Shri.

ShamraoPatil (Yadravkar) Educational & Charitable Trust’s

Sharad Institute of Technology College of Engineering
Yadrav (Ichalkarnji)-416121
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Recognized by Government of Maharashtra & Affiliated to Shivaji University, Kolhapur)

Department of Mechanical Engineering

Energy and Power Engineering
Multiple Choice Question Bank for Unit test-II
(For BE A/B/C)

1-Which of the following is (are) renewable resource(s)

(A) wind
(B) tides
(C) geothermal heat
(D) all of the above

2-Which of the following country generate all their electricity using renewable energy?
(A) Iceland
(B) England
(C) USA
(D) China

3-Renwable energy often displaces conventional fuel in which of the following area
(A) space heating
(B) transportation
(C) electricity generation
(D) all of the above

4-Which of the following is used as fuel for transportation

(A) ethanol
(B) aldehyde
(C) ketone
(D) all of the above

5-Biodiesel is produced from oils or fats using

(A) fermentation
(B) transesterification
(C) distillation
(D) none of the above
 6-Photovoltaic cell converts solar energy into
(A) heat energy
(B) electric energy
(C) mechanical energy
(D) chemical energy

7-In which of the following region winds are stronger and constant
(A) deserts
(B) offshore
(C) low altitudes sites
(D) all of the above

8-Following country met more than 40% of its electricity demand from wind energy
(A) Denmark
(B) Portugal
(C) Ireland
(D) Spain

9-Concentrated solar power (CSP) systems use ____ to focus a large area of sunlight into a
small beam.
(A) lenses
(B) mirrors
(C) tracking systems
(D) all of the above

10-The difference, in temperature between the core of the planet and its surface, is known
as
(A) geothermal coefficient
(B) geothermal gradient
(C) geothermal constant
(D) none of the above

11-Biomass can be converted to

(A) methane gas
(B) ethanol
(C) biodiesel
(D) all of the above
12-The International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) was formed in
(A) 2008
(B) 2009
(C) 2010
(D) 2011

13-Which of the following was the first solar powered aircraft to complete a
circumnavigation of the world?
(A) Solar impulse
(B) Solar impulse 2
(C) Solar impulse 3
(D) Solar impulse 4

14-Following is true for biomass and biofuels

(A) their contribution in reduction in CO2 emissions is limited
(B) both emit large amount of air pollution when burned
(C) they consume large amounts of water
(D) all of the above

15-Direct Solar energy is used for

(A) Water heating
(B) Distillation
(C) Drying
(D) All of the above

16-The power from the sun intercepted by the earth is approximately

(A) 1.8 x 108 MW
(B) 1.8 x 1011 MW
(C) 1.8 x 1014 MW
(D) 1.8 x 1017 MW

17-The following is indirect method of Solar energy utilization

(A) Wind energy
(B) Biomass energy
(C) Wave energy
(D) All of the above
18-A liquid flat plate collector is usually held tilted in a fixed position, facing _____ if
located in the northern hemisphere.
(A) North
(B) South
(C) East
(D) West

19-The collection efficiency of Flat plate collector can be improved by

(A) putting a selective coating on the plate
(B) evacuating the space above the absorber plate
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

20-The efficiency of various types of collectors ______ with _______ temperature.

(A) increases, decreasing
(B) decreases, increasing
(C) remains same, increasing
(D) depends upon type of collector

21-Maximum efficiency is obtained in

(A) Flat plate collector
(B) Evacuated tube collector
(C) Line focussing collector
(D) Paraboloid dish collector

22-The following type of energy is stored as latent heat

(A) Thermal energy
(B) Chemical energy
(C) Electrical energy
(D) Mechanical energy

23-Which of the following type of collector is used for low temperature systems?
(A) Flat plate collector
(B) Line focussing parabolic collector
(C) Paraboloid dish collector
(D) All of the above
24-In the paraboloid dish concept, the concentrator tracks the sun by rotating about
(A) One axes
(B) Two axes
(C) Three axes
(D) None of the above

25-The sun subtends an angle of _____ minutes at the earth’s surface.

(A) 22
(B) 32
(C) 42
(D) 52

26-The value of Solar Constant is

(A) 1347 W/m2
(B) 1357 W/m2
(C) 1367 W/m2
(D) 1377 W/m2

27-The extraterrestrial radiation flux varies by ____ % over a year.

(A) ± 1.1
(B) ± 2.2
(C) ± 3.3
(D) ± 4.4

28-The following is (are) laws of black body radiation.

(A) Plank’s law
(B) Stefan-Boltzmann law
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

29-Absorption of Solar radiations at earth’s surface occur due to presence of

(A) Ozone
(B) Water vapours
(C) Carbon di-oxide
(D) All of the above
30-Global radiation =
(A) Direct radiation – Diffuse Radiation
(B) Direct radiation + Diffuse Radiation
(C) Direct radiation / Diffuse Radiation
(D) Diffuse Radiation / Direct radiation

31-The zenith angle is the angle made by the sun’s rays with the ____ to a ______ surface.
(A) normal, horizontal
(B) tangent, horizontal
(C) normal, vertical
(D) tangent, vertical

32-Solar radiation flux is usually measured with the help of a

(A) Anemometer
(B) Pyranometer
(C) Sunshine recorder
(D) All of the above

33-Beam radiations are measured with

(A) Anemometer
(B) Pyrheliometer
(C) Sunshine recorder
(D) All of the above

34-The angle made by the plane surface with the horizontal is known as
(A) Latitude
(B) Slope
(C) Surface azimuth angle
(D) Declination

35-The angle made in the horizontal plane between the horizontal line due south and the
projection of the normal to the surface on the horizontal plane is
(A) Hour angle
(B) Declination
(C) Surface azimuth angle
(D) Solar altitude angle
36-Surface azimuth angle varies from
(A) 0 to 90°
(B) -90 to 90°
(C) 0 to 180°
(D) -180° to 180°

37-The hour angle is equivalent to

(A) 10° per hour
(B) 15° per hour
(C) 20° per hour
(D) 25° per hour

38-The complement of zenith angle is

(A) Solar altitude angle
(B) Surface azimuth angle
(C) Solar azimuth angle
(D) Slope

39-The correction has a magnitude of ___ minutes for every degree difference in longitude.
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8

40-The global radiation reaching a horizontal surface on the earth is given by

(A) Hourly beam radiation + Hourly diffuse radiation
(B) Hourly beam radiation – Hourly diffuse radiation
(C) Hourly beam radiation / Hourly diffuse radiation
(D) Hourly diffuse radiation / Hourly beam radiation

41-The ratio of the beam radiation flux falling on a tilted surface to that falling on a
horizontal surface is called the
(A) Radiation shape factor
(B) Tilt factor
(C) Slope
(D) None of the above
Answers:
1-(D), 2-(A), 3-(D), 4-(A), 5-(B), 6-(B), 7-(B), 8-(A), 9-(D), 10-(B), 11-(D), 12-(B), 13-(B), 14-
(D), 15-(D), 16-(B), 17-(D), 18-(B), 19-(C), 20-(B), 21-(D), 22-(A), 23-(A), 24-(B), 25-(B), 26-
(C), 27-(C), 28-(C), 29-(D), 30-(B), 31-(A), 32-(B), 33-(B), 34-(B), 35-(C), 36-(D), 37-(B), 38-
(A), 39-(C), 40-(A), 41-(B)

42. The commercial sources of energy are

(a) solar, wind and biomass
(b) fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear energy
(c) wood, animal wastes and agriculture wastes
(d) none of the above
Ans: b

43. Compounding of steam turbine is done for

(a) reducing the work done
(b) increasing the rotor speed
(c) reducing the rotor speed
(d) balancing the turbine
Ans: c

44. In India largest thermal power station is located at

(a) Kota
(b) Sarni
(c) Chandrapur
(d) Neyveli
Ans: c

45. The percentage O2 by weight in atmospheric air is

(a) 18%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%
Ans: b

46. The percentage 02 by volume in atmosphere air is

(a) 21%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%
Ans: a
47. The proper indication of incomplete combustion is
(a) high CO content in flue gases at exit
(b) high CO2 content in flue gases at exit
(c) high temperature of flue gases
(d) the smoking exhaust from chimney
Ans: a

48. The main source of production of biogas is

(a) human waste
(b) wet cow dung
(c) wet livestock waste
(d) all above
Ans: d

49. India’s first nuclear power plant was installed at

(a) Tarapore
(b) Kota
(c) Kalpakkam
(d) none of the above
Ans: a

50. In fuel cell, the ______ energy is converted into electrical energy.
(a) mechanical
(b) chemical
(c) heat
(d) sound
Ans: b

51. Solar thermal power generation can be achieved by

(a) using focusing collector or heliostates
(b) using flat plate collectors
(c) using a solar pond
(d) any of the above system
Ans: d

52. The energy radiated by sun on a bright sunny day is approximately

(a) 700 W/m2
(b) 800 W/m2
(c) 1 kW/m2
(d) 2 kW/m2 Ans: c
53. Thorium Breeder Reactors are most suitable for India because
(a) these develop more power
(b) its technology is simple
(c) abundance of thorium deposits are available in India
(d) these can be easily designed
Ans: c

54. The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal to

(a) Rankine cycle efficiency
(b) Carnot cycle efficiency
(c) Regenerative cycle efficiency
(d) Boiler efficiency x turbine efficiency x generator efficiency
Ans: c

55. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range of
(a) 15 to 20 percent
(6) 35 to 45 percent
(c) 70 to 80 percent
(d) 90 to 95 percent
Ans: b

56. A steam power station requires space

(a) equal to diesel power station
(b) more than diesel power station
(c) less than diesel power station
(d) None of above
Ans: b

57. Economiser is used to heat

(a) air
(b) feed water
(c) flue gases
(d) all above
Ans: b

58. The average ash content in Indian coals is about

(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 20% Ans: d
59. Load centre in a power station is
(a) centre of coal fields
(b) centre of maximum load of equip-ments
(c) centre of gravity of electrical system
Ans: c

60. Steam pressure in a steam power station, which is usually kept now-a-days is of the
order of
(a) 20 kgf/cm2
(b) 50 kgf/cm2
(c) 100 kgf/cm2
(d) 150 kgf/cm2
Ans: d

61. Economisers improve boiler efficiency by

(a) 1 to 5%
(b) 4 to 10%
(c) 10 to 12%
Ans: b

62. What does Heating and cooling of the atmosphere generates?

a) Thermo line circulation
b) Radiation currents
c) Convection currents
d) Conduction currents
Ans: c

63. How much is the energy available in the winds over the earth surface is estimated to be?
a) 2.9 X 120 MW
b) 1.6 X 107 MW
c) 1 MW
d) 5MW
Ans: b

64. How much wind power does India hold?

a) 20,000 MW
b) 12,000 MW
c) 140,000 MW
d) 5000 MW
Ans: a
65. What is the main source for the formation of wind?
a) Uneven land
b) Sun
c) Vegetation
d) Seasons
Ans: b

66. Which country created wind mills?

a) Egypt
b) Mongolia
c) Iran
d) Japan
Ans: c

67. What happens when the land near the earth’s equator is heated?
a) All the oceans gets heated up
b) Small wind currents are formed
c) Rise in tides
d) Large atmospheric winds are created
Ans: d

68. What type of energy is wind energy?

a) Renewable energy
b) Non-renewable energy
c) Conventional energy
d) Commercial energy
Ans: a

69. What are used to turn wind energy into electrical energy?
a) Turbine
b) Generators
c) Yaw motor
d) Blades
Ans: a
70. What is the diameter of wind turbine blades?
a) 320 feet
b) 220 feet
c) 80 feet
d) 500 feet
Ans:b

71. At what range of speed is the electricity from the wind turbine is generated?
a) 100 – 125 mph
b) 450 – 650 mph
c) 250 – 450 mph
d) 30-35 mph
Ans: d

72. When did the development of wind power in India began?

a) 1965
b) 1954
c) 1990
d) 1985
Ans: c

73. Which of the following is detected using manometer devices?

a) Pressure difference between manometric and measuring liquid
b) pH difference between manometric and measuring liquid
c) Density difference between manometric and measuring liquid
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a

74. What is the difference between water and transformer oil as a manometric liquid?
a) Water is used for large pressure differential
b) Transformer oil is used for large pressure differential
c) Transformer oil has evaporation problems
d) Water has evaporation problems
Ans: d
75. In which of the following categories be thin plate diaphragm included?
a) Primary transducer
b) Secondary transducer
c) Voltage measuring devices
d) Spring balance systems
Ans: a

76. Which of the following applications are suited for thin plate diaphragms?
a) Static pressure only
b) Dynamic pressure only
c) Both static and dynamic pressure with large frequency
d) Both static and dynamic pressure with small frequency
Ans: d

77. Using a membrane for measuring pressure, which of the following represents correct
relation for displacement?
a) (R2 ΔP)/4S
b) ΔP/4S
c) (R2 ΔP)/S
d) (R2 ΔP)/2
Ans: a

78. Which of the following quantities can be measured using bellows?

a) Absolute pressure
b) Gauge pressure
c) Differential pressure
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d

79. Which of the following conversion take place in bourdon tubes?

a) Pressure to displacement
b) Pressure to voltage
c) Pressure to strain
d) Pressure to force
Ans: a
80. Which of the following devices convert pressure to displacement?
a) Diaphragm
b) Bellow
c) Capsule
d) Both diaphragm and capsule
Ans: d

81. What is the advantage of sectionalizing of power plant?

a) High reliability
b) Low capital cost
c) Low maintenance
d) Easy operation

82. The area under the load curve represents ____________

a) the average load on power system
b) maximum demand
c) number of units generated
d) load factor

83. Which of the following is equal to the maximum demand?

a) The ratio of area under curve to the total area of rectangle
b) The ratio of area under curve and number of hours
c) The peak of the load curve
d) The area under the curve

84. Load duration curve indicates _______

a) the variation of load during different hours of the day
b) total number of units generated for the given demand
c) total energy consumed by the load
d) the number of hours for which the particular load lasts during a day

85. During which time the demand of electrical energy is maximum?

a) 2 A.M. to 5 A.M.
b) 5 A.M. to 12 P.M.
c) 12 P.M. to 7 P.M.
d) 7 P.M. to 9 P.M

86. Size and cost of installation depends upon ____________

a) average load
b) maximum demand
c) square mean load
d) square of peak load

87. What is Demand factor?

a) Ratio of connected load to maximum demand
b) Ratio of average load to connected load
c) Ratio of maximum demand to the connected load
d) Ratio of kilowatt hour consumed to 24 hours

88. Which of the following represents the annual average load?

a) (KWh supplied in a day)/24
b) {(KWh supplied in a day)/ 24 } × 365
c) {(KWh supplied in a month)/(30 x 24)
d) (KWh supplied in a year) / (24 × 365)

89. The load factor is __________

a) always less than unity
b) less than or greater than 1
c) always greater than 1
d) less than zero

90. In practice what is the value of diversity factor?

a) Less than Unity
b) Geater than Unity
c) Equal to or greater than Unity
d) Less than zero

91. Coincidence factor is reciprocal of ___________

a) average load
b) demand factor
c) capacity factor
d) diversity factor

92. Which of the following is called as cold reserve?

a) Reserve capacity available but not ready for use
b) Reserve capacity available and ready for use
c) Generating capacity connected to bus and ready to take load
d) Capacity in service in excess of peak load
Answers:
81: a 82: c 83: a 84: d 85: d 86: b 87: c 88: d 89: a 90: b 91:d 92: a

93. Identify the thermocouple type with the highest temperature limit from those listed
here:
(A) Type J
(B) Type K
(C) Type S
(D) Type T
Answer : C

94. The negative lead of a thermocouple is always colored:

(A) Blue
(B) Yellow
(C) Red
(D) White
Answer : C

95. The most rugged temperature sensing element listed here is a/an:
(A) Thermocouple
(B) Orifice plate
(C) RTD
(D) Filled bulb
Answer : A

96. Convert a temperature measurement of 250 deg C into Kelvin.

(A) 523.2 K
(B) -209.7 K
(C) 709.7 K
(D) -23.2 K
Answer : A

97. When the reference junction is the same temperature as the measurement junction in a
thermocouple circuit, the output voltage (measured by the sensing instrument) is:
(A) Zero
(B) Reverse polarity
(C) Noisy
(D) AC instead of DC
Answer : A
98. Ozone layer is in earth layer ______________
a) Toposphere
b) Ionosphere
c) Stratosphere
d) Mesosphere
Answer: c

99. Ozone depletion is higher at _______________

a) Polar regions
b) Near polar regions
c) Non polar regions
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

100. Which of the following is not poisonous to humans?

a) Flue gases
b) Stack gases
c) HCl
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
 ENERGY AND POWER ENGINEERING MCQ’S
Pruthviraj Sankpal

1. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but still everybody

discuss about the energy crisis because
(a) Energy transform into different form continuously.
(b) Usable form of energy is dissipated to the surroundings in less
usable forms.
(c) Energy is consumed and cannot be used again.
(d) All of these
Answer: d

2. An ideal source of energy should have

(a) higher calorific value
(b) easy transportability
© easy accessibility
(d) All of these
Answer: d
3. Fossile fuels are
(a) non-renewable source of energy
(b) renewable source of energy
© both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: a

4. Dead organisms are transformed into petroleum and natural gas in

(a) presence of air
(b) absence of air
© presence of sunlight
(d) none of the above
Answer: b

5. Which of the following problem is associated with a burning of coal?

(а) Carbon-dioxide emission
(b) acid rain
c) ash with toxic metal supurity
d) All of these.
Answer: d
6. Select the important factor for the site selection of a thermal power
plant.
(a) Distance from the populated area
(b) Availability of fuel
© Availability’ of water
d)Cost of plant
Answer: c

7.Hydropower plant are located in the

(a) desert area
(b) plane area
© hilly terrains
(d) none-of above
Answer: c

8. Biogas is a better fuel than animal dung cake because

(a) biogas has lower calorific value.
(b) animal dung cake has high calorific value
© biogas bums smoke and leaves no residue
(d) biogas is used as a fuel for cooking only wheareas dung cake can be
used for cooking, illuminant the lanterns.
Answer: c
9. Which of the following organism produces biogas from cow drug
sherry in the biogas plant?
(a) aerobic bacteria
(b) anaerobic bacteria
c) protozoa
d) fungi
Answer: b

10. Wind is caused due to

(a) uneven heating of earth’s surface
(b) rotation of earth
© local conditions
(d) All of these
Answer: d

11. What are the disadvantage of solar energy

(a) A large surface area is required collect the solar
(b) Daily average of solar energy varies from 4 to 7 kwh/m2
© Highly hazardous toxic material is used in the manufacturing of solar
device.
(d) All of the above are disadvantages.
Answer: d
12. The temperature inside the solar cooker ranges from
(a) 500-100°C
(b) 100-140°C
© 150-200°C
(d) 70-80°C
Answer: b

13. The use of reflector in the solar cooker is to

(a) Decrease efficiency
(b) create green house effect
© increase efficiency
(d) none of these
Answer: c

14. Solar cells are made of

(a) germanium
(b) silicon
© silver
(d) aluminum
Answer: b
15. The material used for interconnection the solar cells in the solar
panel is
(a) silicon
(b) silver
© aluminum
(d) copper
Answer: b

16. A solar panel is made by combining in an arrangement

(a) solar concentrator
(b) solar cookers
© solar cells
(d) solar chimney
Answer: c

17. Tidal energy is a farm of energy obtained from the

(a) motion of surface water in ponds
(b) ocean in the form of tidal waves
© tides occurs in the river water
(d) motion of the wave in sea
Answer: b
18. Tidal energy is harnessed by constructing a dam across
(a) narrow opening to the sea
(b) wide opening to the sea
© the river in hilly trains
(d) the river in plane areas
Answer: a

19.Wave energy is caused due to

(a) strong winds blowing across the sea
(b) kinetic energy possessed by huge waves near the sea shore
© potential energy possessed by the stored water
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer: d

20. The working fluid in ocean thermal power plant is

(a) Volatile liquid like ammonia
(b) petrol
© charcoal
(d) liquified petroleum gas
Answer: a
21. Geothermal energy is
(a) Heat energy in the interior of earth
(b) energy of molten mars exists in the farm of magma inside the earth.
© molten lava on the surface of earth
(d) energy obtained from solar thermal electric plants
Answer: c

22. U-235 will undergo fission by

(a) low energy neutrons only
(b) high energy neutrons only
© medium energy neutrons
(d) low energy protons only
Answer: d

23. In a hydropower plant [NCERT Exemplar Problems]

(a) Potential energy possessed by stored water is converted into
electricity
(b) Kinetic energy possessed by stored water is converted into potential
energy
© Electricity is extracted from water
(d) Water is converted into steam to produce electricity.
Answer: a
24. Which is the ultimate source of energy? [NCERT Exemplar
Problems]
(a) Water
(b) Sun
© Uranium
(d) Fossil fuel
Answer: b
25. Which one of the following forms of energy leads to least
environmental pollution in the process of its harnessing and utilization?
[NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Nuclear energy
(b) Thermal energy
© Solar energy
d) Geothermal energy
Answer: c

26. Ocean thermal energy is due to [NCERT Exemplar Problems]

(a) energy stored by waves in the ocean
(b) temperature difference at different levels in the ocean
© pressure difference at different levels in the ocean
d) Tides arising out in the ocean
Answer: b
27. The major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is how to
(a) split nuclei?
(b) sustain the reaction?
© dispose off spent fuel safely?
d) Convert nuclear energy into electrical energy?
Answer: c

28. Which part of the solar cooker is responsible for green house
effect? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Coating with black color inside the box
(b) Mirror
(c) Glass sheet
(d) Outer cover of the solar cooker
Answer: c

29. The power generated in a windmill [NCERT Exemplar Problems]

(a) is more in rainy season since damp air would mean more air mass
hitting the blades
(b) depends on the height of the tower
© depends on wind velocity
(a) Can be increased by planting tall trees close to the tower
Answer: a
30. Choose the correct statement
(a) Sun can be taken as an inexhaustible source of energy
(b) There is infinite storage of fossil fuel inside the earth
(c) Hydro and wind energy plants are non-polluting
(d)Waste from a nuclear power plant can be easily disposed off
Answer: c

31. A good fuel should possess

(a) high ignition temperature
(b) moderate ignition temperature
© high calorific value
(d) both high calorific value and moderate ignition temperature
Answer: d

32. The variety of coal which has the highest car-bon content
(a) Anthracite
(b) Peat
© Bituminous
(d) Lignite
Answer: a
33. Unit of calorific value of a substance is
(a) Kcal
(b) Joules
© J kg
(d) J/kg
Answer: d

34. Biogas is formed in the

(a) presence of air only
(b) presence of water only
© absence of air only
(d) presence of water and absence of air
Answer: d

35. Solar energy can be directly converted to electrical energy by which

of the following de-vices?
(a) solar cooker
(b) solar heater
© solar cell
(d) solar geyser
Answer: c
36. Which of the following is the ultimate source of energy?
(a) Water
(b) Sun
© Fossil fuels
(d) Uranium
Answer: b

37. Which of the following gases is the main constituent of natural gas?
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
© Propane
(d) Butane
Answer: a

38.Which element is used in solar cells?

(a) Carbon
(b) Silicon
© Phosphorous
(d) Sulphur
Answer: b
39. Ocean thermal energy is produced due to
(a) pressure difference at different levels in the ocean.
(b) temperature difference at different levels in the ocean.
© energy stored by waves in the ocean.
(d) tides rising out of the ocean.
Answer: b

40. A device in which electricity is produced by the process of

controlled nuclear fission reaction is called
(a) nuclear chain reaction
(b) hydel power plant
© nuclear reactor
(d) thermal power plant
Answer: c

41. One major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is

(a) converting nuclear energy into electrical energy.
(b) sustaining the reaction.
€ splitting the nuclei.
(d) disposing off spent fuel easily.
Answer: d
42.Spent slurry (Bio-waste after obtaining biogas) is used as
(a) fuel
(b) manure
© food for livestock
(d) used again for generating biogas
Answer: b

43. Mirrors used for solar cooker are ______________ .

Answer: convex

44. A fuel is a good one if its ______________ value is high.

Answer: Butane

45. Geothermal energy is widely trapped in USA and ______________.

Answer: New Zealand

46. ______________ reaction is more powerful than a fission reaction.

Answer: Fusion

47. Ocean thermal energy is used to boil ______________ before

running the turbine.
Answer: Ammonia
48. Artificial satellites and space probes are electrified using
______________ .
Answer: Solar cells

49. Fossil fuels do not cause pollution. [True/False]

Answer: True

50. Acid rain is formed by acidic oxides of carbon, Sulphur and nitrogen.
[True/False]
Answer: True

51. The use of turbine is essential for the production of electrical

energy. [True/F alse]
Answer: True

52. The approximate percentage of energy met by India with the use of
hydel energy is 25%. [True/False]
Answer: True

53. Windmills require giant structural erection and vast space.

[True/False]
Answer:True
54. New Zealand is called as “Country of Winds”. [True/False]
Answer: False

55. Name the kind of energy possessed by wind and the device used to
harness it.
Answer:
Kinetic energy, wind mill.

56. What is the minimum speed of wind to run a windmill to maintain

the necessary speed of turbine of an electric generator?
Answer: 15 km/h.

57.Name the place in India where the largest wind energy farm has
been established and how much electricity does it generate.
Answer: It is established near Kanyakumari is Tamil Nadu and it
generates 380 MW of electricity.

58. Which country ranked first in harnessing wind energy for the
production of electricity.
Answer: Germany.

59. How much land area is needed to establish a wind energy farm for
generating 1 MW of electricity?
Answer: About 2 hectares of land.
60. Which country is known as ‘country of winds’?
Answer: Denmark.

61. Why a solar cooker painted black form outside?

Answer: Black surface absorbs more heat as compared to white or
reflecting surface under identical conditions.

62. Which metal is used to connect various solar cells?

Answer: Silver.

63. A solar cell transforms energy of one form into another. What are
these two form of energy?
Answer: A solar cell transform solar energy into electrical energy.

64. Name any two elements that are used in fabricating solar cells.
Answer: Germanium, Silicon.

65. What is the voltage developed by a typical solar cell?

Answer: A voltage of about 0.5 V to 1 V is developed by a typical solar
cell.

66. Name the main component of solar cell.

Answer: Solar cell consists of different thin layers of silicon.
67. Name a device which can be used for cooking so as to save fuel.
Answer: Solar cooker.

68. Which gas is formed by decomposing plant and animal matter in

masting areas?
Answer: Methane.

69. Name the part of a biogas plant where reactions take place in the
absence of oxygen.
Answer: Digester chamber.

70. Name the microorganism which decompose slurry into biogas.

Answer: Anaerobic bacteria.

71. List two nutrients that the slurry left behind in the biogas plant
contain.
Answer: Nitrogen and phosphorous.

72. The term photo voltaic comes from ________

a) Spanish
b) Greek
c) German
d) English Answer: b
73. The volt is the units of emf that was named after its inventor
_________
a) Alessandro volta
b) Alxender volta
c) Alexa volta
d) Alexandro volta
Answer: a
74. The term photo voltaic is in use since _________
a) 1840
b) 1844
c) 1849
d) 1850
Answer: c

75. When the source of light is not sun light then the photo voltaic cell
is used as ____________
a) Photo diode
b) Photo voltaic cell
c) Photo detector
d) Photo transmitter
Answer: c
76. The region where the electrons and holes diffused across the
junction is called ________
a) Depletion Junction
b) Depletion region
c) Depletion space
d) Depletion boundary
Answer: b

77. The current produce by the solar cell can be given by _________
a) IL – ID + ISh
b) IL + ID – ISh
c) IL + ID + ISh
d) IL – ID – ISh
Answer: d
78. The amount of photo generated current increases slightly with an
increase in _________
a) Temperature
b) Photons
c) Diode current
d) Shunt current
Answer: a
79. Solar cells are made from bulk materials that are cut into wafer of
_________ thickness.
a) 120-180μm
b) 120-220μm
c) 180-220μm
d) 180-240μm
Answer: d
80. __________ is one of the most important materials is also known as
solar grade silicon.
a) Crushed silicon
b) Crystalline silicon
c) Powdered silicon
d) Silicon
Answer: b

81. __________ photo voltaic devices in the form of thin films.

a) Cadmium Telluride
b) Cadmium oxide
c) Cadmium Sulphate
d) Cadmium soleplate
Answer: a
82. __________ is a direct band gap material.
a) Copper Indium Gallium Selenide
b) Copper Selenide
c) Copper Gallium Telluride
d) Copper Indium Gallium Diselenide
Answer: a
83. Dye-sensitized solar cells are made from ________ organic dye.
a) Ruthium melallo
b) Aniline
c) Safranine
d) Induline
Answer: a

84. Quantum dot solar cells are based on _______

a) Gratzel cell
b) Solar cell
c) Voltaic cell
d) Galvanic cell
Answer: a
85. The quantum dot used are _______
a) Cds
b) CdTe
c) PbO
d) GaAs
Answer: a
86. Organic polymer solar cells are made from Polyphenylene.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

1. Fuel cell converts chemical energy to electrical energy using a

reaction that __________
a) eliminates combustion of fuel
b) requires combustion of fuel
c) requires no ignition of fuel
d) fuel is not required
Answer: a
2. Fuel cell performance is not limited by __________
a) First law of Thermodynamics
b) Second law of Thermodynamics
c) Third law of Thermodynamics
d) All three laws are applicable
Answer: b

3. For which of these devices does negative charge carriers flow from
anode to cathode in the external circuit?
a) MHD generator
b) Thermionic generator
c) Thermoelectric generator
d) Fuel cell
Answer: d
4. The fuel cell is considered a battery in which ___________ is
continuously replaced.
a) fuel only
b) oxidizer
c) both fuel and oxidizer
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
5. The type of reactions in a fuel cell is not determined by __________
a) fuel and oxidizer combination
b) composition of electrolyte
c) materials of anode and cathode
d) catalytic effects of reaction container
Answer: d

6. What is the voltage output of hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell?(in V)

a) -1.23
b) -1.45
c) -1.01
d) -.93
Answer: a

7. What is the voltage output of carbon-oxygen fuel cell?(in V)

a) -.91
b) -1.24
c) -1.02
d) -1.17
Answer: c
8. What is the voltage output of methane-oxygen fuel cell?(in V)
a) -1.16
b) -1.06
c) -1.26
d) -0.96
Answer: b

9. Which of these gases or liquids are not used as source of hydrogen in

fuel cells?
a) C2H6
b) C2H2
c) C6H6
d) C2H5OH
Answer: d

10. The hydrocarbons cracked with steam in fuel cells do not give rise
to __________
a) CO
b) CO2
c) H2
d) H2O
Answer: d

11. Which of these should not be a properties of fuel cell electrodes?

a) good electrical conductors
b) highly resistant to corrosive environment
c) should perform charge seperation
d) take part in chemical reactions
Answer: d

12. Which of these fuel cell operates at temperature below 100.C?

a) phosphoric fuel cell
b) solid polymer electrolyte fuel cell
c) molten carbon fuel cell
d) hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell
Answer: c

13. Which of these fuel cells operates at high temperatures and

pressures?
a) high temperature solid oxide fuel cell
b) alkaline fuel cell
c) molten carbon fuel cell
d) phosphoric acid fuel cell
Answer: c

12 The amount of energy available in the wind at any instant is

proportional to ___ of the wind speed.
A Square root power of two
B Square root power of three
C Square power
D Cube power
Answer: D

13 Wind energy is harnessed as ______ energy with the help of

windmill or turbine.
A Mechanical
B Solar
C Electrical
D Heat
Answer: A
14 Winds having following speed are suitable to operate wind turbines.
A 5 – 25m/s
B 10 – 35m/s
C 20 – 45m/s
D 30 – 55m/s
Answer: A

15 The following is (are) the classification of winds

A Global wind
B Local wind
C Both (A) and (B)
D None of the above
Answer: C

16 Global Cold wind move from

A Polar to equatorial region
B Equatorial to polar region
C Equatorial to oceanic region
D Oceanic to Equatorial region
Answer: A

17 Global Cold wind generated from Oceans moves to

A Mountains
B Equator
C Plain areas
D Poles
Answer: C
18 force is responsible for forcing the global winds towards westernly
direction.
A Coriolis
B Gravitational
C Centripetal
D Centrifugal
Answer: A

19 Global winds towards westernly direction are known as

A Trade winds
B Western winds
C Eastern winds
D None of the above
Answer: A

20 Uneven heating occurs on land surface and water bodies are due to
_____
A Air Currents
B Solar radiation
C Lunar eclipse
D None of the above
Answer: B
21 The following factor(s) affects the distribution of wind energy
A Mountain chains
B The hills, trees and buildings
C Frictional effect of the surface
D All of the above
Answer: All of the above

22 The wind intensity can be described by

A Reynolds number
B Mach number
C Beaufort number
D Froude number
Answer: C

23 Which farmers were environmentally aware in order to survive?

A Subsistance farmers
B Cattle crunching
C Nomadic Grazing
D Shifting farmers Answer: A
24 International trade in agricultural commodities are creating a wide
gap between
A Developing & Developed countries
B Underdeveloped & Developing countries
C Developed countries in the North & Developing countries in the south
D Progressive countries
Answer: C

25 In 1999, what was the population of world ?

A 5 billion
B 6 billion
C 3 billion
D 4 billion
Answer: B

Wind and Tidal Power - MCQs with answers

Q1. The installed capacity of wind energy in India is about

a. 8000 MW
b. 1500 MW
c. 6000 MW
d. 4000 MW
Answer : a
Q2. Tidal energy utilizes
a. Kinetic energy of water
b. Potential energy of water.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these.
ANSWER: b

Q3. In a fuel cell, electrical energy is produced by

a. Reaction of hydrogen with oxygen
b. Thermionic action
c. Combustion of fuel in the absence of oxygen.
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: a

Q4. Thermal gradient in a geo thermal plant is given by

a. Heat flux * thermal conductivity
b. Heat flux / thermal conductivity
c. Thermal conductivity / heat flux
d. None of these
Answer: c
Q5. Tidal energy development needs
a. Huge capacity and long construction time.
b. Huge capacity and low construction time.
c. Low capacity and long construction time.
d. Low capacity and low construction time.
ANSWER: a
Q6. The potential of developing tidal power in India is in
a. Kutch
b. Ran
c. San joe
d. Severn
ANSWER: a

1. The ocean thermal energy conversion(OTEC) is uses

___________
a) Energy difference
b) Potential difference
c) Temperature difference
d) Kinetic difference
Answer: c

2. OTEC is developed in ___________

a) 1880
b) 1926
c) 1890
d) 1930
Answer: a

3. The OTEC is constructed in __________

a) 1920
b) 1924
c) 1922
d) 1926
Answer: d
4. The by-product of the ocean thermal energy conversion is
____________
a) Hot water
b) Cold water
c) Chemicals
d) Gases
Answer: b

5. In ocean thermal energy conversion, the plant pumps the deep

cold sea water and do not pump the surface sea water.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b

6. How many types of OTEC plants are there?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c

7. Closed cycle systems use the fluid having ___________

a) High boiling points
b) Low boiling points
c) High viscosity
d) low viscosity
Answer: b

8. Warm surface sea water is pumped through a ____________

to vaporise the fluid.
a) Heat exchanger
b) Generator
c) Evaporator
d) Condenser
View Answer

Answer: a

9. The heat exchanger ___________ the vapour into a liquid

which is recycled.
a) Condenses
b) Heats
c) Cools
d) Evaporates
Answer: a

10. Open cycle OTEC uses ________ surface water directly to

make electricity.
a) Hot
b) Warm
c) Cool
d) Icy
Answer: b

11. In some cases, the steam drives the low pressure turbine
attached to the electrical generator.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

12. The steam leaves the _______

a) Salts
b) Aluminium
c) Copper
d) Silver
Answer: a
13. The open cycle system produces ___________ water.
a) Desalinated
b) Impure
c) Contaminated
d) Chlorinated
Answer: a

14. In _________ method the sea water enters a vacuum

chamber and flash evaporated.
a) Closed cycle system
b) Open cycle system
c) Hybrid OTEC
d) Neither closed nor open system
Answer: c

15. Depending on the embodiment ____________ technique

generate power from hydro electric turbine.
a) Closed cycle
b) Open cycle
c) Hybrid
d) Steam lift pump
Answer: d

1. A load curve indicates

(A) Average power used during the period
(B) Average kWh (kW) energy consumption during the period
© Either of the above
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
2. Power plant having maximum demand more than the installed
rated capacity will have utilization factor
(A) Equal to unity
(B) Less than unity
© More than unity
(D) None of the above
Answer: C

3. A low utilization factor for a plant indicates that

(A) Plant is used for stand by purpose only
(B) Plant is under maintenance
© Plant is used for base load only
(D) Plant is used for peak load as well as base load
Answer: A

4. Power plant cannot have single unit of 100 MW.

(A) Hydroelectric
(B) Nuclear
(C) Steam
(D) Diesel
Answer: D

5. With reference to a power station which of the following is not a

fixed cost?
(A) Fuel cost
(B) Interest on capital
(C) Insurance charges
(D) Depreciation
Answer: A
6. Static capacitors are rated in terms of
(A) kW
(B) kWh
(C) kVAR
(D) None of the above
Answer: C

7. The expected useful life of a hydroelectric power station is

around
(A) 15 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 60 years
(D) 100 years
Answer: D

8. Submarines for under water movement, are powered by which

of the following?
(A) Steam accumulators
(B) Air motors
© Diesel engines
(D) Batteries
Answer: D

9. Which of the following is not necessarily an advantage of

interconnecting various power stations?
(A) Improved frequency of power supplied
(B) Reduction in total installed capacity
© Increased reliability
(D) Economy in operation of plants
Answer: A
10. For a power plant which of the following constitutes running
cost?
(A) Cost of wages
(B) Cost of fuel
© Cost of lubricants
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
141. Which of the following generation station has minimum
running cost?

a) Thermal power station

b) Hydro-electric power station

c) Nuclear power station

d) None of these

Ans: (b)

142. Which of the following method of generating electric power

from sea water is more advantageous?

a) Wave power

b) Ocean Currents

c) Tidal power

d) None of these

Ans: c

143. The EHV system in one operating beyond

a) 11 kV

b) 132 kV

c) 200 kV

d) 400 kV

Ans: (d)
144. The principal type of failure in wind power generation is in

a) Aerodynamic system

b) Electrical system

c) Mechanical system

d) Both (b) and (c) above

Ans: (a)

145. The magnitude of power constant in wind mill depends on

a) Shape of rotor blades

b) Wind velocity

c) Orientation of rotor blades

d) Both (a) and (b) above

Ans: (b)

146. Wind energy

a) Is clean, almost free and domestically produced

b) Has higher cost comparatively

c) Develops power proportional to the power of the wind

d) All of these

Ans: (d)
147. The rating of MHD generator per unit volume is proportional
to

a) The electrical conductivity of the fluid

b) Square of the flow velocity of the fluid

c) Square of magnetic flux density

d) All of these

Ans: (d)

148. The conduction used in MHD generator is

a) Gas

b) Liquid

c) Copper

d) Aluminum

Ans: (a)

149. The current developed in MHD generators is

a) ac

b) pulsating

c) dc

d) Either (a) or (b) above

Ans: c
150. In MHD generation, emf induced is

a) Motionally induced emf

b) Static emf

c) Hall emf

d) Both (a) and (c) above

Ans: (d)
 MCQ ON FOUSSIL FULES
1. Which of these is a ‘fissile fuel’?

a) Thorium

b) Carbon

c) Potassium

d) Graphite

Answer: a

2. Which of these is a ‘working fluid’ in liquid phase?

a) Water

b) Steam

c) Mercury

d) Oxygen

Answer: a

3. Which of these is an output of a ‘Furnace’?

a) Fuel gas

b) Air

c) Flue gases

d) Water Vapor

Answer: c
4. What kind of energy output is obtained from a ‘Steam Power
Plant’?

a) Heat energy

b) Sound energy

c) Electricity

d) Thermal energy

Answer: c

5. What kind of a process does a ‘Steam Power Plant’

undergoes?

a) Adiabatic

b) Cyclic

c) Irreversible

d) Expansion

Answer: b

6. Water that is fed back to the boiler by the pump is called?

a) Adsorbate

b) Absorbate

c) Condenset

d) Condensate

Answer: d
7. The net change in internal energy in a steam power plant is?

a) Positive

b) Negative

c) Zero

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c

8. The product of efficiency & heat transferred to the working fluid

is?

a) Net temperature change

b) Net work done

c) Net enthalpy change

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b

9. What are the components of a Steam Power Plant?

a) Evaporator, Condenser, Boiler, Expansion valve

b) Evaporator, Condenser, Boiler, Turbine

c) Boiler, Turbine, Condenser, Pump

d) Boiler, Turbine, Pump, Expansion valve

Answer: c
10. Shaft work is fed to __________ for getting an electrical
output.

a) Motor

b) Generator

c) Rotor

d) Accelerator

Answer: b
1. What is the air standard cycle for a Gas-Turbine called?
a) Reheat cycle
b) Rankine cycle
c) Brayton cycle
d) Diesel cycle
Answer: c

2. What is the difference between a Rankine cycle & a Brayton cycle?

a) working fluid in a Brayton cycle undergoes phase change while it
doesn’t in Rankine cycle
b) working fluid in a Brayton cycle doesn’t undergo phase change
while it does in Rankine cycle
c) both are same
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b

3. Which of the following is a type of Gas Turbine Plant?

a) Single Acting
b) Double Acting
c) Open
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
4. Power is produced when the working fluid does some work on the?
a) Shaft
b) Fins
c) Blades
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c

5. A Gas Turbine is which type of combustion plant?

a) external
b) open
c) internal
d) cannot say
Answer: c

6. Which among these is the main component of a gas turbine plant?

a) Condenser
b) Compressor
c) Boiler
d) Both Compressor & Boiler
Answer: b
7. Which type of compressor is used in a gas turbine plant?
a) Reciprocating compressor
b) Screw compressor
c) Multistage axial flow compressor
d) Either Reciprocating compressor & Screw compressor
Answer: c

8. What part or % of power developed is utilised for driving the

compressor?
a) 65 %
b) 70 %
c) 55 %
d) 80 %
Answer: a

9. The gas turbine power plant mainly uses which among the
following fuels?
a) Coal and Peat
b) Kerosene oil and diesel oil and residual oil
c) Gas oil
d) Natural gas and liquid petroleum fuel
Answer: d.
1.Gas turbine power plant is…….efficient than steam turbine plant

A .More

B.Less

C. Same

D.None of the above

Answer: A

2. Maximum combustion pressure in a gas turbine is........as

compared to diesel engine

A.Same

B.Less

C.More

D.None of the above

Answer: B

3. Capital cost of a gas turbine plant........than that of a steam

power plant of same capacity

A.Same

B.Lower

C.Higher

D.None of the above

Answer: B
4. In a gas turbine plant,a regenerator increases........

A.Work output

B.Pressure ratio

C.Thermal efficiency

D.All of the above

Answer: C

5. In a gas turbine, high thermal efficiency is obtained in........

A.Closed cycle

B.Open cycle

C.In both the cycles

D.All the above cycles

Answer: A

6. Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine power plant as compared to

diesel engine plant is
A.Higher
B.Lower
C.Same
D.May be higher or lower
Answer: B
7. Thermal efficiency of a closed cycle gas turbine plant increases
by……..
A.Reheating
B.Intercooling
C.Regenerator
D.All of the above
Answer: D

8. Maximum temperature of a gas turbine plant is of the order

of……..
A.7000
B.9000
C.21000
D.25000
Answer: A

9. The blades of the gas turbine rotor are made of……..

A.Carbon steel
B.Stainless steel
C.High alloy steel
D.High nickel alloy
Answer: D
10. The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine with ideal regenerative
heat exchanger is……..
A. Equal to work ratio
B. Less than work ratio
C. More than work ratio
D. Um-predictable
Answer: A

11. Mechanical efficiency of a gas turbine as compared to internal

combustion reciprocating engine is….
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Same
D. Un-predictable
Answer: A

12. For a gas turbine the pressure ratio in the range of……..
A.2 to 3
B.3 to 5
C.16 to 18
D.18 to 22
Answer: B
13. In a two stage gas turbine plant,reheating after first
stage……..
A. decrease the thermal efficiency
B .Increase the thermal efficiency
C. Does not effect the thermal efficiency
D.None of the above
Answer: A

14. In a two stage gas turbine plant, reheating after first

stage……..
A. increases work ratio
B. Decreases work ratio
C. Does not effect work ratio
D. None of the above
Answer:A

15. In a two stage gas turbine plant,with intercooling and

reheating……..
A. Both work ratio and thermal efficiency improve
B. Work ratio improves but thermal efficiency decreases
C. Thermal efficiency improves but work ratio decreases
D. Both work ratio and thermal efficiency decreases
Answer: B
Geothermal Energy – MCQs with answers

Q1. Pugga valley in Ladakh is suitable for which among the following
power generation
(a)Solar
(b) Geo thermal
(c) Wind
(d)None of these
ANSWER: b

Q2. Presence of non – condensable gasses in a geo - pressured

water causes
a. Pollution problem
b. Corrosion problem
c. Flow problem
d. All of the above.
ANSWER: d

Q3. Direct conversion of heat energy into electrical energy is

possible through
a. MHD generators
b. Fuel or solar cells
c. Thermionic converters.
d. Both (a) and (c)
e. None of the above
ANSWER: d
Q4. In geo thermal power plants waste water is
a. Discharged back to earth.
b. Discharged into the sea.
c. Recirculated after cooling in cooling towers.
d. Evaporated in ponds.
ANSWER: a

Load curve and Mass curve – MCQs with answers

Q1. What is a load curve?

a. A plot of load vs current.
b. A plot of load vs time.
c. A plot of load vs duration of time.
d. Total number of units generated vs time.
ANSWER: b

Q2. What does the area under the load curve represent?
a. System voltage.
b. Current.
c. Energy consumed.
d. Maximum demand.
ANSWER: c
Q3. What does the highest point on the daily load curve represents?
a. Peak load.
b. Maximum demand.
c. Both (a) & (d).
d. None of these.
ANSWER: b

Q4. Load curve of a generation is always

a. Positive slope.
b. Zero slope.
c. Negative slope.
d. Combination of (a), (b) and (c).
ANSWER: d.

Q5. If the daily load curve is divided by 24, what does this curve
represent?
a. Average load for the day.
b. Connected load.
c. Maximum demand.
d. Demand factor.
ANSWER: a
Q6. What does a mass curve represent?
a. Average load.
b. The total energy consumed by the load upto a particular time in a
day.
c. The number of hours for which a particular lasts during the day.
d. The variation of load during different hours of the day.
ANSWER: b

Q7. The mass curve is plotted from which of the following curve?
a. Chronological curve.
b. Energy load curve.
c. Load duration curve.
d. Both (a) and (b).
ANSWER: c

Load Duration Curve – MCQs with answers

Q1. What does a load duration curve represent?

a. The variation of load during different hours of the day.
b. Average load.
c. The number of hours for which a particular lasts during the day.
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c
Q2. What is the shape of the load duration curve?
a. Rectangular shape.
b. Triangular shape.
c. Parabolic shape.
d. Free hand sketch.
ANSWER: a

Q3. Maximum and Minimum loads on the load duration curve is

represented on which respective side?
a. Left and Right.
b. Right and Left.
c. Randomly.
d. None of these
ANSWER: a

Q4. What does the chronological load curve indicate?

a. Variation in demand factor during 24 hours.
b. Variation of demand from instant to instant during 24 hour.
c. The total energy consumed upto different times of the day.
d. The total number of hours for which a particular load lasts during the
day.
ANSWER: b
 QUESTION BANK OF ENERGY AND POWER ENGINEERING

1-Which of the following is (are) renewable resource(s)

(A) wind
(B) tides
(C) geothermal heat
(D) all of the above

2.Photovoltaic cell converts solar energy into

(A) heat energy
(B) electric energy
(C) mechanical energy
(D) chemical energy

3.Which of the following is a disadvantage of renewable energy?

a) High pollution
b) Available only in few places
c) High running cost
d) Unreliable supply

4.A Solar cell is an electrical device that converts the energy of light directly into
electricity by the ____________
a) Photovoltaic effect
b) Chemical effect
c) Atmospheric effect
d) Physical effect

5.The main composition of biogas is _______________

a) Methane
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen

6.Which among the following have a large amount of installed grid interactive
renewable power capacity in India?
a) Wind power
b) Solar power
c) Biomass power
d) Small Hydro power

7. The most abundantly available fossil fuel in India is _____________

a) Coal
b) Natural Gas
c) Petroleum
d) Oil

8.Which of the following nonrenewable energy is not classified under a fossil fuel?
a) Nuclear
b) Petroleum
c) Oil
d) Natural gas

9.In geo thermal power plants waste water is

a. Discharged back to earth.
b. Discharged into the sea.
c. Recirculated after cooling in cooling towers.
d. Evaporated in ponds.

10.What is the main source for the formation of wind?

a) Uneven land
b) Sun
c) Vegetation
d) Seasons

11.What type of energy is wind energy?

a) Renewable energy
b) Non-renewable energy
c) Conventional energy
d) Commercial energy
12.What are used to turn wind energy into electrical energy?
a) Turbine
b) Generators
c) Yaw motor
d) Blades

13.At what range of wind speed is the electricity from the wind turbine is
generated?
a) 100 – 125 mph
b) 450 – 650 mph
c) 250 – 450 mph
d) 30-35 mph

14.Which part of the wind mill acts as a housing for the turbine?
a) Wind Vane
b) Shaft
c) Wind mill head
d) Turbine

15.How is the action of yaw controlled in small turbines?

a) Tail vane
b) Blades
c) Shaft
d) Yaw motor

16.Which part of the wind turbines senses wind speed, wind direction, shaft speed
and torque?
a) Turbine blade
b) Shaft
c) Rotor
d) Controller
17.Which type of wind turbine has low RPM?
a) Small wind turbine
b) Large wind turbine
c) Medium wind turbine
d) Remote wind turbine

18.Which type of generator are made use in wind turbines?

a) Recreational generators
b) Synchronous generator
c) Asynchronous generator
d) Alternator

19.In which part do we find sensors and actuators?

a) Fixed gears
b) Turbines
c) Control systems
d) Blades

20.On what does the selection of supporting structure depends?

a) Length of blades
b) Rotating capacity
c) Capacity of generator
d) Transmission systems

21.At what type of location vibrations are more in the wind turbine?
a) Downwind location
b) Up wind location
c) Windward
d) Leeward
22.At what type of location vibrations are less in the wind turbines?
a) Windward
b) Leeward
c) Downwind location
d) Upwind Location

23.Select the formula for total power pt?

a) Pt = 1/2gc ρAVi3
b) Pt = ρAVi3D3
c) Pt = 1/2gc Vi3D3
d) Pt = 2gc/Vi3

24.Why blade velocity of wind turbine varies?

a) Due to varying wind speeds
b) Long length of blades
c) Due to the height of mount
d) Because of hotness of Sun

25.How many classes of windmills are there?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

26.In which of the following, does machine rotor drives through a step up gear
box?
a) Horizontal axis with two aerodynamic blades
b) Horizontal axis propeller type wind mill
c) Horizontal axis multi bladed type wind mill
d) Sail type wind mill
27. __________ is one of the most important materials is also known as solar grade
silicon.
a) Crushed silicon
b) Crystalline silicon
c) Powdered silicon
d) Silicon

28. The term photo voltaic comes from ________

a) Spanish
b) Greek
c) German
d) English

29. When the source of light is not sun light then the photo voltaic cell is used as
____________
a) Photo diode
b) Photo voltaic cell
c) Photo detector
d) Photo transmitter

30.The region where the electrons and holes diffused across the junction is called
________
a) Depletion Junction
b) Depletion region
c) Depletion space
d) Depletion boundary

31.The amount of photo generated current increases slightly with an increase in

_________
a) Temperature
b) Photons
c) Diode current
d) Shunt current
32. Solar cells are made from bulk materials that are cut into wafer of _________
thickness.
a) 120-180μm
b) 120-220μm
c) 180-220μm
d) 180-240μm

33.__________ photo voltaic devices in the form of thin films.

a) Cadmium Telluroide
b) Cadmium oxide
c) Cadmium sulphide
d) Cadmium sulphate

34. __________ is a direct band gap material.

a) Copper Indium Gallium Selenide
b) Copper Selenide
c) Copper Gallium Telluride
d) Copper Indium Gallium Diselenide

35.A module in a solar panel refers to

a. Series arrangement of solar cells.
b. Parallel arrangement of solar cells.
c. Series and parallel arrangement of solar cells.
d. None of the above.

36.The efficiency of the solar cell is about

a. 25 %
b. 15 %
c. 40 %
d. 60 %
37.For satellites the source of energy is
a. Solar cell
b. Fuel cells
c. Edison cells
d. Cryogenic storage

38.The output of the solar cell is of the order

a. 0.5 W
b. 1.0 W
c. 5.0 W
d. 10.25 W

39.In a fuel cell cathode is of

a. Oxygen
b. Ammonia
c. Hydrogen
d. Carbon monoxide

40.What is the maximum possible output of a solar array?

a. 300 W/m2
b. 100 W/m2
c. 250 W/m2
d. 500 W/m2

41.The current density of a photo voltaic cell ranges from

a. 10 – 20 mA/cm2
b. 40 – 50 mA/cm2
c. 20 – 40 mA/cm2
d. 60 – 100 mA/cm2
42.A pyrometer is used for the measurements of
a. Diffuse radiations only.
b. Direct radiations only.
c. Both direct and diffused radiations.
d. None of the above.

43.Reflector mirrors used for exploiting the solar energy are called
a. Mantle.
b. Heliostats.
c. Diffusers.
d. Ponds.

44.The function of a solar collector is of converting solar energy into

a. Radiations
b. Electrical energy directions.
c. Thermal energy.
d. All of these.

45.What are pyrheliometers?

a. Instruments measures beam radiations
b. Diffuse radiations.
c. Direct radiations only.
d. None of the above.

46.Temperature attained by cylindrical parabolic collector is of the order of

a. 50 – 100 °C
b. 100 – 150 °C
c. 150 – 200 °C
d. 200 – 300 °C
47. In a solar collector, why is the transparent cover provide for?
a. Protect the collector from dust.
b. Reduce the heat losses from collector beneath to atmosphere.
c. Transmit solar radiation only
d. All of the above.

48.A solar cell converts light energy into __________

a) Electrical energy
b) Thermal energy
c) Sound energy
d) Heat energy

49.Full form of FF in the solar field is ____________

a) Form factor
b) Fill factor
c) Face factor
d) Fire factor

50.Material used for making solar cell is _________

a) Silicon
b) Carbon
c) Sodium
d) Magnesium

51. Fuel cell converts chemical energy to electrical energy using a reaction that
__________
a) eliminates combustion of fuel
b) requires combustion of fuel
c) requires no ignition of fuel
d) fuel is not required
52.The fuel cell is considered a battery in which ___________ is continuously
replaced.
a) fuel only
b) oxidizer
c) both fuel and oxidizer
d) none of the mentioned

53.The type of reactions in a fuel cell is not determined by __________

a) fuel and oxidizer combination
b) composition of electrolyte
c) materials of anode and cathode
d) catalytic effects of reaction container

54.The hydrocarbons cracked with steam in fuel cells do not give rise to
__________
a) CO
b) CO2
c) H2
d) H2O

55.Which of these should not be a properties of fuel cell electrodes?

a) good electrical conductors
b) highly resistant to corrosive environment
c) should perform charge seperation
d) take part in chemical reactions

57.Which of these fuel cell operates at temperature below 100.C?

a) phosphoric fuel cell
b) solid polymer electrolyte fuel cell
c) molten carbon fuel cell
d) hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell
58.Which of these fuel cells operates at high temperatures and pressures?
a) high temperature solid oxide fuel cell
b) alkaline fuel cell
c) molten carbon fuel cell
d) phosphoric acid fuel cell

59. The ocean thermal energy conversion(OTEC) is uses ___________

a) Energy difference
b) Potential difference
c) Temperature difference
d) Kinetic difference

60.The by-product of the ocean thermal energy conversion is ____________

a) Hot water
b) Cold water
c) Chemicals
d) Gases

61.Closed cycle systems use the fluid having ___________

a) High boiling points
b) Low boiling points
c) High viscosity
d) low viscosity

62.Warm surface sea water is pumped through a ____________ to vaporise the

fluid.
a) Heat exchanger
b) Generator
c) Evaporator
d) Condenser
63.The heat exchanger ___________ the vapour into a liquid which is recycled.
a) Condenses
b) Heats
c) Cools
d) Evaporates

64.Open cycle OTEC uses ________ surface water directly to make electricity.
a) Hot
b) Warm
c) Cool
d) Icy

65.The commercial sources of energy are

(a) solar, wind and biomass
(b) fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear energy
(c) wood, animal wastes and agriculture wastes
(d) none of the above

66.In fuel cell, the ______ energy is converted into electrical energy.
(a) mechanical
(b) chemical
(c) heat
(d) sound

67.Solar thermal power generation can be achieved by

(a) using focusing collector or heliostates
(b) using flat plate collectors
(c) using a solar pond
(d) any of the above system

68.The energy radiated by sun on a bright sunny day is approximately

(a) 700 W/m2
(b) 800 W/m2
(c) 1 kW/m2
(d) 2 kW/m2

69.Thorium Breeder Reactors are most suitable for India because

(a) these develop more power
(b) its technology is simple
(c) abundance of thorium deposits are available in India
(d) these can be easily designed
 70.The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal to
(a) Rankine cycle efficiency
(b) Carnot cycle efficiency
(c) Regenerative cycle efficiency
(d) Boiler efficiency x turbine efficiency x generator efficiency

71.Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range
of
(a) 15 to 20 percent
(b) 35 to 45 percent
(c) 70 to 80 percent
(d) 90 to 95 percent

72.What does the area under the load curve represent?

a. System voltage.
b. Current.
c. Energy consumed.
d. Maximum demand.

73.If the daily load curve is divided by 24, what does this curve represent?
a. Average load for the day.
b. Connected load.
c. Maximum demand.
d. Demand factor.

74.A load curve is a plot of

(A) Load versus generation capacity
(B) Load versus current
(C) Load versus time
(D) Load versus cost of power

75.Load factor during a period is

(A) Average Load / Installed Capacity
(B) Average Load / Maximum Load
(C) Maximum Load / Average Load
(D) Maximum Load / Installed Capacity.
76.Demand factor is the
(A) Maximum Demand / Average Demand
(B) Maximum Demand / Connected Load
(C) Average Demand / Maximum Demand
(D) Connected Load / Maximum Demand.

77.In a system if the base load is the same as the maximum demand, the load
factor will be
(A) 1
(B) Zero
(C) Infinity
(D) 1 percent.

78.A system having connected load of 100 kW, peak load of 80 kW. base load of
20 kW and average load of 40 kW, will have a load factor of
(A) 40%
(B) 50%
(C) 60%
(D) 80%.

79.The load factor is __________

a) always less than unity
b) less than or greater than 1
c) always greater than 1
d) less than zero

80.What does a load duration curve represent?

a. The variation of load during different hours of the day
b. Average load
c. The number of hours for which a particular lasts during the day
d. None of the above
81.The load factor plays a key role in determining which among the
following?
a. Plant capacity
b. Overall cost per unit generated
c. Overall demand
d. Both (a) and (c)

82.What is the diversity factor?

a. A ratio of kWh generated to the product of plant capacity and the number of
hours for which the plant is in operation.
b. The ratio of sum of individual maximum demands to the maximum demand on
power stations.
c. The ratio of actual energy produced to the maximum possible energy.
d. The ratio of maximum demand on the power station to the connected load.

83.What is operating value of diversity factor?

a. Greater than unity
b. Less than unity
c. Always more than unity
d. Normally more than unity

84. A large diversity factor of the load in a power system

a. Reduces the installation cost.
b. Increases the installation cost.
c. Does not affect the installation cost.
d. None of the above

85.Which element of hydroelectric power plant prevents the penstock from water
hammer phenomenon?
a) Valves and Gates
b) Draft tubes
c) Spillway
d) Surge Tank

86. Dam having very wide base as compared to its height is called _________
a) buttress dam
b) arch dam
c) earth dam
d) solid gravity dam
87.Trash racks are built for ___________
a) discharging the water freely from the turbine exit to tailrace
b) preventing the turbine from ingress of floating and other materials
c) creating artificial head to store sufficient potential energy of water
d) controlling the opening of valves

88.Penstock in a hydroelectric power plant is _____________

a) a pipe connected to runner outlet
b) nozzle that release high pressure water on turbine blades
c) a conduit connecting forebay to scroll case of turbine
d) a pipe connecting surge tank to dam

89.The cheapest plant in operation and maintenance is.......

A.Steam power plant
B.Nuclear power palnt
C.Hydro-electric power plant
D.None of the above

90. The power output from a hydro-electric power plant depends on three
parameters........
A.Head,type and dam of discharge
B.Head,discharge and efficiency of the system
C.Efficiency of the system,type of draft tube and type of turbine used
D.Type of dam,discharge and type of catchment area

91.The running cost of hydro-electric power plant is........paise per unit

A.10
B.8
C.5
D.15

92. Francis and kaplan turbine is used for........heads hydro-electric plant.

A.Medium and low head
B.High head
C.Low head
D.Low and high head
93.The cost of fuel transportation is minimum........
A.Thermal power plant
B.Hydro-electric power plant
C.Nuclear power plant
D.None of the above

94.Gross head of a hydro power station is........

A.The difference of water level between the level in the storage and tail race
B.The height of the water level in the river where the storage is provided
C.The height of the water level in the river where the tail race is provided
D.None of the above

95.The following is the correct order of energy conversion in thermal power

plants
(A) Chemical energy – Mechanical energy – Electrical energy

(B) Mechanical energy – Chemical energy – Electrical energy

(C) Wind energy – Mechanical energy – Electrical energy

(D) Heat energy – Electrical energy – Mechanical energy

96.In thermal power plant, turbine is placed

(A) before boiler

(B) in between boiler and generator

(C) after generator

(D) any of the above

97.In thermal power plants, the dust of flue gases is trapped by

(A) Precipitator

(B) Economizer

(C) Superheater

(D) Air preheater

98.The path of flue gases in Thermal power plant is

(A) Boiler – Economizer – Superheater– Air preheater

(B) Boiler – Superheater – Air preheater – Economizer

(C) Boiler – Air preheater – Superheater – Economizer

(D) Boiler – Superheater – Economizer – Air preheater

99.The following is not a component of Thermal power plant

(A) Condenser

(B) Cooling tower

(C) Turbine

(D) Fuel tank

100.Modern steam plants works on which of the following cycles?

a. Carnot cycle
b. Rankine cycle
c. Otto cycle
d. Bell- Coleman cycle

What would be the most important factor under consideration for the site
selection of a thermal plant?
a. Availability of fuel.
b. Availability of water.
c. Distance from the populated area.
d. Cost and the type of land.

101.Which of these is an output of a ‘Furnace’?

a) Fuel gas
b) Air
c) Flue gases
d) Water Vapor

102.What kind of energy output is obtained from a ‘Steam Power Plant’?

a) Heat energy
b) Sound energy
c) Electricity
d) Thermal energy
103.The maximum steam temperature in a power cycle in degree centigrade is?
a) 600
b) 500
c) 300
d) 100

104.Which of these is not a component of nuclear reactor?

a) reactor core
b) refractor
c) control rod
d) biological shield

105.What is the air standard cycle for a Gas-Turbine called?

a) Reheat cycle
b) Rankine cycle
c) Brayton cycle
d) Diesel cycle

106.Which of the following is a type of Gas Turbine Plant?

a) Single Acting
b) Double Acting
c) Open
d) None of the mentioned

107.A Gas Turbine is which type of combustion plant?

a) external
b) open
c) internal
d) cannot say

108.Which type of compressor is used in a gas turbine plant?

a) Reciprocating compressor
b) Screw compressor
c) Multistage axial flow compressor
d) Either Reciprocating compressor & Screw compressor
109.What part or % of power developed is utilised for driving the compressor?
a) 65 %
b) 70 %
c) 55 %
d) 80 %

110.The gas turbine power plant mainly uses which among the following fuels?
a) Coal and Peat
b) Kerosene oil and diesel oil and residual oil
c) Gas oil
d) Natural gas and liquid petroleum fuel

111.A moderator, in nuclear power plants, is a medium introduced into the fuel
mass in order to __________
a) slow down the speed of fast moving neutrons
b) control the reaction
c) reduce the temperature
d) extract heat from nuclear reaction

112.The best capable alternative source which can meet the future energy demand
is _____________
a) thermal power plant
b) nuclear power plant
c) hydroelectric power plant
d) geothermal power plant

113.How much coal is required to generate energy equivalent to the energy

generated by 1 kg of uranium?
a) 30000 tonnes of high grade coal
b) 300 tonnes of high grade coal
c) 10000 tonnes of high grade coal
d) 3000 tonnes of high grade coal

114.Nuclear fuel in reactor lasts for ________________

a) more than 5 months
b) few weeks
c) few days
d) more than 5 years
115.Cost of nuclear fuel in nuclear power plant economics is considered as
__________
a) running cost
b) maintenance cost
c) capital cost
d) development cost

116.Which of the following are not taken as operation and maintenance cost in
economics of nuclear power plant?
a) Taxes and insurance
b) Salaries and wages of staff
c) Cost of waste disposal
d) Cost of processing materials

117.What is the overall efficiency of nuclear power plant?

a) 20 to 25%
b) 25 to 30%
c) 30 to 40 %
d) 50 to 70 %

118.With respect to the load centre which location is suitable for stablishment of
nuclear power plant?
a) Load centre
b) Near load centre but at reasonable distance
c) Far away from load centre
d) Near chemical industries

119.Which of the following are the most widely used condensers in modern
thermal power plants?
a) Surface condensers
b) Low level counter flow type jet condenser
c) High level counter flow type jet condenser
d) Parallel flow type jet condenser
120.Which of the following is a part of air and fuel gas circuit?
a) Condenser
b) Economiser
c) Air preheater
c) Cooling tower

121.Which of the following is not a type of steam turbine?

a) Impulse turbine
b) Reaction turbine
c) Pelton wheel turbine
d) Axial flow type turbine

122.In condensing turbine what is the back pressure of the turbine?

a) Very high
b) Above atmospheric pressure
c) Equal to atmospheric pressure
d) Below atmospheric pressure

123. Which turbines are employed for driving alternator at synchronous speed?
a) Central Station turbine
b) Reheating turbine
c) Extraction turbine
d) Extraction induction turbine