
e. failure to maintain a speed that will take advantage of effective translational lift during
the final phase of approach.
f. touching down at an excessive groundspeed.
g. failure to touch down in appropriate attitude.
h. failure to maintain directional control after touchdown.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a shallow approach and running/roll-on
landing from an instructional standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a shallow approach and
running/roll-on landing. p 1-31
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16;
Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a go-around by describing²
a. situations where a go-around is necessary.
b. importance of making a timely decision, considering obstacles, loss of translational
lift, and engine response time.
c. proper use of power throughout maneuver.
d. timely and coordinated application of flight controls during transition to climb attitude.
e. proper track and obstacle clearance during climb.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a go-around by
describing²
a. failure to recognize a situation where a go-around is necessary.
b. hazards of delaying the decision to go around.
c. improper application of flight controls during transition to climb attitude.
d. failure to control drift and clear obstacles safely.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a go-around from an instructional
standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a go-around.
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In a multiengine helicopter maneuvering to a landing, the applicant should follow
a procedure that simulates the loss of one powerplant.
REFERENCE(S): FAA-H-8083-21; Rotorcraft Flight Manual
To determine that the applicant:
4. Maintains, prior to beginning the final approach segment, the desired altitude
100 feet, the desired airspeed 10 knots, the desired heading 5° , and
maintains desired track.
5. Establishes the approach and landing configuration appropriate for the runway
or landing area, and adjusts the powerplant controls as required.
8. Completes the after-landing checklist items in a timely manner, after clearing the
landing area, and as recommended by the manufacturer.
11. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to an approach and
landing with simulated powerplant failure.
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The examiner shall select at least one TASK.
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of straight-and-level flight by
describing²
a. effect and use of flight controls.
b. the Integrated Flight Instruction method.
c. trim technique.
d. methods that can be used to overcome tenseness and over controlling.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to straight-and-level flight
by describing²
a. improper coordination of flight controls.
b. failure to cross-check and correctly interpret outside and instrument references.
c. faulty trim technique.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains straight-and-level flight from an
instructional standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to straight-and-level flight.
p 1-34
+
,
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of level turns by describing²
a. effect and use of flight controls.
b. the Integrated Flight Instruction method.
c. trim technique.
d. methods that can be used to overcome tenseness and over controlling.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to level turns by
describing²
a. improper coordination of flight controls.
b. failure to cross-check and correctly interpret outside and instrument references.
c. faulty trim technique.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains level turns from an instructional
standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to level turns. p
1-35
cc
+ c
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of straight climbs and climbing turns
by describing²
a. effect and use of flight controls.
b. the Integrated Flight Instruction method.
c. trim technique.
d. methods that can be used to overcome tenseness and over controlling.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to straight climbs and
climbing turns by describing²
a. improper coordination of flight controls.
b. failure to cross-check and correctly interpret outside and instrument references.
c. faulty trim technique.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains straight climbs and climbing turns from an
instructional standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to straight climbs and
climbing turns. p 1-36
c c
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of straight descents and descending
turns by describing²
a. effect and use of flight controls.
b. the Integrated Flight Instruction method.
c. trim technique.
d. methods that can be used to overcome tenseness and over controlling.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to straight descents and
descending turns by describing²
a. improper coordination of flight controls.
b. failure to cross-check and correctly interpret outside and instrument references.
c. faulty trim technique.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains straight descents and descending turns
from an instructional standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to straight descents and
descending turns. p 1-37
= c
,
The examiner shall select at least TASK B or C. In addition, applicant shall
provide a helicopter appropriate for demonstrating touchdown autorotations.
cc
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16;
Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a rapid deceleration by
describing²
a. purpose of the maneuver.
b. how to maintain proper RPM throughout maneuver.
c. evaluation of wind direction and speed, terrain, and obstructions.
d. proper use of anti-torque pedals.
e. selection of an altitude that will permit safe clearance between tail boom and terrain.
f. coordinated use of cyclic and collective controls throughout maneuver.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a rapid deceleration by
describing²
a. improper RPM control.
b. improper use of anti-torque pedals.
c. improper coordination of cyclic and collective controls.
d. failure to properly control the rate of deceleration.
e. stopping of forward motion in a tail-low attitude.
f. failure to maintain safe clearance over terrain.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a rapid deceleration from an instructional
standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a rapid deceleration. p
1-38
+
c(c c
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15; Rotorcraft Flight
Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a straight-in autorotation by
describing²
a. purpose of maneuver.
b. selection of a suitable touchdown area.
c. how to maintain proper engine and rotor RPM.
d. evaluation of wind direction and speed.
e. effect of density altitude, gross weight, rotor RPM, airspeed, and wind to determine a
touchdown point.
f. how and at what point maneuver is initiated.
g. flight control coordination, aircraft attitude, and autorotational speed.
h. deceleration, collective pitch application, and touchdown technique, or
i. technique for performing a power recovery to a hover.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a straight-in autorotation
by describing²
a. improper engine and rotor RPM control.
b. uncoordinated use of flight controls, particularly anti-torque pedals.
c. improper attitude and airspeed during descent.
d. improper judgment and technique during termination.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a straight-in autorotation to touchdown
from an instructional standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to
78?@c
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight
Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a 180° autorotation by
describing²
a. purpose of maneuver.
b. selection of a suitable touchdown area.
c. how to maintain proper engine and rotor RPM.
d. evaluation of wind direction and speed.
e. effect of density altitude, gross weight, rotor RPM, airspeed, and wind to determine a
touchdown point.
f. how and at what point the maneuver is initiated.
g. flight control coordination, aircraft attitude, and autorotation airspeed.
h. proper planning and performance of the autorotative turn.
i. deceleration, collective pitch application, and touchdown technique, or
j. technique for performing a power recovery to a hover.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a 180° autorotation by
describing²
a. improper engine and rotor RPM control.
b. uncoordinated use of flight controls, particularly anti-torque pedals.
c. improper attitude and airspeed during descent.
d. improper judgment and technique during the termination.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a 180° autorotation to touchdown from an
instructional standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a 180° autorotation. p
1-40
=c c
;c
The examiner shall select at least one TASK from A, B, C, or D to be
accomplished in flight and at least one TASK from E, F, G, H, I, or J to be accomplished
orally on the ground.
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16;
Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to power failure at a hover by
describing²
a. recognition of power failure.
b. how to maintain a constant heading.
c. correction for drift.
d. effect of density altitude, height above the surface, gross weight, wind, and rotor RPM
on performance.
e. autorotation and touchdown technique from a stationary or forward hover.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to power failure at a hover
by describing²
a. failure to apply correct and adequate pedal when power is reduced.
b. failure to correct drift prior to touchdown.
c. improper application of collective pitch.
d. failure to touch down in a level attitude.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a simulated power failure at a hover from
an instructional standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a simulated power failure
at a hover. p 1-41
+
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REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16;
Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
Examiner shall direct the applicant to terminate this TASK with a power recovery
at an altitude high enough to ensure a safe touchdown could be accomplished in the
event of an actual power failure.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to power failure at altitude by
describing²
a. importance of being continuously aware of suitable landing areas.
b. technique for establishing and maintaining proper rotor RPM, airspeed, and pedal
trim during autorotation.
c. method used to evaluate wind direction and speed.
d. effect of density altitude, gross weight, rotor RPM, airspeed, and wind to determine
landing area.
e. selection of a suitable landing area.
f. planning and performance of approach to the selected landing area.
g. importance of dividing attention between flying the approach and accomplishing the
emergency procedure, as time permits.
h. techniques that can be used to compensate for undershooting or overshooting
selected landing area.
i. when and how to terminate approach.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to power failure at altitude
by describing²
a. failure to promptly recognize the emergency, establish and maintain proper rotor
RPM, and confirm engine condition.
b. improper judgment in selection of a landing area.
c. failure to estimate approximate wind direction and speed.
d. uncoordinated use of flight controls during autorotation entry and descent.
e. improper attitude and airspeed during autorotation entry and descent.
f. failure to fly the most suitable pattern for existing situation.
g. failure to accomplish the emergency procedure, as time permits.
h. undershooting or overshooting selected landing area.
i. uncoordinated use of flight controls during power recovery. p 1-42
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a simulated power failure at altitude from
an instructional standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to power failure at altitude.
c (âc(â
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16;
Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to settling-with-power by
describing²
a. conditions that are likely to result in settling-with-power.
b. timely recognition of settling-with-power.
c. techniques for recovery.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to settling-with-power by
describing²
a. failure to recognize conditions that are conducive to development of settling-with-
power.
b. failure to detect first indications of settling-with-power.
c. improper use of controls during recovery.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains settling-with-power from an instructional
standpoint. p 1-43
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,;
The examiner may accomplish this TASK orally if the helicopter used for the
practical test has a governor that cannot be disabled.
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16;
Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements related to low rotor RPM recovery by
describing²
a. conditions that are likely to result in low rotor RPM.
b. potential problems from low rotor RPM if not corrected timely.
c. techniques for recovery.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to low rotor RPM recovery
by describing²
a. failure to recognize conditions that are conducive to the development of low rotor
RPM.
b. failure to detect the development of low rotor RPM and to initiate prompt corrective
action.
c. improper use of controls.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains low rotor RPM recovery from an
instructional standpoint.
c(4;
c
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16;
Helicopter Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements related to anti-torque system failure by describing:
1. Helicopter aerodynamics related to failure.
2. Indications of failure.
3. Recommended pilot technique to maintain controlled flight.
4. How to select a landing area.
5. Recommended technique to accomplish a safe landing, when failure occurs. p
1-44
;
c,
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-21; AC 90-87; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16;
Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements related to dynamic rollover by describing:
1. Helicopter aerodynamics involved.
2. How interaction between anti-torque thrust, crosswind, slope, cyclic and collective
pitch control contribute to dynamic rollover.
3. Preventive actions used for takeoffs and landings on different surfaces.
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight
Manual.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements related to ground resonance by describing:
1. Aerodynamics involved and association with a fully articulated rotor system.
2. Conditions that are conducive to the development of ground resonance.
3. Preventive actions used for takeoffs and landings on different surfaces.
âAB cc
REFERENCE: Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements of low ³G´ conditions by describing:
1. Situations that will cause a low ³G´ condition.
2. Recognition of low ³G´ conditions.
3. Proper recovery procedures to prevent mast
4. Effects of this condition on different types of rotor systems.
c
;
4c
c
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight
Manual.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements related to systems and equipment malfunctions by describing recommended
pilot action, appropriate to the helicopter used for the practical test, in the following
areas:
1. Smoke or fire during ground or flight operations.
2. Engine/oil and fuel system.
3. Carburetor or induction icing.
4. Hydraulic system.
5. Electrical system.
6. Flight controls.
7. Rotor/drive system.
8. Pitot/static system.
9. Any other system or equipment.
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,c,
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-21; Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
To determine that the applicant exhibits instructional knowledge of the
elements related to emergency equipment and survival gear appropriate to the
helicopter used for the practical test by describing:
1. Location in the helicopter.
2. Method of operation or use.
3. Servicing.
4. Storage.
5. Equipment and gear appropriate for operation in various climates, over various types
of terrain, and over water.
=cc c
cc
The examiner shall select at least one TASK.
c c
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight
Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a confined area operation by
describing²
a. conduct of high and low reconnaissance.
b. method used to evaluate wind direction and speed, turbulence, terrain, obstacles,
and emergency landing areas.
c. selection of a suitable approach path, termination point, and departure path.
d. how to maintain proper RPM.
e. how to track the selected approach path to the termination point, establishing an
acceptable approach angle and rate of closure.
f. factors that should be considered in determining whether to terminate at a hover or on
the surface.
g. conduct of ground reconnaissance and selection of a suitable takeoff point,
considering wind and obstructions.
h. factors affecting takeoff and climb performance.
i. factors to consider in performing a takeoff and climb under various conditions.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a confined area
operation by describing²
a. failure to perform, or improper performance of high and low reconnaissance.
b. failure to track the selected approach path or to fly an acceptable approach angle and
rate of closure.
c. improper RPM control.
d. inadequate planning to ensure obstacle clearance during the approach or the
departure.
e. failure to consider emergency landing areas.
f. failure to select a definite termination point during the high reconnaissance.
g. failure to change the termination point, if conditions so dictate.
i. improper takeoff and climb technique for existing conditions.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a confined area operation from an
instructional standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a confined area operation.
+
c 3
c
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9, FAA-H-8083-21; FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight
Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of a pinnacle/platform operation by
describing²
a. conduct of high and low reconnaissance.
b. methods used to evaluate wind direction and speed, turbulence, terrain, obstacles,
and emergency landing areas.
c. selection of a suitable approach path, termination point, and departure path.
d. how to maintain proper RPM.
e. how to track the selected approach path to the termination point, and establish an
acceptable approach angle and rate of closure.
f. factors that should be considered in determining whether to terminate in a hover or on
the surface.
g. selection of a suitable takeoff point, considering wind and obstructions.
h. factors affecting takeoff and climb performance.
i. factors to consider in performing a takeoff and climb under various conditions.
h. failure to consider effect of wind direction or speed, turbulence, or loss of effective
translational lift during the approach.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to a pinnacle/platform
operation by describing²
a. failure to perform, or improper performance of, high and low reconnaissance.
b. failure to track selected approach path or to fly an acceptable approach angle and
rate of closure.
c. improper RPM control.
d. inadequate planning to assure obstacle clearance during approach or departure.
e. failure to consider emergency landing areas.
f. failure to select a definite termination point during the high reconnaissance.
g. failure to change the termination point, if conditions so dictate.
h. failure to consider effect of wind direction or speed, turbulence, or loss of effective
translational lift during the approach.
i. improper takeoff and climb technique for existing conditions.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains a pinnacle/platform operation from an
instructional standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to a pinnacle/platform
operation.
=ccc c
c
( c c
REFERENCES: FAA-H-8083-9; FAA-S-8081-15, FAA-S-8081-16; Rotorcraft Flight
Manual.
To determine that the applicant:
1. Exhibits instructional knowledge of the elements of after-landing and securing by
describing²
a. methods to minimize hazardous effects of rotor downwash during hovering to parking
area.
b. engine temperature stabilization and shutdown.
c. method to secure rotor blades and cockpit.
d. safety concerns for passenger(s) when exiting.
e. postflight inspection to include use of checklist.
f. refueling procedures, including safety concerns.
2. Exhibits instructional knowledge of common errors related to after-landing and
securing by describing²
a. hazards resulting from failure to follow recommended procedures.
b. failure to conduct a postflight inspection and use a checklist.
3. Demonstrates and simultaneously explains after-landing and securing from an
instructional standpoint.
4. Analyzes and corrects simulated common errors related to after-landing and
securing.