MODEL PAPER - 15

7. Multidrug resistance in TB is defined as resistance to:

1. A 25-year-old female has been diagnosed to be (a) Streptomycin, Rifampicin and Isoniazid
suffering from tuberculosis categorized as category I (b) Streptomycin and Rifampicin
(sputum (c) Isoniazid and Rifampicin
+ve) case of relapse. The new treatment regimen (d) Streptomycin and Isoniazid
recom- mended under DOTS is: 8. Every TB sputum positive patient can infect up to:
(a) 2(HRZE)3 + 5(HR)3 (a) 1-2 persons per year
(b) 2(HRSZE)3 + 1(HRZE)3 + 5(HRE)3 (b) 5-6 persons per year
(c) 3(HRZE)3 + 2(HRE)3 + 4(HR)3 (c) 10-15 persons per year
(d) 3(HRSZE)3 + 1(HRZE)3 + 6(HRE)3 (d) 100-200 persons per year
2. For sputum smear to come positive on ZN staining
9. Under RNTCP, objective is to achieve:
there should be minimum:
(a) To achieve a cure rate of 70% and then to detect 85%
(a) 100 bacilli per ml sputum of estimated cases
(b) 1000 bacilli per ml sputum (b) To achieve a cure rate of 85% and then to detect 70
(c) 2000 bacilli per ml sputum % of estimated cases
(d) 10,000 bacilli per ml sputum (c) To detect 70% of estimated cases and then to D.S.S
3. A 26 years old male has symptoms suggestive of tuber- achieve a cure rate of 85% AII
culosis. At DOTS clinic, he undergoes 3 sputum (d) To detect 85% of estimated cases and then toachieve M
a cure rate of70%
smears examinations. Only one of the sputum smears S
turns out to be positive for AFB. Next step of 10. To yield a positive sputum smear result on ZN P
management will be: Staining, there should be minimum of:
(a) 100 acid fast bacilli per ml of sputum R
(a) He is declared a Sputum smear +ve case; started (b) 1000 acid fast bacilli per ml of sputum E
with DOTS Cat I treatment (c) 10000 acid fast bacilli per ml of sputum P
(b) He is declared a Sputum smear –ve case; started (d) 100000 acid fast bacilli per ml of sputum R
with DOTS Cat III treatment
11. Only bacteriostatic anti-tubercular drug among the A
(c) He is referred for Chest X-ray
following is:
(d) He will undergo sputum smear examinations after
(a) Isoniazid
TI
12 months again
(b) Rifampicin O
4. Which is the right number of doses of ATT for a (c) Streptomycin N
category II patient under DOTS? (d) Ethambutol
(a) IP – 24, CP – 54
12. Anti-tubercular drug contraindicated during
(b) IP – 36, CP - 66
pregnancy is:
(c) IP – 24, CP - 48
(a) Isoniazid (b) Rifampicin
(d) IP – 36, CP - 54
(c) Streptomycin (d) Ethambutol
5. In RNTCP the schedule for sputum examination for
category I patients is: 13. Ethambutol is associated with:
(a) 2, 3 and 5 months (a) Red-blue colour blindness
(b) 2, 4 and 6 months (b) Red-green colour blindness
(c) 1, 3 and 5 months (c) Blue-green colour blindness
(d) 2, 5 and 7 months (d) Yellow-green colour blindness
14. Anti-tubercular drug not given in children < 6 years age
6. Best indicator of trend of Tuberculosis unaffected by
current control measures is: is:
(a) Annual Risk of Infection (a) Isoniazid
(b) Prevalence of TB infection (b) Rifampicin
(c) % of primary drug resistance (c) Streptomycin
(d) % of Multidrug resistance (d) Ethambutol
443

D.S.S AIIMS PREPRATION

TEST SERIES
 Review of Preventive and Social Medicine

15. Under RNTCP, a patient who was initially sputum

23. True about DOTS:
smear +ve, who began treatment and who remained
(a) Drugs are given on supervision
or became smear +ve again at 5 months or later during
(b) Streptomycin always given in first two months
course of treatment is a:
(c) Intermittent regimen are used
(a) New case
(d) Same regimen is given in all patient
(b) Relapse
(e) In category – 1. new sputum positive cases sputum
(c) Failure case examined in 2.5 and 6 months
(d) Defaulter
24. DOTS true about:
16. A adult male patient presented in the OPD with (a) Rx under supervision
complaints of cough and fever for 3 months and (b) All given same Rx
haemoptysis off and on. His sputum was positive for (c) Streptomycin given to all
AFB. On probing it was found that he had already (d) Intermittent regimen
received treatment with RHZE for 3 weeks from a (e) Daily regimen
nearby hospital and discontinued. How will you
categorize and manage the patient? 25. Treatment of choice for sputum positive pulmonary
(a) Category III, start 2 (RHZ)3 tuberculosis detected in the I trimester of pregnancy is:
(b) Category II, start 2 (RHZE)3 (a) Defer treatment till II trimester
(c) Category I, start 2 (RHZE)3 (b) Start Category I immediately
(d) Category II, start 2 (RHZES)3 (c) Start Category II immediately
17. ‘DOTS’ indicates: (d) Start Category III immediately
(a) Short-term treatment under supervision 26. A pregnant female in first trimester came with sputum
(b) Short-term treatment without supervision positive TB. Treatment of choice:
(c) Long-term treatment with supervision (a) Start Cat I treatment immediately
(d) Long-term treatment without supervision (b) Start Cat II treatment immediately
18. The sputum examination under DTP is done when the (c) Start Cat III treatment immediately
patient present with: (d) Delay treatment till 2nd trimester
(a) Cough of 1-2 wks duration 27. A person with tuberculosis on domiciliary treatment is
(b) Persistent cough of 1-2 days duration expected to do all, except:
(c) Hemoptysis (a) Dispose sputum safely
(d) Chest pain (b) Use separate vessels
(e) Intermittent fever (c) Collect drugs regularly
19. True about revised National Tuberculosis programme (d) Report to PHC if new symptoms arise
(NTP): 28. Dose of Rifampicin in RNTCP is:
(a) Active case finding
(b) DOTS applied (a) 300 mg
(c) Treatment is given only in smear positive cases (b) 450 mg
(d) General practitioners are restricted to give the (c) 600 mg
treatment (d) 800 mg
(e) It has replaced NTP
29. Diagnosis of TB according to DOTS (RNTCP) is:
20. Which is not included in RNTCP:
(a) Active case finding (a) 1 out of 2 samples positive
(b) Directly observed (b) 2 out of 3 samples positive
(c) X-ray is diagnostic (c) 3 out of 3 samples positive
(d) Drugs given daily (d) None
30. Category II treatment:
21. As per RNTCP Cat-1, should receive: (a) 2HRZES + 1HRZE + 5HRE
(a) 4 drugs for 2 months and 2 drugs for 4 months (b) 2HRZE + 5HRZ
(b) 3 drugs for two months and 2 drugs for four months (c) 2HRZE + 4HR
(c) Includes Retreatment cases (d) None
(d) Rx is given daily
31. Drugs are used in AKT-4 kit for TB as:
(e) Directly observed
22. Features of RNTCP A/E: (a) Decrease in resistance by mutation
(a) Active case findings (b) Decrease in resistance by conjugation
(b) Involvement of NGO (c) To cure disease early
(c) Sputum – 2 times (d) None
444
32. DOTS criteria for TB is positive if:
Review Questions
(a) 1 out of 2 sputum positive
(b) 2 out of 3 sputum positive 41. Disadvantage of INH prophylaxis are all of the Follo-
(c) CxR positive wing except:
(d) Mantoux positive
(a) Costly
33. True about Category III RNCTP is/ are: (b) Not effective
(a) Recently abolished (c) Cannot prevent disease in infected person
(b) Meant for MDR-TB treatment (d) Risk of hepatitis
(c) Given for 6 months
42. If after 2 months of conventional antituberculous
(d) Includes defaulters
therapy, sputum smear examination is positive, it indi-
(e) Based on sputum culture findings
cates:
34. Dose of Rifampicin in RNTCP is: (a) Treatment failure
(a) 600 mg (b) Return after default
(b) 450 mg (c) Resistant tuberculosis
(c) 300 mg (d) Category-II failure
(d) 100 mg
43. A patient of tuberculosis was treated 5 years back.
35. Why a TB patient is recommend a regimen of 4 drugs Now he represents with symptoms of cough, sputum
on 1st visit: culture was negative, X-ray changes show opacities, It
(a) To avoid emergence of persistors did not respond to broad spectrum antibiotics. It
(b) To avoid side effects belongs to which category:
(c) To cure early (a) Category I
(d) None of the above (b) Category II
36. Category I TB treatment is: (c) Category III
(a) Active (d) Category IV
(b) Passive 44. The drug which is used only in RNTCP CAT II is:
(c) Both (a) INH
(d) None
(b) Rifampicin
37. RNTCP case finding is: (c) Streptomycin
(a) Active (d) Pyrazinamide
(b) Passive
45. In revised National tuberculosis control programme
(c) Both
main objective is:
(d) None
(a) To improve patient’s compliance
38. XDR-TB definition include resistance to: (b) Achievements of high cure rates through DOTS
(c) To decrease development of resistance against
(a) Rifampicin Antitubercular drugs
(b) Any one Fluoroquinolone (d) To increase effectiveness
(c) INH 46. Under directly observed treatment of short course
(d) Kanamycin chemotherapy, the recommended regimen of category-
(e) Ethionamide II treatment is:
39. Under RNCTP diagnosis, TB bacilli take up AFB stain (a) 2 (HRE)3.4(HR)3
faster showing ‘Beaded appearance’ due to presence of: (b) 2 (HRZES)3. 1(HRZE)3,5(HRE)3
(a) Palmitic acid (c) 3 (HRZES)3, 2(HRZE)3’
(b) Wax-D (d) 2 (HRZ)3. 4 (HR)3
(c) Cord-factor
47. In the DOTS strategy under National Tuberculosis
(d) Mycolic acid
Control Programme, the letter ‘D’ and ‘O’ stand for
40. What is New change in Revised National Tuberculosis which of the following?
Control Programme (RNTCP)?
(a) DOTS based therapy (a) Daily observed
(b) Diagnosis by Sputum smear microscopy (b) Directly observed
(c) Non-DOTS based therapy (c) Day out
(d) Early diagnosis and treatment (d) Dually observed

445

D.S.S AIIMS PREPRATION TEST SERIES

 Review of Preventive and Social Medicine

48. Treatment of recently sputum positive case of (c) Non-polio AFP rate should be >1 per100000 among
pulmonary TB is: <15 yrs old
(a) RMP + INH + PZM (d) Adequate stool specimens should be taken from
(b) RMP + INH + PZM + SMC 100% AFP
(c) RMP + INH + PZM + ETM
55. Acute flaccid paralysis is reported in a child aged:
(d) RMP + INH + ETM
(a) 0-3 years
49. The Pillars of Revised National Tuberculosis Control (b) 0-5 years
Programme (RNTCP) are all Except: (c) 0-15 years
(d) 0-25 years
(a) Achievement of not less than 85% cure rate amongst
infectious cases of tuberculosis through short 56. In Acute Flaccid paralysis, examination for residual
couse chemotherapy involving peripheral health paralysis should be done after:
functionary (a) 30 days
(b) Detecting 70% of estimated cases through Quality (b) 60 days
Sputum Microscopy (c) 90 days
(c) Not involving NGO’s in RNTCP (d) 120 days
(d) Directly observed therapy (short term), is a 57. In acute flaccid paralysis surveillance, evaluation for
community based TB treatment and care strategy re- sidual paralysis is done at
50. According to RNTCP, tubercular pericarditis should (a) 6 weeks
be treated with which category of anti-tubercular (b) 6 months
regimen? (c) 60 days
(a) Category I (d) 90 days
(b) Category III
58. Target group for pulse polio immunization is
(c) Category II
(d) Category IV
(a) 0-1 years
51. According to RNTCP,the first action to be taken in a (b) 0-3 years
person with cough of more than three weeks with one (c) 0-5 years
sample of sputum positive? (d) 0-10 years
(a) Star antibiotics for 15 days
(b) Chest X-ray 59. Line listing of cases of Acute Flaccid Paralysis is done
(c) Sputum sample for AFB for all of the following reasons except
(d) Culture study (a) To check for duplication
(b) To document high risk groups
(c) To confirm year of onset of illnesss
NATIONAL POLIO ELIMINATION PROGRAMME (d) To identify high risk population
52. Pulse polio immunization is administration of OPV to: 60. Under national polio eradication programme, a case of
acute flaccid paralysis is confirmed as polio by surveil-
(a) All children between 0—5 years of age on a single lance after how many days?
day, irrespective of their previous immunization (a) 15 days (b) 30 days
status (c) 60 days (d) 90 days
(b) Children in the age group of 0—1 year only who
have not been immunized earlier Review Questions
(c) Children in the age group of 12—24 months only, as
the booster dose 61. OPV Vaccine type:
(d) All children between 0—5 years of age, whenever (a) Killed
there is an outbreak of poliomyelitis (b) Live
(c) Toxoid
53. Under AFP Surveillance, follow-up examination is
(d) None
done after:
(a) 15 days of onset of paralysis 62. All are true regarding Acute flaccid paralysis in National
(b) 33 days of onset of paralysis polio Eradication Programme, except:
(c) 60 days of onset of paralysis (a) Acute flaccid paralysis in a child <15 years of age
(d) 93 days of onset of paralysis (b) All cases of AFP should be reported irrespective of
diagnosis within 6 months of onset stool
54. All are true regarding AFP Surveillance except: (c) Two specimens collected within 14 days of paralysis
(a) WHO recommends it for age less than 15 yrs onset and at least 24 hours apart
(b) Two stool samples are collected per case (d) 30 days follow up examination

446
 National Health Programmes, Policies and Legislations in India

63. Pulse polio immunization covers: (c) Reassurance and continue pregnancy
(a) 0-5 yrs children
(d) Laparotomy
(b) 0-1 yrs children
(c) 1-5 yrs children 71. According to IMNCI, fast breathing in 5 month child is
(d) 0-2 yrs children defined as
(a) >30/min
RCH PROGRAMME (b) >40/min
(c) >50/min
64. Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood (d) >60/min
Illness (IMNCI) includes all except: 72. Under RCH programme, intervention done in selected
(a) Malaria districts
(b) Respiratory infections (a) Immunization
(c) Diarrhoea (b) Treatment of STD
(d) Tuberculosis (c) ORS therapy
65. Essential components of RCH Programme in India (d) Vitamin A supplementation
include all of the following except: 73. Drug-kit B is given at:
(a) Prevention and management of unwanted preg- (a) PHC
nancies (b) Subcenter
(b) Maternal care including antenatal, delivery and (c) CHC
postnatal services (d) FRU level
(c) Reduce the under five mortality to half
(d) Management of reproductive tract infections and 74. RCH programme includes
sexually transmitted infections (a) CSSM plus school health
(b) CSSM plus family planning
66. ‘Seven Cleans’ of safe and hygienic birth practices (c) CSSM plus ORS
include: (d) CSSM plus pneumonia control
(a) Clean walls and Clean floor
(b) Clean towel and Clean water for hand washing 75. According to 2006 government of India guidelines for
(c) Clean birth canal and Clean cord surface sterilization all are true except
(d) Clean mind and Clean environment (a) Should be married
(b) Female clients should be below the age of 45 years
67. RCH-II (2004-09) has set the goal of achieving a Couple
and above the age of 20 years
Protection Rate of: (c) The couple should have at least on child whose age
(a) 48% is above one year unless the sterilization is
(b) 60% medically indicated.
(c) 65% (d) Clients or their spouses/partner must not have un-
(d) 100% dergone sterilization in the past
68. Elemental iron and folic acid contents of pediatric 76. Patient treated at home is allotted what color code ac-
iron- folic acid tablets supplied under Reproductive cording to IMNCI color coding
and Child Health (RCH) Programme are: (a) Pink
(a) 20 mg iron and 100 micrograms folic acid (b) Red
(b) 40 mg iron and 100 micrograms folic acid (c) Green
(c) 40 mg iron and 50 micrograms folic acid (d) Yellow
(d) 60 mg iron and 100 micrograms folic acid
77. RCH phase 2 does not include
69. IMNCI differs from IMCI in all except: (a) Immunization of pregnant women
(a) Malaria and anaemia are included (b) Treatment of STD/RTI
(b) 0 – 7 days infants are included (c) Feed to malnourished children
(c) Sick neonates are preferred over sick older children (d) Early registration of pregnancy upto 12-16 weeks
(d) Treatment is aimed at more than one disease
(condition) at a time 78. Components of RCH elaborated include
70. Copper-T with threads is visible in a case of early (a) Prevention of STD
pregnancy. Treatment of choice is: (b) Family planning
(a) Remove CuT only (c) Child survival
(b) Suction evacuation with Copper-T removal (d) All of the above

447

D.S.S AIIMS PREPRATION TEST SERIES

 79. IMNCI target group is (d) Visual acuity < 3/60 in the better eye with best
(a) Upto 5 yrs correction
(b) Upto 10 yrs 87. According to the National Programme for Control of
(c) Upto 15 yrs Blindness (NPCB) in India, the definition of blindness
(d) Upto 20 yrs is:
(a) Visual acuity < 6/60 in the better eye with available
correction
Review Questions (b) Visual acuity < 3/60 in the better eye with available
correction
80. RCH II includes: (c) Visual acuity < 6/60 in the better eye with best
(a) Low osmolar ors correction
(b) Adolescent health (d) Visual acuity < 3/60 in the better eye with best
(c) Exclusive breast feeding correction
(d) All 88. A 46- Years old female presented at the eye OPD in a
81. In CSSM programme drug of choice for Pneumonia: hospital. Her vision in the right eye was 6/60 and in
(a) Co-trimoxazole left eye 3/60. Under the National Programme for
(b) Doxycycline Control of Blindness, she will be classified as:
(c) Erythromycin (a) Socially blind
(d) Chloramphenicol (b) Low vision
(c) Economically blind
82. Recommended dose for treatment of pneumonia of
(d) Normal vision
6 months old child is (1 tablet contains 100 mg of
sulphamethozazole and 20 mg of trimethoprim): 89. The visual acuity used as cut off for differentiating
(a) ½ tablet twice daily “normal” from “abnormal” children in the School
(b) One tablet twice daily Vision Screening Programme in India is:
(c) Two tablets twice daily (a) 6/6
(d) Three tablets twice daily (b) 6/9
83. According to maternal health programme the daily (c) 6/12
dose of folic acid for pregnant women should be: (d) 6/60
(a) 100 mcg (b) 200 mcg 90. Revised strategies of National Programme for Control
(c) 300 mcg (d) 400 mcg of Blindness include all except:
(a) To strengthen participation of voluntary organi-
NATIONAL BLINDNESS CONTROL PROGRAMME
zations
84. Under the National Programme for Control of (b) To shift from fixed facility surgical approach to eye
Blindness in India, medical colleges are classified as camp approach
eye care centers of: (c) To enhance coverage of eye care services in tribal
(a) Primary level and other under-served areas
(b) Secondary level (d) To strengthen services for transplantation of cornea,
(c) Tertiary level treatment of glaucoma
(d) Intermediate level 91. Most cost-effective method for cataract surgery in
85. A 46- Years old female presented at the eye OPD in a India has been found to be:
hospital. Her vision in the right eye was 6/60 and in (a) Private Hospital
left eye 3/60. Under the National Programme for (b) NGO Hospital
Control of Blindness, she will be classified as: (c) Government Camps
(a) Socially blind (d) NGO organized screening camps followed by sur-
(b) Low vision gery at base hospital
(c) Economically blind 92. Match the following NPCB categories of Visual
(d) Normal vision impairment and Blindness:
86. According to the World Health Organization, the defi-
A < 6/18 to 6/60, I - Economic Blindness
nition of blindness is:
B < 6/60 to 3/60, II - Manifest Blindness
C < 3/60 to 1/60, III - Social Blindness
(a) Visual acuity < 6/60 in the better eye with available
correction D < 1/60 to perception of light, IV - Low Vision
(b) Visual acuity <3/60 in the better eye with available (a) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
correction (b) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-IV
(c) Visual acuity < 6/60 in the better eye with best (c) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
correction (d) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
 D.S.S AIIMS PREPRATION TEST SERIES
93. Prevalence of blindness in India is 1.1 %. This has
(b) Intra-ocular lens implanation in more than 80% of
been calculated using following cut off for blindness: cataract surgery cases
(a) 3/60 (c) 100% coverage of vitamin A prophylaxia doses from
(b) 6/60 9 months to 3 years age
(c) 1/60 (d) Development of 50 paediatric ophthalmology units
(d) 6/18
102. Which of the following diseases is not included in
94. All of the following are given global prominence in “Vision 2020 - Right to Sight” immediate goals?
the VISION 2020 goals, except:
(a) Cataract
(a) Refractive errors (b) Epidemic conjunctivitis
(b) Cataract (c) Onchocerciasis
(c) Trachoma (d) Trachoma
(d) Glaucoma
103. Which of the following Health organisation is not a
95. Target diseases for VISION 2020 in India does not part of Vision 2020?
include:
(a) UNICEF
(a) Refractive errors and Low vision (b) WHO
(b) Diabetic retinopathy Natio
(c) Orbis na
(c) Trachoma (d) International Agency for Prevention of Blindness
(d) Xerophthalmia l
104. All of the following are included in Vision 2020 for H
96. The eye condition for which the World Bank India except: ea
assistance was provided to the National Programme lt
(a) Diabetic retinopathy
for Control of Blindness (1994-2001) is: (b) Glaucoma h
(a) Cataract (c) Vitamin A deficiency Pr
(b) Refractive errors (d) Refractive errors o
(c) Trachoma
(d) Vitamin A deficiency 105. Number of Vision centers under Vision 2020, National gr
Program for Control of Blindness are a
97. Under the school eye-screening programme in India, m
(a) 20
the initial vision screening of school children is done (b) 200 m
by (c) 2000 es
(a) School teachers (d) 20000 ,
(b) Primary level health workers P
(c) Eye specialists 106. In SAFE strategy, S stands for
(a) Surgery oli
(d) Medical officers
(b) Syringing ci
98. Under national blindness control program social (c) Streptomycin es
blindness is vision between: (a) 3/60 and (d) All of the above an
1/60 d
(b) PL – ve 107. Follow-up of Cataract operations in National
Le
(c) 6/60 and 3/60 Blindness Control Program is done by
gi
(d) below 1/60 but PL + ve (a) Active surveillance
sl
(b) Passive surveillance
99. False about School Vision Screening Programme is: (c) Sentinel surveillance
ati
(a) Age group screened is 5-10 years (d) Routine check-up o
(b) Screening is done by Teacher ns
(c) One teacher is for 150 students 108. In Vision 2020, the target for secondary service centre
(d) Cut off for referral of a child is vision < 6/9 is for how much population (a) 10000
(b) 50000
100. SAFE strategy has been developed for the control of: (c) 100,000
(a) Onchocerciasis (d) 500,000
(b) Trachoma
109. In vision 2020, recommended ophthalmic personnel per
(c) Refractive error
(d) Ocular trauma population ratio is
101. About National Programme for Control of Blindness (a) 5000
(NPCB), all are true except: (b) 10000
(a) Increase cataract surgery rate to 450 operations per (c) 50000
one lac population (d) 100,000

D.S.S AIIMS PREPRATION TEST SERIES