National online quiz competition

1. Which among the following amendments of the constitution of India fully secured the
constitutional validity of zamindari abolition laws?

[A]1st
[B]2nd
[C]3rd
[D] 4th
Answer : (A)

2. By which amendment of the Constitution, Article 323A (Administrative tribunals) &

Article 323B (Tribunals for other matters) in a new part XIV A was inserted in the Indian
Constitution?

[A]Constitution 40th Amendment Act

[B]Constitution 41st Amendment Act
[C]Constitution 42nd Amendment Act
[D] Constitution 43 rd Amendment
Act
ANSWER: (C)

3. Which of the following part of Indian Constitution resembles the standard-setting

Charter of the United Nations and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights of 1948?
[A]PartII
[B]PartIII
[C]PartIV
[D] Part V

ANSWER : (B)

4. Which of the following is / are qualifications to be appointed as governor of a state?

1. Should be citizen of India 
2. Should not be resident of the state of which he / she works as
Governor 
3. Should have completed age of 35 years 
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A]Only 1 & 2
[B]Only 1 & 3
[C]Only 1
[D] 1, 2 & 3
ANSWER: (B)

5. Which among the following freedoms guaranteed by Constitution of India includes the right
to know and the right to be informed as implied rights?
[A]Freedom of speech and expression
[B]Freedom to practice any profession
[C]Freedom of assembly
[D] Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India
ANSWER: (A)

6. Which of the following statements is an incorrect statement about Governor of a state?

[A] Governor can summon or prorogue the state legislature and dissolve the state
legislative assembly
[B] He nominates one-sixth of the members of state legislative assembly
[C] He is responsible to set up State Finance Commission and present the report of
commission in state legislature
[D] District judges are appointed by the Governor
ANSWER: (B)

7. Which of the following provisions cannot be amended by simple majority?

[A]Admission or establishment of new states

[B]Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states
[C]Directive Principles of State Policy
[D] Sixth Schedule–administration of tribal areas
ANSWER: (C)

8. Which of the following can be amended by special majority of Parliament and consent of
states?
[A]Election of the President and its manner
[B]Citizenship–acquisition and termination
[C]Use of official language
[D] Rules of procedure in Parliament
ANSWER: (A)

9. Through which amendment act the Parliament declared that there is no limitation on the
constituent power of Parliament?
[A]42nd
[B]44th
[C]48th
[D] 50th
ANSWER: (A)
10. Which Amendment empowered the president to declare different proclamations of
national emergency on different grounds simultaneously?
[A]38th Amendment Act, 1975
[B]39th Amendment Act, 1975
[C]40th Amendment Act, 1976
[D] 41st Amendment Act, 1976
ANSWER: (A)

11. Which amendment bifurcated the erstwhile combined National Commission for Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes into two separate bodies?
[A]89th Amendment Act, 2003
[B]91st Amendment Act, 2003
[C]96th Amendment Act, 2011
[D] 99th Amendment Act, 2014
ANSWER: (A)

12. Which constitutional principles are upheld through judicial review?

[A]Upholding the supremacy of the Constitution
[B]Protecting the Fundamental Rights
[C]Both of them
[D] None of them
ANSWER : (C)

13. What changes were made by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951?
[A]Addition of Article 31B
[B]Removal of upper population limit for a parliamentary constituency
[C]Reorganization of states on linguistic lines
[D] Restrictions on property rights
ANSWER: (A)

14. Which schedule of constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas
and scheduled tribes in any state except the four
states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram?
[A]ThirdSchedule
[B]FourthSchedule
[C]FifthSchedule
[D] Sixth Schedule
ANSWER: (C)
15. Who was the chairman of Delimitation Commission constituted in July 2002?
[A]Justice Deepak Mishra
[B]Justice Kuldeep Singh
[C]Justice Ranganath Mishra
[D] None of the above
ANSWER: (B)

16. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to National Human Rights
Commission?
1. The functions of the commission are mainly recommendatory in nature.
2. It has no power to punish the violators of human rights.
3. It can award any relief including monetary relief to the victim.
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A]Only1
[B]Only2
[C]Only1&2
[D] Only 2 & 3
ANSWER: (C)

17. A resolution for creation of a new all India service requires how much majority in Rajya
Sabha?
[A]1/3
[B]1/4
[C]2/3
[D] 2/4
ANSWER: (C)

18. Which of the following are the functions of National Commission for SCs?
1. To investigate and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and other legal safeguards
for the SCs.
2. To inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of
the SCs.
3. To present to the President, reports upon the working of those safeguards.
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A]Only1
[B]Only1&2
[C]Only3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
ANSWER:(D)
19. Which of the following are the function of the National Commission for Protection of Child
Rights?

1. Inquire into violation of child rights and recommend initiation of proceedings in such cases.
2. Examine and review the safeguards provided by or under any law for the protection of child
rights and recommend measures for their   
     effective implementation.
3. Undertake and promote research in the field of child rights.
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A]Only1
[B]Only1&2
[C]Only3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
ANSWER: (D)

20. In which year the validity of the provisions in section 124A was upheld by a Constitution
Bench of the Supreme Court in Kedarnath Singh vs State of Bihar case?
[A]1960
[B]1961
[C]1962
[D] 1963
ANSWER: (C)

21. Which of the following article is related to succession to property, assets, rights, liabilities
and obligations in certain cases?
[A]Article294
[B]Article295
[C]Article296
[D] Article 297
ANSWER: (A)

22. Who is competent to prescribe conditions as for acquiring Indian Citizenship?

A.  State Legislatures
B.  Parliament
C.  President
D.  Attorney General
ANSWER: (B)

23. Which one of the following sets of Bills is Presented to the Parliament along with the
Budget?
A.Direct taxes bill and Indirect taxes bill
B.Contingency Bill and Appropriation Bill
C.Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill
D.Finance Bill and Contingency Bill
ANSWER: (C)

24. Kamraj Plan was a plan formulated in 1963 by:

A. Chief Minister of Madras, whereby the senior ministers were asked to leave government
and work to rejuvenate the party
B. Union Cabinet Minister, whereby a new Constitution for the Indian National Congress was
proposed
C. Chief Minister of Madras, whereby a new set of principles for accepting donations for the
party work was proposed
D. Chief Minister of Madras to root out corruption from India
ANSWER: (A)

25. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office:

(A) By the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

(B) By the President
(C) On the basis of a resolution of the Cabinet
(D) On the basis of proved misbehavior by 2/3rd majority of both Houses of Parliament
ANSWER:(D)

26. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity to the head of the states for his
official act from legal action, including proceedings for contempt of Court ?
(A)Article361
(B)Article362
(C)Article368
(D)Article369
ANSWER:(A)
 
27. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of
operation without approval by the Parliament?

(A)ThreeMonths
(B)FourMonths
(C)TwoMonths
(D) One Month
ANSWER:C

28. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?

I. All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice
President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final
II. Subject to the provisions of this constitution, Parliament may be by law regulate any matter
relating to or connected with the election of a President or Vice President
III. The election of a person as President or Vice President shall not be called in question on the
ground of the existence of any vacancy for whatever reason among the members of the Electoral
College electing him
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. II and III
D. I and III
ANSWER: B

29. In Tinsukia Electricity Company v. State of Assam, the Supreme Court pointed out that
the term ‘Socialist’ used in the Preamble to the Constitution of India, means State whose
basic policy is to:
A. prohibit concentration of wealth and distribute equitability the natural resources
B. prohibit equitably the natural resources
C. distribute equitably the natural resources
D. prohibit concentration of wealth and uplift the living standard of people.
ANSWER:C
30. Under the Indian Constitution it was held in the case Pradeep v. Union of India:
A. there is only one domicile of the country
B. there are two domicile of the Union as well as of the State
C. in case of Jammu & Kashmir, there are two domiciles one of the Union and other of the State
D. both (a) & (c).
ANSWER: A

31. In which Indian case it has been quoted that “A man’s liberty of movement is regarded so highly by the law of
England that it is not to be hindered or prevented except on the surest grounds” “Article 12”:

A. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

B. Joginder Kumar case

C. Amarawati case

D. None of the above.

ANSWER:A
32. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that an amendment
of the Constitution under Article 368 was ‘law’ within the meaning of Article 13:
A. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
B. Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
C. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
D. Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala.
ANSWER: A

33.  In which recent case it was held that “State” within the meaning of Article 12 of the
Constitution of India should have placed full facts before the High Court:
A. Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan v. Mehbub Alam Laskar
B. Abhijit Gupta v. S.N.B. National Centre Basic sciences
C. Dhananjay v. Chief Executive Officer, Zila Parishad
D. None of the above.
ANSWER: A

34. In which recent judgment it was held that if landlord being State within the
meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution is required to prove fairness and
reasonableness on its part in initiating proceeding, it is for it to show how its
prayer meets the constitutional requirements of Article 14 of the Constitution:
A. Ashoka Marketing Ltd. v. Punjab National Bank
B. New India Assurance Company Ltd. v. Nusli Neville Wadia ”
C. Narendra Kumar Maheswari v. Union of India
D. None of the above.
ANSWER: B

35.  In Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala it was held that:

A. Under the amended Article 368, all provisions of the Constitution including those enshrined
fundamental rights could be amended
B. Fundamental rights cannot be amended
C. Fundamental Rights have the primacy and supremacy than any of the provisions of the
Constitution
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: A
37. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. Benefit of compassionate appointment cannot be extended to the dependents of the casual or
purely ad hoc employees or apprentices.
II. An ineligible person interviewed under an interim order of the Court and selected was not
entitled to continue in service on compassionate ground after losing his case though confirmed.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. None of them
ANSWER: C

38. Which of the following theories is based on the assumption that in the event of
arbitrary exercise by those on whom the power is conferred the same would be
corrected by the Courts?
A. Guided Theory of Power
B. Theory of Power of courts
C. Theory of Arbitrary Power
D. Theory of Discretionary Power
ANSWER: A

39. Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 was prepared on the recommendations of which committee?

[A]Hartog Committee
[B]Fazl Ali Committee
[C]Chopra Committee
[D] None of the above
ANSWER: C

40. Which of the following fixes a ceiling on election expenses?

[A]Election commission of India
[B]Union Government
[C]Cabinet
[D] Supreme Court
ANSWER: B
41. Which article of the constitution states the tenure of the members of the defence services, the
civil services of the Centre and the all-India services?
[A]Article310
[B]Article311
[C]Article312
[D] Article 313
ANSWER: A

42. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to National Human Rights
Commission?
1. The functions of the commission are mainly recommendatory in nature.
2. It has no power to punish the violators of human rights.
3. It can award any relief including monetary relief to the victim.
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A]Only1
[B]Only2
[C]Only1&2
[D] Only 2 & 3
ANSWER: C

43. Taxation is a/an_____________ power of the state and there is no

fundamental right to be immune from taxation.
A. Independent
B. Statutory
C. Authoritative
D. Administration
ANSWER: A

45. The test of reasonableness is not a wholly________ test and its contours are
fairly indicated by the Constitution.
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Descriptive
D. Summative
ANSWER: A
46. Which of the following is the thrust of Article 17 of the Indian
Constitution?
A. To liberate the society from blind and ritualistic adherence and traditional beliefs
B. To establish a new and ideal society
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. Neither (A) nor (B)
ANSWER: C

47. The State cannot compel an employee to go on deputation from its parent
department to another public sector undertaking unless a ___________ rule
exists in this behalf.
A. Parliamentary
B. Statutory
C. Legal
D. Non-Statutory
ANSWER: B

48. ‘Justice, social, economic and political’ is:

A. guaranteed by Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
B.  guaranteed to the people by the writs issued by the Supreme Court of India
C. an idea enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India
D. a Directive Principle of State Policy taken into account making enactments.
ANSWER: C

49. Which of the following statements regarding the meaning of “Collective Responsibility”
is/are correct?
I. All members of a Government are unanimous in support of its policies and exhibit that unanimity on
public occasions although while formulating the policies, they might have differed in the Cabinet meeting.
II. The Ministers, who had an opportunity to speak for or against the policies in the cabinet are thereby
personally and morally responsible for its success and failure.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. None of them
ANSWER: C
50. The Police Power of the State cannot be__________
A. Absolute
B. Arbitrary
C. Oppressive
D. All of them
ANSWER: D

51. When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution,

the charges shall be preferred by___________ of Parliament.
A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Either House
D. None of them
ANSWER: C

52. Who among the following administers the oath to the President of India?
A. Governor
B. Vice President
C. Speaker
D. Chief Justice of Supreme Court
ANSWER: D

53.  The ‘Eligibility for re-election’ of President is the basis of the Indian
Constitution.
A. Article 56
B. Article 57
C. Article 58
D. Article 54
ANSWER: B

54. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution describes the term of the office of the President?
A. Article 55(1)

B. Article 56

C. Article 54

D. Article 55

ANSWER: B
55. The main object of Article 54 of the Indian Constitution is

A. To prescribe qualifications required for electors to elect the President

B. To fix the time for the election to fill the vacancy before the expiration of the term of
the outgoing president
C. To prevent the holding of the election before expiration of that term by reason of
dissolution of the legislative Assembly of a state
D. All of them
ANSWER: A

56. In which of the following questions will the Judiciary not enter or involve?

A. Political Questions
B. Policy involving Questions
C. Ether (A) or (B)
D. Both (A) and (B)
ANSWER: D

57.  Which of the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties is/are found
to be correct?
I. Fundamental Duties are not enforceable by mandamus or any other legal remedy.
II. If the state seeks to promote any of these duties, that can be done only through methods
permitted by and in consonance with the constitution.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II
ANSWER: A

58. Uniform Civil code for the citizens’ is mentioned in which of the following
Articles of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 43
B. Article 43A
C. Article 44
D. Article 45
ANSWER: C
59. According to Article 39 of the Indian Constitution the State shall, in particular,
direct its policy towards securing:
I. That the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
II. That the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed
as best to sub serve the common good.
III. That there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
A. I, II and III
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I and II
ANSWER: A

60. Which kinds of justice have been mentioned in Article 38 in Part IV of the
Indian Constitution?
A. Social
B. Economic
C. Political
D. All of them
ANSWER: D

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