TEMATICA REZIDENTIAT/LICENTA
Septembrie 2018
Specializarea Medicina Generala
INTERNAL MEDICINE
PNEUMOLOGY
1. COPD- p.1- 24
1*. Pulmonary Emphysema is defined by>
A. Chronic and recurrent hypersecretion
B. Productive cough for at least 3 months annually, 2 consecutive years
C. Destruction of alveolar walls and consecutive abnormal persistent enlargement of
trachea and main bronchus
D. Destruction of alveolar walls and consecutive abnormal persistent enlargement of air
spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles, without an obvious fibrosis.
E. Chronic productive cough caused by destruction of alveolar walls
2.Which of the following statements are true?
A. COPD is a multifactorial condition
B. Clinical manifestations allow, in most of the cases, the distinction between COPD
and asthma
C. In asthma, the syndrome of airflow obstruction is reversible spontaneously or by
therapy
D. Spirometry is normal in both COPD and asthma
E. COPD is a chronic inflammation and it is a consequence of chronic irritation of
airways caused by air pollutants (smoking and/or environmental or professional
factors)
3.Which are the risk factors for the development of COPD:
A. Smoking
B. Alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency
C. Food and drug allergies
D. Physical exercise
E. Atmospheric pollution
4.Alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency:
A. Is a disease caused by a genetic mutation met in 1% of COPD patients
B. It occurs mainly in older people
C. It leads to a panacinar pulmonary emphysema
D. If it is associated with smoking, FEV1 rate of decline is accelerated
E. It is encountered frequently in 45 % of COPD patients
5*. Morphopathological features of lung structure lesions in COPD occur in the:
A. Large airways
B. Small airways
C. Lung parenchyma
D. Pulmonary vascularization
E. All of the above
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6. Which of the following statements about morphopathological lesions are true in COPD
patients:
A. Small airways are the place of the characteristic COPD lesions
B. Bronchial wall is the place for the inflammatory infiltrate consisting of
polymorphonuclear neutrophils, activated CD 8+ lymphocytes, macrophages and
fibroblasts.
C. The global consequence of small airways changes is the progressive and
irreversible small airway obstruction
D. In the lung parenchyma occurs emphysema through destruction of alveolar walls
E. Pulmonary vascularization is never affected in COPD
7. COPD is clinically characterized by:
A. Chronic productive cough and progressive effort dyspnea
B. Chronic cough may precede or is simultaneous with dyspnea in 75 % of COPD
patients
C. Cough has nocturnal paroxysmal exacerbations episodes and exacerbations caused by
exposure to triggers.
D. The volume of sputum increases and its content becomes purulent during COPD
exacerbations
E. Dyspnea is the most characteristic symptom of COPD
8. Which of the following statements about dyspnea is not true?
A. It is the most characteristic symptom for COPD
B. It is associated with normal lung function
C. Its aggravation has a poor prognosis
D. Initially dyspnea occurs after an exertion and later it becomes manifest at rest
E. It has a paroxysmal character evolving only during night time
9. COPD dyspnea can be assessed and quantified by:
A. Questionnaire COPD Assessment Test (CAT)
B. ACT Questionnaire (Asthma Control Questionnaire)
C. Modified Medical Research Council (MRC) scale
D. BORG scale
E. Epworth sleepiness scale
10*. Physical examination of the patient with different stages of COPD severity may show:
A. Pursed-lip breathing
B. Pulmonary hypersonority
C. Dyspnea at rest and cyanosis
D. Rhonchi rales and sometimes sibilant wheezes
E. All of the above
11.*COPD diagnosis is confirmed by:
A. Chest radiography
B. Spirometry with bronchodilator test
C. ECG
D. Polygraphy
E. None of the above
12. Differential diagnosis of COPD include:
A. Bronchiectasis
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B. Mucoviscidosis (cystic fibrosis)
C. Bronchial Asthma
D. Bronchitis Post Tuberculosis Syndrome
E. Diabetes mellitus
13.Laboratory investigations recommended in COPD include:
A. Spirometry
B. Chest radiography
C. Electroencephalogram (EEG)
D. Arterial blood gas analysis
E. All of the above
14*. Risk group A of the GOLD classification of COPD, based on the severity and
exacerbations, is characterized by:
A. Low risk, less symptoms: stage I or II of obstruction and/or 0-1 exacerbations per
year, CAT ˂10 and mMRC scale 0 or 1.
B. Low risk, more symptoms: stage I or II of obstruction and/or 0-1 exacerbations per
year, CAT ≥10 and mMRC scale ≥2.
C. High risk, less symptoms: stage III or IV of obstruction, >2 exacerbations per year,
CAT ˂10 and mMRC scale 0 or 1.
D. High risk, more symptoms: stage III or IV of obstruction and/or >2 exacerbations per
year, CAT >10 and mMRC scale >2.
E. None of the above.
15.Secondary prophylaxis in COPD means:
A. Tobacco use cessation
B. Active smoking
C. Pneumococcal vaccination
D. Influenza vaccination performed annually
E. Bronchodilator therapy
16.Bronchodilator medications recommended in COPD are the following:
A. Short-acting beta agonists
B. Long-acting beta agonists
C. Corticosteroids
D. Short or Long acting anticholinergic
E. Theophylline retard
17.The following classes of drugs used in the pharmacological treatment of COPD are:
A. Short and long acting beta agonists bronchodilators
B. Short and long acting anticholinergic bronchodilators
C. Fixed therapy of corticosteroids inhaler + long acting beta agonists bronchodilator
D. Theophylline
E. Leukotriene inhibitors
18.Home long-term oxygen therapy indications in COPD patients are the following:
A. PaO2 is below 55 mmHg during COPD exacerbation
B. PaO2 is above 55 mmHg during stable COPD
C. PaO2 is between 55-60 mmHg but it is associated with cor pulmonale or polyglobulia
D. PaO2 is below 55 mmHg in stable forms of COPD, excluding exacerbations
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E. No patient with stable COPD needs oxygen therapy
19.Which of the following are the objectives of a rehabilitation pulmonary program in COPD
patients:
A. Amelioration of the survival time
B. Improvement of the quality of life
C. Increase the number of exacerbations
D. Improvement of symptomatology
E. Increase in drugs and medical services consumption
20.Which of the following statements about COPD exacerbations are true?
A. An exacerbation is characterized by the occurrence and worsening of the dyspnea
B. The most common cause of COPD exacerbation is bronchitis infection (mainly viral
infections)
C. Fever can be associated
D. The volume of sputum and the intensification of cough
E. Exacerbations are associated with mild cough and dyspnea
Întocmit de conf dr Dantes Elena
2. Pneumonias- pp. 25-36 20 questions (of which 5* simple complement)
1*. Pneumonias are defined by:
A. Acute infections of lung alveolar spaces and interstitial area
B. Do not occur in patients with immunosuppression
C. Do not have an infectious etiology
D. Do not represent a public health problem
E. Do not have etiologic polymorphism
2*. Etiology of community acquired pneumonias (CAP) includes the following statements
except for one:
A. It is correlated with the patients age
B. In small children, under 6 year-old, TB bacilli are prevalent
C. In young adults atypical germs such as Mycoplasma and Chlamydia pneumoniae are
prevalent
D. In older children Streptococcus pneumoniae is prevalent
E. In the elderly, Gram negative bacilli, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus
influenzae are prevalent
3.Atypical Pneumonia is defined by the following statements excepting for:
A. The symptoms of nasal and pharyngeal infection precede pneumonia
B. Has a sudden onset
C. Has a progressive worsening evolution
D. It is associated with cough, chest pain, myalgia and headache
E. It is associated with unique paroxysmal chill and hemoptysis
4. Which factors are involved in the pathogenesis of community acquired pneumonia:
A. Virulence of germs
B. Quantity of microbial inoculum
C. The host receptivity
D. Prolonged hospitalizations and hospital microbial germs
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E. Prolonged bed immobilization after surgery
5*. Differential diagnosis of pneumonia with lung opacity on the chest X-ray includes the
following diseases, except for:
A. Pulmonary Embolism
B. Pulmonary Tuberculosis
C. Lung cancer
D. Alveolar Haemorrhage
E. Pneumothorax
6.Which of the following statements about the etiologic diagnosis of pneumonia are false:
A. It is easy to establish the etiology
B. It is difficult to established the etiologic diagnosis of a pneumonia especially in
outpatients
C. Bacteriological exam is a direct method of analysing the etiology of pneumonia
D. Gram staining and microscopic examination of sputum cannot suggest the etiology of
pneumonia
E. Bacteriological exam of sputum is inconclusive
7.Chest X-ray must be recommended for any suspicion of pneumonia because:
A. It is essential in pneumonia diagnosis
B. It can reveal typical and atypical forms of pneumonia
C. It reveals changes during the evolution of a pneumonic process
D. It is not important for the diagnosis of pneumonia
E. It is not useful in assessing the evolution of pneumonia
8.Typical Community Acquired Pneumonia is characterized by:
A. Insidious, gradual onset
B. Rapid onset with high fever
C. A single shaking chill with a sudden onset
D. Recurrent chills
E. Purulent sputum can associated with toxic status
9.What pathogens strains can be involved in the etiology of an atypical community acquired
pneumonia?
A. Mycoplasma pneumonia
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Mycobacterium kansasii
D. Chlamydia pneumonia
E. Pneumocystis carinii
10.In patients with community acquired pneumonia, physical examination of the thorax
reveals pulmonary condensation syndrome if the following are present:
A. Dullness by percussion of the thorax
B. Sonority by percussion of the thorax
C. Tubal respiration, crepitant rales on auscultation
D. Sibilants on auscultation
E. Crepitant rales are absent
Întocmit de Conf.dr. Arghir Oana- Cristina
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11*. The following radiographic changes may occur in pneumonia:
A. Pulmonary consolidation
B. Interstitial infiltrate
C. Pulmonary abscess
D. Pulmonary gangrene
E. All of the above
12*. CURB – 65 scoring criteria are:
A. Confusion, increased uremia, increased respiratory rate, low blood pressure, age
above 65 year-old.
B. Consolidation, hyperuricemia, dyspnea, blood pressure, gender
C. Height, weight, blood pressure, gender, age.
D. Serum creatinine, heart rate, respiratory rate, age, confusion
E. None of the above.
13.Antibiotic therapy for community acquired pneumonia should cover most frequent
involved causative organism:
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Chlamidya pneumoniae
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
E. Pneumocystis carinii
14*. Which of the following antibiotics is an antipneumococcal fluoroquinolone?
A. Amikacin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Penicilline
D. Moxifloxacin
E. Cefuroxim
15. Unfavorable evolution of a pneumonia is suspected when:
A. A complication of pneumonia (pleural empiema) occurs
B. Wrong diagnosis of pneumonia
C. Ineffective therapy
D. Treatment according to drug sensitivity testing (DST)
E. None of the above
16.Hospital treatment of pneumonia in Intensive Unit is required in the following cases:
A. Risk factors of Pseudomonas aeruginosa etiology
B. Patients with chronic corticosteroids administration, malnutrition, prolonged
antibiotic therapy
C. Atypical pneumonia in young adults under 25 years.
D. In adults with uncomplicated forms of community-acquired pneumonia
E. When the patient requires a Chest X-ray
17.Causes of a recurrent pneumonia are the following:
A. Local causes
B. Systemic disease
C. Diffuse bronchiectasis
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D. Correct treatment
E. All of the above
18.Which of the following statements regarding treatment of pneumonia are true?
A. The central antitussives (codeine) are indicated in patients with severe cough
paroxysms which induce respiratory muscle fatigue
B. Assisted ventilation is reserved for cases with alveolar hypoventilation
C. Antibiotics for pneumonia with Pseudomonas aeruginosa must not comply with the
result of drug sensitivity testing result
D. Antibiotic treatment is frequently empirical and it is administered orally to patients
with severe pneumonia
E. Oxygen therapy is indicated by the presence of hypoxemia
19. The risk factors for delayed resolution of a pneumonia can be:
A. Old age
B. Alcoholism
C. Multilobular involvement
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Young age
20.The factors of poor prognostic in patients with pneumonia are:
A. Altered mental function
B. Association of a neoplastic disease
C. Age above 65 year-old
D. Vital signs suggestive for hypotension and polipnea
E. None of the above
Intocmite SL. Dr. Dantes Elena
3. Bronchial asthma – p. 37-47
1*. The main effector in chronic inflammation in asthma is the following:
A. Th2 lymphocytes
B. B lymphocytes
C. Mast cells
D. Basophils
E. Eosinophils
2*. Dominant symptom of asthma is the following:
A. Dyspnea
B. Wheezing
C. Coughing
D. Chest tightness
E. Stridor
3*. Bronchial obstruction in asthma is reversible if:
A. post-bronchodilator FEV1 is200 mL higher than pre-bronchodilator FEV1
B. FEV1post-bronchodilator is200 mL lower than pre-bronchodilator FEV1
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C. the ratio post-bronchodilator FEV1 - pre-bronchodilator FEV1/theoretic FEV1 is
≥12%
D. the ratio post-bronchodilator FEV1 - pre-bronchodilator FEV1/theoretic FEV1 is
<12%
E. post-bronchodilator FEV1 is200 mL higher than pre-bronchodilator FEV1 and the
ratio post-bronchodilator FEV1 - pre-bronchodilator FEV1/ theoretic FEV1 is ≥12%
4*. Relief medication for asthma consists in:
A. short-acting beta agonists
B. long-acting beta agonists
C. anti-IgE antibodies
D. leukotriene-receptor antagonists
E. inhaled corticosteroids
5*. Anti-immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies (Omalizumab) treatment is indicated in:
A. mild intermittent asthma
B. mild persistent asthma
C. moderate persistent asthma
D. severe asthma
E. obstructive asthma crisis
6. Atopy is characterized by:
A. inconstant presence of atopic diseases
B. negative skin test to habitual environmental allergens
C. positive skin test to habitual environmental allergens
D. increased serum IgE
E. lymphocytosis
7. Risk factors involved in the development of asthma are:
A. Pollen
B. House dust mites
C. Occupational exposure
D. Aspirin
E. Malnutrition
8. Airflow narrowing in asthma is caused by:
A. Bronchoconstriction
B. Chronic mucous hypersecretion
C. Intraluminal inflammatory exudate
D. Peripheral vasodilation
E. Airway remodeling
9. Airflow obstruction in asthma is characterized by:
A. Spontaneous Reversibility or reversibility after a bronchodilator
B. Irreversibility
C. Variability PEF in time
D. Normal lung function expressed by spirometry
E. Hyperinflation in moderate/severe obstruction
10. Asthma in characterized by:
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A. Bronchial hyperreactivity
B. Reversible bronchial obstruction
C. The absence of chronic airway inflammation
D. Decreased gas transfer through alveolocapillary membrane
E. Genetic predisposition
11. Intermittent asthma is characterized by:
A. Daily daytime symptoms
B. Rare use of Beta2 Agonist less than 3-4 times by week
C. Crisis interfere with daily activity
D. Nighttime symptoms < 2 times by month
E. PEF or FEV1 has more than 30% variability and FEV1 values above 60% but below
80% than normal values
12. Moderate persistent asthma is characterized by:
A. Daytime symptoms
B. Exacerbations that affect activity
C. Daily use of beta 2 agonist
D. Nighttime symptoms < 2 times by month
E. PEF or FEV1 variability < 20% and FEV1 values ≥80 % of normal values
13. Uncontrolled asthma is characterized by:
A. Presence of daytime symptoms
B. Presence of nighttime symptoms
C. Extremely rare use (need) of beta2 agonists
D. Frequent exacerbations (one every week)
E. Normal values of PEF or FEV1
14. Long term control medication of asthma can include:
A. High doses of inhaled corticosteroids in mild asthma
B. Low doses of inhaled corticosteroids in mild asthma
C. High doses of inhaled corticosteroids in severe asthma
D. Leukotriene-receptor antagonists
E. Anti-IgE antibodies (Omalizumab)
15. Inhaled corticosteroids may have several side effects at a daily dose higher than 1500 µg
administered for more than 6 months:
A. Chest pain
B. Cataract
C. Purpura
D. Dysphonia
E. Adrenal (CSR) suppression
16. Therapeutic doses of Methylxanthines can have the following effects:
A. Stimulate the ventilation
B. Enhance the diaphragm contractility
C. Decrease the cardiac output
D. Decrease the inspiratory muscle function
E. Increase the inspiratory muscle function
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17. Asthma symptoms have the following characteristics:
A. Variability during time
B. More frequent occurrence of symptoms during nighttime and early in the morning
C. Trigger factors induce the occurrence of symptoms
D. Absence of daytime symptoms
E. Spontaneous resolution of symptoms or treatment improvement od symptomatology
18. Long-term control treatment of asthma includes in the 3rd step several alternatives as:
A. Leukotriene-receptor antagonists
B. Low doses of inhaled corticosteroids and Leukotriene-receptor antagonists
C. High doses of inhaled corticosteroids + Long-acting beta agonist + Leukotriene-
receptor antagonists
D. Low doses of inhaled corticosteroids + Long acting Theophylline
E. High doses of inhaled corticosteroids and Long acting Theophylline
19.Persistent severe asthma is characterized by:
A. Rare nighttime symptoms
B. Frequent exacerbations
C. Frequent nighttime symptoms
D. Limited physical activity
E. PEF or FEV1 ≥60% of predicted values
20. Positive diagnosis of asthma consists in:
A. Repeated episodes of dyspnea, wheezing, coughing, chest tightness
B. Signs of bronchial obstruction on physical examination
C. Reversible obstructive syndrome on spirometry
D. Significant reduction of transfer factor through alveolocapillary membrane
E. Right ventricular hypertrophy on ECG
Întocmit de conf dr Tofolean Doina
4. Lung Cancer- pag. 48-52 ( fara tratament )
1*.The main etiological factor of lung cancer is:
A. Smoking
B. Alcohol
C. Environmental factors
D. Professional factors
E. Diet
2*. The main histopathologycal types of lung cancer are the following with one exception:
A. Epidermoid carcinoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Hamartoma
D. Small cell carcinoma
E. Large cell carcinoma
3*. Lung cancer has several risk factors excepting one:
A. Sufficient intake of vitamins with antioxidant effect
B. Genetic factors
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C. Asbestos
D. Smoking
E. Radon exposure
4*. Following statements are true, excepting one:
A. Any abnormal chest radiography must be followed by a CT scanning of the chest and
upper abdomen
B. A normal chest X-ray does not exclude a lung cancer.
C. A normal chest CT scan excludes cancer with a strict bronchial placement
D. Chest CT scan must precede bronchial endoscopy
E. Chest CT scan guides biopsy sampling
5*. Certitude diagnosis of lung cancer requires:
A. Clinical examination
B. Chest CT scan
C. Spirometry
D. Sputum examinaton
E. Anatomopathological examination
6. Squamous lung carcinoma is characterized by:
A. 20-25 % incidence.
B. Rising incidence determined by the reduced incidence of smoking
C. More common central location of the cancer
D. Diagnosed by bronchoscopy
E. More common peripheral location of the cancer
7. Large cell lung carcinoma is characterized by:
A. 15% incidence
B. Strictly peripheral location of the cancer
C. Central or peripheral location of the cancer
D. Occurs more frequent in children
E. It is frequently associated with COPD
8. Lung Adenocarcinoma is characterized by:
A. 40% incidence
B. The most common form of lung cancer in non-smokers and women
C. Centrally frequent location
D. Rapid extra-thoracic dissemination
E. Easily differentiated from pulmonary metastases of other extrapulmonary cancers
9. Small cell lung carcinoma is characterized by:
A. 15% incidence
B. Commonly associated with paraneoplastic syndromes
C. Centrally location
D. Slow progression
E. Delayed hematogenous dissemination
10. Local signs and symptoms in lung carcinoma may include:
A. Persistent cough
B. Changing cough’s characters
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C. Repeated respiratory infections in the same lung area
D. Hemoptysis
E. Abdominal mesenteric lymph nodes enlargement
11. Most commonly paraneoplastic syndromes lung cancer related are:
A. Cushing’s syndrome
B. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
C. Superficial thrombophlebitis
D.Acanthosis nigricans
E. Myasthenia gravis
12. Extension balance in lung cancer usually includes the following investigations:
A. Brain CT or MRI
B. PET – CT
C. ECG
D. Spirometry
E. Six minutes walk test
13. Lung Function Tests in patients diagnosed with lung cancer having an impaired lung
function but can benefit of curative surgical indication include:
A. Spirometry
B. DLCO
C. Plethysmography
D. Endoscopic ultrasound of the chest
E. Chest X-ray
14. Solitary Pulmonary Nodule (SPN) has indication of surgical resection if:
A. it is a high malignant probability
B. SPN has a solid component
C. Imagistic of a lung chyst
D. Increases in volume
E. Have stationary dimensions
15. Which statements are true regarding solid pulmonary nodules?
A. For PET CT active metabolic solid lung nodules, hystopathological examination is
recommended
B. If it is no metabolic activity in PET CT, monitoring of lesions by CT scans at 3, 6 and 12
months and then annually for 2-3 years is recommended.
C. Nodules with diameters between 5 and 10 mm need no surveillance
D. Nodules with diameters ˂5 mm need CT scan monitoring at 6 weeks.
E. Nodules with diameters >10 mm require PET CT investigation.
16. TNM staging of lung cancers is based on:
A. Clinical examination
B. Imaging
C. Macroscopic and microscopic analysis of surgical resection parts
D. Cytological analysis of bronchial fluid aspiration
E. Spirometry
17. Lung cancer has the following characteristics:
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A. Have as starting point bronchial epithelium
B. Have a lower incidence in industrialized countries
C. Have a pauci or asymptomatic initial evolution
D. Are late detected in 1/3 of cases
E. Five years survival is about 15 %
18. The most important carcinogens in cigarette smoke are:
A. Nicotine
B. Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
C. Asbestos
D. Benzene
E. Aldehydes
19. The most important professional factors involved in the development of lung cancer are:
A. Asbestos
B. Randon gas
C. Cobalt
D. Nicotine
E. Arsenic
20. Metastatic lung cancer can affect:
A. Liver
B. Bones
C. Brain
D.Lymph nodes
E. Portal vein
Întocmit de conf dr Tofolean Doina
5. Tuberculosis – pag. 72-87 20 questions (of which 5* simple complement)
1*. The increased rates of Multidrug-resistant (MDR) Tuberculosis are caused by several risk
factors, with one exception:
A. Non-compliance of patients
B. Therapy improperly caused by incorrect doses
C. Therapy improperly caused by an incorrect prescribed regimen of therapy
D. Adherence to therapy
E. Therapy improperly caused by an incorrect rithm of drugs administration
2*. What drug is ototoxic for the foetus?
A. Streptomicine
B. Isoniazide
C. Rifampicine
D. Pirazinamide
E. Ethambutol
3*. Mycobacteria cannot be destroyed by:
A. Direct sunlight
B. Antiseptic substances
C. Some antibiotics
D. Ultraviolet rays
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E. Cold temperature
4*. Immunity in tuberculosis is not characterized by:
A. It is a dominantly cellular type of immunity
B. It is not protective against the progression of the primary infection to manifest TB
disease and complications
C. It is a relative immunity
D. Delayed cellular hypersensitivity is followed by protective cellular immunity
E. No one
5*. The bacteriological examination for the positive diagnosis of TB is defined by the
following statements, except for one:
A. It is the main method for a certain TB diagnosis
B. It includes a microscopic examination with Ziehl Neelsen Staining and culture on
Lowenstein Jensen
C. It does not require sowing on the culture medium of Lowenstein Jensen
D. It identifies species of mycobacteria
E. It allows Drug Sensitivity Testing
6.The mycobacteria that belong to the Calmette Guerin strains used for the BCG vaccine:
A. Are derived from Mycobacterium bovis
B. Have attenuated virulence
C. Have no immunogenic capacity
D. Theodore Smith discovered it
E. Represent the main etiologic agent of TB in cattle
7. Primary TB disease can associate manifestations of exacerbated immune hypersensitivity,
such as:
A. Erythema nodosum
B. Multiforme Erythema
C. Keratoconjunctivitis
D. Nephritis
E. Manutrition
8. The TB Granuloma contains:
A. A Central caseous area of necrosis
B. Langhans giant cells
C. Epithelioid Macrophages
D. Lymphocytes
E. Sternberg cells
9. Non-tuberculous Mycobacteria
A. Can be found in air, soil, food, skin and mucous membrane of the human body
B. Are transmitted through interpersonal contact
C. Cause severe illness with rapid evolution to death
D. Are opportunistic conditioning pathogens
E. Are associated with a weakening of the immune system.
10. A negative reaction to tuberculin skin testing (anergy) can suggest:
A. The absence of TB infection
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B. The ante-allergic phase of the TB infection
C. The presence of the TB infection associated with immunosuppressive comorbidities
D. Allergy secondary after BCG vaccination
E. Miliary TB or other severe forms of TB disease
11. A chest X-ray can be suggestive for Pulmonary TB if:
A. Lung lesions are polymorphous and localised in the upper lung lobes
B. Lung lesions are localized predominantly in the lower lung lobes
C. The dynamic of lung lesions is slow
D. The healing under anti-TB treatment is done with sequelae
E. Death occurs frequently under therapy
12. What are the most frequent complications of the Pulmonary Tuberculosis?
A. Hemoptysis
B. Spontaneous Pneumothorax
C. TB Pleural effusion
D. Diabetes
E. Malabsorbtion of antiTB drugs
13. What are the likelihood criteria for TB pleural effusion?
A. Age over 60 year-old
B. Young age below 40 year-old
C. Positive tuberculin skin test
D. Pleural effusion with an increased value of adenosinedeaminase over 70 U / L
E. Predominance of lymphocytes in pleural fluid
14. Lymphadenitis Tuberculosis means
A. It affects mainly one peripheral lymph node group
B. Can get pseudotumoral aspect
C. Cannot fistulise
D. Gives the aspect of scrofulous neck
E. Heals without sequelae
15. The treatment of tuberculosis has several aims such as:
A. Curing the patients
B. Reducing the risk of relapse
C. Preventing death
D. Preventing resistance against antiTB drugs
E. Facilitate the diffusion of TB infection among contacts
16. The principles of a correct regimen of tuberculosis therapy do not include:
A. A standardized treatment
B. Therapy phased in 4 phases
C. Giving the patient at least 2 drugs
D. Irregular treatment
E. Strictly supervised treatment
17. In which forms of the TB disease can treatment be extended to 9-12 months?
A. Lymphadenitis TB
B. Osteoarticular TB
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C. Pleural TB
D. Meningitis TB
E. Silicotuberculosis
18. The individualized anti TB therapy is done in the following situations:
A. Drug resistant forms of TB disease
B. Major adverse reactions
C. Minor adverse reactions
D. It is not necessary
E. Comorbidities and drug Interactions
F.
19. MDR TB cases require:
A. Hospitalisation in Centres of treatment for MDR TB
B. Attack Phase of treatment lasting 8 months
C. Treatment time for 18 months after conversion (negativity) of the culture
D. Drugs with identified resistant pattern of TB bacilli
E. Only surgery
20. TB vulnerable groups include:
A. Homeless people
B. Extreme paupers
C. Statin users
D. HIV/AIDS patients
E. Alcohol abusers
Intocmite de conf dr Oana-Cristina Arghir
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