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Criminal Procedure 1A

1. Sworn  written statement charging a person with an offense, 

    subscribed by  the offended party, any peace officer or other 
    public official charged with the enforcement of the law violated.
       A. Information
       B. Complaint
       C. Affidavit
       D. Memorandum

2. Accusation in writing charging a person with an offense,

     subscribed by the fiscal and filed with the court.
       A. Information
       B. Complaint
       C. Affidavit
       D. Memorandum

3. ____and____ courts gain jurisdiction over the offense upon 

    the filing of complaint by a complainant or an information by 
    the prosecuting officer.
       A. MTC and CA
       B. MTC and SC
       C. MTC and SB
       D. MTC and RTC

4. Jurisdiction of the court over the offense is determined

       A. At the time of the institution of the action
       B. At the time of the arrest of the accused
       C. At the time of voluntary surrender of the accused
       D. At the time of the commission of the offense

5. Which of the following is false.

       A. A complaint is a sworn statement
       B. Information must be sworn to
       C. Information is filed with the court
       D. A complaint is subscribed by the offended party, any
            peace officer or other officer charged with
            the enforcement of the law violated

6. Remedies of offended party when fiscal unreasonably

     refuses to file an information or include a person therein
     as an accused.
       A. In case of grave abuse of discretion, action for mandamus
       B. Lodge a new complaint against the off enders
       C. Take up matter with the Secretary of Justice
       D. All of the above

7. In Municipal Trial Courts and Municipal Circuit Trial Courts

    criminal actions are instituted by
       A. By filing a complaint with the appropriate officer for the 
            purpose of conducting requisite preliminary investigation 
           therein. 
       B. By filing the complaint ONLY with the office of the fiscal
       C. By filing the complaint or information directly with said 
            courts, or a complaint with the fiscal’s office
       D. None of the above

8. Which of the following offenses is subject to summary

     procedure.
       A. Violation of traffic laws
       B. Violation of municipal or city ordinance
       C. Violation of rental laws
       D. All of the above

9. In criminal cases covered by the rules on summary procedure

    shall be deemed commenced only when it is filed in
       A. The Prosecutor's office
       B. Lupon of the Barangay
       C. The Court
       D. None of the above
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10. The filing of the complaint even with the fiscal’s office 
      should suspend the running of the Statute of Limitations.
      This is
       A. True
       B. False
       C. Partially false
       D. None of the above

11. Information may be amended as to the name of the

      accused, but such amendment cannot be questioned for 
      the first time on appeal.
       A. True
       B. Partially true
       C. False
       D. Partially false

12. Conviction for robbery cannot be sustained if there is a 

      variance between the allegation and the proof as to the
      ownership of the property stolen.
       A. True
       B. False
       C. Partially false
       D. Partially true

13. If facts do not completely allege all the elements of the 

      crime charged, the info may be quashed; however, the 
      prosecution is allowed to amend the info to include the
      necessary facts.
       A. True
       B. Partially true
       C. False
       D. Partially false

14. Information need only allege facts, not include all the
      evidence which may be used to prove such facts
       A. True
       B. False
       C. Partially true
       D. Partially false

15. Approximation of time is sufficient; amendment as to time 

      is only a formal amendment; no need to dismiss case.
       A. True
       B. False
       C. Partially true
       D. Partially false

16. Qualifying and inherent aggravating circumstances need

       to be alleged as they are integral parts of the crime.
       If proved, but not alleged, become only generic 
       aggravating circumstances.
       A. True
       B. False
       C. Partially true
       D. Partially false
17. Conviction may be had even if it appears that the crime
      was committed not at the place alleged, provided that the 
      place of actual commission was within the court’s 
      jurisdiction and accused was not surprised by the variance
      between the proof and the information.
       A. True
       B. False
       C. Partially true
       D. Partially false

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18. In which of the following cases may only the offended

spouse may file the complaint.
       A. Rape
       B. Seduction
       C. Adultery and Concubinage
       D. Acts of lasciviousness

19. Defined as the joinder of separate and distinct offenses in 

      one and the same information/complaint
       A. Motion to Quash
       B. Duplicity of offense
       C. Double Jeopardy
       D. None of the above

20.The civil action involves an issue similar or intimately 

      related to the issue raised in the criminal action.
       A. Duplicity of offense
       B. Double Jeopardy
       C. Prejudicial question
       D. None of the above

Criminal Law 1A
1. Basis is the sum of social and economic phenomena which 
    conditions man to do wrong in spite of or contrary to his
    volition. This theory of criminal law is known as
        A. Classical Theory
        B. Positivist Theory
        C. Mixed Theory
        D. None of the above

2. In the construction of penal laws, it must be ______________

    construed in favor of offender.
        A. Strictly
        B. Liberally
        C. Severely
        D. Precisely

3. Which of the following is not a limitation on power of

    congress to enact penal laws.
        A. Ex post facto law
        B. Bill of Attainder
        C. Law that violates the equal protection clause of the 
             constitution.
        D. None of the Above

4. The Revised Penal Code took effect on

        A. March 6, 1929
        B. March 6, 1930
        C. January 1, 1932
        D. February 1, 1934

5. What determines whether a vessel is a Philippine vessel for

    purposes of the application of criminal law?
        A. Place of Registration
        B. Place of Construction
        C. Citizenship of the Owner
        D. None of the Above

6. Crimes committed aboard foreign vessel within the territorial

    waters of a country are not triable in the courts of such 
    country. In Criminal law, this principle is known as
        A. The Philippine Rule
        B. The English Rule
        C. The French Rule
        D. None of the Above

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7. Crimes committed aboard a foreign vessel within the

    territorial waters of a country are triable in the courts of such
    country. In Criminal law, this principle is known as 
        A. The Philippine Rule
        B. The English Rule
        C. The French Rule
        D. None of the Above

8. For Offenses committed aboard foreign vessel committed in

    Philippine waters. What principle is applicable to the 
    Philippines.
        A. The Philippine Rule
        B. The English Rule
        C. The French Rule
        D. None of the Above

9. Acts and omissions punishable by the RPC is known as

        A. Felonies
        B. Crimes
        C. Misdemeanor
        D. None of the Above

10. Acts and omissions punishable by any law is known as

        A. Felonies
        B. Crimes
        C. Misdemeanor
        D. None of the Above

Criminal Law 1B
1. A Branch of municipal law which defines crimes, treats of
    their nature and provides for their punishment.
        A. Procedural Law
        B. Civil Law
        C. Criminal Law
        D. Political Law

2. One of the following is not a characteristic of criminal law.

        A. General
        B. Territorial
        C. Prospective
        D. Retroactive

3. Criminal law is binding on all person who reside or sojourn

    in the Philippines. This characteristic of criminal law is known as
        A. General
        B. Territorial
        C. Prospective
        D. Retroactive

4. One of the characteristics of criminal law is generality. Which

    of the following is not an exception to the principle of
    generality.
        A. Treaty Stipulation
        B. Laws of Preferential Application
        C. Principles of Public International Law
        D. None of the Above
5. One of the following person is not immune from Philippine
    criminal law.
        A. Sovereigns and other chief of state
        B. Ambassador
        C. Consuls
        D. Charges d' Affaires
6. Penal laws of the Philippines are enforceable only within
    its territory. This characteristic of criminal law is known as
        A. General
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        B. Territorial
        C. Prospective
        D. None of the above

7. One of the following is not an exceptions to the territorial

    principle of criminal law.
        A. Offenses committed while on Philippine ship or airship
        B. Forging or counterfeiting any coin or currency note of
             the Philippines or the obligations and securities issued
             by the government.
        C. Crimes committed against national security and the law of
             nations.
        D. Crimes committed against public order
8. Criminal law does not have any retroactive effect. This
    characteristic of criminal law is known as
        A. General
        B. Territorial
        C. Prospective
        D. Retroactive

9. When the law is favorable to the accused, is an exception

    to which characteristic of criminal law.
        A. General
        B. Territorial
        C. Prospective
        D. Retroactive

10. A Theory of criminal law, Basis is man's free will to choose

     between good and evil. The purpose of penalty is retribution.
        A. Classical Theory
        B. Positivist Theory
        C. Mixed Theory
        D. None of the above.

Criminal Law 1C
1. One of the following is not a crime against the law of nation.
        A. Treason
        B. Qualified Piracy
        C. Flight to Enemy's Country
        D. Arbitrary Detention

2. One of the following is not a crime against the Fundamental 

    Laws of the State.
        A. Qualified Piracy
        B. Arbitrary Detention
        C. Delaying Release
        D. Expulsion

3. It is the offense committed by expelling a person from the

    Philippines or by compelling a person to change his residence.
        A. Light Threats
        B. light Coercion
        C. Expulsion
        D. Grave Threats

4. The term used where the object of the movement is

    completely to overthrow and supersede the existing 
    government.
        A. Insurrection
        B. Rebellion
        C. Sedition
        D. None of the Above

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5. The term refers to a movement which seeks merely to effect

    some change of minor importance to prevent the exercise
    of governmental authority with respect to particular matters
    or subjects.
        A. Insurrection
        B. Rebellion
        C. Sedition
        D. None of the Above

6. R.A. No. 6235 is known as

        A. Anti-Hijacking Law
        B. Anti-Piracy and Anti-Highway Robbery Law of 1974
        C. An Act To Punish Espionage
        D. None of the Above

7. All of the following except one are crimes against public order.
        A. Coup D' Etat
        B. Sedition
        C. Treason
        D. Rebellion
8. This felony involves the raising of commotions or disturbances
    in the State. Its ultimate object is a violation of the public 
    peace or at least such a course of measures as evidently 
    engenders it.
        A. Coup D' Etat
        B. Rebellion
        C. Sedition
        D. Treason

9. Committed by a person who being under oath and required to 

    testify as to the truth of a certain matter at a hearing before a
    competent authority, shall deny the truth or say something 
    contrary to it.
        A. Slander
        B. Perjury
        C. Libel
        D. False testimony
10. Lax, Unrestrained, immoral, maintainer of house of
      prostitution.
        A. Dissolute
        B. Prostitutes
        C. Ruffians
        D. Vagrants

LEA 1
1. A Chinese Philosopher who once said: “If you know your
     enemy and know yourself, you need not fear the result
     of a hundred battles”.
          A.    Confucius   
          B.    Chiang Kai Shek
          C.    Sun Tzu
          D.    Wong Mhan Fei Hong                       
2. Maybe defined as the product resulting from the collecting
    information concerning an actual and potential situation
    and condition relating to foreign activities and to
    foreign or enemy held areas.
        A.    Interrogation   
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        B.    Information   

        C.    Intelligence
        D.    Investigation                                     

3. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information

    concerning organized crime and other major police problems.
        A.    Military Intelligence   
        B.    Military Information
        C.    Police Intelligence
        D.    Police Investigation                           
4. It is the combination of two or more persons for the
    purpose of establishing terror or corruption in the
    city/community or section of, either a monopoly, of virtual
    monopoly or criminal activity in a field that provides a
    continuing financial profit.
        A.    Organized Crime
        B.    Criminal Syndicate
        C.    Criminal World
        D.    Mafia                                                 

5. The social organization of criminals, having its own social

    classes from the hobo to the moneyed gangsters or racketeers.
        A.    Criminal World   
        B.    Mafia   
        C.    Organized Crime
        D.    Criminal Syndicate                             

6. It is the stable business with violence applied and directed

    at unwelcome competitors.
        A.    Mafia   
        B.    Criminal World
        C.    Criminal Syndicate
        D.    Organized Crime                               
7. A form of intelligence which concerns with the various types
    of confidential information that filter into the possession
    of the police, and the techniques employed in developing
    these lines of information.
        A.    Counter Intelligence   
        B.    Departmental Intelligence   
        C.    Undercover Intelligence
        D.    Strategic Intelligence                       

8. Which a Police Administrator must rely as one of the most

    indispensable tools of management; it is derived from
    organized information available in the police records
    division which concerned with the nature, size and
    distribution of the police problems of crime, 
    vice and traffic?
        A.    Strategic Intelligence
        B.    Counter Intelligence
        C.    Departmental Intelligence
        D.    Undercover Intelligence                  
9. Intelligence which primarily long-range in nature with
    little or no immediate practical value.
        A.    Strategic Intelligence
        B.    Counter Intelligence
        C.    Departmental Intelligence   
        D.    Undercover Intelligence                  

10. The type of intelligence activity that deals with the

      defending of the organization against its criminal enemies.
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        A.    Counter Intelligence   

        B.    Strategic Intelligence
        C.    Military Intelligence
        D.    None of these                                

11. It is the evaluated and interpreted information concerning

      an actual or possible enemy or theatre of operations,
      including weather and terrain, together with the  
      conclusions drawn there from.
        A.    Line Intelligence
        B.    Strategic Intelligence
        C.    Military Intelligence
        D.    Covert Operation                         
12. The type of intelligence that is immediate in nature and
       necessary for more effective police planning.
        A.    Line Intelligence
        B.    Police Intelligence
        C.    Military Intelligence
        D.    Overt Operation                          

13. If the information or documents are procured openly without

      regard as to whether the subject of the investigation
      becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for which
      it is being regarded.
        A.    Overt Operation
        B.    Evaluation
        C.    Covert Operation
        D.    Interpretation                             

14. It is a critical appraisal of information as a basis

       for its subsequent interpretation, which includes
       determining the pertinence of information, the
       reliability of the source and agency through which
       the information was derived and its accuracy.
        A.    Interpretation
        B.    Tasks
        C.    Evaluation
        D.    Operations                                  
15. Is the proper, economical and most productive use
      of personnel, resources and equipment employed
      and/or utilized in planning the collection of
      information, processing of information and
      dissemination of intelligence.
        A.    Cardinal Principle of Intelligence  
        B.    Assets and Liability Intelligence
        C.    Economic Intelligence                  
        D.    Income and expenditure Intelligence      
16. Refer to the uprightness in character, soundness of
      moral principles, honesty and freedom from moral
      delinquencies.
        A.    Integrity
        B.    Loyalty
        C.    Discretion
        D.    Moral                                        
17. Principles or standards of conduct of an individual,
      his ethical judgment in human relations and his
      respect to superiors.
        A.    Character
        B.    Reputation
        C.    Moral
        D.    Integrity        
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18. Interim clearance will remain valid for a period of____
      from the date of issuance.
        A.    1 yr
        B.    3 yrs
        C.    2 yrs
        D.    4 yrs                                        
19. Maximum security measures applied to prevent possible
      decryption of encrypted data on radio communication.
        A.    Transmission
        B.    Cryptographic security
        C.    Operation security  
        D.    Computer security                        
20. Final security measures undertaken prior to the entry
      into a communication area.
        A.    control  of operations area   
        B.    control of communications  area
        C.    area access control   
        D.    perimeter control                         

        Industrial Security Management 1

1. The Private Security Agency Law is known as
       A. R.A. No. 5487
       B. R.A. No. 5467
       C. R.A. No. 5476
       D. R.A. No. 5478

2. Any Person who, for hire or reward or on commission, conducts

    or carries on or holds himself or itself out as conducting or
    carrying on a detective agency or detective service.
       A. Private Security Guard
       B. Private Detective
       C. Private Security Agency
       D. Private Detective Agency

3. Any Person who is not a member of a regular police agency

    or the Armed Forces of the Philippines who does detective
    work for hire, reward or commission.
       A. Private Detective Agency
       B. Private Detective
       C. Private Security Guard
       D. Private Security Agency

4. Any Person who offers or renders personal service to

    watch or secure either residential or business establishment
    or both, or any building, compound or area including but not 
    limited to logging concession, agricultural, mining, or pasture
    lands for hire or compensation or as an employee thereof is 
    known as
       A. Security Guard
       B. Private Security Agency
       C. Private Detective Agency
       D. Private Security Agency    

5. Any Person, Association, Partnership or Corporation who

    recruits, trains, muster, furnishes, solicits individuals or
    business firms, private or government owned or controlled
    corporations to engage his service or those of its watchmen
    is known as
       A. Private Security Guard
       B. Private Detective
       C. Private Detective Agency
       D. Private Security Agency

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6. Security Agency must be owned and controlled by how many

    percentage of Filipino ownership?
       A. 100% Filipino
       B. 90% Filipino
       C. 75% Filipino
       D. 60% Filipino

7. How many security agency may a person organize or have an

    interest in?
       A. Four
       B. Three
       C. Two
       D. One

8. The Operator or Manager of a security agency must be at 

    least
       A. 25 Years of Age
       B. 30 Years of Age
       C. 35 Years of Age
       D. 40 Years of Age

9. The Operator or Manager of a security agency must be at 

    least a
       A. Ph. D. Degree Holder
       B. Master's Degree Holder
       C. College Graduate
       D. High School Graduate

10. An Operator or Manager of a security agency must have no

     previous record of any conviction of any crime or offense
     involving
       A. Crimes Against Person
       B. Crimes Against Property
       C. Crimes Against Chastity
       D. Moral Turpitude    

         Intelligence and Secret Service 1

1. Knowledge of a possible or actual enemy or area of operations

    acquired by the collection,evaluation and interpretation of
    military information. 
      A. Combat intelligence                  
      B. Police Intelligence  
      C. Military Intelligence
      D. Counter  intelligence 
                                                                                            
2. Knowledge of the enemy,weather and the terrain that is used
    in the planning and conduct of tactical operations.
      A. Combat intelligence                
      B. Police intelligence 
      C. Military Intelligence    
      D. Counter-intelligence
                                                                                            
3. Activity pertains to all security control measures designed to
    ensure the safeguarding of information against espionage,
    personnel against subversion and installations or material
    against sabotage.
      A. Combat intelligence                 
      B. Police intelligence    
      C. Military intelligence
      D. Counter intelligence
                                                                                            

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4. Those which seek to conceal information from the enemy.

      A. Passive counter intelligence measures   
      B. Active counter intelligence measures  
      C. Strategic intelligence
      D. Tactical intelligence
                                                                                             
5. Those that actively block the enemy's attempt to gain information 
    of enemy's effort to engage in sabotage or subversion.
      A. Passive counter intelligence measures    
      B. Active counter intelligence measures 
      C. Strategic intelligence
      D. Tactical intelligence
      

6. When the source of the information comes from a police 

    intelligence officer of long experience and extensive background, 
    the evaluation of reliability of information is labeled.
       A. A                                                            
       B. B 
       C. C
       D. D
                                                                                             
7. When there is no adequate basis estimating the reliability of an
    information,the evaluation of the reliability of the information is 
    labeled.
       A. A                                                           
       B. F 
       C. E
       D. D
                                                                                                           
8. The current head of the PNP directorate for intelligence is
      A. Catalino Cuy                                            
      B. Cipriano Querol Jr.
      C. Lina Sarmiento
      D. Angelito Pacia
                                                                                            
9. Knowledge in raw form is known as
      A. Intelligence                                             
      B. Information   
      C. Awareness
      D. Cognition
                                                                                            
10.The resolving or separating of a thing into its component parts.
      A. Analysis                                              
      B. Evaluation
      C. Collation
      D. Collection

Crime Detection
1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible 
    in a court of law if it was made in the presence of a counsel
    of his own choice and must be in
        A.    the presence of  a  fiscal    
        B.    the presence of a police investigator
        C.    writing
        D.    front of a judge                          

2. Fiscals and Prosecutors  are under the control and supervision 

    of the   
        A.National Bureau of Investigation
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        B. Department of the Interior and Local Government

        C. Supreme Court
        D.Department of Justice              

3.The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is

  most often used to question criminal suspects to determine their
  probable guilt or innocence.   
        A.    Inquiry
        B.    Interview
        C.    polygraph examination
        D.    interrogation                             

4.A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a 

   different and unofficial identity.
        A.   Tailing
        B.   Casing
        C.   Espionage
        D. Undercover work                          

5.A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions

   are taken in not losing the subject.
        A.    loose tail
        B.    casing
        C.    pony tail
        D.    close tail                                      

6.A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the

   subject’s habits and associates is required.
        A.   loose tail
        B.   casing
        C.   pony tail
        D. close tail                                      

7.A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated 

   arrival of a suspect or observing his actions from a fixed location.
        A.   Casing
        B.   Tailing
        C.   Stake out
        D.   Espionage                                   

8.An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a

  building, or premises with the purpose of discovering contraband's
  or personal properties connected in a crime.
        A.   Search
        B.   Raid
        C.   Investigation
        D.   Seizure                                       

9.A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a 

   different character to the same point.
        A.    Corroborative evidence
        B.    Circumstantial evidence
        C.    Direct evidence 
        D.    Real evidence                              

10.The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence 

     collected during the investigation and present it to the 
     prosecutor.
        A.    case preparation
        B.    order maintenance
        C.    crime prevention
        D.    public service                            

11.Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and
     capturing the law breaker during the execution of a criminal act.
        A.    Instigation
        B.    Inducement
        C.    Buy bust operation
        D.    Entrapment                               
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12.A special qualification for an undercover agent.

        A.    excellent built
        B.    excellent eyesight
        C.    excellent looks
        D.    excellent memory        
           
13.The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the 
   purpose of obtaining information concerning the identities or 
   activities of suspects.
        A.    close observation
        B.    espionage
        C.    tailing
        D.    surveillance                              

14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after   

      that person has been taken into custody.
        A.    preliminary investigation
        B.    interrogation
        C.    custodial investigation
        D.    cross examination                     

15.As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at

        A.   day time                
        B.   night time
        C.   any day and at any time of the day or night
        D.   weekdays                                    
16.Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or 
    attempts to be present when they are committed, through the 
    use of the undercover agents, electronic devices for wiretapping 
    or bugging, and stakeouts.
        A.    preventive measures
        B.    countermeasures 
        C.    pro-active measures
        D.    tape measures                          
17.A police activity directed toward the identification and
    apprehension of alleged criminals and the accumulation, 
    preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their 
    alleged crimes.
        A. police patrol
        B. police intelligence
        C. Criminal procedure
        D. Criminal investigation                
18.An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation. 
         A. initial investigation    
        B.custodial investigation
        C.secondary investigation
        D.follow-up investigation                    
19.To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose 
     of
        A. Interview
        B. Surveillance
        C. Investigation
        D.Interrogation                                   

20.Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably

    discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has been 
    committed and that the object sought in connection with the  
    offense are in the place sought to be searched.
        A. prima facie evidence
        B. probable cause
        C. prejudicial question
        D.res ipsa loquitur                               

Criminalistics Review Questions 1

1. There is freehand invitation and is considered as the most  skilful 
    class of forgery
          A.    simulated or copied forgery
          B.    simple forgery
          C.    traced forgery
          D.    carbon tracing                                   
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2. Condensed and compact set of authentic specimen which is 

    adequate and proper, should contain a cross section 
    of the material from known sources.  
          A.    disguised document    
          B.    questioned document
          C.    standard document
          D.    requested document                         
3. Specimens of hand writing or of typescript which is of known  
    origin.
          A.    Letters
          B.    Samples
          C.    Exemplars
          D.    Documents                                 

4. A document which is being questioned because of its origin, its   

    contents or the circumstances or the stories of its production.  
          A.    disputed document
          B.    standard document
          C.    requested document
          D.    questioned document                      

5. The art of beautiful writing is known as

          A.    Drafting
          B.    Calligraphy
          C.    Art appreciation
          D.    Gothic                                               

6. Any written instrument by which a right or obligation is 

    established.
          A.    Certificate
          B.    Subpoena
          C.    Warrant
          D.    Document                                         
        
7. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the slope or downward 
      flow  of the innermost sufficient recurve is towards the 
      thumb of radius   bone of the hand of origin.
          A.    ulnar loop 
          B.    tented arch
          C.    accidental whorl
          D.    radial loop                                         

8. The forking or dividing of one line to two or more branches.

          A.    Ridge
          B.    Island
          C.    Delta
          D.    Bifurcation                                       

9. The point on a ridge at or in front of and nearest the center  of 

    the divergence of the type lines.
          A.    Divergence
          B.    Island
          C.    Delta
          D.    Bifurcation                                      

10.The following are considerations used for the identification  

      of a  loop except one:
          A.    Delta
          B.    Core
          C.    a sufficient recurve
          D.    a ridge count across a looping bridge     
  
11.The process of recording fingerprint through the use of 
      fingerprint ink.  
          A.    Pathology
          B.    Fingerprinting
          C.    Dactyloscopy
          D.    Printing press                                  

12.The fingerprint method of identification.

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          A.    Pathology

          B.    Fingerprinting
          C.    Dactyloscopy
          D.    Printing press                                    

13.Two lines that run parallel or nearly parallel, diverge and 

     surround  the pattern area.  
          A.    Ridges
          B.    Delta
          C.    Type line
          D.    Bifurcation                                        

14.A part of the whorl or loop in which appear the cores, deltas
     and ridges.
          A.    type line
          B.    bifurcation
          C.    pattern area
          D.    furrow                                               

15.Fingerprints left on various surfaces at the crime scene which are 

    not clearly visible. 
          A.    plane impressions
          B.    visible fingerprints
          C.    rolled impressions
          D.    latent fingerprints                           

16.The impressions left by the patterns of ridges and depressions on

     various surfaces.   
          A.    kiss marks
          B.    finger rolls 
          C.    thumb marks
          D.    fingerprints                                      
 
17.Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint     pattern?  
          A.    Arch
          B.    Accidental
          C.    Loop
          D.    Whorl                                               

18.The minimum identical characteristics to justify the identity 

     between two points.   
          A.    Eighteen
          B.    Fifteen
          C.    Twelve
          D.    Nine                                                 

19.A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of 

    spirals around core axes.
          A.    whorl
          B.    double loop
          C.    central pocket loop
          D.    accidental                                          

20.A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side 
    of the impression by a recurve, and terminate on the same side 
    where the ridge has entered.   
          A.    Loop
          B.    radial loop
          C.    ulnar loop
          D.    tented arch                                       

21.A person allowed who gives his/her opinion or conclusion on a 

    given scientific evidence is considered
          A.    interrogator
          B.    expert witness
          C.    prosecutor
          D.    judge                               
            

22.The application of scientific knowledge and techniques in the   

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     detection of crime and apprehension of criminals.  

          A.    Law Enforcement Administration
          B.    Forensic Administration
          C.    Criminal Psychology
          D.    Criminalistics                                     
 
23.Lens that is characterized by a thicker center and thinner sides.
          A.    concave lens
          B.    convex lens
          C.    negative lens
          D.    positive lens                                    

24.The normal developing time of a paper or film.

          A.    30-60 minutes
          B.    20-30  minutes
          C.    5-10 minutes
          D.    1- 2 minutes                                    

25.This part of a camera is used to allow light to enter  the lens for 
     a  predetermined time interval.
          A.    holder of sensitized material
          B.    view finder
          C.    shutter
          D.    view finder                                        

26.A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its negative 
    material.
          A.    telephoto lens
          B.    long lens 
          C.    normal lens
          D.    wide angle lens                                 

27.Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution.

          A.    Potassium Bromide
          B.    Sodium Carbonate    
          C.    Sodium Sulfite
          D.    Hydroquinone                              

28.A part of a camera used in focusing the light from the subject
          A.    view finder
          B.    lens
          C.    shutter
          D.    light tight box                              

29.A component of the polygraph instrument which records the  

    breathing of the subject.
          A.    Cardiosphygmograph
          B.    Pneumograph
          C.    Galvanograph
          D.    Kymograph                                     

30.A component of the polygraph instrument which records the 

    blood  pressure and the pulse rate of the subject.
          A.    Cardiosphygmograph
          B.    Pneumograph
          C.    Galvanograph
          D.    Kymograph                                      
  
31.A component of the polygraph instrument which is a motor that    
    drives or pulls the chart paper under the recording pen 
    simultaneously at the rate of 6 or 12 inches per minute.   
          A.    Cardiosphygmograph
          B.    Pneumograph
          C.    Galvanograph
          D.    Kymograph                                      
32.The following are specific rules to be followed in the formulation of 
     the questions in a polygraph test except one.
          A.    Questions must be clear and phrased in a language the  
                 subject can easily understand.              
          B.    Questions must be answerable by yes or no. 
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          C.    Questions must be as short as possible.

          D.    Questions must all be in the form of accusations 
                                                                          
33. In “ polygraph examination”, the term “ examination” means a   
     detection of
          A.    Forgery
          B.    Emotion
          C.    the mind
          D.    deception                                        

34. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which    

     appears to go beyond a person’s defensive power.
          A.    Fear
          B.    Stimuli
          C.    Response
          D.    Reaction                                         
 
35. The primary purpose of pre-test interview.
          A.    Prepare subject for polygraph test
          B.    Obtain confession
          C.    Make the subject calm
          D.    Explain the polygraph test procedures   
  

36. The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant   
     question.
          A.    positive response
          B.    specific response
          C.    normal response
          D.    reaction                                           
 
37. The study of the effect of the impact of a projectile on the 
     target.    
          A.    Terminal Ballistics
          B.    Internal Ballistics
          C.    External Ballistics
          D.    Forensic Ballistics                              
 
38. The unstable rotating motion of the bullet is called
          A.    Trajectory
          B.    Yaw
          C.    Velocity
          D.    Gyroscopic action                              
 
39. The part of the mechanism of a firearm that withdraws the shell  
      or cartridge from the chamber.
          A.    Extractor
          B.    Ejector
          C.    Striker
          D.    Trigger       
                                     
40. The pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight.
          A.    Yaw
          B.    Range
          C.    Velocity
          D.    Trajectory                                       

41. This refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path 
      after striking a resistant surface.
          A.    Misfire
          B.    Mushroom
          C.    Ricochet
          D.    Key hole shot                                 

42. A type of primer with two vents or flash holes.

          A.    Bordan primer
          B.    Berdan Primer
          C.    Baterry Primer

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          D.    Boxer Primer                                    

43. This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of 
      the   bore.
          A.    swaging  
          B.    ogive
          C.    rifling
          D.    breaching                                        

44. It refers to the unstable rotating motion of the bullet.

          A.    Trajectory
          B.    Yaw
          C.    Velocity
          D.    Gyproscopic action                          

45. It is the measurement of the bore diameter from land to land.

          A.    Calibre
          B.    Mean diameter
          C.    Gauge                
          D.    Rifling                   
46. He is known as the Father of Ballistics.
          A.    Hans Gross
          B.    Charles Waite
          C.    Albert Osborne
          D.    Calvin Goddard                              

47. A document in which some issues have been raised or is under 

     scrutiny.
          A.    Void Document
          B.    Illegal Document
          C.    Forged Document
          D.    Questioned Document                 

48. The following are characteristics of   forgery  except one:

          A.    Presence of Natural Variation
          B.    Multiple Pen Lifts
          C.    Show bad quality  of ink lines
          D.    Patchwork Appearance                 

49. Standards which are prepared upon the request of the 

     investigator and for the purpose of comparison with the 
     questioned document.   
          A.    relative standards
          B.    collected standards
          C.    extended standards
          D.    requested standards                   
      
50. Any stroke which goes back over another writing stroke.
          A.    natural variation
          B.    rhythm
          C.    retracing
          d.    shading                                        
 
51. The name of a person written by him/her in a document as a sign 
      of acknowledgement.
          A.    Opinion
          B.    Document
          C.    Signature
          D.    Handwriting  
52. A kind of document  which is executed by a private person 
      without the intervention of a notary public, or of 
      competent public   official, by which some disposition of 
      agreement is proved.
          A.    commercial document
          B.    official document
          C.    public document
          D.    private document                            

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53. An instrument that can be legally used in comparison with a 

     questioned document, its origin is known and can be proven.   
          A.    simulated document
          B.    forged document
          C.    standard document
          D.    compared document                        
54. The process of making out what is illegible or what has been    
     effaced.  
          A.    Comparison
          B.    Collation
          C.    Obliteration
          D.    Decipherment                                  
 
55. A document which contains some changes either as an
     addition or deletion.   
          A.    inserted document
          B.    altered document
          C.    disputed document
          D.    obliterated document                       

56. A kind of erasure by using a rubber eraser, sharp knife, razor   

     blade or picking instrument.
          A.    mechanical erasure
          B.    electronic erasure
          C.    magnetic erasure
          D.    chemical erasure                              

57. It is the periodic increase in pressure, characterized by 

      widening of the ink stroke.
          A.    Shading
          B.    pen lift
          C.    pen emphasis
          D.    pen pressure                          

58. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by   

     private parties but notarized by competent officials.
          A.    private document 
          B.    commercial document
          C.    public document
          D.    official document                             
 
59. The detection and identification of poisons.
          A.    Bacteriology
          B.    Posology
          C.    Toxicology
          D.    Chemistry                                          

60. The specimen that is preferably used in the determination of 

      abused drugs in the body.
          A.    blood 
          B.    saliva
          C.    body fluid
          D.    urine                                              
                                                                                                          

Traffic Operation And Accident Investigation

1. In arresting the traffic violator or when it involved arrest due to 

    traffic violation, the following procedures are followed except:
       A. bring the suspended person before the court
       B. detention of the arrested person may take place
       C. arrest can be effected even without a warrant
       D. impose the probable penalty that might be imposed

2. A person can escape from the scene of the accident on

     one of the following ground:
       A. offense committed is serious
       B. bringing the person to your custody
       C. bring the suspect before the court to answer a charge of 
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            violation
       D. if the person is under the imminent danger

3. In the examination of the scene of accident, which of the 

    following  evidence will show how the accident happened?
       A. hole on the road pavement
       B. the driver under the influence of liquor
       C. point of impact
       D. vehicle has break failure

4. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic control is

       A. selection of geographical areas for strict enforcement
       B. concentration of enforcement activities at peak traffic hours
       C. a shifting emphasis on different types of violations
       D. a warning rather than a citation will act as preventive
           measure for future violation
5. The general principle of traffic accident investigation is to
       A. consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather than 
           as causes KVB
       B. consider violation as primary causes and any other factors
           as secondary causes
       C. regard any unfavorable factor existing immediately prior to
           the accident as a cause
       D. look for the "key event" that cause the accident
6. It is customary for the police to keep records of lost or stolen
    automobile license plates. The best reason for this practice is to
       A. permit the promote issuance of new plate
       B. prevent cards from being stolen
       C. keep record of all outstanding license plate in use
       D. detain any person found using or attempting to use any of 
           these plates.

7. One of the following statements that best indicates the main 

    purpose of traffic law enforcement is
       A. reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules
       B. keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks
       C. control the speed limited in densely populated areas
       D. prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic

8. The traffic accident investigator is chiefly concerned with 

     accidents that involves one or both of the elements namely
       A. motor vehicles and traffic way
       B. motor vehicle and victim
       C. victim and traffic way
       D. victim and traffic unit

9. With respect to minor traffic violations, the traffic police officers 

    should be guided foremost by the consideration that
       A. some traffic violation are intended
       B. the aim is to discourage violations
       C. same traffic violations are caused by negligence
       D. violations must be punished

10. A number representing the resistance to sliding of two surfaces

      in contract is known as:
       A. coefficient of friction
       B. traffic jam
       C. attribute
       D. contract damage

11. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from collision
      course or otherwise avoid a hazard
       A. state of evasive action
       B. point of possible perception
       C. point of no escape
       D. final position
12. Any motor vehicle accident that result in injuries other than fatal 
      to one or more persons.
       A. non-fatal injury accident
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       B. fatal accident

       C. traffic law enforcer
       D. property damage accident

13. Which of the following types of accident is most decreased

      by the installation of traffic light?
       A. Cross traffic accidents
       B. Misunderstanding between motorist and traffic officers
       C. Accidents of confusion
       D. Accidents of decision of right of way
14. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more traffic 
     accidents than any other part in the area. The Police unit 
     assignment to the area should.
       A. Park near the intersection, in plain view, and wait for violators.
       B. Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to
           caution motorist
       C. Park near the intersection, more or less hidden from view
       D. Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention to 
           the intersection
15. Every device which is self-propelled and every vehicle which
      is propelled by electric power obtained from overhead trolley 
     wires, but not operated upon rails.
       A. Skating
       B. Bicycle
       C. Tricycle
       D. Motor vehicles

16. The main reason why both traffic officers and signal lights
      are used on some intersection is that
       A. motorist are discourage from "jumping signals"
       B. traffic can be kept moving at a faster rate
       C. greater safety to pedestrians and motorist is effected
       D. an officer can stop and start as necessity demands

17. All lines, patterns, words, colors or other gadgets EXCEPT

      signs set into the surface or applied upon or attached to the 
      pavement or curbing officially place for the purpose of regulating
      traffic is called _____
       A. warning signs
       B. traffic management
       C. traffic engineering
       D. pavement marking

18. Prohibitive traffic signs and restrictive traffic signs shall have
       A. blue background and white symbols
       B. a red background and white symbols and black border
       C. white background with black symbols and red border
       D. green background with white and black symbols

19. Motor vehicle propelled by an internal combustion engine 

      shall be equipped with a ____ as said motor vehicle passes
      through a street of any city, municipality or thickly populated   
      district or barrio.
       A. wiper
       B. light
       C. muffler
       D. windshield
20. A traffic police officer stationed the route of a parade has been
      ordered by his superior to allow no cars to cross the route. 
     While the parade is in progress, an ambulance driver on an
      emergency run attempts to drive his ambulance across the
      route while the parade is passing. Under these circumstances
      the traffic police officer should.
       A. ask the driver to wait until the traffic police officer contact 
           his superior and obtains decisions
       B. stop the parade long enough to permit the ambulance to
           cross the street
       C. hold up the ambulance in accordance with the superior's order
       D. direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour which
           will add at least then minutes to run
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      Penal Management 
  
1. The authoritative imposition of something negative or unpleasant
    on a person in response to behavior deemed wrong by law.
      A. Punishment                            
      B. Banishment 
      C. Retribution
      D. Penalty
                                                                                                
2. The branch of criminology concerned with prison management
    and prison rehabilitation.
      A. Penology                                 
      B. Sociology  
      C. Correction
      D. Anthropology
                                                                                                
3. Getting back at someone for something they did to hurt you.
      A. Punishment                                   
      B. Retribution 
      C. Justification
      D. Penalty
                                                                                                
4. A punishment for some violation of conduct which involves the 
    infliction of pain on or harm to the body.
      A. Penalty                                     
      B. Punishment 
      C. Banishment
      D. Corporal punishment
                                                                                                
5. French penal colony from 1852 to 1959 where political prisoners are 
    exiled.
      A. Devil's island                               
      B. Tasmanian island   
      C. Robben Island
      D. Cape of good hope
                                                                                               
6. A prison reformer who published an influential book that proposed
    prison reform.
      A. Elizabeth Fry                              
      B. John Howard 
      C. John Goodman
      D. Victoria Azarenka                                                                                        
               
7. An English reformer sometimes referred to as the "angel of prisons"
    because of her driving force behind new legislation to treat prisoners
    humanely.
      A. Elizabeth Fry                               
      B. John Howard 
      C. John Goodman
      D. Alex Morgan                                                                                        
8. A prison complex located at the coast of Capetown South Africa 
    which serve as a refugee camp for people afflicted wit leper before 
    converted  into a prison.
      A. Port Arthur                               
      B. Robben island
      C. Pennsylvania prison
      D. Elmira prison                                                                                           
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9. A penal method of the 19th century in which persons worked during 

    the day and were kept in solitary confinement at night and silence 
    enforced   at all times.
      A. Auburn System                         
      B. U.K system 
      C. Pennsylvania system
      D. Irish system
                                                                                               
10. The first reformatory prison.
      A. Auburn prison                             
      B. Pennsylvania prison
      C. New York correctional facility         
      D. Elmira correctional facility
                                                                                                

    

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