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 Page Content

Chapter Page Number

Networking basic Question
3-11
OSI reference model
11-16
List of computing and IT
abbreviations 17

Short question about

networking 18-22
Supernetting & Subnetting
23-32
Classless Interdomain Routing
32-45
Database management
System 46-87
Data Structure
88-98
Ju Previous question with
solve 99-116

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 Networking Basics - Networking Basics

1. How long is an IPv6 address?

32
A.
bits

128
B.
bytes

64
C.
bits

128
D.
bits
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.

2. What flavor of Network Address Translation can be used to have one IP address allow many
users to connect to the global Internet?
A. NAT

B. Static

C. Dynamic

D. PAT
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Port Address Translation (PAT) allows a one-to-many approach to network address translation.

3. What are the two main types of access control lists (ACLs)?
1. Standard
2. IEEE
3. Extended
4. Specialized
A. 1 and 3

B. 2 and 4

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 C. 3 and 4

D. 1 and 2
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Standard and extended access control lists (ACLs) are used to configure security on a router.

4. What command is used to create a backup configuration?

A. copy running backup

B. copy running-config startup-config

C. config mem

D. wr mem
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The command to back up the configuration on a router is copy running-config startup-
config.

5. You have 10 users plugged into a hub running 10Mbps half-duplex. There is a server connected
to the switch running 10Mbps half-duplex as well. How much bandwidth does each host have to
the server?
A. 100 kbps

B. 1 Mbps

C. 2 Mbps

D. 10 Mbps
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Each device has 10 Mbps to the server.

6. Which WLAN IEEE specification allows up to 54Mbps at 2.4GHz?

A. A

B. B

C. G

D. N
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
IEEE 802.11B is 2.4GHz, but with a maximum of only 11Mbps. IEEE 802.11G is in the 2.4GHz
range, with a top speed of 54Mbps.

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7. Which of the following is the valid host range for the subnet on which the IP address
192.168.168.188 255.255.255.192 resides?
A. 192.168.168.129-190

B. 192.168.168.129-191

C. 192.168.168.128-190

D. 192.168.168.128-192
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
256 - 192 = 64. 64 + 64 = 128. 128 + 64 = 192. The subnet is 128, the broadcast address is 191,
and the valid host range is the numbers in between, or 129-190.

8. To back up an IOS, what command will you use?

A. backup IOS disk

B. copy ios tftp

C. copy tftp flash

D. copy flash tftp

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The command copy flash tftp will prompt you to back up an existing IOS in flash to a TFTP
host.

9. What protocol does PPP use to identify the Network layer protocol?
A. NCP

B. ISDN

C. HDLC

D. LCP
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Network Control Protocol is used to help identify the Network layer protocol used in the packet.

10. Which of the following commands will allow you to set your Telnet password on a Cisco router?
A. line telnet 0 4

B. line aux 0 4

C. line vty 0 4

D. line con 0
Answer: Option C

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 Explanation:
The command line vty 0 4 places you in a prompt that will allow you to set or change your
Telnet password.

11. Which protocol does DHCP use at the Transport layer?

A. IP

B. TCP

C. UDP

D. ARP
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
User Datagram Protocol is a connection network service at the Transport layer, and DHCP uses
this connectionless service.

12. Which command is used to determine if an IP access list is enabled on a particular interface?
A. show access-lists

B. show interface

C. show ip interface

D. show interface access-lists

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The show ip interface command will show you if any outbound or inbound interfaces have
an access list set.

13. Where is a hub specified in the OSI model?

A. Session layer

B. Physical layer

C. Data Link layer

D. Application layer
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Hubs regenerate electrical signals, which are specified at the Physical layer.

14. What does the passive command provide to dynamic routing protocols?
A. Stops an interface from sending or receiving periodic dynamic updates.

B. Stops an interface from sending periodic dynamic updates but not from receiving updates.

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 C. Stops the router from receiving any dynamic updates.

D. Stops the router from sending any dynamic updates.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The passive command, short for passive-interface, stops regular updates from being sent out
an interface. However, the interface can still receive updates.

15. Which protocol is used to send a destination network unknown message back to originating
hosts?
A. TCP

B. ARP

C. ICMP

D. BootP
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send messages back to an originating
router.

16. How often are BPDUs sent from a layer 2 device?

A. Never

B. Every 2 seconds

C. Every 10 minutes

D. Every 30 seconds
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Every 2 seconds, BPDUs are sent out from all active bridge ports by default.

17. How many broadcast domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?
A. 1

B. 2

C. 5

D. 12
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
By default, switches break up collision domains but are one large broadcast domain.

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18. What does the command routerA(config)#line cons 0 allow you to perform next?
A. Set the Telnet password.

B. Shut down the router.

C. Set your console password.

D. Disable console connections.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The command line console 0 places you at a prompt where you can then set your console
user-mode password.
19.Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?
A. show all access-lists

B. show access-lists

C. show ip interface

D. show interface
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
To see the contents of all access lists, use the show access-lists command.

20.

Which class of IP address has the most host addresses available by default?
A. A

B. B

C. C

D. A and B
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Class A addressing provides 24 bits for host addressing.

21. In a network with dozens of switches, how many root bridges would you have?
A. 1

B. 2

C. 5

D. 12
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
You should have only one root bridge per network.

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22. What PPP protocol provides dynamic addressing, authentication, and multilink?
A. NCP

B. HDLC

C. LCP

D. X.25
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Link Control Protocol in the PPP stack provides dynamic addressing, authentication, and
multilink.

23. What is a stub network?

A. A network with more than one exit point.

B. A network with more than one exit and entry point.

C. A network with only one entry and no exit point.

D. A network that has only one entry and exit point.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Stub networks have only one connection to an internetwork. Only default routes can be set on a
stub network or network loops may occur.

24. If your router is facilitating a CSU/DSU, which of the following commands do you need to use to
provide the router with a 64000bps serial link?
A. RouterA(config)#bandwidth 64

B. RouterA(config-if)#bandwidth 64000

C. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64

D. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64000

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The clock rate command is two words, and the speed of the line is in bps.

25. Which one of the following is true regarding VLANs?

A. Two VLANs are configured by default on all Cisco switches.

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 VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No off-brand
B.
switches are allowed.

C. You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain.

D. VTP is used to send VLAN information to switches in a configured VTP domain.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Switches do not propagate VLAN information by default; you must configure the VTP domain.
VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is used to propagate VLAN information across a trunk link.

26. What does a VLAN do?

A. Acts as the fastest port to all servers.

B. Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port.

C. Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork.

D. Provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
VLANs break up broadcast domains at layer 2

27.What is the main reason the OSI model was created?

A. To create a layered model larger than the DoD model.

B. So application developers can change only one layer's protocols at a time.

C. So different networks could communicate.

D. So Cisco could use the model.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The primary reason the OSI model was created was so that different networks could inter-
operate.

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28. How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?
A. 1

B. 2

C. 5

D. 12

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Layer 2 switching creates individual collision domains.

29. What command will display the line, protocol, DLCI, and LMI information of an interface?
A. sh pvc

B. show interface

C. show frame-relay pvc

D. show run

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The show interface command shows the line, protocol, DLCI, and LMI information of an
interface.

30. Which protocol does Ping use?

A. TCP

B. ARP

C. ICMP

D. BootP

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 Answer: Option C
Explanation:
ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send echo requests and replies.

31. Which command is used to upgrade an IOS on a Cisco router?

A. copy tftp run

B. copy tftp start

C. config net

D. copy tftp flash

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The copy tftp flash command places a new file in flash memory, which is the default
location for the Cisco IOS in Cisco routers.

32. If you wanted to delete the configuration stored in NVRAM, what would you type?
A. erase startup

B. erase nvram

C. delete nvram

D. erase running

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The command erase startup-config deletes the configuration stored in NVRAM.

33. What protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch?

1. VLAN Trunking Protocol
2. VLAN
3. 802.1Q
4. ISL

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 A. 1 and 2

B. 3 and 4

C. 1 only

D. 2 only

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
VTP is not right because it has nothing to do with trunking except that it sends VLAN information
across a trunk link. 802.1Q and ISL are used to configure trunking on a port.

OSI reference model (Open Systems Interconnection)

The Open Systems Interconnection model (OSI model) is a conceptual

model that characterizes and standardizes the communication functions of
a telecommunication or computing system without regard to their underlying
internal structure and technology. Its goal is the interoperability of diverse
communication systems with standard protocols. The model partitions a
communication system into abstraction layers. The original version of the
model defined seven layers.

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1.Physical Layer
The physical layer defines the electrical and physical specifications of the
data connection. It defines the relationship between a device and a
physical transmission medium (for example, an electrical cable, an optical
fiber cable, or a radio frequency link). This includes the layout
of pins, voltages, line impedance, cable specifications.

2: Data Link Layer

The data link layer provides node-to-node data transfer—a link between two
directly connected nodes. It detects and possibly corrects errors that may
occur in the physical layer. It defines the protocol to establish and terminate
a connection between two physically connected devices. It also defines the
protocol for flow control between them.
IEEE 802 divides the data link layer into two sublayers:
Medium access control (MAC) layer – responsible for controlling how devices
in a network gain access to a medium and permission to transmit data.
Logical link control (LLC) layer – responsible for identifying and
encapsulating network layer protocols, and controls error checking and
frame synchronization.

3: Network Layer
The network layer provides the functional and procedural means of
transferring variable length data sequences (called datagrams) from one
node to another connected in "different networks". A network is a medium to

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which many nodes can be connected, on which every node has
an address and which permits nodes connected to it to transfer messages to
other nodes connected to it by merely providing the content of a message
and the address of the destination node and letting the network find the way
to deliver the message to the destination node, possibly routing it through
intermediate nodes.

4: Transport Layer
The transport layer provides the functional and procedural means of
transferring variable-length data sequences from a source to a destination
host via one or more networks, while maintaining the quality of service
functions.
An example of a transport-layer protocol in the standard Internet stack
is Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), usually built on top of the Internet
Protocol (IP).
The transport layer controls the reliability of a given link through flow
control, segmentation/desegmentation, and error control. Some protocols
are state- and connection-oriented.

5: Session Layer
The session layer controls the dialogues (connections) between computers.
It establishes, manages and terminates the connections between the local
and remote application. It provides for full-duplex, half-duplex,
or simplex operation, and establishes check pointing, adjournment,
termination, and restart procedures. The OSI model made this layer
responsible for graceful close of sessions, which is a property of
the Transmission Control Protocol, and also for session check pointing and
recovery, which is not usually used in the Internet Protocol Suite. The
session layer is commonly implemented explicitly in application
environments that use remote procedure calls.

Layer 6: Presentation Layer

The presentation layer establishes context between application-layer
entities, in which the application-layer entities may use different syntax and
semantics if the presentation service provides a mapping between them. If a
mapping is available, presentation service data units are encapsulated into
session protocol data units and passed down the protocol stack.

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7: Application Layer
The application layer is the OSI layer closest to the end user, which means
both the OSI application layer and the user interact directly with the
software application. This layer interacts with software applications that
implement a communicating component. Such application programs fall
outside the scope of the OSI model. Application-layer functions typically
include identifying communication partners, determining resource
availability, and synchronizing communication.

our Layers of TCP/IP model, Comparison and Difference between TCP/IP and
OSI models

Difference between TCP/IP and OSI Model:

OSI network model, TCP/IP also has a network model. TCP/IP was on the
path of development when the OSI standard was published and there was
interaction between the designers of OSI and TCP/IP standards. The TCP/IP
model is not same as OSI model. OSI is a seven-layered standard, but
TCP/IP is a four layered standard. The OSI modelhas been very influential in
the growth and development of TCP/IP standard, and that is why much OSI

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terminology is applied to TCP/IP. The following figure compares the TCP/IP
and OSI network models.

Layer 4. Application Layer

Application layer is the top most layer of four layer TCP/IP model.
Application layer is present on the top of the Transport layer. Application
layer defines TCP/IP application protocols and how host programs interface
with Transport layer services to use the network.

Application layer includes all the higher-level protocols like DNS (Domain
Naming System), HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), Telnet, SSH, FTP (File
Transfer Protocol), TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol), SNMP (Simple
Network Management Protocol), SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer
Protocol) , DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol), X Windows, RDP
(Remote Desktop Protocol) etc.

Layer 3. Transport Layer

Transport Layer is the third layer of the four layer TCP/IP model. The
position of the Transport layer is between Application layer and Internet
layer. The purpose of Transport layer is to permit devices on the source and
destination hosts to carry on a conversation. Transport layer defines the
level of service and status of the connection used when transporting data.

The main protocols included at Transport layer are TCP (Transmission

Control Protocol) and UDP (User Datagram Protocol).

Layer 2. Internet Layer

Internet Layer is the second layer of the four layer TCP/IP model. The
position of Internet layer is between Network Access Layer and Transport
layer. Internet layer pack data into data packets known as IP datagrams,
which contain source and destination address (logical address or IP address)
information that is used to forward the datagrams between hosts and across
networks. The Internet layer is also responsible for routing of IP datagrams.

Packet switching network depends upon a connectionless internetwork layer.

This layer is known as Internet layer. Its job is to allow hosts to insert
packets into any network and have them to deliver independently to the
destination. At the destination side data packets may appear in a different
order than they were sent. It is the job of the higher layers to rearrange
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them in order to deliver them to proper network applications operating at
the Application layer.

The main protocols included at Internet layer are IP (Internet

Protocol), ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol), ARP (Address
Resolution Protocol), RARP (Reverse Address Resolution Protocol) and IGMP
(Internet Group Management Protocol).

Layer 1. Network Access Layer

Network Access Layer is the first layer of the four layer TCP/IP
model. Network Access Layer defines details of how data is physically sent
through the network, including how bits are electrically or optically signaled
by hardware devices that interface directly with a network medium, such as
coaxial cable, optical fiber, or twisted pair copper wire.

The protocols included in Network Access Layer are Ethernet, Token

Ring, FDDI, X.25, Frame Relay etc.

The most popular LAN architecture among those listed above is Ethernet.
Ethernet uses an Access Method called CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple
Access/Collision Detection) to access the media, when Ethernet operates in
a shared media. An Access Method determines how a host will place data on
the medium.

IN CSMA/CD Access Method, every host has equal access to the medium and
can place data on the wire when the wire is free from network traffic. When
a host wants to place data on the wire, it will check the wire to find whether
another host is already using the medium.

List of computing and IT abbreviations

 100B-T—100BASE-T
 100B-TX—100BASE-TX
 100BVG—100BASE-VG
 286—Intel 80286 processor
 2B1Q—2 Binary 1 Quaternary
 2FA—Two-factor authentication
 2GL—Second-Generation Programming Language
 2NF—Second Normal Form
 3GL—Third-Generation Programming Language

 BCD—Binary Coded Decimal

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 BCNF—Boyce–Codd normal form
 CDE—Common Desktop Environment
 CDFS—Compact Disk File System
 CDMA—Code Division Multiple Access
 CDN—Content Delivery Network
 CDP—Cisco Discovery Protocol
 CDP—Continuous Data Protection
 CD-R—CD-Recordable
 CD-ROM—CD Read-Only Memory
 CMO—Current Mode of Operation
 CSP—Cloud Service Provider
 DFS—Distributed File System
 DGD—Dworkin's Game Driver
 DHCP—Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
 DHTML—Dynamic Hypertext Markup Language
 DIF—Data Integrity Field
 FIFO—First In First Out
 ICMP—Internet Control Message Protocol
 IPv4—Internet Protocol version 4
 IPv6—Internet Protocol version 6
 PaaS—Platform as a Service
 PAN—Personal Area Network
 PaaS—Platform as a Service
 PAN—Personal Area Network
 WiMAX—Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access
 WiMAX—Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access

Short Question about networking:

What are the difference between hub and switch?

Hub is a layer 1 device. It will out the signal from all of its port except the
one from where its insert. It is unable to detect the collision. It works on
single collision and single broadcast domain.
Switch is layer 2 device. It maintains a CAM table that store the MAC
address of devices attached on its port. CAM table is used to make the
forwarding decision. It works on per port collision and single broadcast
domain.

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What is layer?
Layer is a completely logical partition of PDU (protocol data unit) process.
That define how the information is travel form one computer to other over
the network.
What is TCP/IP?
It is combination of two protocols TCP and IP. It is used for reliable data
transfer.
What is operating system?
An operating system (sometimes abbreviated as "OS") is the program
that, after being initially loaded into the computer by a boot program,
manages all the other programs in a computer. It provides a platform to
application software.
What is package software?
The collection of mostly used software released in package Form Company.
For Example Ms-Office that contain word, power point, Excel, etc.

What is ring topology?

In a ring topology, device one connects to device two, device two connects
to device three, and so on to the last device, which connects back to device
one.
Which cable is used in LAN?
Generally coaxial and TP media is used in LAN networking.
What are Difference between STP and UTP?
STP cable is mostly used by IBM; it has an extra cover over each pair.
UTP cable is used in star topology. It has a single cover over all pair.
What is IEEE?
The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers or IEEE (read eye-
triple-e) is an international non-profit, professional organization for the
advancement of technology related to electricity. It has the most members
of any technical professional organization in the world, with more than
365,000 members in around 150 countries.

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What is 802.3?
IEEE 802.3 is a collection of IEEE standards defining the physical layer and
the media access control (MAC) of the data link layer of wired Ethernet.
Physical connections are made between nodes and infrastructure devices
hubs, switches and routers by various types of copper or fiber cable.
Full form of ping.
PING stand for Packet Internet Grouper
What are the minimum requirements for xp installation?
64MB RAM
1.5GB free HDD space
233MHz minimum processor.
What are 10Base2, 10Base5 and 10BaseT Ethernet LANs?
10Base2— An Ethernet term meaning a maximum transfer rate of 10
Megabits per second that uses baseband signaling, with a contiguous cable
segment length of 100 meters and a maximum of 2 segments.
10Base5—An Ethernet term meaning a maximum transfer rate of 10
Megabits per second that uses baseband signaling, with 5 continuous
segments not exceeding 100 meters per segment.
10BaseT—An Ethernet term meaning a maximum transfer rate of 10
Megabits per second that uses baseband signaling and twisted pair cabling.

What is the difference between an unspecified passive open and a fully

specified passive open?

An unspecified passive open has the server waiting for a connection

request from a client.

A fully specified passive open has the server waiting for a connection
from a specific client.

What is External Data Representation?

External Data Representation is a method of encoding data within an RPC
message, used to ensure that the data is not system-dependent.

Types of Networks: LAN, WAN, WLAN, MAN, SAN, PAN, EPN & VPN

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There are several different types of computer networks. Computer networks
can be characterized by their size as well as their purpose.
The size of a network can be expressed by the geographic area they occupy
and the number of computers that are part of the network. Networks can
cover anything from a handful of devices within a single room to millions of
devices spread across the entire globe.
Some of the different networks based on size are:

 Personal area network, or PAN

 Local area network, or LAN
 Metropolitan area network, or MAN
 Wide area network, or WAN

In terms of purpose, many networks can be considered general purpose,

which means they are used for everything from sending files to a printer to
accessing the Internet. Some types of networks, however, serve a very
particular purpose. Some of the different networks based on their main
purpose are:

 Storage area network, or SAN

 Enterprise private network, or EPN
 Virtual private network, or VPN

Let's look at each of these in a bit more detail.

Personal Area Network

A personal area network, or PAN, is a computer network organized
around an individual person within a single building. This could be inside a
small office or residence. A typical PAN would include one or more
computers, telephones, peripheral devices, video game consoles and other
personal entertainment devices.
If multiple individuals use the same network within a residence, the network
is sometimes referred to as a home area network, or HAN. In a very typical
setup, a residence will have a single wired Internet connection connected to
a modem. This modem then provides both wired and wireless connections
for multiple devices. The network is typically managed from a single
computer but can be accessed from any device.
This type of network provides great flexibility. For example, it allows you to:

 Send a document to the printer in the office upstairs while you are
sitting on the couch with your laptop.

21
  Upload a photo from your cell phone to your desktop computer.
 Watch movies from an online streaming service to your TV.

If this sounds familiar to you, you likely have a PAN in your house without
having called it by its name.

Local Area Network

A local area network, or LAN, consists of a computer network at a single
site, typically an individual office building. A LAN is very useful for sharing
resources, such as data storage and printers. LANs can be built with
relatively inexpensive hardware, such as hubs, network adapters and
Ethernet cables.
The smallest LAN may only use two computers, while larger LANs can
accommodate thousands of computers. A LAN typically relies mostly on
wired connections for increased speed and security, but wireless connections
can also be part of a LAN. High speed and relatively low cost are the defining
characteristics of LANs.
LANs are typically used for single sites where people need to share resources
among themselves but not with the rest of the outside world. Think of an
office building where everybody should be able to access files on a central
server or be able to print a document to one or more central printers. Those
tasks should be easy for everybody working in the same office, but you
would not want somebody just walking outside to be able to send a
document to the printer from their cell phone! If a local area network, or
LAN, is entirely wireless, it is referred to as a wireless local area network, or
WLAN.

Metropolitan Area Network

A metropolitan area network, or MAN, consists of a computer network
across an entire city, college campus or small region. A MAN is larger than a
LAN, which is typically limited to a single building or site. Depending on the
configuration, this type of network can cover an area from several miles to
tens of miles. A MAN is often used to connect several LANs together to form
a bigger network. When this type of network is specifically designed for a
college campus, it is sometimes referred to as a campus area network, or
CAN.

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Wide Area Network
A wide area network, or WAN, occupies a very large area, such as an
entire country or the entire world. A WAN can contain multiple smaller
networks, such as LANs or MANs. The Internet is the best-known example of
a public WAN.

Private Networks
One of the benefits of networks like PAN and LAN is that they can be kept
entirely private by restricting some communications to the connections
within the network. This means that those communications never go over
the Internet.
For example, using a LAN, an employee is able to establish a fast and secure
connection to a company database without encryption since none of the
communications between the employee's computer and the database on the
server leave the LAN. But, what happens if the same employee wants to use
the database from a remote location? What you need is a private network.
One approach to a private network is to build an enterprise private
network, or EPN. An EPN is a computer network that is entirely controlled
by one organization, and it is used to connect multiple locations. Historically,
telecommunications companies, like AT&T, operated their own network,
separate from the public Internet. EPNs are still fairly common in certain
sectors where security is of the highest concern. For example, a number of
health facilities may establish their own network between multiple sites to
have full control over the confidentiality of patient records.

Full form of .co.in, .com

 COM - ".com" stands for "commercial".
 NET - ".net" stands for "network"
 ORG - ".org" stands for "organization"
 INFO - ".info" stands for "information"
 BIZ - ".biz" stands for "business".
 IN - 'IN' stands for India. The 'IN' is a 2 -letter country code for India.

Subnetting
Variable Length Subnet Mask (VLSM)
Supernetting
23
Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR)

Subnetting

24
1. Your router has the following IP address on Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/23. Which of the following can be valid
host IDs on the LAN interface attached to the router?
1. 172.16.1.100
2. 172.16.1.198
3. 172.16.2.255
4. 172.16.3.0
A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The router's IP address on the E0 interface is 172.16.2.1/23, which is 255.255.254.0. This makes the third
octet a block size of 2. The router's interface is in the 2.0 subnet, and the broadcast address is 3.255
because the next subnet is 4.0. The valid host range is 2.1 through 3.254. The router is using the first valid
host address in the range.

2.Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23?

1. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.

2. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
3. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.
4. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
A. 1 and 3

B. 2 and 4

C. 1, 2 and 4

D. 2, 3 and 4

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host
bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 - 254). So this makes the subnets in the interesting octet 0, 2,
4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the
broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254.

25
 3. A network administrator is connecting hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces, as shown in
the illustration. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity
between the hosts?

1. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.

2. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
3. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192.
4. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
5. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
A
1 only
.

B
2 only
.

C
3 and 4 only
.

D
1 and 5 only
.

2 and 5 only

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
First, if you have two hosts directly connected, as shown in the graphic, then you need a crossover
cable. A straight-through cable won't work. Second, the hosts have different masks, which puts them
in different subnets. The easy solution is just to set both masks to 255.255.255.0 (/24).

4. What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that
uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?

E A. 14
.
B. 15

C. 16

D. 30

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A /27 (255.255.255.224) is 3 bits on and 5 bits off. This provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts.
Does it matter if this mask is used with a Class A, B, or C network address? Not at all. The number

26
 of host bits would never change.

5. You need to subnet a network that has 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Which classful subnet
mask would you use?
A. 255.255.255.192

B. 255.255.255.224

C. 255.255.255.240

D. 255.255.255.248

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
You need 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. The mask 255.255.255.240 provides 16 subnets
with 14 hosts-this will not work. The mask 255.255.255.224 provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts.
This is the best answer.

6. You have a network that needs 29 subnets while maximizing the number of host addresses
available on each subnet. How many bits must you borrow from the host field to provide the correct
subnet mask?
A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A 240 mask is 4 subnet bits and provides 16 subnets, each with 14 hosts. We need more subnets,
so let's add subnet bits. One more subnet bit would be a 248 mask. This provides 5 subnet bits (32
subnets) with 3 host bits (6 hosts per subnet). This is the best answer.

7. If an Ethernet port on a router were assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/25, what would be

the valid subnet address of this host?
A. 172.16.112.0

B. 172.16.0.0

C. 172.16.96.0

D. 172.16.255.0

Answer: Option A

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 Explanation:
A /25 mask is 255.255.255.128. Used with a Class B network, the third and fourth octets are
used for subnetting with a total of 9 subnet bits, 8 bits in the third octet and 1 bit in the fourth
octet. Since there is only 1 bit in the fourth octet, the bit is either off or on-which is a value of 0 or
128. The host in the question is in the 0 subnet, which has a broadcast address of 127 since
128 is the next subnet.

8. You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router
interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to the router interface?
A. 6

B. 8

C. 30

D. 32

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A /29 (255.255.255.248), regardless of the class of address, has only 3 host bits. Six hosts is
the maximum number of hosts on this LAN, including the router interface.

9. What is the subnetwork number of a host with an IP address of 172.16.66.0/21?

A. 172.16.36.0

B. 172.16.48.0

C. 172.16.64.0

D. 172.16.0.0

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A /21 is 255.255.248.0, which means we have a block size of 8 in the third octet, so we just
count by 8 until we reach 66. The subnet in this question is 64.0. The next subnet is 72.0, so the
broadcast address of the 64 subnet is 71.255.

10. The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 provides how many subnets and hosts?
A. 7 subnets, 30 hosts each

B. 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each

C. 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each

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 D. 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
A CIDR address of /19 is 255.255.224.0. This is a Class B address, so that is only 3 subnet bits,
but it provides 13 host bits, or 8 subnets, each with 8,190 hosts.

11. You need to configure a server that is on the subnet 192.168.19.24/29. The router has the first
available host address. Which of the following should you assign to the server?
A. 192.168.19.0 255.255.255.0

B. 192.168.19.33 255.255.255.240

C. 192.168.19.26 255.255.255.248

D. 192.168.19.31 255.255.255.248

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A /29 is 255.255.255.248, which is a block size of 8 in the fourth octet. The subnets are 0, 8, 16,
24, 32, 40, etc. 192.168.19.24 is the 24 subnet, and since 32 is the next subnet, the broadcast
address for the 24 subnet is 31. 192.168.19.26 is the only correct answer.

12. You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. What is the
broadcast address the hosts will use on this LAN?
A. 192.168.192.15

B. 192.168.192.31

C. 192.168.192.63

D. 192.168.192.127

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A /29 (255.255.255.248) has a block size of 8 in the fourth octet. This means the subnets are 0,
8, 16, 24, etc. 10 is in the 8 subnet. The next subnet is 16, so 15 is the broadcast address.

13. You have a network with a subnet of 172.16.17.0/22. Which is the valid host address?
A. 172.16.17.1 255.255.255.252

B. 172.16.0.1 255.255.240.0

C. 172.16.20.1 255.255.254.0

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 D. 172.16.18.255 255.255.252.0

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A Class B network ID with a /22 mask is 255.255.252.0, with a block size of 4 in the third octet.
The network address in the question is in subnet 172.16.16.0 with a broadcast address of
172.16.19.255. Only option E even has the correct subnet mask listed, and 172.16.18.255 is a
valid host.

14. On a VLSM network, which mask should you use on point-to-point WAN links in order to reduce
the waste of IP addresses?
A. /27

B. /28

C. /29

D. /30

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A point-to-point link uses only two hosts. A /30, or 255.255.255.252, mask provides two hosts
per subnet.

15. To test the IP stack on your local host, which IP address would you ping?
A. 127.0.0.0

B. 1.0.0.127

C. 127.0.0.1

D. 127.0.0.255

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
To test the local stack on your host, ping the loopback interface of 127.0.0.1.

16. If a host on a network has the address 172.16.45.14/30, what is the subnetwork this host
belongs to?
A. 172.16.45.0

B. 172.16.45.4

C. 172.16.45.8

30
 D. 172.16.45.12

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A /30, regardless of the class of address, has a 252 in the fourth octet. This means we have a
block size of 4 and our subnets are 0, 4, 8, 12, 16, etc. Address 14 is obviously in the 12 subnet.

17. Using the following illustration, what would be the IP address of E0 if you were using the eighth
subnet? The network ID is 192.168.10.0/28 and you need to use the last available IP address in
the range. The zero subnet should not be considered valid for this question.

A. 192.168.10.142

B. 192.168.10.66

C. 192.168.100.254

D. 192.168.10.143

E. 192.168.10.126

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A /28 is a 255.255.255.240 mask. Let's count to the ninth subnet (we need to find the broadcast
address of the eighth subnet, so we need to count to the ninth subnet). Starting at 16
(remember, the question stated that we will not use subnet zero, so we start at 16, not 0), 16,
32, 48, 64, 80, 96, 112, 128, 144. The eighth subnet is 128 and the next subnet is 144, so our
broadcast address of the 128 subnet is 143. This makes the host range 129-142. 142 is the last
valid host.

Which configuration command must be in effect to allow the use of 8 subnets if the Class C subnet
mask is 255.255.255.224?

31
 A. Router(config)#ip classless

B. Router(config)#no ip classful

C. Router(config)#ip unnumbered

D. Router(config)#ip subnet-zero

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A Class C subnet mask of 255.255.255.224 is 3 bits on and 5 bits off (11100000) and provides 8
subnets, each with 30 hosts. However, if the command ip subnet-zero is not used, then only 6
subnets would be available for use.

19. Using the illustration from the previous question, what would be the IP address of S0 if you were
using the first subnet? The network ID is 192.168.10.0/28 and you need to use the last available
IP address in the range. Again, the zero subnet should not be considered valid for this question.
A. 192.168.10.24

B. 192.168.10.62

C. 192.168.10.30

D. 192.168.10.127

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A /28 is a 255.255.255.240 mask. The first subnet is 16 (remember that the question stated not
to use subnet zero) and the next subnet is 32, so our broadcast address is 31. This makes our
host range 17-30. 30 is the last valid host.

20. What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP address 200.10.5.68/28?
A. 200.10.5.56

B. 200.10.5.32

C. 200.10.5.64

D. 200.10.5.0

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
This is a pretty simple question. A /28 is 255.255.255.240, which means that our block size is 16
in the fourth octet. 0, 16, 32, 48, 64, 80, etc. The host is in the 64 subnet.

32
 Classless Inter-Domain Routing
CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing, sometimes called supernetting) is a
way to allow more flexible allocation of Internet Protocol (IP) addresses than
was possible with the original system of IP address classes. As a result, the
number of available Internet addresses was greatly increased, which along
with widespread use of network address translation (NAT), has significantly
extended the useful life of IPv4.

1.What do you mean by data communication?

Ans: It is the exchange of data between two devices via some form of transmission
medium such as wire cable. The communicating system must be part of a
communication system made up of a combination of hardware and software.The
effectiveness of a data communication system depends on three fundamental
characteristics: delivery, accuracy and timeliness.

2.What is simplex?

Ans: It is the mode of communication between two devices in which flow of data is
unidirectional. i.e. one can transmit and other can receive. E.g. keyboard and monitor.

3.What is half-duplex?

Ans: It is the mode of communication between two devices in which flow of data is

33
 bidirectional but not at the same time. ie each station can transmit and receive but not at
the same time. E.g walkie-talkies are half-duplex system.

4.What is full duplex?

Ans: It is the mode of communication between two devices in which flow of data is
bidirectional and it occurs simultaneously. Here signals going in either direction share
the capacity of the link. E.g. telephone

5.What is a network?

Ans: It is a set of devices connected by communication links. A node can be a

computer or any other device capable of sending and/or receiving data generated by
other nodes on the network.

6.What is distributed processing?

Ans: It is a strategy in which services provided by the network reside at multiple sites.

7.What is point to point connection?

Ans:It provides a dedicated link between two devices. The entire capacity of the link is
reserved for transmission between the two devices e.g. when we change the TV
channels by remote control we establish a point to point connection between remote
control and TV control system.

8.What is multipoint connection?

Ans: In multipoint connection more than two specific devices share a single link. Here
the capacity of the channel is shared either separately or temporally.

9.What is a topology?

34
 Ans: Topology of a network is defined as the geometric representation of the
relationship of all the links and linking devices (node) to one another.Four basic
topologies are star, bus, ring and mesh. Star – Here each device has a dedicated point to
point link only to a central controller called hub.

Bus -It is multipoint. One long cable acts as a backbone to link all the devices in the
network.

Ring -Here each device has a dedicated point to point connection only with the two
devices on either side of it. Mesh -Here every device has a dedicated point to point link
to every other device.

101.Define internet?

Ans: It is a network of networks.

12.What is a protocol?

Ans: It is a set of rules that governs data communication. A protocol defines what is
communicated, how it is communicated, and when it is communicated. The key
elements of protocol are syntax, semantics and timing.

13.Describe the functions of five layers?

Ans: Physical- It transmits raw bits over a medium. It provides mechanical and
electrical specification.

Data link- It organizes bits into frames. It provides hop to hop delivery.

Network-It moves the packets from source to destination.It provide internetworking.

Transport-It provides reliable process to process message delivery and error recovery.

35
 Application-It allows ti access to network resources.

14. What is multiplexing?

Ans: Multiplexing is the process of dividing a link, the phycal medium, into logical
channels for better efficiency. Here medium is not changed but it has several channels
instead of one.

15.What is switching?

Ans: Switching in data communication is of three types Circuit switching Packet

switching Message switching

16.How data is transmitted over a medium?

Ans: Data is transmitted in the form of electromagnetic signals.

17. Compare analog and digital signals?

Ans: Analog signals can have an infinite number of values in a range but digital signal
can have only a limited number of values.

18.Define bandwidth?

Ans: The range of frequencies that a medium can pass is called bandwidth. It is the
difference between the highest and lowest frequencies that the medium can
satisfactorily pass.

19.What are the factors on which data rate depends?

Ans: Data rate ie.how fast we can send data depends upon i) Bandwidth available ii)
The levels of signals we can use iii) The quality of the channel (level of noise)

36
 20.Define bit rate and bit interval?

Ans: Digital signals are aperiodic.so instead of using period and frequency we use bit
interval and bit rate respectively.Bit interval is the time required to send one single
bit.Bit rate is the number of bit intervals per second.

21.What is Nyquist bit rate formula?

Ans: For a noiseless channel, the Nyquist bit rate formula defines the theoretical
maximum bit rate

Bitrate=2* Bandwidth*log2L

Where Bandwidth is the bandwidth of the channel L is the number of signal level used
to represent the data Bitrate is the bit rate in bits per second.

22.What is sampling?

Ans: It is the process of obtaining amplitude of a signal at regular intervals.

23.Define pulse amplitude modulation?

Ans: It is an analog to digital conversion method which takes analog signals, samples
it and generates a series of pulse based on the results of the sampling. It is not used in
data communication because the series of pulses generated still of any amplitude. To
modify it we use pulse code modulation.

24.Define pulse code modulation?

Ans: Pulse code Modulation modifies pulses created by PAM to create a completely
digital signal. For this PCM first quantizes the PAM pulse. Quantization is the method
of assigning integral values in a specific tange to sampled instances.PCM is made up of

37
 four separate processes: PAM, quantization, binary encoding and line encoding.

25.What is Nyquist Theorem?

Ans: According to this theorem, the sampling rate must be at least 2 times the highest
frequency of the original signal.

26.What are the modes of data transmission?

Ans: Data transmission can be serial or parallel in mode In parallel transmission, a

group of bits is sent simultaneously, with each bit on a separate line.In serial
transmission there is only one line and the bits are sent sequentially.

27.What is Asynchronous mode of data transmission?

Ans: It is a serial mode of transmission. In this mode of transmission, each byte is

framed with a start bit and a stop bit. There may be a variable length gap between each
byte.

28.What is Synchronous mode of data transmission?

Ans: It is a serial mode of transmission.In this mode of transmission, bits are sent in a
continuous stream without start and stop bit and without gaps between bytes.
Regrouping the bits into meaningful bytes is the responsibility of the receiver.

29.What are the different types of multiplexing?

Ans: Multiplexing is of three types. Frequency division multiplexing and wave

division multiplexing is for analog signals and time division multiplexing is for digital
signals.

30.What is FDM?

38
 Ans: In frequency division multiplexing each signal modulates a different carrier
frequency. The modulated carrier combines to form a new signal that is then sent
across the link. Here multiplexers modulate and combine the signal while
demultiplexers decompose and demodulate. Guard bands keep the modulating signal
from overlapping and interfering with one another.

31.What is TDM ?

Ans: In TDM digital signals from n devices are interleaved with one another, forming a
frame of data. Framing bits allow the TDM multiplexer to synchronize properly.

32.What are the different transmission media?

Ans: The transmission media is broadly categorized into two types i)Guided
media(wired) i)Unguided media(wireless)

33.What are the different Guided Media?

Ans: The media which provides a conduct from one device to another is called a
guided media. These include twisted pair cable, coaxial cable, and fiber-optic cable.

34.Describe about the different Guided Medias.

Ans: Twisted pair cable consists of two insulated cupper wires twisted together. It is
used in telephone line for voice and data communications. Coaxial cable has the
following layers: a metallic rod-shaped inner conductor, an insulator covering the rod,
a metallic outer conductor (shield), an insulator covering the shield, and a plastic
cover.Coaxial cable can carry signals of higher frequency ranges than twisted-pair
cable. Coaxial cable is used in cable TV networks and Ethernet LANs.Fiber-optic
cables are composed of a glass or plastic inner core surrounded by cladding, all encased
in an outer jacket.Fiber-optic cables carry data signals in the form of light. The signal is
propagated along the inner core by reflection. Its features are noise resistance, low

39
 attenuation, and high bandwidth capabilities. It is used in backbone networks, cable TV
nerworks, and fast Ethernet networks.

35.What do you mean by wireless communication?

Ans: Unguided media transport electromagnetic waves without using a physical

conductor. This type of communication is referred as wireless communication. Here
signals are broadcaster through air and thus available to anyone who has a device to
receive.

36.What do you mean by switching?

Ans: It is a method in which communication devices are connected to one another

efficiently. A switch is intermediary hardware or software that links devices together
temporarily.

37.What are the types of errors?

Ans: Errors can be categorized as a single-bit error or burst error. A single bit error has
one bit error per data unit. A burst error has two or more bits errors per data unit.

38.What do you mean by redundancy?

Ans: Redundancy is the concept of sending extra bits for use in error detection. Three
common redundancy methods are parity check, cyclic redundancy check (CRC), and
checksum.

39.Define parity check.

Ans: In parity check, a parity bit is added to every data unit so that the total number of
1s is even (or odd for odd parity).Simple parity check can detect all single bit errors. It
can detect burst errors only if the total number of errors in each data unit is odd.In two

40
 dimensional parity checks, a block of bits is divided into rows and a redundant row of
bits is added to the whole block.

40. Define cyclic redundancy check (CRC).

Ans: C RC appends a sequence of redundant bits derived from binary division to the
data unit. The divisor in the CRC generator is often represented as an algebraic
polynomial.

41. What is hamming code?

Ans: The hamming code is an error correction method using redundant bits. The
number of bits is a function of the length of the data bits. In hamming code for a data
unit of m bits, we use the formula 2r >= m+r+1 to determine the number of redundant
bits needed. By rearranging the order of bit transmission of the data units, the hamming
code can correct burst errors.

42.What do you mean by flow control?

Ans: It is the regulation of sender’s data rate so that the receiver buffer doesn’t become
overwhelmed.i.e. flow control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount
of data that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgement.

43.What is HDLC?

Ans: It is a bit oriented data link protocol designed to support both half duplex and full
duplex communication over point to point and multi point links.HDLC is characterized
by their station type,configuration and their response modes.

44.What do you mean by Authentication protocol?

Ans: Authentication means validating the identity of a user who needs to access a set

41
 of resources. It is of two types i)Password Authentication Protocol(PAP) ii)Challenge
Handshake Authentication Protocol(CHAP) PAP is a two step process. The user sends
a authentication identification and a password. The system determines the validity of
the Information sent.CHAP is a three step process. The system sends a value to the
user. The user manipulates the value and sends the result. The system Verifies the
result.

45.What do you mean by network control protocol?

Ans: Network control protocol is a set of protocols to allow the encapsulation of data
coming from network layer protocol that requires the services of PPP.

46. What do you mean by CSMA?

Ans: To reduce the possibility of collision CSMA method was developed. In CSMA
each station first listen to the medium (Or check the state of the medium) before
sending. It can’t eliminate collision.

47.What do you mean by Bluetooth?

Ans: It is a wireless LAN technology designed to connect devices of different functions

such as telephones, notebooks, computers, cameras, printers and so on. Bluetooth LAN
Is an adhoc network that is the network is formed spontaneously? It is the
implementation of protocol defined by the IEEE 802.15 standard.

48.What is IP address?

Ans: The internet address (IP address) is 32bits that uniquely and universally defines a
host or router on the internet. The portion of the IP address that identifies the network
is called netid. The portion of the IP address that identifies the host or router on the
network is called hostid.

42
 49.What do you mean by subnetting?

Ans: Subnetting divides one large network into several smaller ones. It adds an
intermediate level of hierarchy in IP addressing.

50.What are the advantages of fiber optics cable ?

Ans: The advantages of fiber optics cable over twisted pair cable are Noise resistance-
As they use light so external noise is not a factor. Less signal attenuation-fiber optics
transmission distance is significantly greater than that of other guided media.Higher
bandwidth-It can support higher bandwidth.

51.What is Firewalls?

Ans: It is an electronic downbridge which is used to enhance the security of a network.

It’s configuration has two components. i)Two routers ii)Application gateway the
packets traveling through the LAN are inspected here and packets meeting certain
criteria are forwarded and others are dropped.

52.What is Repeaters ?

Ans: A receiver receives a signal before it becomes too weak or corrupted,regenerates

the original bit pattern,and puts the refreshed copy back onto the link.It operates on
phycal layer of OSI model.

53.Define IP ?

Ans: Internetwork protocol (IP) is the transmission mechanism used by TCP/IP

protocol.It is an unreliable and connectionless datagram protocol.It provides no error
checking and tracking.

54.What do you mean by client server model ?

43
 Ans: In client server model ,the client runs a program to request a service and the
server runs a program to provide the service.These two programs communicate with
each other. One server program can provide services to many client programs.

55.What are the information that a computer attached to a TCP/IP internet must
possesses ?

Ans: Each computer attached to TCP/IP must possesses the following information

• Its IP addesss • Its subnet mask • The IP addesss of the router. • The Ip address of the
name server.

56.What is domain name system(DNS)?

Ans: Domain Name System (DNS )is a client server application that identifies each
host on the internet with a unique user friendly name.

57.What is TELNET ?

Ans: TELNET is a client –server application that allows a user to log on to a remote
machine,giving the user access to the remote system. TELNET is an abbreviation of
terminal Network.

58.What do you mean by local login and remote login ?

Ans: When a user logs into a local time-sharing system ,it is called local login. When a
user wants to access an application program or utility located on a remote machine,he
or she performs remote login.

59.What is Network Virtual Terminal ?

Ans: A universal interface provided by TELNET is called Network Virtual

44
 Terminal(NVT) character set.Via this interface TELNET translates characters (data or
command) that come from local terminal into NVT form and delivers them to the
network.

60.What do you mean by Simple Mail Transfer Protocol ?

Ans: The TCP/IP protocol that supports electronic mail on the internet is called Simple
Mail Transfer Protocol.SMTP provides for mail exchange between users on the same
or different computer and supports Sending a single message to one or more recipient
Sending message that include text, voice,video,or graphics.Sending message to users
on network outside the internet.

61.What is Hypertext Transfer Protocol(HTTP) ?

Ans: It is the main protocol used to access data on the World Wide Web .the protocol
transfers data in the form of plain text,hypertext,audio,video,and so on. It is so called
because its efficiency allows its use in a hypertext environment where there are rapid
jumps from one document to another. 100.What is URL ? Ans: It is a standard for
specifying any kind of information on the World Wide Web.

62. What is World Wide Web ?

Ans: World Wide Web is a repository of information spread all over the world and
linked together.It is a unique combination of flexibility,portability,and user-friendly
features .The World Wide Web today is a distributed client-server service,in which a
client using a browser can access a service using a server.The service provided is
distributed over many locations called web sites.

63.What is HTML ?

Ans: Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) is a language for creating static web
pages.

45
 64.Difference between Internet, Intranet and Extranet ?

Internet is a network which is for public, world where intranet and extranet is a network for

private use,
internet is a network where anybody can access, from around the world, but in intranet and
extranet we add some privacy so only allowed people can access.

65. what is the difference between wimax and wifi?

They are completely different standards. you may have seen 802.11 somewhere. this is the

standard for Wifi, while Wimax is 802.16. Wifi is more of a local wireless network technology,
where the longest ranges are around 300 ft. with the newest iteration(802.11n) you can get
speeds of up to 300Mbps. To contrast, Wimax has a much larger range(tests have gone over
30 miles), but also has a much lower max speed, which is currently theoretically up to 40 Mbps,

however most real world tests only get around 10Mbps. since they are different standards, their
signals are not compatible.

46
 Database Management System:
1. A report generator is used to
A. update files

B. print files on paper

C. data entry

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

2. Which of the following is not a logical data-base structure?

A. Tree

B. Relational

C. Network

D. Chain

E. All of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question

3. Which of the following is a database administrator's function?

47
 A. database design

B. backing up the database

C. performance monitoring

D. user coordination

E. All of the above

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

4. Primitive operations common to all record management systems include

A. Print

B. Sort

C. Look-up

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

5. Each of data files has a _____ that describe the way the data is stored in the file.
A. File structure

B. Records

C. Fields

D. Database

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

48
 6. After you _____ a record, many data management the environments require you to issue a
command to save the changes you made.
A. Delete

B. Update

C. Sort key

D. Index

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

7. What is the language used by most of the DBMSs for helping their users to access data?
A. High level language

B. Query language

C. SQL

D. 4GL

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

8. Data item characteristics that are important in data management include

A. punctuation

B. language

C. spelling

D. width

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

49
 No answer description available for this question.

9. In SQL, which command is used to make permanent changes made by statements issue since
the beginning of a transaction?
A. ZIP

B. PACK

C. COMMIT

D. SAVE

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

10. Periodically adding, changing and deleting file records is called file
A. Updating

B. upgrading

C. restructuring

D. renewing

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

11. Sort/report generators

A. are faster than index/report generators

B. require more disk space than index/report generators

C. do not need to sort before generating a report

D. both (a) and (b)

E. None of the above

50
 Answer: Option B
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

12. The data dictionary tells the DBMS

A. what files are in the database

B. what attribute are possessed by the data

C. what these files contain

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

13. In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to enable/disable a database trigger?

A. MODIFY USER

B. CHANGE USER

C. ALTER TRIGGER

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question

14. If the record management system allows you to edit values before they are recorded on disk,
you can
A. correct spelling changes before they are recorded

B. change the name of a field

C. change the width of a field

D. All of the above

51
 E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question

15. The relational model uses some unfamiliar terminology. A tuple is equivalent to a:
A. record

B. field

C. file

D. data base

E. data item

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

16. The files stored on a secondary stage device are composed of a hierarchy of data. What does a
record in a file contain?
A. Bits

B. Characters

C. Data field

D. Schema

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

17. Which command is used to remove an index from the database in SQL?
A. DELETE INDEX

B. DROP INDEX

C. REMOVE INDEX

52
 D. ROLL BACK INDEX

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:No answer description available for this question.
18. An-owner-member set in the CODASYL specifications may have
A. only one owner but many owner occurrences

B. only one member but many member occurrence

C. more than one member but only one occurrence per member

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question

19. What is the name given to the database management system which is able to handle full text
data, image data, audio and video?
A. Full media

B. Graphics media

C. Multimedia

D. Hypertext

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

20. A top-to-bottom relationship among the items in a database is established by a

A. Hierarchical schema

B. Network schema

C. Relational schema

53
 D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:No answer description available for this question.
21. A database management system
A. allows simultaneous access to multiple files

B. can do more than a record management system

C. is a collection of programs for managing data in a single file

D. both (a) and (b)

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

22. Which of the following hardware components is the most important to the operation of a
database management system?
A. high-resolution video display

B. printer

C. high speed, large-capacity disk

D. plotter

E. mouse

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

23. The PROJECT command will create new table that has
A. more fields than the original table

B. more rows than the original table

C. both (a) and (b)

54
 D. all the fields of master table

E. None of the above

Answer: Option E
Explanation:No answer description available for this question.
24. To have a file hold a list, it is necessary to
A. identify the records in the list

B. identify the name, width and type of the fields of each record.

C. decide which fields will be used as sort or index keys

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

25. Sophisticated report generators can

A. print row-oriented reports

B. perform arithmetic operations

C. selectively retrieve and print portions of a list

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

26. In a _____ a parent record type can be linked to one or more "child" record types, but a child
record type can have only one parent.
A. Network database

B. Relational database

55
 C. Distributed database

D. Hierarchical database

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:No answer description available for this question.

27. Which two files are used during operation of the DBMS?
A. query language and utilities

B. data manipulation language and query language

C. data dictionary and transaction log

D. data dictionary and query language

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

28. When using a database management system, the first thing that you must do is to
A. create a database file

B. activate file editor

C. load the software into your micro¬computer

D. keep a floppy disk in readiness

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

29. A network schema

56
 A. restricts the structure to a one-to-many relationship

B. permits many-to-many relation¬ships

C. stores data in tables

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:No answer description available for this question.

30. Which of the following is not a relational database?

A. dBASE IV

B. 4th Dimension

C. FoxPro

D. Reflex

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

31. Which command is used to remove a table from the database in SQL?
A. DELETE TABLE

B. DROP TABLE

C. ERASE TABLE

D. UNATTACH TABLE

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

57
 No answer description available for this question.

32. A large computer information system maintains many different computer files.
Which amongst them is called a perpetual file?
A. Specialized file

B. Log file

C. Master file

D. Update file

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

33. A file produced by a spreadsheet

A. is generally stored on disk in an ASCII text format

B. can be used as it by the DBMS

C. can be used for graphic

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

34. A form defines

A. where data is placed on the screen

B. the width of each field

C. both (a) and (b)

58
 D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:No answer description available for this question.

35. Which of the following is true of a network structure?

A. It is a physical representation of the data

B. It allows a many-to-many relationship

C. It is conceptually simple

D. It will be the dominant data base of the future

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

36. In SQL, GRANT command is used to

A. allow user to access databases

B. allow user to create databases

C. grant system privileges, roles, and object privileges to uses and roles

D. choose auditing for specific SQL commands

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

37. The highest level in the hierarchy of data organization is called

A. data bank

59
 B. database

C. data file

D. data record

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

38. The logical data structure with a one-to-many relationship is a :

A. network

B. tree

C. chain

D. relational

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

39. Updating a database means

A. revising the file structure

B. reorganizing the database

C. modifying or adding record occurrences

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

60
 No answer description available for this question.

40. In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to enable/disable all triggers on a table?
A. ALTER TRIGGERS

B. ALTER TABLE

C. MODIFY TRIGGERS IN TABLE

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

41. When you have finished entering information into a form

A. the template is written to the data file

B. the contents of the form are written to the data file

C. the contents of the form can be printed

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

42. The main idea behind computer files is that it is convenient to

A. arrange them

B. store information together

C. create them

61
 D. access them

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:No answer description available for this question.
43. A list consists of last names, first names, addresses, and pin codes if all people in the list have
the same last and the same pin code, a useful key would be
A. the pin code

B. the last name

C. a compound key consisting of the first name and the last name

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

44. In SQL, which command is used to add new rows to a table?

A. ALTER TABLE

B. ADD ROW

C. INSERT

D. APPEND

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

45. A number of related records that are treated as a unit is called

62
 A. file

B. field

C. data

D. batch

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

46.If you want to group the records in the abc database, you could use the Jobcode as the _____.
A. Delete

B. Update

C. Sort Key

D. Index

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

47. The Management Information system (MIS) structure with one main computer system is called a
A. hierarchical MIS structure

B. distributed MIS structure

C. centralized MIS structure

D. decentralized MIS structure

63
 E. None of the above

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

48. If a calculation is embedded in a form

A. the result of the calculations are stored with the form

B. the calculations are stored with the form

C. the result of the calculations are printed in report

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

49.Data security threats include

A. hardware failure

B. privacy invasion

C. fraudulent manipulation of data

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

50.An operation that will increase the length of a list is

A. Insert

64
 B. Look-up

C. Modify

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.

51.In SQL, which command is used to add a column/integrity constraint to a table

A. ADD COLUMN

B. INSERT COLUMN

C. MODIFY TABLE

D. ALTER TABLE

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

52.In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to enable/disable a database trigger?

A. ALTER TRIGGER

B. ALTER DATABASE

C. ALTER TABLE

D. MODIFY TRIGGER

E. All of the above

Answer: Option A

53. In a relational schema, each tuple is divided into fields called

A. Relations

65
 B. Domains

C. Queries

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

54. In SQL, which command is used to changes data in a table?

A. UPDATE

B. INSERT

C. BROWSE

D. APPEND

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

55.What name is given to the collection of facts, items of information or data which are related in
some way?
A. Database

B. Directory information

C. Information tree

D. Information provider

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

56.In a large DBMS

A. each user can "see" only a small part of the entire database

66
 B. each user can access every sub¬schema

C. each subschema contains every field in the logical schema

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

57.Which of the following command(s) is(are) used to recompile a stored procedure in SQL?
A. COMPILE PROCEDURE

B. ALTER PROCEDURE

C. MODIFY PROCEDURE id) All of the above

D. None of the above

Answer: Option B

58.Internal auditors should review data system design before they are
A. developed

B. implemented

C. modified

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

59. A _____ means that one record in a particular record type may be related to more than one
record of another record type.
A. One-to-one relationship

67
 B. One-to-many relationship

C. Many-to-one relationship

D. Many-to many relationship

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

60.Which command(s) is(are) used to redefine a column of the table in SQL ?

A. ALTER TABLE

B. DEFINE TABLE

C. MODIFY TABLE

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

61.Which command(s) is(are) used to enable/disable/drop an integrity constraint in SQL?

A. DEFINE TABLE

B. MODIFY TABLE

C. ALTER TABLE

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

62.In SQL, the ALTER TABLESPACE command is used

68
 A. to add/rename data files

B. to change storage characteristics

C. to take a tablespace online/offline

D. to begin/end a backup

E. All of the above

Answer: Option E

63.The language used in application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred to as the
A. DML

B. DDL

C. query language

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

64.A database management system might consist of application programs and a software package
called
A. FORTRAN

B. AUTOFLOW

C. BPL

D. TOTAL

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

69
 65.An audit trail
A. is used to make back-up copies

B. is the recorded history of operations performed on a file

C. can be used to restore lost information

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

66.A race condition occurs when

A. Two concurrent activities interact to cause a processing error

B. two users of the DBMS are interacting with different files at the same time

C. both (a) and (b)

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

67.An indexing operation

A. sorts a file using a single key

B. sorts file using two keys

C. establishes an index for a file

D. both (b) and (c)

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

70
 68.The on-line, softcopy display a customer's charge account to respond to an inquiry is an
examples of a
A. forecasting report

B. exception report

C. regularly scheduled report

D. on demand report

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

69.In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to create a synonym for a schema object?
A. CREATE SCHEMA

B. CREATE SYNONYM

C. CREATE SAME

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

70.If you want your database to include methods, you should use a _____ database.
A. Network

B. Distributed

C. Hierarchical

D. Object-Oriented

71
 E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

71.In SQL, which of the following is not a data Manipulation Language Commands?
A. DELETE

B. SELECT

C. UPDATE

D. CREATE

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

72. Which of the following is not characteristic of a relational database model?

A. tables

B. treelike structure

C. complex logical relationships

D. records

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

73.A computer file contains several records. What does each record contain?
A. Bytes

B. Words

C. Fields

D. Database

72
 E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

74.In SQL, the CREATE VIEW command is used

A. to recompile view

B. to define a view of one or more tables or views

C. to recompile a table

D. to create a trigger

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

75.A ____ Contains the smallest unit of meaningful data, so you might call it the
basic building block for a data file.
A. File structure

B. Records

C. Fields

D. Database

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

76.In the DBM approach, application programs perform the

A. storage function

B. processing functions

C. access control

73
 D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

77. I n SQL, which command is used to create a database user?

A. ADD USER TO DATABASE

B. MK USER

C. CREATE USER

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

78.When performing a look-up operation using a form

A. you enter the search value into the form

B. you look at each form sequentially until you see the one you want

C. you type the key in an entry line, and the correct form is displayed

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

79.A _____ means that one record in a particular record type is related to only one record of another
record type.
A. One-to-one relationship

B. One-to-many relationship

C. Many-to-one relationship

74
 D. Many-to-many relationship

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

80.A _____ database does not use pointers or physical links, but instead finds related records by
examining the contents of fields.
A. Network

B. Hierarchical

C. Relational

D. Object-Oriented

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

81.In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to redefine an index's future storage allocation
A. ALTER INDEX

B. REDEFINE INDEX

C. MODIFY INDEX

D. DO INDEX

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

82.Which of the following is a serious problem of file management systems?

A. difficult to update

B. lack of data independence

C. data redundancy

75
 D. program dependence

E. All of the above

Answer: Option E

83.With respect to data input, the most accurate description of batch control is
A. dividing documents to be entered into batches

B. controlling the input of each input clerk

comparing to a pre-calculated figure the total of a data item summed across a batch records
C.
put into the system

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

84.The model for a _____ resembles the hierarchical model in many respects.
A. Network database

B. Relational database

C. Distributed database

D. Hierarchical database

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

85.A set of programs that handle a firm's data base responsibilities is called a
A. Data Base Management System (DBMS)

76
 B. Data Base Processing System (DBPS)

C. Data Management System (DMS)

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

86.In any hierarchy of data organization, the smallest entity to be processed as a single unit is called
A. data field

B. data record

C. data file

D. Database

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

87.Long-range planning report produced in an MIS are primarily designed for

A. top management

B. middle management

C. lower management

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

88.The model for a record management system might be

77
 A. handwritten list

B. a Rolodex card file

C. a business form

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

89.The designer of a form includes

A. filed designators

B. Prompts

C. Data

D. both (a) and (b)

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

90.Which of the following contains a complete record of all activity that affected the contents of a
database during a certain period of time?
A. report writer

B. query language

C. data manipulation language

D. transaction log

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

78
 91.Two files may be joined into a third file if
A. they have a row in common

B. they have a field in common

C. they have no records with the same value in the common field

D. both (b) and (c)

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

92.Characteristic(s) of a distributed MIS structure is

A. interactive sharing of the workload

B. a multiprocessing environment

C. computers supporting local DP operations

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

93.The data-base environment has all of the following components except:

A. Users

B. separate files

C. data base

D. data-base administrator

79
 E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

94.The way a particular application views the data from the data base that the application uses is a :
A. Module

B. relational model

C. Schema

D. subschema

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

95.A compound key

A. is made up a several pieces of information

B. uniquely identifies an item in a list

C. both (a) and (b)

D. is a combination of each unique key

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

96.The distinguishable parts of a record are called

A. Files

B. Data

C. Fields

D. Database

80
 E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

97.Large collections of files are called

A. Fields

B. Records

C. databases

D. file system

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

98.The index consists of

A. a list of keys

B. pointers to the master list

C. both (a) and (b)

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

99.In SQL, which command is used to select data in rows and column from one or more tables?
A. CHOOSE

B. SELECT

C. LIST

D. BROWSE

81
 E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

100.A scheme describes

A. data elements

B. records and files

C. record relationships

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

Theory part:

1.What is database?

A database is a logically coherent collection of data with some inherent meaning, representing some
aspect of real world and which is designed, built and populated with data for a specific purpose.

1. 2.What is DBMS?

It is a collection of programs that enables user to create and maintain a database. In other words it
is general-purpose software that provides the users with the processes of defining, constructing and
manipulating the database for various applications.

2. 3.What is a Database system?

The database and DBMS software together is called as Database system.

3. 4.What are the advantages of DBMS?

1. Redundancy is controlled.
2. Unauthorised access is restricted.
3. Providing multiple user interfaces.
4. Enforcing integrity constraints.
5. Providing backup and recovery.

4. 5.What are the disadvantage in File Processing System?

1. Data redundancy and inconsistency.

82
 2. Difficult in accessing data.
3. Data isolation.
4. Data integrity.
5. Concurrent access is not possible.
6. Security Problems.

5. 6.Describe the three levels of data abstraction?

The are three levels of abstraction:

1. Physical level: The lowest level of abstraction describes how data are stored.
2. Logical level: The next higher level of abstraction, describes what data are stored in database and
what relationship among those data.
3. View level: The highest level of abstraction describes only part of entire database.

4.

7. 7.Define the "integrity rules"?

There are two Integrity rules.

1. Entity Integrity: States that "Primary key cannot have NULL value"
2. Referential Integrity: States that "Foreign Key can be either a NULL value or should be Primary
Key value of other relation.

3.

8. 8.What is extension and intension?

1. Extension: It is the number of tuples present in a table at any instance. This is time dependent.
2. Intension: It is a constant value that gives the name, structure of table and the constraints laid on it.

3.

9. 9.What is System R? What are its two major subsystems?

System R was designed and developed over a period of 1974-79 at IBM San Jose Research
Center. It is a prototype and its purpose was to demonstrate that it is possible to build a Relational
System that can be used in a real life environment to solve real life problems, with performance at
least comparable to that of existing system.
Its two subsystems are
1. Research Storage
2. System Relational Data System.

3.

10. 10.How is the data structure of System R different from the relational structure?

Unlike Relational systems in System R

1. Domains are not supported
2. Enforcement of candidate key uniqueness is optional
3. Enforcement of entity integrity is optional
4. Referential integrity is not enforced

5.

11. 11.What is Data Independence?

Data independence means that "the application is independent of the storage structure and access
strategy of data". In other words, The ability to modify the schema definition in one level should not
affect the schema definition in the next higher level.

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 Two types of Data Independence:
1. Physical Data Independence: Modification in physical level should not affect the logical level.
2. Logical Data Independence: Modification in logical level should affect the view level.
NOTE: Logical Data Independence is more difficult to achieve

12. 12.What is a view? How it is related to data independence?

A view may be thought of as a virtual table, that is, a table that does not really exist in its own right
but is instead derived from one or more underlying base table. In other words, there is no stored file
that direct represents the view instead a definition of view is stored in data dictionary.

Growth and restructuring of base tables is not reflected in views. Thus the view can insulate users
from the effects of restructuring and growth in the database. Hence accounts for logical data
independence.

13. 13.What is Data Model?

A collection of conceptual tools for describing data, data relationships data semantics and
constraints.

14. 14.What is E-R model?

This data model is based on real world that consists of basic objects called entities and of
relationship among these objects. Entities are described in a database by a set of attributes.

15. 15.What is Object Oriented model?

This model is based on collection of objects. An object contains values stored in instance variables
with in the object. An object also contains bodies of code that operate on the object. These bodies of
code are called methods. Objects that contain same types of values and the same methods are
grouped together into classes.

16. 16.What is an Entity?

It is a 'thing' in the real world with an independent existence.

17. 17.What is an Entity type?

It is a collection (set) of entities that have same attributes.

18. 18.What is an Entity set?

It is a collection of all entities of particular entity type in the database.

19. 19.What is Weak Entity set?

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 An entity set may not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key, and its primary key
compromises of its partial key and primary key of its parent entity, then it is said to be Weak Entity
set.

20.

21. 20.What is an attribute?

It is a particular property, which describes the entity.

22. 21.What is a Relation Schema and a Relation?

A relation Schema denoted by R(A1, A2, ..., An) is made up of the relation name R and the list of
attributes Ai that it contains. A relation is defined as a set of tuples. Let r be the relation which
contains set tuples (t1, t2, t3, ..., tn). Each tuple is an ordered list of n-values t=(v1,v2, ..., vn).

23. 22.What is degree of a Relation?

It is the number of attribute of its relation schema.

24. 23.What is Relationship?

It is an association among two or more entities.

25. 24.What is Relationship set?

The collection (or set) of similar relationships.

26. 25.What is Relationship type?

Relationship type defines a set of associations or a relationship set among a given set of entity
types.

27. 26.What is degree of Relationship type?

It is the number of entity type participating.

28. 27.What is DDL (Data Definition Language)?

A data base schema is specifies by a set of definitions expressed by a special language called DDL.

29. 28.What is VDL (View Definition Language)?

It specifies user views and their mappings to the conceptual schema.

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 30. 29.What is SDL (Storage Definition Language)?

This language is to specify the internal schema. This language may specify the mapping between
two schemas.

31. 30.What is Data Storage - Definition Language?

The storage structures and access methods used by database system are specified by a set of
definition in a special type of DDL called data storage-definition language.

32. 31.What is DML (Data Manipulation Language)?

This language that enable user to access or manipulate data as organised by appropriate data
model.
1. Procedural DML or Low level: DML requires a user to specify what data are needed and how to
get those data.
2. Non-Procedural DML or High level: DML requires a user to specify what data are needed without
specifying how to get those data.

3.

33. 32.What is DML Compiler?

It translates DML statements in a query language into low-level instruction that the query evaluation
engine can understand.

34. 33.What is Query evaluation engine?

It executes low-level instruction generated by compiler.

35. 34.What is DDL Interpreter?

It interprets DDL statements and record them in tables containing metadata.

37. 35.What is Set-at-a-time or Set-oriented?

The High level or Non-procedural DML can specify and retrieve many records in a single DML
statement. This retrieve of a record is said to be Set-at-a-time or Set-oriented.

38. 36.What is Relational Algebra?

It is procedural query language. It consists of a set of operations that take one or two relations as
input and produce a new relation.

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 37. What is normalization?
It is a process of analysing the given relation schemas based on their Functional Dependencies
(FDs) and primary key to achieve the properties
(1).Minimizing redundancy, (2). Minimizing insertion, deletion and update anomalies.

38. What is Functional Dependency?

A Functional dependency is denoted by X Y between two sets of attributes X and Y that are subsets
of R specifies a constraint on the possible tuple that can form a relation state r of R. The constraint
is for any two tuples t1 and t2 in r if t1[X] = t2[X] then they have t1[Y] = t2[Y]. This means the value
of X component of a tuple uniquely determines the value of component Y.

39. What is 1 NF (Normal Form)?

The domain of attribute must include only atomic (simple, indivisible) values.

40. What is Fully Functional dependency?

It is based on concept of full functional dependency. A functional dependency X Y is full functional
dependency if removal of any attribute A from X means that the dependency does not hold any
more.

41 What is 2NF?
A relation schema R is in 2NF if it is in 1NF and every non-prime attribute A in R is fully functionally
dependent on primary key.

42. What is 3NF?

A relation schema R is in 3NF if it is in 2NF and for every FD X A either of the following is true
1. X is a Super-key of R.
2. A is a prime attribute of R.
In other words, if every non prime attribute is non-transitively dependent on primary key.

43.What is BCNF (Boyce-Codd Normal Form)?

A relation schema R is in BCNF if it is in 3NF and satisfies an additional constraint that for every FD
X A, X must be a candidate key.

44.What is 4NF?

A relation schema R is said to be in 4NF if for every Multivalued dependency X Y that holds over R,
one of following is true.
1.) X is subset or equal to (or) XY = R.
2.) X is a super key.

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 45.What is a query?

A query with respect to DBMS relates to user commands that are used to interact with a data base.
The query language can be classified into data definition language and data manipulation language.

67. 46.What are the unary operations in Relational Algebra?

PROJECTION and SELECTION.

68. 47.Are the resulting relations of PRODUCT and JOIN operation the same?

No.
PRODUCT: Concatenation of every row in one relation with every row in another.
JOIN: Concatenation of rows from one relation and related rows from another.

48.What is database Trigger?

A database trigger is a PL/SQL block that can defined to automatically execute for insert, update,
and delete statements against a table. The trigger can e defined to execute once for the entire
statement or once for every row that is inserted, updated, or deleted. For any one table, there are
twelve events for which you can define database triggers. A database trigger can call database
procedures that are also written in PL/SQL.

79. 49.What is Buffer Manager?

It is a program module, which is responsible for fetching data from disk storage into main memory
and deciding what data to be cache in memory.

80. 50.What is Transaction Manager?

It is a program module, which ensures that database, remains in a consistent state despite system
failures and concurrent transaction execution proceeds without conflicting.

81. 51.What is File Manager?

It is a program module, which manages the allocation of space on disk storage and data structure
used to represent information stored on a disk.

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 Data Structure

1 - In a min-heap:

A - parent nodes have values greater than or equal to their childs

B - parent nodes have values less than or equal to their childs

C - both statements are true

D - both statements are wrong

Answer : A
Explanation
In a min heap, parents always have lesser or equal values than that of their
childs.

2 - What data structure can be used to check if a syntax has balanced

paranthesis ?

A - queue

B - tree

C - list

D - stack

Answer : D
Explanation
Stack uses LIFO method which is good for checking matching paranthesis.

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 3 - Minimum number of queues required for priority queue implementation?

A-5

B-4

C-3

D-2

Answer : D
Explanation
Minimum number of queues required for priority queue implementation is two.
One for storing actual data and one for storing priorities.

4 - The minimum number of edges required to create a cyclid graph of n

vertices is

A-n

B-n-1

C-n+1

D - 2n

Answer : A
Explanation
To make a graph cyclic, the number of edges should be at least equal to
vertices in the graph.

5 - An algorithm is

A - a piece of code to be executed.

B - a loosely written code to make final code.

C - a step by step procedure to solve problem.

D - all of the above.

Answer : C

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 Explanation:An algorithm is a step by step procedure to solve a
computer problem.

6 - Which of the below mentioned sorting algorithms are not stable?

A - Selection Sort

B - Bubble Sort

C - Merge Sort

D - Insertion Sort

Answer : A
Explanation
Except selection sort, all other soring algorithms are stable.

7 - A queue data-structure can be used for −

A - expression parsing

B - recursion

C - resource allocation

D - all of the above

Answer : C
Explanation
Queues can be used for limited resource allocation. For other operations,
stacks are used.

8 - Tower of hanoi is a classic example of

A - divide and conquer

B - recursive approach

C - B but not A

D - Both A & B

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 Answer : D
Explanation
The recursive approach of tower of hanoi uses divide and conquer method.

9 - From a complete graph, by removing maximum _______________ edges,

we can construct a spanning tree.

A - e-n+1

B - n-e+1

C - n+e-1

D - e-n-1

Answer : A
Explanation
We can remove maximum e-n+1 edges to get a spanning tree from complete
graph. Any more deletion of edges will lead the graph to be disconnected.

10 - A stable sorting alrithm −

A - does not crash.

B - does not run out of memory.

C - does not change the sequence of appearance of elements.

D - does not exists.

Answer : C
Explanation
A stable sorting algorithm like bubble sort, does not change the sequence of
appearance of similar element in the sorted list.

11 - What is the worst case run-time complexity of binary search algorithm?

A - Ο(n2)

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 B - Ο(nlog n)

C - Ο(n3)

D - Ο(n)

Answer : D
Explanation
In the worst case, binary search will be left or right intended, making it
compare all the n values.

12 - Maximum number of nodes in a binary tree with height k, where root is

height 0, is

A - 2k − 1

B - 2k+1 − 1

C - 2k-1 + 1

D - 2k − 1

Answer : B
Explanation
If the root node is at height 0, then a binary tree can have at max 2 k+1 − 1
nodes.

For example: a binary tree of height 1, can have maximum 2 1+1 − 1 = 3

nodes.

13 - A linked-list is a dynamic structure

A - true

B - false

Answer : A
Explanation
A linked-list is dynamic structure, it can shrink and expand as required by the
program.

14 - Maximum degree of any vertex in a simple graph of vertices n is

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 A - 2n - 1

B-n

C-n+1

D-n-1

Answer : D
Explanation
In a simple graph, a vertex can have edge to maximum n - 1 vertices.

15 - Which of the following is example of in-place algorithm?

A - Bubble Sort

B - Merge Sort

C - Insertion Sort

D - All of the above

Answer : B
Explanation
Only Merge sort requires extra space.

16 - The number of binary trees with 3 nodes which when traversed in post
order gives the sequence A,B,C is ?

A-3

B-4

C-5

D-6

Answer : C
Explanation
Five binary trees (of 3 nodes) are possible.

17 - The Θ notation in asymptotic evaluation represents −

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 A - Base case

B - Average case

C - Worst case

D - NULL case

Answer : A
Explanation
Θ represents average case. Ο represents worst case and Ω represents base
case.

28 - Program with highest run-time complexity is

A - Tower of Hanoi

B - Fibonacci Series

C - Prime Number Series

D - None of the above

Answer : A
Explanation
Tower of hanoi has the highest run time complexity

19 - Binary search tree is an example of complete binary tree with special

attributes.

A - BST does not care about complete binary tree properties.

B - BST takes care of complete binary tree properties.

C - It depends upon the input.

D - None of the above.

Answer : A
Explanation
BST does not care about complete binary tree properties.

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 20 - Which of the following algorithm does not divide the list −

A - linear search

B - binary search

C - merge sort

D - quick sort

Answer : A
Explanation
Linear search, seaches the desired element in the target list in a sequential
manner, without breaking it in any way.

Theory part:
1.What is the difference between a stack and a Queue?

Stack is a collection of objects that works in LIFO (Last in First out)

mechanism while Queue is FIFO (First in First out). This means that the object
that is inserted first is removed last in a stack while an object that is inserted
first is removed first in a queue.
2. What is data-structure?

Data structure is a way of defining, storing & retriving of data in a structural &
systemetic way. A data structure may contain different type of data items.

3.What is a linked-list?
A linked-list is a list of data-items connected with links i.e. pointers or
references. Most modern high-level programming language does not provide
the feature of directly accessing memory location, therefore, linked-list are
not supported in them or available in form of inbuilt functions.

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 4.What is stack?
In data-structure, stack is an Abstract Data Type (ADT) used to store and
retrieve values in Last In First Out method.

5. Why do we use stacks?

Stacks follows LIFO method and addition and retrieval of a data item takes
only Ο(n) time. Stacks are used where we need to access data in the reverse
order or their arrival. Stacks are used commonly in recursive function calls,
expression parsing, depth first traversal of graphs etc.

6.What is a queue in data-structure?

Queue is an abstract data structure, somewhat similar to stack. In contrast to
stack, queue is opened at both end. One end is always used to insert data
(enqueue) and the other is used to remove data (dequeue). Queue follows
First-In-First-Out methodology, i.e., the data item stored first will be accessed
first.

7. Why do we use queues?

As queues follows FIFO method, they are used when we need to work on
data-items in exact sequence of their arrival. Every operating system
maintains queues of various processes. Priority queues and breadth first
traversal of graphs are some examples of queues.

8.What is linear searching?

Linear search tries to find an item in a sequentially arranged data type. These
sequentially arranged data items known as array or list, are accessible in incrementing
memory location. Linear search compares expected data item with each of data items
in list or array. The average case time complexity of linear search is Ο(n) and worst
case complexity is Ο(n2). Data in target arrays/lists need not to be sorted.

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 9.What is binary search?
A binary search works only on sorted lists or arrays. This search selects the middle
which splits the entire list into two parts. First the middle is compared.

This search first compares the target value to the mid of the list. If it is not found, then
it takes decision on whether.

10.What is bubble sort and how bubble sort works?

Bubble sort is comparison based algorithm in which each pair of adjacent
elements is compared and elements are swapped if they are not in order.
Because the time complexity is Ο(n2), it is not suitable for large set of data.

11.What is a binary tree?

A binary tree has a special condition that each node can have two children at
maximum.

12.What is a binary search tree?

A binary search tree is a binary tree with a special provision where a node's
left child must have value less than its parent's value and node's right child
must have value greater than it's parent value.

13.What is tree traversal?

See the below image of a binary search tree, and traverse it using all available methods −

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 14.What is a minimum spanning tree (MST) ?
In a weighted graph, a minimum spanning tree is a spanning tree that has minimum
weight that all other spanning trees of the same graph.

15.What is a heap in data structure?

Heap is a special balanced binary tree data structure where root-node key is compared
with its children and arranged accordingly. A min-heap, a parent node has key value
less than its childs and a max-heap parent node has value greater than its childs.

16.What is a recursive function?

A recursive function is one which calls itself, directly or calls a function that in
turn calls it. Every recursive function follows the recursive properties − base
criteria where functions stops calling itself and progressive
approach where the functions tries to meet the base criteria in each
iteration.

17.What is fibonacci series?

Fibonacci Series generates subsequent number by adding two previous numbers. For
example − 0 1 1 2 3 5 8 13.

18.What is hashing?
Hashing is a technique to convert a range of key values into a range of indexes of an
array. By using hash tables, we can create an associative data storage where data index
can be find by providing its key values.

19.What is interpolation search technique?

Interpolation search is an improved variant of binary search. This search algorithm
works on the probing position of required value.
20.What is the prefix and post fix notation of (a + b) * (c + d) ?
Prefix Notation − * + a b + c d

Postfix Notation − a b + c d + *

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