2020

ARCHITECTURE
GATE
SOLUTION
GATE PREPRATION SERIES

SECRET OF GETTING A GOOD RANK IS TO STUDY

STRICLY BASED ON GATE SYLLABUS.
ARCHITECTURE GATE SOLUTION 2020

1. PLANNING REGULATIONS AND BYE – LAWS

This set of Construction and Building Materials Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
(MCQs) focuses on “Planning Regulations and Bye-Laws”.

1. Subdivision/layout plan which shall be drawn on a scale of not less than _______
a) 1:100
b) 1:500
c) 1:1000
d) 1:50
Answer: b
Explanation: As per National Building Code, scale for Layout plan is specified as 1:500. In this plan,
location of all proposed and existing roads, dimensions of plot along with building line, locations of sewer
and drainage line etc. are mandatory.

2. The plan of the buildings and elevations and sections accompanying the notice
shall be drawn to a scale _____
a) 1:10
b) 1:50
c) 1:100
d) 1:500
Answer: c
Explanation: This plan includes floor plans which shows the use or occupancy of all parts of the building.
Hence this parts needs to be large enough for the Engineers to understand well. Therefore NBC have
specified scale of 1:100.

3. A _____ line usually parallel to the plot boundaries and laid down in each case by the Authority, beyond
which nothing can be constructed towards the site boundaries.
a) Building line
b) Control line
c) Property line
d) Plot line
Answer: a
Explanation: Building line or Set-back is provided to avoid traffic congestion in front of the building.
Buildings like mall, multi-complexes, factories, etc. which attract large number of vehicles, should have
be set-back a further distance apart from the building line. This line after this extra margin is called as
Control Line.

4. The ratio of the total floor area inclusive of all the floors to the area of the plot on which building stands is
known as _____
a) Groundage
b) Plot area
c) Floor area
d) Built-up area

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ARCHITECTURE GATE SOLUTION 2020
Answer: d
Explanation: It is also known as the Floor Space Index (FSI) or Floor Area Ratio (FAR). The value of
built-up area is determined by local authorities and it may be different for different areas for different
buildings of the town. Floor area means built up area excluding area of walls.

5. The aggregate area of doors and windows shall not be less than _____ of the floor area of room.
a) 1/10
b) 1/9
c) 1/7
d) 1/6
Answer: c
Explanation: As per IS code, if the area is less than the specified area, occupants of the building will not
receive enough lighting and ventilation. The area of such openings excluding area of doors should be
minimum 1/10 of the floor area for dry-hot climate and minimum 1/6 of the area for wet-hot climate.

6. The placing of various rooms or units of a structure in proper correlation of their functions and in due
proximity with each other is known as _____
a) Aspect
b) Prospect
c) Circulation
d) Grouping
Answer: d
Explanation: Grouping is the proper arrangement of rooms according to their functions leads to better
planning of a building. It is observed that grouping leads to saving in unnecessary movements, proper
correlation, easy control and overall economy.

7. The term ______ is used to mean the external views as seen from certain rooms of the building.
a) Aspect
b) Prospect
c) Elegance
d) Roominess
Answer: b
Explanation: Prospect is dictated by the surrounding peculiarities of the site of the project. This can help
us to conceal some unwanted views and reveal the beauty of the building.

8. The area on the earth which lies between the zones of cancer and Capricorn is known as the _______
a) Tropic zone
b) Frigid zone
c) Torrid zone
d) Arctic zone
Answer: a
Explanation: Topic zone lies between zone of cancer (i.e. 231/2 degree north latitude) and Capricom
(i.e. 231/2 degree south latitude). The typical features of tropical countries are burning sun, fixed
seasons and rainfall which is heavy, moderate and with storm.

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ARCHITECTURE GATE SOLUTION 2020

9. Landscape architecture comes under in which principle of planning?

a) Function
b) Form
c) Aesthetic
d) Elegance
Answer: c
Explanation: Aesthetic plays major role in the architectural landscaping. It includes the appearance of
the building and overall beauty. Whereas function and form are both same which deals with the utility of
the rooms according to their functions.

10. When building bye-laws came into force?

a) April 1984
b) July 1983
c) April 1983
d) July 1972
Answer: a
Explanation: Building bye-laws came into force on April 1984. This local law was framed by the
subordinate authority. Its specifications are designed to minimum safeguard to the workers during
construction; to the health and comfort of users; and to provide enough safety to the public in general.

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ARCHITECTURE GATE SOLUTION 2020

2. CLIMATE AND ITS EFFECTS

This set of Construction and Building Materials Multiple Choice Questions &
Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Climate and its Effects”

1. Burnings sun, fixed seasons and rainfall which is heavy, moderate and with storm are the typical
features of _______
a) Cancer zone
b) Capricorn zone
c) Torrid zone
d) Tropical zone
Answer: d
Explanation: The area on earth which lies between the zone of cancer and Capricorn is known as
the tropics. Whole part of India is considered to be typically tropical climate.

2. The tropical climate which consists of heat waves hot winds and low humidity comes under which
climatic conditions?
a) Hot-wet
b) Hot-dry
c) Cool-dry
d) Rainy
Answer: b
Explanation: Hot-dry places are cool in winter. The maximum day temperature in summer will be
about 27°C to 42°C and the night temperature will be moderate say about 15°C to 25°C.

3. Which city of Maharashtra experiences Hot-dry climatic conditions?

a) Nagpur
b) Hyderabad
c) Mumbai
d) Nasik
Answer: a
Explanation: Ahmedabad, Nagpur and similar other places situated away from the coastal regions
are the typical example of experiencing hot dry climate. These regions are famous for highest
temperature records in India during summer season.

4. Which type of climate consists of high humidity throughout the year and even in the dry season with
variations in day and night temperatures?
a) Hot wet
b) Hot dry
c) Cool dry
d) Rainy

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ARCHITECTURE GATE SOLUTION 2020
Answer: a
Explanation: The temperature ranges in hot season and cold season or 25°C to 30°C and 10°C to
22°C respectively. Bombay which is situated near the sea is a typical example of experiencing hot
wet or humid climate.

5. The data regarding temperature, moisture, timings of sunset and sunrise and direction of wind are
collected and preserved by ____________
a) Bureau of Indian Standards, New Delhi
b) Meteorological Department of the Ministry of Commerce, Govt. of India
c) Indian Institute of Weather Forecasting and Research Centre
d) National Institute of Technology
Answer: b
Explanation: Meteorological Department of the Ministry of Commerce, Govt. of India works
throughout the year and records every data possible. They predict the future climatic conditions by
comparing the past records of 10 to 15 years. This department has recognized the following four
seasons of the year: Cool-dry, Hot-dry season, General Rainy season, Season of the Retreating
South-West Monsoon.

6. From the given climatic conditions which have its worst effects on the building structure in India.
a) Dust storm
b) Humidity
c) Heavy rain
d) Hot summer days
Answer: c
Explanation: Every year due to heavy rain huge destruction of building materials takes place.
Mumbai itself invests more than Rs.10000 crore maintenance and repair of buildings

7. Which building material has high Seismic resistance and flexibility of nailed joints?
a) Bamboo
b) Timber
c) Ply
d) Husk
Answer: b
Explanation: As long has materials and workmanship are of good quality, timber structures can
perform very well in an earthquake. A wooden frame is usually considered to have medium to low
vulnerability towards earthquake.

8. Pyramids are the best example of ______

a) Flood Resisting structure
b) Dust storm Resisting structure
c) Insulating structure
d) Earthquake resisting structure
Answer: d
Explanation: Triangle is the most stable geometric structure. Hence, the pyramids are very well
designed and can sustain for long periods. Along with durability, these structures can withstand
severe weather conditions like earthquake.

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ARCHITECTURE GATE SOLUTION 2020

9. Which is the most important advanced technique of earthquake resistant design and construction?
a) Flexible steel form
b) Reinforced concrete
c) Base Isolation
d) Steel strengthening Treatment
Answer: c
Explanation: Along with energy dissipation devices, Base Isolation technique is most advanced
which isolates the structure by a series of bearing pads. This bearing pads absorbs maximum
shocks develop due to seismic activity.

10. The temperature at the _______ is the highest and it is lowest at the ______
a) longitude, latitude
b) poles, equator
c) north, south
d) equator, poles
Answer: d
Explanation: India is in the Tropics zone and hence there is a temperature gradient from equator to
poles and depending upon the latitude of the locality, its temperature range can be decided.

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ARCHITECTURE GATE SOLUTION 2020

3. ESSENTIAL FACTOR OF PLANNING

This set of Building Materials MCQs focuses on “Essential Factors of Planning”.

1. _______ used to mean the regulation of admitting more or less sunshine in the room.
a) Elegance
b) Roominess
c) Circulation
d) Aspect
Answer: d
Explanation: The meaning of aspect has now been given wider scope and it includes the
arrangement of doors and windows in the external walls of buildings particularly of residential
buildings, so as to fully enjoy the natural gifts of sunshine, Breeze, scenery, etc.
2. The term ______ is used to mean the link or access or movement between the various rooms and
floors of building.
a) Flexibility
b) Prospect
c) Circulation
d) Elegance
Answer: c
Explanation: The proper provision of circulation makes the building comfortable and convenient. The
circulation in a building is of two types- Horizontal circulation and Vertical circulation.
3. _________ is used to indicate the architectural effect produced by elevation in relation to width,
height position of doors and windows, materials employed in the construction of external walls, etc.
a) Furniture requirements
b) Elegance
c) Roominess
d) Grouping
Answer: c
Explanation: The proper provision of circulation makes the building comfortable and convenient. The
circulation in a building is of two types- Horizontal circulation and Vertical circulation.
4. The placing of various rooms or units of a structure in a proper correlation of their functions and in
due proximity with each other is known as ________
a) Sanitation
b) Prospect
c) Economy
d) Grouping
Answer: d
Explanation: Correct grouping grants the status of a balanced design. For instance, in a residential
building, kitchen and dining room should be grouped close to each other. It is observed that grouping
leads to saving in unnecessary movement’s proper correlation easy control and overall economy.

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ARCHITECTURE GATE SOLUTION 2020

5. One of the important requirements of good planning is ______

a) Privacy
b) Furniture requirements
c) Prospect
d) Roominess
Answer: a
Explanation: Privacy offers special comfort to the occupants. It should not be confused as it is the
total isolation and is desirable only in certain cases as study rooms, library, etc. Privacy is of two
types- External privacy and internal privacy.

6. The term _______ is used to refer the effect derived from space of a room that is its length, width
and height.
a) Prospect
b) Sanitation
c) Privacy
d) Roominess Answer: d
Explanation: Roominess is nothing but the feeling of spaciousness. The planning of room should be
such that maximum benefit is obtained from the minimum dimensions of the room. For example
rectangle shaped room looks more spacious than square shaped room of same area.

7. As a principle of planning, the term _______ is used to mean architectural hygiene.

a) Sanitation
b) Drainage
c) Water supply
d) Waste water
Answer: a
Explanation: Sanitation comprise of drainage system and water supply. It includes proper sanitation
of waste water along with its treatment and supply to the major pipelines.

8. Due to improper ventilation, which gas gets stuck into house and develops dizziness to the
occupants.
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Hydrogen
Answer: c
Explanation: If the room is not properly ventilated, there will be excessive quantity of carbon dioxide
in the air. The more the amount of carbon dioxide, the more difficult is the breathing. For comfortable
working, the carbon dioxide content should be limited to about 0.6% by volume.

9. The proper and sufficient ventilation results in absence of _________

a) Condensation
b) Deposition
c) Precipitation
d) Circulation

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ARCHITECTURE GATE SOLUTION 2020

Answer: a
Explanation: The difference of temperature between the outside air and the inside air tends to the
deposition of moisture on the room surfaces. This is known as the condensation and it can be
effectively controlled by the provision of suitable ventilation of the room.

10. The ________ is required to control dust and other impurities in the air.
a) Circulation
b) Sanitation
c) Ventilation
d) Purification
Answer: c
Explanation: Controlling dust and other impurities from coming into the building is the main cause of
insisting proper ventilation in the commercial buildings. The ventilation is also required to suppress
odors, smoke, concentration of bacteria, etc.

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ARCHITECTURE GATE SOLUTION 2020

4. BASIC FUNCTIONAL REQUIREMENTS OF BUILDING.

This set of Building Materials Interview Questions and Answers focuses on “Basic
Functional Requirements of a Building”

1. Construction of cavity walls as external walls to protect the building from outside heat or cold as the
hollow space between two walls act as an________
a) Burning material
b) Insulating material
c) Destructive material
d) Building material
Answer: b
Explanation: Properly insulated building cuts down the cost of electric burning in summer as well as in
winter. A cavity wall is one of the types of thermal insulation which consists of two walls with cavity in
between them.

2. __________ in a building means the free passage of clean air in a building.

a) Habitation
b) Protection
c) Sanitation
d) Ventilation
Answer: d
Explanation: Ventilation is essential in every building. The main cause of insisting proper ventilation in
the industrial buildings is to control dust and other impurities from entering into the building rooms.

3. Which gas leads to suffocation and dizziness to the occupants when increase in its quantity in the air.
a) Carbon monoxide
b) Hydrogen
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: d
Explanation: If the room is not properly ventilated, there will be excessive quantity of carbon dioxide in
the air. It is observed that breathing is difficult when the amount of carbon dioxide by volume is about 6%
and a man loses consciousness when it reaches about 10% or so.

4. The termite, which are responsible for the destruction of wooden materials, are popularly known as
_______
a) Red ants
b) White ants
c) Black ants
d) Big ants

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ARCHITECTURE GATE SOLUTION 2020
Answer: b
Explanation: There are over 2300 species of termites but only about 4% of the termite spaces are
responsible for the damage of the buildings. The termites live in a colony and they are very fast in eating
wooden and other cellulosic materials as food.

5. The science which deals with the sound insulation in a building is known as _____
a) Reverberation
b) Transmission
c) Acoustic
d) Air borne
Answer: c
Explanation: The terms sound insulation all soundproofing is used to indicate the reduction in the level of
sound when it passes through a building component. Acoustics becomes very essential in some
buildings like cinema hall, Auditorium, Opera House, etc.

6. Fire extinguisher extinguishes the small fires in the house by using _____
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Nitrogen gas
c) Water
d) Foam
Answer: a
Explanation: Standards of fire safety or fire extinguishers are specified in the Building Code should be
provided with sufficient and quick fire exit. Fire extinguishers are one of the important building
requirements which help in extinguishing small fires.

7. The process in which the difference of temperature between the outside air and the inside air tends to
the deposition of moisture on the room surfaces is known as ______
a) Saturation
b) Accumulation
c) Precipitation
d) Condensation
Answer: d
Explanation: The temperature difference which leads to condensation can be effectively controlled by
the provision of suitable ventilation of a room.

8. The treatment given to the roof of a building to prevent the roof from the leakage of water is known as
_________
a) Fire proofing
b) Damp proofing
c) Termite proofing
d) Sound proofing
Answer: b
Explanation: One of the basic requirements in case of all the buildings is that the structural should
remain dry as far as possible. If this condition is not satisfied, it is likely that the building may become
inhabitable and hence damp proofing or water proofing is required.

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ARCHITECTURE GATE SOLUTION 2020

9. _________ is a flexible material which is commonly used for the damp proofing.
a) Hot bitumen
b) Bituminous felts
c) Mastic asphalt
d) Metal sheets
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to its physical nature, hot bitumen remain flexible even after cooling and it is placed on
the bedding of concrete or mortar. This material should be applied with the minimum thickness of 3 mm.
whereas Mastic Asphalt is a semi rigid material and it forms and excellent impervious layer for damp
proofing.

10. Which one of the given below is a chemical insecticide for termite proofing.
a) Dieldrin
b) Sulphuric acid
c) Rodenticide
d) Pyrethrins
Answer: a
Explanation: Dieldrin is a chlorinated hydrocarbon. The application of this chemical serve as a chemical
barrier between the building and the ground and this method has proved to be most effective method of
termite proofing. Whereas, Rodenticide is used for killing rats.

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ARCHITECTURE GATE SOLUTION 2020

5. FOUNDATION

This set of Construction and Building Materials Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
(MCQs) focuses on “Foundation

1. The part of a building constructed below ground level is known as _________

a) Plinth
b) Superstructure
c) Basement
d) Foundation
Answer: d
Explanation: Foundation is laid below the ground level and it is in direct contact with sub-strata and
transmits all the loads to the sub-soil. The structure below the ground level is also known as
Substructure or Foundation (excluding plinth)

2. The load of the structure distributed by the foundation is __________

a) Concentrated
b) Varying
c) Uniform
d) Eccentric
Answer: c
Explanation: The foundation is laid below the ground in a such a way that the load of structure is
uniformly distributed to the ground to make the structure stable.

3. For loose soil, the formula used to find the minimum depth of foundation is given by _______
a) Rankine’s formula
b) Hiley formula
c) Bernoulli’s formula
d) Newtonian formula
Answer: a
Explanation: The depth of foundations can also be obtained by drawing the lines of angles 45 degree
and 60 degree from the base of the foundation towards ground level. Hence to simplify the method,
Rankine formula is used.

4. The foundation in which the loading on the soil remains practically the same after the construction of the
building is known as _______
a) Step foundation
b) Grillage foundation
c) Raft foundation
d) Inverted arch foundation
Answer: b
Explanation: Grillage foundation or Floating foundation is so adjusted that the weight of the excavated
earth is just equal to the total load of the building. In such case, the settlement is reduced to a minimum
extent.

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ARCHITECTURE GATE SOLUTION 2020

5. _________ method of increasing the bearing power of soil becomes very useful when the load coming
on the soil is practically uniform.
a) Raft foundation
b) Grillage foundation
c) Mat foundation
d) Inverted arch foundation
Answer: a
Explanation: Raft foundations are very useful in the soil which is of yielding nature that is soft clay or
reclaimed soil. The raft is designed as an inverted RCC roof with uniformly distributed load of the soil
pressure and supported by walls, beams and columns.

6. When the ground is sloping, _______ foundations are used to correct the levels of the sloping ground on
which the building is to be constructed.
a) Shallow foundation
b) Combined foundation
c) Cantilever foundation
d) Steeped foundation
Answer: d
Explanation: Stepped foundation is adopted when the construction becomes uneconomical to provide
foundations at the same level. In this, minimum depth of 800 mm should be provided at all the points.

7. Which type of foundation is used for the construction of building on black cotton soil.
a) Inverted arch foundation
b) Floating foundation
c) Mat foundation
d) Grillage foundation
Answer: c
Explanation: Black cotton soil is a clay or loose type of soil and is considerably swells and shrinks by
variation in moisture content. The variation in the volume of the soil is to the extent of 20 to 30% of the
original volume. Hence, Raft Foundation or Mat Foundation plays important role in uniform distribution of
the load of structure over black cotton soil.

8. ________ is applied to the process of laying down certain lines and marks on the ground before the
excavation of foundation trenches.
a) Ground tracing
b) Surveying
c) Dumpy level
d) Digging
Answer: a
Explanation: The sitting out or Ground tracing is mainly done for two purposes- firstly, the excavation of
foundation trenches can be started immediately after this process is completed and secondly, the lines
and marks established by this process serve as a guide.

9. If the foundation of the structure is to be divided into two or more independent units, ________ are
provided to take care of unequal settlement.

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a) Construction joints
b) Mechanical joints
c) Slip joints
d) Connecting joints
Answer: c
Explanation: Slip joints are situated on the boundary of independent units and they help in localizing the
effect of unequal settlement in affected portion of the structure only.

10. A common footing provided for two or more columns is known as _________
a) Continues footing
b) Combined footing
c) Cantilever footing
d) Eccentric footing
Answer: b
Explanation: Combined footing becomes useful when an exterior column is situated near the boundary
line of the plot and it is not possible to project its footing symmetrically on both the sides.

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ARCHITECTURE GATE SOLUTION 2020

6. PLINTH

This set of Construction and Building Materials Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
(MCQs) focuses on “Plinth”

1. The part of the building above the ground level and up to the floor level immediately above the ground is
known as __________
a) Plinth area
b) Formation level
c) Ground level
d) Plinth
Answer: d
Explanation: Plinth is therefore defined as the portion of the structure between the surface of the
surrounding ground and surface of the floor, immediately above the ground. Plinth is an important
component of building which prevents crawling animals, water and other insects from coming inside the
building.

2. The built up area measured and the plinth level is known as __________
a) Total area
b) Plinth area
c) Plot area
d) Floor area
Answer: b
Explanation: Plinth area is nothing but the build-up covered area measured at the floor level.

3. What should be the average height of plinth?

a) 300-500 m
b) 1-2 m
c) 300-450 mm
d) 50-100 mm
Answer: c
Explanation: Generally the plinth level is provided at about 300 to 400 mm above finished ground level. It
is suggested that plinth level should be decided by considering the top level of the ground and hence
considering the level.

4. In a market area, the plinth area should not exceed ____ of the area of site.
a) 75%
b) 25%
c) 95%
d) 55%
Answer: a
Explanation: As per regulations, the plinth area should not exceed 75% of the area of commercial sites,
provided sufficient off-street parking facilities for loading and unloading of vehicles are provided on the
same plot as the building.

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5. The ______ provides support to the occupants, furniture, fixtures and equipment’s of a building.
a) Plinth
b) Ramp
c) Floor
d) Lifts
Answer: c
Explanation: Different floors divide the building in two different levels to provide more accommodation on
a given plot of land. The floor of a building immediately above the ground is known as ground floor.

6. _________ is known as Substructure of the building.

a) Plinth
b) Trenches
c) Foundation
d) Footing
Answer: c
Explanation: Superstructure is the part of the building constructed about the plinth level. Foundation,
plinth, basement, ground level, etc. comes under Superstructure.

7. The height of the Plinth should not be less than ____

a) 45 cm
b) 20 cm
c) 1 m
d) 500 cm
Answer: a
Explanation: According to Indian Standards, the minimum height for the Plinth is 45 cm. The height of
the plinth depends upon architectural elevation, ground level, highest flood level, etc.

8. The portion below the plinth level is known as ______

a) Plinth area
b) Superstructure
c) Sub-structure
d) Formation level
Answer: c
Explanation: Substructure or foundation is the lower portion of the building which lies below the plinth
level. Substructure transmits the loads of the superstructure to the supporting soil.

9. Foundations are more susceptible to ______

a) Settlement
b) Corrosion
c) Fracture
d) Shocks
Answer: a
Explanation: Settlements is most commonly seen in foundation which are within the permissible limits,
without causing cracks in the superstructure and soil does not fail in shear.

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10. The word Plinth is derived from _____

a) Latin
b) Greek
c) Spanish
d) Polish
Answer: b
Explanation: In architecture, a Plinth ( from Greek plinthos, “brick”) is the base or platform upon which a
column, pedestal, statue, monument or structure rests.

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ARCHITECTURE GATE SOLUTION 2020

7. SUPERSTRUCTURE

This set of Construction and Building Materials Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
(MCQs) focuses on “Superstructure”.

1. _______ is the part of building constructed above the plinth level.

a) Superstructure
b) Substructure
c) Foundation
d) Plinth
Answer: a
Explanation: Superstructure is constructed of above the plinth level which consists of RCC walls and
columns, upper floors, sills, Lintels, etc. Whereas, substructure is a part of building constructed below
the plinth level which consists of foundation plinth, etc.

2. In order to secure superstructure from earthquake, _________ technique is most preferred and used
worldwide.
a) Reinforcement
b) Base Isolation
c) Energy Dissipation
d) Seismic Dampers
Answer: b
Explanation: Base Isolation technique separates the building from the building foundation by wearing
pads. It consists of lead rubber bearing or spherical sliding isolation system. In case of an earthquake,
fix base building deform and damaged, whereas base isolated building rocks back and forth like a boat
and reduce the shock by 60%.

3. In old times, the construction of superstructure was done by using _________ building material.
a) Rubber
b) Bamboo
c) Mud
d) Timber
Answer: d
Explanation: Timber floor consists of Plank of wood with 25 mm thickness which is supported by joist
with size of 50 mm×75 mm to 100 mm. Timber was most preferred building material as compared to
bamboo as Timber was cheap and easily available.

4. __________ wall is constructed in order to support load other than its own.
a) Load supporting
b) Load distributing
c) Load bearing
d) Load releasing

Answer: c
Explanation: Load bearing walls support all loads before transferring them to the foundation the wall

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thickness is not money not less than one break or 215 mm. This wall also uses reinforcement Steel bars
to strengthen its position.

5. In architecture, _________ refers to such super-structural element that also has certain proportional and
decorative features.
a) Beam
b) Column
c) Lintels
d) Sills
Answer: b
Explanation: Early columns were constructed of stone, some out of a single piece of stone, usually by
turning on a lathe-like apparatus. Single piece columns are among the heaviest stones used in
architecture. Modern columns are constructed out of Steel, precast concrete, or brick.

6. ________ are structural members design to carry and transfer transverse loads across space to support
elements.
a) Beams
b) Columns
c) Lintels
d) Sills
Answer: a
Explanation: A beam is a structural element that is capable of withstanding load primarily by resisting
bending. The bending force introduced into the material of the bean as a result of external loads, own
weight and external reactions to these loads is called a bending moment.

7. In architecture, a _________ is generally the lower horizontal surface of a room, and/or the supporting
structure underneath it.
a) Sill
b) Basement
c) Ramp
d) Floor
Answer: d
Explanation: A floor typically consists of a support structure called a sub-floor on the top of which is laid
a floor covering to provide a working surface. The floor is actually constructed above the plinth.

8. ______ is the top most part of building which provides covering to the entire assembly and the
occupants.
a) Roof
b) Ceiling
c) Coping
d) Parapet wall

Answer: a
Explanation: Roof is one of the most important building structures which provides safety and protect
occupants from sun light, storms and rain. Basic types of a room designs are Flat roof, Shed roof, Gable
roof, Hip roof, etc.

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9. __________ is special material used to make sure that no moisture leaks in those areas of a roof that
are particularly vulnerable to penetration.
a) Dampers
b) Flashing
c) Ceramic
d) Wax
Answer: b
Explanation: Flashing is a strip of metal used to stop water penetrating the junction of a roof with another
surface. Areas where flashing is commonly used: where roofs meet walls, wherever the roof is pierced
by a Chimney, skylight, air or plumbing vent.

10. ________ is the structural method to maintain the favorable room temperature in every season of the
year.
a) Condensation
b) Damping
c) Air conditioning
d) Insulation
Answer: d
Explanation: Because hot air rises, roof lose more heat than walls and does require greater degree of
insulation. There is a multitude of different locations for the insulation in a roof such as resting above
ceiling, attached between rafters, between substrate and roofing, etc.

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8. METHODS OF SITE EXPLORATION

This set of Construction & Building Materials Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on
“Methods of Site Exploration”.

1. A square pit, known as _________ with side as about 1.50 m, is excavated upto a depth at which
sufficiently hard soil is available.
a) Test pits
b) Probing
c) Test piles
d) Deep boring
Answer: a
Explanation: Using Trail pits or Test pits, various Tata of the soil can be inspected, studied and classified
accordingly. This method is useful when hard soil is available within a maximum depth of 1.50 meter.

2. _________ consists of driving either a hollow tube or a steel rod or an iron rod into the ground.
a) Trail pits
b) Test piles
c) Probing
d) Digging
Answer: c
Explanation: In Probing, a hollow tube of diameter 35 mm to 50 mm is taken. The tube is driven into the
ground 300 mm or so at a time. It is then withdrawn and the material caught in the slit is inspected.

3. The ____________ is the term used to denote a method in which case is driven into the ground and the
material inside the casing is washed out and brought to the surface for inspection.
a) Deep boring
b) Percussion boring
c) Rotary drilling
d) Wash boring
Answer: d
Explanation: The process of wash boring consists in driving an inner tube of diameter 25 mm to 50 mm,
inside an outer tube of diameter 100 mm to 150 mm. Whereas, percussion boring and rotary drilling are
the types of Deep boring.

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4. Identify the given diagram below.

a) Percussion machine
b) Rotary drilling machine
c) Electrical resistivity method
d) Seismogram
Answer: b
Explanation: In this process, a hollow tube is driven by rotary motion which cuts solid core. The water is
used to facilitate the cutting process. The machine can be used either for soft or hard material.

5. The method in which 4 electrons are driven in the ground at equal distance apart and in a straight line up to
a depth which the ground distance is to be measured.
a) Seismic refraction method
b) Geophysical method
c) Electrical resistivity method
d) Current extraction method
Answer: c
Explanation: This method is based on the principle that each soil has different electrical resistivity,
depending upon its water content, compaction and composition. For instance, the saturated soil will have
lower electrical resistivity as compared to the loose dry gravel or solid rock.

6. The number of blows required to drive the penetrometer into the ground through a distance of 300 mm is
measured which is known as _____________ of the soil.
a) Standard penetration resistance
b) Bearing power of soil
c) Maximum safe bearing capacity
d) Allowable bearing pressure
Answer: a
Explanation: The bearing capacity and the other engineering properties of certain types of soil are they
known by referring to the curves correlating Standard Penetration Resistance or SPT and the corresponding
characteristics of soil. The values of SPT of soil and different depths are determined.

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7. The resistance of the soil with depth is measured by means of a tool known as the _______
a) Seismometer
b) Potentiometer
c) Penetrometer
d) Ammeter
Answer: c
Explanation: The penetrometer is used under static or dynamic loading which may consist of a sampling
spoon, a cone or tool of other shape. The penetrometer is driven in the ground with the help of blows from a
650 N weight falling from a height of 750 mm.

8. Identify the given diagram below.

a) Post-hole auger
b) Screw auger
c) Shell auger
d) Rod
Answer: a
Explanation: The length of the tube is about 1.50 M and it is provided with a Jaws at the end so that it can be
suitably explore or dig the ground easily. The auger is work by applying leverage at the top.

9. The shock waves so produced travel down in the sub soil strata and get reflected after striking a hard rock
surface below and recorded by the instrument known as _____
a) Microphone
b) Geophone
c) Receiver
d) Sensors

Answer: b
Explanation: A number of geophones are arrange along a line. Some of the waves, known as direct or
primary waves are picked first buy Geophones. The Other waves which travel down through the soil get
reflected after striking a hard rock surface below.

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10. What is average depth of a Test pit?

a) 10 m
b) 2 m
c) 1.50 m
d) 15 m
Answer: c
Explanation: Test Pit is excavated up to a depth about 1.50 m at which sufficiently hard soil is available. The
various data of soil can be inspected, studied and classified accordingly. This method is useful when hard
soil is available within a maximum depth of 1.50 m.

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9. BEARING CAPACITY OF SOIL

This set of Construction Materials Assessment Questions and Answers focuses on

“Bearing Capacity of Soil”.

1. _________ is used to indicate the maximum load per unit area which the soil will resist safely without
displacement.
a) Bearing power
b) Maximum safe bearing capacity
c) Strength of soil
d) Allowable bearing pressure
Answer: a
Explanation: The Load of the structure is ultimately coming on the soil and hence it is of utmost
importance to know the strength and behavior of the soil. Dividing the ultimate bearing power of soil by a
factor of safety, the safe bearing capacity of soil is obtained.

2. The term _________ on soil is used to indicate the maximum pressure which can be exerted on soil
while taking into account shear failure, settlement and the ability of structure to resist settlement.
a) Bearing capacity
b) Net pressure intensity
c) Allowable bearing pressure
d) Maximum safe bearing capacity
Answer: c
Explanation: The value of Allowable Bearing Pressure on soil depends on the nature of ground and the
type of building. The maximum safe bearing capacity of soil is generally more than the allowable bearing
pressure on soil.

3. The maximum differential settlement should not exceed _____ mm in case of foundation on sandy soil.
a) 100
b) 40
c) 50
d) 25
Answer: d
Explanation: The total amount of settlement should be generally limited between 40 mm and 100 mm.
The term differential settlement indicates the relative settlement of the adjacent portion of the structure.

4. The maximum differential settlement should not exceed ____ mm in case of foundation on clayey soil.
a) 40
b) 25
c) 100
d) 50
Answer: a
Explanation: For ordinary frame structures of concrete, the permissible angular distortion is 1/500 i.e.
one horizontal to 500 vertical and the desirable value is 1/1000 i.e. one horizontal to 1000 vertical. The
term angular distortion is used to indicate the deformation of the structure in a vertical plane.

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5. The maximum safe bearing capacity of hard rocks with defects and lamination such as granite, diorite
and trap is _____ kN/m2.
a) 1650
b) 3300
c) 250
d) 100
Answer: b
Explanation: The term maximum safe bearing capacity of soil is used to indicate the maximum pressure
that is soil can be here without any risk of shear failure only, irrespective of any settlement that may
occur.

6. The maximum safe bearing capacity of very soft, wet, pasty or muddy clay is ____ kN/m2.
a) 150
b) 100
c) 50
d) 25
Answer: c
Explanation: As the given soil is very soft, wet, muddy clay, the soil possess very least minimum safe
bearing capacity. This is because, this soil possess very less intermolecular attraction between the
molecules hence it has low bearing capacity.

7. In case of non-cohesive soils such as sand and gravel, ___% reduction in allowable bearing capacity of
the soil should be applied, if the water table is situated below or near the bearing surface of the soil.
a) 20%
b) 50%
c) 80%
d) 100%
Answer: b
Explanation: However, if water table is situated below the bearing surface of the soil at a depth equal to
the width of the foundation trench, no such reduction should be applied. But in this case, 50% reduction
is applied. For intermediate depths of the water table, the proportion and percentage reduction should be
applied.

8. Identify the method given below for the determination of the bearing power of soil.
a) Plate load test method
b) Electrical resistivity method
c) Seismic refraction method
d) Geophysical method
Answer: a
Explanation: Plate load test method is one of the methods of determination of bearing power of soil.
Plate load test method is the improved point method and it is widely used for determination of the
bearing capacity. Other methods for determination are: method of loading, method of dropping a weight,
analytical methods and Presumptive method.

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9. In which method, a square steel plate is used to determine the bearing power of soil.
a) Plate load test
b) Method of loading
c) Analytical method
d) Penetration test
Answer: b
Explanation: In method of loading, a square steel plate is used whose size depends on practical
conditions and it generally varies from 3000 mm2 to 7500 mm2. The plate should have sufficient
thickness to with stand the maximum bending stresses due to probable loading.

10. The bearing capacity of soil is calculated in ______ units.

a) gm/cc
b) kg/m3
c) kN/m2
d) N/m
Answer: c
Explanation: The bearing capacity of soil is calculated as the maximum load divided by the total area of
steel plate i.e. Bearing Capacity = max. Load ÷ area of steel plate and the unit is N/m2 or kN/m2.

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10. METHODS OF DETERMINING BEARING CAPACITY OF SOIL

This set of Construction Materials Interview Questions and Answers focuses on

“Methods of Determining Bearing Capacity of Soil”.

1. For determining the bearing capacity of soil, in method of loading the size for a square steel plate used
is about ________
a) 300 mm2 to 750 mm2
b) 3000 mm2 to 7500 mm2
c) 3 m2 to 75 m2
d) 3 mm2 to 75 mm2
Answer: b
Explanation: In method of loading comma the size of square steel plate generally variance from 3000
mm2 to 7500 mm2. The plates should have sufficient thickness to with stand the maximum bending
stresses due to probable loading. But in no case, it should be less than 25 mm.

2. In method of loading, which material is used for loading.

a) Wooden pegs
b) Square steel plate
c) Sand bags
d) Rocks
Answer: c
Explanation: The number of banks full of sand or arrange on the rolled Steel section. The sand bag is on
the platform till the settlement of the ground ceases or stops. The loading should be applied without
shock or impact at the center.

3. The bearing capacity of sandy soil and gravelly soils is affected to the extent of _____% by the presence
of water table.
a) 50
b) 10
c) 25
d) 80
Answer: a
Explanation: If the water table is above the foundation level, the water should be pumped out before
placing the steel plate. If water is made with at a depth of one metre below the level of the foundation
level, the load test should be carried out at that level.

4. Due to the adjustment of soil particles under the action of loading, there is some settlement at zero
loading, this is known as the ___________
a) Bearing capacity
b) Safe bearing capacity
c) Vibroflotation
d) Zero correction

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Answer: d
Explanation: Zero correction is obtained from the load settlement curve. The zero correction should be
deducted from the observed settlements to get the actual settlements.

5. The loading to the test plate is applied with the help of ______
a) Sand bags
b) Hydraulic jack
c) Wooden pegs
d) Hard rocks
Answer: b
Explanation: In plate load test, the hydraulic Jack is preferably provided with the remote control pumping
unit. The reaction of the hydraulic jack is borne either by the gravity loading platform method or by the
reaction truss method.

6. In analytical methods, which soil parameters used to determine the ultimate bearing capacity of soil.
a) Angle of internal friction
b) Permeability
c) Adhesion
d) Porosity
Answer: a
Explanation: Angle of internal friction and Cohesion are the soil parameters which are used in analytical
method to determine the ultimate bearing capacity of soil. The samples, preferably of undisturbed soil,
are collected from the bore holes or test pits and various test are then carried out in the soil testing
laboratory for the purpose of analytical analysis of the soil.

7. In Penetration test, the formula obtained for the safe bearing capacity of soil per unit area is given by:
a) R÷{A×F}
b) R-{A×F}
c) R+{A×F}
d) R×{A×F}
Answer: a
Explanation: Safe bearing capacity of soil per unit area = R÷{A×F} where R is equals to ultimate
resistance of soil, A = 2 cross sectional area of the substance, F equals two factor of safety. The results
obtained by this method are approximate and hence this method is used for minor engineering
structures.

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8. Identify the method given below.

a) Plate load test

b) Method of loading
c) Analytical method
d) Penetration test
Answer: a
Explanation: Plate load test is the improved refined method and it is widely used for determining the
bearing capacity of soil for important civil structures. Specifically, this method is plate load method with
gravity loading par platform which consists of loading of sand bags.

9. Identify the method given below.

a) Penetration test
b) Method of loading

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c) Plate load test
d) Analytical method
Answer: a
Explanation: Method of dropping a weight or Penetration test is used when a substance of non weight is
dropped from a known height. The date of the impression made by the weight on the soil is noted. Then
the bearing capacity of soil is worked out.

10. Which method for determining the bearing power of soil is most preferred among the given below:
a) Method of loading
b) Plate load test
c) Penetration test
d) Analytical method
Answer: b
Explanation: Plate load test is the improved refined method and it is widely used for determining the
bearing capacity of soil for important civil engineering structures. This method can be carried out in two
ways: gravity loading platform method and reaction Truss method.

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11. INCREASING THE BEARING CAPACITY OF SOIL.

This set of Construction Materials Questions and Answers for Fresher’s focuses on
“Increasing the Bearing Capacity of Soil”.

1. Stone columns are invariably used in which soil.

a) Poor bearing capacity
b) Strong bearing capacity
c) Low bearing capacity
d) Very poor bearing capacity
Answer: a
Explanation: It is normally used in soft inorganic soils. Stone columns are essentially a method of
soil reinforcement in which soft cohesive soil is replaced at discrete points by compacted stone or
crushed rock in pre bored vertical hole to form columns or files within the soil.

2. 2. The construction of which piles proves to be very useful in case of sandy soil or soft.
a) Cast iron pile
b) Sand pile
c) Steel pile
d) Timber pile
Answer: b
Explanation: These piles are formed by making holes in the ground and then filling the holes by
sand. If sand is kept confined, it possesses great crushing strength and becomes incompressible.

3. The movement of soil under the action of load can be prevented by confining the ground by use of
_________
a) Steel pile
b) Sand pile
c) Timber pile
d) Sheet pile
Answer: d
Explanation: When the sheet piles are used in such ground, it will result in the increase of bearing
power of soil. The wooden sheet piles are commonly used for the temporary work such as
cofferdams. They usually consists of wooden boards 80 mm to 150 mm thick, 200 mm to 300 mm
wide and 2 metres to 4 metres long.

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4. Identify the given pile below.

a) Steep pile
b) Sand pile
c) Sheet pile
d) Timber pile
Answer: b
Explanation: Shown above is a typical sand pile. The sand piles are placed at 2 metres to 3 meters,
usually under the column of the structure. Load test should be carried out to determine the bearing
capacity of sand pile.

5. Identify the given pile below.

a) Sand pile
b) Sheet pile
c) Timber pile
d) Steel pile
Answer: c
Explanation: Figure given above is a Timber pile. At the bottom, a cast iron shoe is provided at the
top, a steel plate is fixed. If a group of timber piles is driven, the top of each member of the group is
brought at the same level and then, a concrete cap is provided to have a common platform.
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6. Identify the given Sheet pile below.

a) Arch web sheet pile

b) R.C.C. sheet pile
c) Straight web sheet pile
d) Timber sheet pile
Answer: d
Explanation: The bottom of timber sheet pile is chamfered so as to form a cutting edge and if
necessary, both top and bottom are provided with suitable iron fittings. They are usually consists of
wooden boards 80 mm to 150 mm thick, 200 mm to 300 mm wide and 2 m to 4 m long.

7. Identify the given pile below.

a) Concrete sheet pile

b) Corrugated sheet pile
c) Z-type sheet pile
d) Timber sheet pile
Answer: a
Explanation: Concrete sheet piles are square or rectangular in cross section and they are driven side
by side so as to form a continuous wall. The weight of precast RCC piles varies from 500 mm to 600
mm and the thickness varies from 20 mm to 60 mm.

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8. Identify the given pile below.

a) Universal joist steel sheet pile

b) Z-type steel sheet pile
c) Corrugated steel sheet pile
d) Built up type steel sheet pile
Answer: a
Explanation: The given figure shows a universal joint Steel sheet pile. These piles consist of I-beams
connected by standard clutches or lock bars. But its flanges are curved so as to accommodate the
flanges of I beams as shown in given figure.

9. Identify the given pile below.

a) Timber pile
b) Concrete pile
c) Composite pile
d) Screw pile

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Answer: c
Explanation: Composite pile is formed when it is combination either of a bored pile and driven Pile or
of driven piles of two different materials. In this combination, the advantage is taken of durability of
concrete piles and the cheapness of timber piles.

10. The commercial method which combines the effect of vibration with jetting is known as _______
a) Flooding
b) Ramming
c) Vibration
d) Vibroflotation
Answer: d
Explanation: Vibroflotation is very useful especially when the foundation is required to support heavy
loads spread over a great area. In this method, a heavy cylinder known as Vibroflot is inserted in the
ground while the cylinder vibrates due to a Rotary eccentric weight.

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