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Đề Hải Phòng

This document appears to be a practice exam for a high school English competition in Vietnam. It contains two parts - a listening section and a grammar/vocabulary section. The listening section includes tasks like completing notes from an audio passage and indicating whether short statements about a town planning meeting are true or false. The grammar section contains multiple choice and fill-in-the-blank questions testing a variety of English grammar and vocabulary topics. The document provides the framework and content for an English exam, with listening and written questions assessing different language skills.

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0% found this document useful (1 vote)
4K views13 pages

Đề Hải Phòng

This document appears to be a practice exam for a high school English competition in Vietnam. It contains two parts - a listening section and a grammar/vocabulary section. The listening section includes tasks like completing notes from an audio passage and indicating whether short statements about a town planning meeting are true or false. The grammar section contains multiple choice and fill-in-the-blank questions testing a variety of English grammar and vocabulary topics. The document provides the framework and content for an English exam, with listening and written questions assessing different language skills.

Uploaded by

luhang1979
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOC, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 13

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN TRẦN PHÚ KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ

HẢI PHÒNG
NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10

(Thời gian làm bài 180 phút không kể thời gian giao đề)

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

PART I. LISTENING (50 points)


I. For questions 1-5, complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10 points)
Ratner Athletics Centre
 A yearly membership costs (1) £240
 Features of offered include:
 the Emily Pankhurst (2) fitness center
 the Dalton (3) swimming pool
 personal (4) trainers at an extra charge
 Hours: 6 a.m. to (5) midnight on weekdays and 6 a.m. to 9 p.m.
on weekends
II. You will hear an interview with a woman called Emma Stoneham, who works as a
manager in the horse racing industry. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits
best according to what you hear. (10 points)
1. What does Emma say about her qualifications?
A. She chose to study certain subjects against her father's wishes.
B. She decided to do courses that dealt directly with horse racing.
C. She did a postgraduate course that few people knew about.
D. She was fortunate to be accepted on a specialist course.
2. How does Emma feel about what she calls the 'big names' in horse racing?
A. She resents having to plan her events to suit them.
B. She respects the contribution they make to the sport.
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C. She believes that they shouldn't receive special treatment.
D. She accepts that she needs to put on particular events to attract them.
3. What does Emma particularly enjoy about race days?
A. the range of people she meets
B. the enthusiasm of her colleagues
C. the challenge of dealing with the unexpected
D. the pleasure of seeing people enjoying themselves
4. How did Emma feel after cancelling the midwinter race meeting?
A. worried that inadequate precautions had been taken
B. angry that bad weather hadn't been predicted
C. satisfied that she'd made the right decision
D. grateful for the good advice she'd received
5. As a result of cancelling the meeting, Emma has had to ______.
A. put on additional race meetings
B. make changes to her financial planning
C. sell some land belonging to the racecourse
D. postpone making improvements to facilities

III. You will hear part of a public meeting held to discuss plans for a new town. I ndicate
whether you think each statement is True (T) or False (F). (10 points)

STATEMENTS TRUE FALSE


1. The meeting will decide which team will develop the area.
2. The first objector suggests the meeting is a waste of time.
3. Mrs West is against the idea of new towns in general.
4. Mrs. Thomas is worried about Metcalf becoming a tourist attraction.
5. Mr Lester persuades the meeting that the development is a good idea.
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

PART II: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (50 points)


I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
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1. On the surface, his decision seems like a mistake, but looking at the big ______, it was
the right choice.
A. multi-talented B. superstition C. routine D. picture
2. It's difficult for a teacher to ______ her students' interest for a whole semester.
A. sustain B. resist C. account for D. recognize
3. Although I explained the situation he didn't seem to ______ the degree of danger he was
in.
A. seize B. grab C. catch D. grasp
4. In many places in Wales we found that place-names in English had been ______ with
green paint - the work of ardent Welsh Nationalists.
A. suppressed B. disguised C. obliterated D. destroyed
5. When he turned up in a ______ new sports car, I thought he must have won the football
pools!
A. glittering B. glowing C. shimmering D. gleaming
6. The candidate still expects to be re-elected ______ the results of the latest opinion poll.
A. apart B. without C. nevertheless D. notwithstanding
7. Look at this plant. Someone has broken the stem. Well I never!
A. I can’t believe it! B. It’s nothing to do with me!
C. I’m sure it will recover! D. I didn’t do it!
8. Of course you won't become more intelligent if you eat a lot of fish - that's just an old
______ tale.
A. maids' B. ladies' C. mothers D. wives'
9. Not until Kentucky's Mammoth Cave had been completely explored in 1972 ______.
A. when was its full extent realized B. that its full extent was realized
C. was its full extent realized D. the realization of its full extent

10. We are prepared to overlook the error on this occasion ______ your previous good work.
A. with a view to B. thanks to C. in the light of D. with regard to
11. Living by the ocean really ______ your ______. Once you've lived there, you never want
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to leave.
A. came in - heart B. get in - heart C. get in - blood D. came in - blood
12. There is no ______ for hard work and perseverance if you want to succeed.
A. alternative B. substitute C. equivalent D. imitation
13. Does Sheila work full time at the supermarket? - No, only ______ when they need extra
staff.
A. in and out B. on and off C. by and by D. up and around
14. Those campers are really ______. They have no idea how to set up a tent.
A. white B. blue C. green D. black
15. The investigation was instigated ______ the Prime Minister.
A. on the part of B. consequence of
C. subsequent to D. at the behest of
16. They were ______ tempted to relieve the shopkeeper of his three juiciest looking apples.
A. sorely B. utterly C. badly D. powerfully
17. Because of the baby boom of the 1980s, preschools in the U.S. have proliferated.
A. changed in philosophy B. become more expensive
C. become more crowded D. increased in numbers
18. Tim: ‘______? You look so concerned.’
- Terry: ‘My final exam is coming.’
A. What for B. How do you feel
C. What’s up D. Where did it go
19. The word ‘put’ rhymes with ______
A. suit B. foot C. cut D. blood
20. Trade ______ from bad to worse and staff ______ redundant now.
A. has gone - are being made B. have gone - is made
C. went - has made D. had gone - are made
II. Read the following text which contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and
write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)

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Lines

1 Electromagnetic fields (EMFs) are produced any time an electric current runs through a
2 wire or an appliance. Wherever you find electricity, you will find EMFs. In today today’s
3 electrical environment, EMFs are everywhere. Atlantic Gas & Electric has detected them
4 near power generations generators, around radio and transmission stations, under power
5 lines, and near electrical outlets, lights, office equipment and computer terminals.
6 The idea that electromagnetic fields could be dangerous to your health is not entirely new.
7 Soviet scientists began reporting on them as early as 1972 when they noticed that
8 switchyard workers who were regularly exposed high levels of electromagnetic fields near
9 the Omsk Power Station experienced strange health effects. There were increasing levels
1 of heart disease, nervous disorders, and blood pressure changes, as long well as recurring
0 headaches, fatigue, stress and chronic depression.
1 Today, power companies cannot avoid the EMF issue. Medical evidence has taken
1 brought it to the fore. Concerned citizens have effectively organized themselves to attract
1 the attention of the medium media, their public officials and, in one instance, the
2 management of the Oakville Power Authority. Their goal is to identify the EMF problem
1 clearly, target their objectives carefully, then make their demands known as the Public
3 Utilities Commission. If enough reports reach the Commission, it will become clear that
1 these are not isolated instances. Citizens must demand that utility companies prove there is
4 a strong need to put through up more power lines in residential neighborhoods.
1
5
1
6
1
7
1
8
1
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9

II. Fill each blank with a suitable preposition. (10 points)


1. If you are an ambitious person, you want to succeed in life and get rid of other people.
2. Quick action by the police prevented fighting from breaking out between rival groups of
fans after the football match.
3. The group rounded in the concert with their greatest hits. So everyone went home happy.
4. Mrs. Harris has died, and six people now lay claim to her house.
5. I really can’t understand why you always find fault with me. Stop making digs ___ me.
6. The children are under a cloud because of their bad behaviour.
7. Martin needs to get a grip ___ his finances if he’s not to face serious difficulties with the
bank.
8. I can hold his failure against him because he never tried for a passing grade.
9. We had over in St. Louis for two hours, waiting for a plane to Seattle.
10. Can you put that CD on, please. I work better with music in the background.
IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered spaces provided.
(10 points)
At the first recess a large boy approached him, hit him hard in the face. They fought and
Francis was beaten (1. DISASTER) disastrously. However small boys are not skilled
fighters, and though he was hurt and (2. SHAKE) shaken, he suffered no serious damage.
But after recess he sat at his desk, (3. WRETCH) wretched and aching, and Miss Mc
Gladdery was angry with him because he was (4. ( ATTENTION) inattentive. Miss Mc
Gladdery was fifty-nine, and she was soldiering through her teaching career until, at sixty-
five, she would be able to retire and, with God's help, never see any of her former pupils
again.
A strong Scots (5. GROUND) ______, and thirty years at Carlyle Rural School, had made her
an expert (6. DISCIPLINE) disciplinarian. A short, fat, (7. PLACE) implacable woman, she
ruled her three groups not with a rod of iron, but with a leather strap that was issued by the
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school board as the ultimate instrument of (8. JUST) justice. She did not use it often; she had
only to take it from a drawer and lay it across her desk to quell any ordinary disobedience.
When she did use it, she displayed a strength that even the biggest, most (9. LOUT) ______
boy dreaded, for not only did she flail his hands until they swelled to red, aching paws, but
she tongue-lashed him with a (10. VIRTUE) virtuosity that threw her classes into an ecstasy
of silent delight.
PART III. READING (60 points)
I. For questions 1–10, read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or
D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15
points)
THAT SWEET SMELL OF SUCCESS
There is a revolution in the retail world that cannot fail to attract shoppers’ noses. In the latest
marketing ploy, smells are created in laboratories to be wafted around stares in order to (1)
______ the unsuspecting into spending more money. Secret (2) ______ of the 'designer'
smells are going on in more than a hundred stores across Britain, including bookshops, petrol
stations and a chain clothes shops. The tailor-made aromas include coconut oil in travel
agents (to (3) ______ exotic holidays), and leather in car showrooms (to suggest lasting
quality). Marketing Aromatics, a camp any specializing in this area, believes that odours are
under-used as a marketing (4) ______. Until now the most frequent application has been in
supermarkets where the smell from in-store bakeries has been blown among the (5) ______ to
boost sales of fresh food. "We are taking things one stage further," said David Fellowes, the
company’s commercial director. "We can build on customer loyalty by making customers (6)
______ a particular smell with a particular store. It is not intrusive. If it were it would defeat
the object.”
The smells are designed to work on three levels: to relax shoppers by using natural smells
such as peppermint; to (7) ______ memories using odours such as a whiff of sea breeze; and
to encourage customer loyalty by using a corporate perfume 'logo' to express a company's (8)
______. Dr George Dodd, scientific adviser to Marketing Aromatics, believes smells can
affect people's moods. "It is a very exciting time. Smells have enormous (9) ______ to
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influence behaviour," he said. Critics say retailers are resorting to subliminal advertising. "Not
telling consumers that this is happening is an (10) ______ invasion of their privacy. People
have the right to know," said Conor Foley of Liberty, the civil liberties association.

1. A. entice B. trap C. force D. deceive


2. A. analyses B. investigations C. operations D. trials
3. A. remember B. arouse C. evoke D. desire
4. A. tool B. advertisement C. gadget D. gimmick
5. A. walkways B. gangways C. corridors D. aisles
6. A. join B. associate C. bond D. merge
7. A. take off B. bring back C. get through D. make up
8. A. picture B. feature C. attraction D. image
9. A. strength B. concentration C. potential D. ability
10. A. unjustified B. undeserving C. unlicensed D. unofficial
II. For questions 1–10, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each
gap. Use only ONE word in each gap. Write your answers in corresponding
numbered boxes. (15 points)
Electromagnetic Fields
The largest land mammal alive today is the elephant. Today, there are two kinds of elephants -
the African elephant and the Indian elephant. (1) However, this has not always been the case.
Until about 10,000 years ago, there was another group, the mammoths, which unfortunately
are now (2) extinct. Mammoths, which lived in the intense cold of northern Russia and North
America, looked very similar to modern elephants. A difference, of course, is that adult
mammoths had a double layer of long hair (3) covering their whole bodies.
Some scientists point a (4) finger at humans as the factor responsible for the extinction of the
mammoths - supposedly (5) that mammoth bones have been found in places where humans
lived. However, thanks to recent evidence, many researchers now believe changes in weather
is a (6) ______ accurate explanation for the extinction of mammoths. The climate changed,
and with it, the types of plants (7) also changed. This in (8) fact affected the mammoths,

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which now had trouble finding food. The changes in climate probably took place quite
suddenly, and in fact, whole mammoths have been found perfectly (9) preserved in the ice.
Because mammoths and modern elephants are somewhat similar, some scientists think it
might be possible to bring (10) back the animals by mixing DNA taken from frozen
mammoths with that of an elephant.

III. For questions 1–10, read the text below and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or
D). Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
Continents and ocean basins represent the largest identifiable bodies on Earth. On the
solid portions of the planet, the second most prominent features are flat plains, elevated
plateaus, and large mountain ranges. In geography, the term "continent" refers to the
surface of continuous landmasses that together comprise about 29.2% of the planet's
5 surface. On the other hand, another definition is prevalent in the general use of the term
that deals with extensive mainlands, such as Europe or Asia, that actually represent one
very large landmass. Although all continents are bounded by water bodies or high
mountain ranges, isolated mainlands, such as Greenland and India-Pakistan areas are
called subcontinents. In some circles, the distinction between continents and large islands
1 lies almost exclusively in the size of a particular landmass.
0 The analysis of compression and tension in the earth's crust has determined that conti-
nental structures are composed of layers that underlie continental shelves. A great deal of
disagreement among geologists surrounds the issue of exactly how many layers underlie
each landmass because of their distinctive mineral and chemical composition. It is also
quite possible that the ocean floor rests on the top of unknown continents that have not
1 yet been explored. The continental crust is believed to have been formed by means of a
5 chemical reaction when, lighter materials separated from heavier ones, thus settling at
various levels within the crust. Assisted by the measurements of the specifics within crust
formations by means of monitoring earthquakes, geologists can speculate that a chemical
split occurred to form the atmosphere, sea water, and the crust before it solidified many
centuries ago.

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2 Although each continent has its special features, all consist of various combinations of
0 components that include shields, mountain belts, intracratonic basins, margins, volcanic
plateaus, and blockvaulted belts. The basic differences among continents lie in the
proportion and the composition of these features relative to the continent size. Climatic
zones have a crucial effect on the weathering and formation of the surface features, soil
erosion, soil deposition, land formation, vegetation, and human activities. Mountain belts
2 are elongated narrow zones that have a characteristic folded sedimentary organization of
5 layers. They are typically produced during substantial crustal movements, which generate
faulting and mountain building. When continental margins collide, the rise of a marginal
edge leads to the formation of large mountain ranges, as explained by the plate tectonic
theory. This process also accounts for the occurrence of mountain belts in ocean basins
and produces evidence for the ongoing continental plate evolution.
1. What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Continental drift and division
B. Various definitions of the term "continent"
C. Continental structure and crust
D. Scientific analyses of continental crusts
2. According to the passage, how do scientists define continents?
A. As masses of land without divisions
B. As extensive bodies of land
C. As the largest identifiable features
D. As surficial compositions and ranges
3. In the first paragraph, the word "bounded" is closest in meaning to ______.
A. covered B. convened C. delimited D. dominated
4. The author of the passage implies that the disagreement among scientists is based on
the fact that ______.
A. each continent has several planes and shelves
B. continents have various underlying layers of crust
C. continents undergo compression and experience tension

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D. continents have different chemical makeup
5. The word "specifics" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. specialties B. speculations C. exact details D. precise movements
6. The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. sea water B. the atmosphere C. the crust D. a chemical split
7. The author of the passage implies that ______.
A. it is not known exactly how the continental crust was formed
B. geologists have neglected the exploration of the ocean floor
C. scientists have concentrated on monitoring earthquakes.
D. the earth's atmosphere split into water and solids
8. According to the passage, what are the differences in the structure of continents?
A. The proportional size of continents to one another
B. Ratios of major components and their comparative size
C. The distinctive features of their elements
D. Climatic zones and their effect on the surface features
9. In the last paragraph, the phrase "This process" refers to ______.
A. continental collision B. mountain ranges
C. the rise of margins D. plate tectonic theory
10. The author of the passage implies that ______.
A. the process of mountain formation has not been accounted for
B. mountain ranges on the ocean floor lead to surface mountain building
C. faulting and continental margins are parts of plate edges
D. the process of continent formation has not been completed

PART IV. WRITING (40 points)


I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the one
printed before it. (10 points)

1. There is no question of my lending you my mobile phone.

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On no question do I lend you my mobile phone.

2. I have frequently made stupid mistakes like that.

Many's the time have I made stupid mistakes like that.

3. Tom reckoned that his success was due to incredible luck.

Tom put his success down to incredible luck.

4. I was the one charged with breaking the news to him.

It fell …………………………………………………………………

5. People are persuaded by adverts to spend more than they can afford.

Adverts tempt to tease them to spend more than they can afford.

II. Rewrite the sentences below in such a way that their meanings stay the same. You
must use the words in capital without changing their forms. (10 points)

1. Our children are crazy about Korean singers. HEAD

Our children are head over hills in love with Korean singers.

2. Were you at all worried about telling the truth. MISGIVINGS

Did you have any misgivings about telling the truth?

3. He was shouting as loud as he could. TOP

He was shouting on the top of his tongue.

4. The company have been reviewing their recruitment policy for the last three months.

REVIEW

The company have been under review for the last 3 months.

5. The prisoner was recaptured as he rushed towards the gate. DASH

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The prisoner was recaptured as he made a dash for the gate.

III. Write a paragraph about the following topic. (20 points)


Do you agree that distance learning is as effective as school education? Write a paragraph
of about 150 words - 200 words to present your opinion.

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