Most Probable

Prelims Questions
Compilation of ClearIAS Daily MCQs

Set - 1

Sourced from the repository of questions used

for the ClearIAS Email Program
Don't go behind everything
under the Sun!

Top 5 Priority Items

You Should Learn Before UPSC Prelims

1. ClearIAS Prelims Online Mock Test Series

2. ClearIAS Most Probable Prelims Questions (Daily MCQs)
3. ClearIAS Current Affairs Capsules (Monthly MCQs)
4. ClearIAS Previous Year UPSC Questions Re-Take Tests 
5. ClearIAS Online Study Materials (FREE)

Also don't miss:

ClearIAS Intelligent Elimination Techniques (IETs)

Download ClearIAS App:

Clear IAS by self-study!
1. With reference to PRASAD scheme, consider the following statements

1. It was launched by the Union Ministry of Tourism.

2. It enhances tourist attractiveness in a sustainable manner by developing
world-class infrastructure in the beaches in the country.
3. It seeks to promote local art, culture, handicrafts, cuisine, etc.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Ans: (b) 1 and 3 only

Learning Zone: Introduced in 2015, the Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual

Augmentation Drive (PRASAD) is a government scheme that focuses on identifying
and developing the pilgrim sites across the country to enrich the religious tourism
experience.

It was launched by the Union Ministry of Tourism.

Its objectives are
● Harness pilgrimage tourism for its direct and multiplier effect upon
employment generation and economic development.
● Enhance tourist attractiveness in a sustainable manner by developing world-
class infrastructure in religious destinations.
● It also seeks to promote local art, culture, handicraft, cuisine, etc.

Why is this question important?

It aims at integrated development of pilgrimage destinations in planned, prioritised
and sustainable manner to provide complete religious tourism experience.

2. Colistin, recently seen in news refers to

1

(a) A Virus
Page
 (b) An antibiotic
(c) Cryptocurrency
(d) Vaccination for Nipah Virus

Ans: (b) An antibiotic

Learning Zone: Colistin is a valuable, last-resort antibiotic that saves human lives
in critical care units.

Indiscriminate use of colistin has led to the rise of antimicrobial resistance in the
country.

If the use of colistin as a growth factor in animals is cut down and it is limited to
therapeutic usage only, the chances of developing resistance to it go down.

Why is this question important? Manufacture, sale and distribution of colistin

and its formulations for food-producing animals, poultry, aqua farming and animal
feed supplements have been prohibited in an order issued by the Ministry of Health
and Family Welfare.

3. Global Innovation Index is published by which among the following?

(a) World Economic Forum

(b) World Intellectual Property Organisation
(c) UNDP
(d) World Bank

Ans: (b) World Intellectual Property Organisation

Learning Zone: It is published by a specialized agency of the United Nations – the

World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) in association with Cornell
University and graduate business school INSEAD.

GII rankings are based on 80 indicators, from traditional measurements like research
and development investments and international patent and trademark applications.
2
Page
The theme for the year 2019 is – Creating Healthy Lives – The Future of Medical
Innovation, which aims to explore the role of medical innovation as it shapes the
future of healthcare.

India’s rank has improved as it has reached 52nd position in 2019. India was at 57th
position in 2018. In terms of innovation and newly-emerging technologies India has
been performing well and has improved its position by 29 places since 2015. India
continues to be the most innovative economy in central and southern Asia.
.
Why is this question important? World innovation Index has been recently
released by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO).

4. National Data Quality Forum (NSQF) is launched by which among the

following?

(a) Ministry of statistics and programme implementation

(b) Central Statistics Office
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) National Institute for Medical Statistics

Ans: (d) National Institute for Medical Statistics

Learning Zone: Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)’s National Institute for
Medical Statistics (ICMR-NIMS), in partnership with Population Council, has launched
the National Data Quality Forum (NDQF).

NDQF will integrate learnings from scientific and evidence-based initiatives and guide
actions through periodic workshops and conferences.
It will fetch quality data in upcoming health studies and surveys such as the National
Family Health Survey (NFHS).

Why is this question important? National data quality forum has been on news
recently.

5. With reference to Grid Connected Rooftop Solar Programme, consider

3

the following statements

Page
 1. It will have a substantial environmental impact in terms of savings of CO2
emission.
2. The project initially concentrates only on the Rooftop of residential buildings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a) 1 only

Learning Zone: Rooftop solar installations, as opposed to large-scale solar power

generation plants, can be installed on roofs of any residential, commercial,
institutional and industrial building.

As of 18 July, 2019 over 1700 MegaWatts of grid-connected rooftop systems have

been installed in India. Government has set a target for installation of Rooftop Solar
projects (RTS) of 40,000 MegaWatt (MW) by 2022 in the country including
installation of RTS on the rooftop of houses. the addition of 38000 megawatts by
2022 would reduce 45.6 tonnes CO2 per year.

Why is this question important? Government has set a target for installation of
Rooftop Solar projects (RTS) of 40,000 MegaWatt (MW) by 2022 in the country
including installation of RTS on the rooftop of houses.

6. ‘UKIERI Mobility Programme’, recently seen in news related to

(a) UK students to visit India for higher studies

(b) Mobility vehicle for differently-abled people
(c) Plastic waste management
(d) Permanent Resident status for Indians in the UK

Ans: (a) UK students to visit India for higher studies

4
Page
Learning Zone: UKIERI stands for ‘UK-India Education Research Initiative which
will allow UK students to visit India for higher studies.

It also aims to generate up to 200 opportunities for undergraduate students at UK

universities to visit India by March 2021.

Study in India programme will support national as well as institutional-level

objectives to increase levels of outward student mobility from the UK to 13%. The
programme will be funded by the UK Government and Government of India as part
of Phase 3 of UKIERI. Most importantly, Under the programme, the priority will be
given to students from traditionally underrepresented groups to visit India during
their courses.

Why is this question important? It provides flexible grants to UK higher

education institutions (HEIs) and their Indian partner institutions to design and
deliver academically rigorous short-term mobility opportunities in India for
undergraduate students from UK HEIs.

7. With reference to POCSO Court recently seen in the news, consider the
following statements

1. Supreme court has directed to set up POCSO Court in each district across the
country that has over 100 cases of child abuse and sexual assault pending.
2. POCSO Courts will be funded by the central government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: The Supreme Court has directed the Centre to set up special
courts in each district across the country that has over a 100 cases of child abuse
5
Page
and sexual assault pending trial under the Protection of Children from Sexual
Offences (POCSO) Act.

Such courts will be funded by the central government. The fund will not only take
care of the appointment of the presiding officer but also appointments of support
persons, special public prosecutors, court staff and infrastructure, including the
creation of a child-friendly environment and vulnerable witness courtrooms.
Supreme Court has also specifically ordered that these new courts be a child-friendly
and have an infrastructure that is conducive to those of children.

Why is this question important? Supreme court has recently directed to setup
POCSO courts in districts that have over 100 cases of child abuse.

8. With reference to ‘Red Mud’, Consider the following statements

1. It is toxic liquid waste.

2. It is a side-product of the Bayer process

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b) 2 only

Learning Zone: Red Mud is a solid waste generated during the aluminium
production process.

Red mud, or bauxite residue, is a side-product of the Bayer process, the principal
means of refining bauxite to produce alumina. This is an environmental concern due
to the presence of impurities such as caustic soda and other minerals.
6
Page
Why is this question important? Union Ministry of Mines organized an
interactive workshop called ‘Waste to Wealth’ in New Delhi for discussing productive
utilisation of bauxite residue.

9. Which among the following administers Nirbhaya Fund?

(a) Ministry of Finance

(b) Ministry of Women and Child Development
7

(c) NITI Aayog

Page
 (d) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Ans: (a) Ministry of Finance

Learning Zone: The Fund is administered by the Department of Economic Affairs of

the finance ministry.

The Rs 1,000 crore Nirbhaya Fund was announced in Union Budget 2013.
The corpus was to be utilised for upholding the safety and dignity of women.
Ministry of Women and Child Development apart from several other concerned
ministries were authorised to work out the details of the structure, scope and
application of this fund.

Why is this question important? A total of 59 proposals/schemes have been

received from various Ministries and State Governments and UT Administrations
under Nirbhaya Fund during the last three years 2016-17, 2017-18 and 2018-19
onwards.

10. With reference to National Creche Scheme, Consider the following

statements

1. The Scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child

Development.
2. It is a centrally sponsored scheme.
3. It is an intervention towards the protection and development of children in
the age group of 6 months to 12 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a) 1 and 2 only

8
Page
Learning Zone: The Scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Women and
Child Development.

It is a centrally sponsored scheme.

It aims at providing a safe place for mothers to leave their children while they are at
work, and thus, is a measure for empowering women as it enables them to take up
employment.

It is an intervention towards the protection and development of children in the age

group of 6 months to 6 years.

Why is this question important? This scheme facility enables the parents to
leave their children while they are at work and where the children are provided with
a stimulating environment for their holistic development.

This scheme ensures to improve the health and nutrition status of the children.

11. Consider the following statements

1. India is the largest producer of silk in the world after China.

2. It is the largest consumer of silk in the world.
3. It is the only country in the world that produces all 5 varieties of silk on a
commercial scale.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Learning Zone: India is the 2nd largest producer of silk in the world after China.
It is the largest consumer of silk in the world. It is the only country in the world that
9

produces all 5 varieties of silk on a commercial scale– Mulberry, Oak Tasar &
Page
Tropical Tasar, Muga and Eri. Holds the global monopoly for the production of the
famed golden ‘Muga’ silk.

Why is this question important? Tamil Nadu, which has been ranked among the
leading silk-producing States in the country, will receive about Rs 6.22 crore under
the Silk Samagra — an Integrated Scheme for Development of Silk Industry (ISDSI).

12. Global Tiger Initiative (GTI) is a program of which among the

following?

(a) World Bank

(b) World Economic Forum
(c) Global Tiger Forum
(d) Wildlife International

Ans: (a) World Bank

Learning Zone: The Global Tiger Initiative (GTI) program of the World Bank, using
its presence and convening ability, brought global partners together to strengthen
the tiger agenda.

It was created in 2010 at the Saint Petersburg Tiger Summit. The goal of the day is
to promote a global system for protecting the natural habitats of tigers and to raise
public awareness and support for tiger conservation issues.

Why is this question important? Global Tiger Day, often called International
Tiger Day, is an annual celebration to raise awareness for tiger conservation, held
annually on 29 July.

13. With reference to Antarctic Oscillation, consider the following

statements

1. It is a low-frequency mode of atmospheric variability of the southern

hemisphere.
10

2. It is defined as a belt of westerly winds or low pressure surrounding

Antarctica which moves north or south as its mode of variability.
Page
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: The Antarctic oscillation (AAO) is a low-frequency mode of

atmospheric variability of the southern hemisphere.

It is also known as the Southern Annular Mode (SAM). It is defined as a belt of

westerly winds or low pressure surrounding Antarctica which moves north or south
as its mode of variability.

In its positive phase, the westerly wind belt that drives the Antarctic Circumpolar
Current intensifies and contracts towards Antarctica, while its negative phase
involves this belt moving towards the Equator.

Why is this question important? Team of researchers affiliated with various

institutions in China and the U.S. has discovered that data from El Niño and Antarctic
Oscillation events can be used to predict air pollution levels in northern India.

14. With reference to ‘Deep Ocean Mission’ recently seen in the news,
consider the following statements

1. It is an initiative by the Ministry Of Earth Sciences.

2. It aims to remove plastic waste from the deep ocean.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
11

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Page
Ans: (a) 1 only

Learning Zone: Ministry Of Earth Sciences Plans Rs 8000 Crore ‘Deep Ocean
Mission’ To Boost India’s Sea Exploration Capabilities. The mission proposes to
explore the deep ocean similar to the space exploration started by ISRO about 35
years ago.

The ‘Deep Ocean Mission’ plan will enable India to develop capabilities to exploit
resources in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB).

Why is this question important? India has been allotted 75,000 square
kilometres in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) by UN International Sea Bed
Authority for exploration of poly-metallic nodules. CIOB reserves contain deposits of
metals like iron, manganese, nickel and cobalt.

15. With reference to Integrated Battle Groups (IBG), Consider the

following statements

1. It is an initiative on the Indian Army.

2. Each IBG would be tailor-made based on Threat, Terrain and Task and
resources will be allotted based on the three Ts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: Gs are brigade-sized, agile, self-sufficient combat formations,

which can swiftly launch strikes against an adversary in case of hostilities.
12
Page
Each IBG would be tailor-made based on Threat, Terrain and Task and resources will
be allotted based on the three Ts.

They need to be light so they will be low on logistics and they will be able to
mobilise within 12-48 hrs based on the location.

Why is this question important? Army’s first Integrated Battle Groups to be

structured by the end of next month.

16. ‘Securitypedia’ an online encyclopaedia saw in the news, is launched

by which among the following?

(a) Ministry of Home Affairs

(b) Google
(c) The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
(d) US Army

Ans: (c) The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)

Learning Zone: The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) has launched
Securitypedia, an online encyclopaedia.

It contains extensive information on technical learning, CISF manuals, case studies,

technical compendium, etc.

Why is this question important? It has been recently released as a one-stop

repository of information on security-related practices across the globe.

17. With reference to the renaming of states, consider the following

statements

1. It can be initiated by Parliament only.

2. The renaming of a state requires Parliamentary approval under Article 3 and 4
of the Constitution.
3. The views of the state assembly are not binding, neither on the President nor
13

on the Parliament.
Page
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b) 2 and 3 only

Learning Zone: The procedure of renaming of the state can be initiated by either
the Parliament or the State Legislator and the procedure is as follows:

● The renaming of a state requires Parliamentary approval under Article 3 and 4

of the Constitution.
● A bill for renaming a state may be introduced in the Parliament on the
recommendation of the President.
● Before the introduction of the bill, the President shall send the bill to the
respective state assembly for expressing their views within a stipulated time.
The views of the state assembly are not binding, neither on the President nor
on the Parliament.
● On the expiry of the period, the bill will be sent to the Parliament for
deliberation. The bill in order to take the force of law must be passed by a
simple majority.
● The bill is sent for approval to the President. After the approval of the said
bill, the bill becomes a law and the name of the state stands modified.

Why is this question important? Over the years, several demands have been
made, for reasons that could be either political or administrative, to change the
name of West Bengal.

18. With reference to the ‘International Charter ‘Space and Major

Disasters’, consider the following statements

1. It is a non-binding charter.
2. It provides for the charitable and humanitarian related acquisition and
14

transmission of space satellite data to relief organizations in the event of

major disasters.
Page
 3. It is initiated by NASA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 only

Ans: (b) 1 and 2 only

Learning Zone: Initiated by the European Space Agency and the French space
agency CNES after the UNISPACE III conference held in Vienna, Austria in July 1999.
It is a non-binding charter. It provides for the charitable and humanitarian related
acquisition and transmission of space satellite data to relief organizations in the
event of major disasters. It officially came into operation on November 1, 2000, after
the Canadian Space Agency signed onto the charter on October 20, 2000.

Why is this question important? India, by virtue of being a member of the

International Charter ‘Space and Major Disasters’ has received satellite data related
to the Assam floods from other member nations including France, Russia and China.

19. Which among the following statements is/are true regarding

‘Microdots’ recently seen in the news?

1. It involves spraying the body and parts of the vehicle or any other machine
with microscopic dots, which gives a unique identification.
2. It can be read physically with a microscope and identified with an ultraviolet
light source.
3. The microdots are adhesive will become permanent fixtures/affixation which
can be removed without damaging the asset, that is the vehicle itself.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

15

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only
Page
 (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a) 1 and 2 only

Learning Zone: Microdot technology involves spraying the body and parts of the
vehicle or any other machine with microscopic dots, which give a unique
identification.

These microdots can be read physically with a microscope and identified with an
ultraviolet light source.

The microdots and adhesive will become permanent fixtures/affixation which cannot
be removed without damaging the asset, that is the vehicle itself.

Use of this technology will help check the theft of vehicles and also the use of fake
spare parts.

Why is this question important? The Ministry of Road Transport & Highways has
issued a draft notification amending Central Motor Vehicle Rules, allowing motor
vehicles and their parts, components, assemblies, sub-assemblies to be affixed with
permanent and nearly invisible microdots.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1597228

20. With reference to Consumer Protection Bill 2019, Consider the

following statements

1. It mandates deterrent punishment to check misleading advertisements and

adulteration of products.
2. It setups Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) for providing access
to justice to the consumer.
3. It incorporates Product liability provision to deter manufacturers and service
providers from delivering defective products or deficient services.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

16

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
Page
 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Learning Zone: Presently Consumer only has a single point of access to justice,
which is time-consuming. Additional swift executive remedies are proposed in the bill
through the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA).

Deterrent punishment to check misleading advertisements and adulteration of

products.

Product liability provision to deter manufacturers and service providers from

delivering defective products or deficient services.

Ease of approaching consumer Commission and Simplification of the Adjudication

process.

Scope for early disposal of cases through mediation. Provision for rules for new-age
consumer issues: e-commerce & direct selling.

Why is this question important? The Lok Sabha has passed the Consumer
Protection Bill 2019, which seeks to give enhanced protection to interests of
consumers and timely settlement of their grievances.

21. With reference to Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS)

Mission, consider the following statements

1. It is a Mission by NASA.
2. It will look for planets orbiting the brightest stars in Earth’s sky.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
17

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Page
Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: The Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS) is a NASA mission
that will look for planets orbiting the brightest stars in Earth’s sky for 2 years.

It is a telescope for NASA’s explorer’s program, designed to search exoplanets using

the transit method. It is mounted on a Falcon 9 rocket and it covers 400 times more
area than Kepler’s telescope.

It was led by the Massachusetts Institute of Technology with seed funding from
Google.

Why is this question important? NASA’s Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite

(TESS) recently discovered new dwarf star and planetary system named as TOI 270.
It is located about 73 light-years away from earth.

22. With reference to the Kimberly process often seen in the news,
consider the following statements

1. It is an international certification scheme that regulates trade in gold.

2. It is an international organisation headquartered at Cape Town.
3. India is currently the Chair of the Kimberley Process Certification Scheme
(KPCS)

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c) 3 only

Learning Zone: The Kimberley Process is an international certification scheme that

18

regulates trade in rough diamonds. It aims to prevent the flow of conflict diamonds
Page

while helping to protect legitimate trade in rough diamonds.

The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS) outlines the rules that govern
the trade in rough diamonds.

The KP is not, strictly speaking, an international organisation: it has no permanent

offices or permanent staff. It relies on the contributions – under the principle of
‘burden-sharing’ – of participants, supported by industry and civil society observers.
Neither can the KP be considered as an international agreement from a legal
perspective, as it is implemented through the national legislations of its participants.
India is a founding member of KPCS.

Why is this question important? The Intersessional meeting of the Kimberley

Process (KP) is being hosted by India in Mumbai.

India is currently the Chair of the Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS)
since 1st January 2018. It was handed Chairmanship by the European Union during
KPCS Plenary 2018, which was held in Brussels, Belgium.

23. ‘Global Peace Index’ is released by which among the following?

(a) World Bank

(b) Amnesty International
(c) UNDP
(d) Institute for Economics & Peace

Ans: (d) Institute for Economics & Peace

Learning Zone: Global Peace Index is released by the Australian think tank
Institute for Economics & Peace. The GPI was founded by Steve Killelea, an
Australian technology entrepreneur and philanthropist.

The report covers 99.7 per cent of the world’s population and uses 23 qualitative
and quantitative indicators from highly respected sources to compile the index.
This year’s report includes new research on the possible effects of climate change on
19

peace.
Page
Iceland is the most peaceful country and Afghanistan followed by Syria is the least
peaceful country as per reports. India together with the Philippines, Japan,
Bangladesh, Myanmar, China, Indonesia, Vietnam and Pakistan are the nine
countries with the highest risk of multiple climate hazards. The country has the 7th
highest overall natural hazard score. India, the US, China, Saudi Arabia, and Russia
are the top five countries with the largest total military expenditure.

Why is this question important? India’s rank has slipped five places to 141 this
year.

24. Which of the following was the objective ‘Spitzer Telescope’ of NAZA?

(a) To study the universe in the infrared.

(b) To study the universe in the visible light.
(c) To study the universe in the gamma-ray.
(d) To study the universe in the X-ray.

Ans: (a) To study the universe in the infrared.

Learning Zone: NASA’s Spitzer Space Telescope was launched in 2003 to study the
universe in the infrared. It is the last mission of the NASA Great Observatories
program, which saw four specialized telescopes (including the Hubble Space
Telescope) launched between 1990 and 2003.

Spitzer focuses on the infrared band, which normally represents heat radiation from
objects. The other observatories looked at visible light (Hubble, still operational),
gamma-rays (Compton Gamma-Ray Observatory, no longer operational) and X-rays
(the Chandra X-Ray Observatory, still operational.)

Spitzer was the first telescope to see light from a planet outside solar system By
2020, Spitzer space telescope will have operated for more than 11 years beyond its
prime mission.
20
Page
Why is this question important? Spitzer space telescope of NASA will be retired
on January 30, 2020. Spitzer is going to shut down permanently after about 16
years of exploring the cosmos in infrared light.

25. The One Health concept, often seen in news refers to

(a) The health of all humans in society are interdependent

21

(b) The government should provide free healthcare to every citizen

Page
 (c) Human health and animal health are interdependent and bound to the health
of the ecosystems in which they exist.
(d) A campaign for improving the health of mammals.

Ans: (c) Human health and animal health are interdependent and bound to
the health of the ecosystems in which they exist.

Learning Zone: The World Organization of Animal Health, commonly known as OIE
(an abbreviation of its French title), summarises the One Health concept as “human
health and animal health are interdependent and bound to the health of the
ecosystems in which they exist.''

Why is this question important? According to the OIE, 60% of existing human
infectious diseases are zoonotic i.e. they are transmitted from animals to humans;
75% of emerging infectious human diseases have an animal origin.

Of the five new human diseases appearing every year, three originate in animals.
80% of biological agents with potential bio-terrorist use are zoonotic pathogens.

26. In the context of ‘Dead Zone’ in ecology, consider the following

statements

1. It is high oxygen areas in the world's oceans and large lakes.

2. It is caused by excessive nutrient pollution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b) 2 only

22

Learning Zone: Dead zones are hypoxic (low-oxygen) areas in the world's oceans
and large lakes, caused by excessive nutrient pollution from human activities
Page
coupled with other factors that deplete the oxygen required to support most marine
life in bottom and near-bottom water.

Why is this question important? Scientists from the National Oceanic and
Atmospheric Administration and Louisiana State University have predicted that this
spring’s record rainfall would produce one of the largest-ever “dead zones” in the
Gulf of Mexico.

The dead zone in the Gulf of Mexico, fueled by the nutrient-laden water spilling from
the mouth of the Mississippi River, is the second-largest in the world.
It blooms every summer when warming waters accelerate the metabolism of
microorganisms, and it is expected to get even worse as the climate continues to
change.

27. ‘Operation Sunrise’ recently seen in news refers to which among the
following

(a) Anti - AIDS campaign in the North-East by the central government.

(b) Sun exploration mission of ISRO
(c) Hitting militant groups that are impacting both India and Myanmar.
(d) Initiative to increase the use of solar energy across the country.

Ans: (c) Hitting militant groups that are impacting both India and
Myanmar.

Learning Zone: Operation Sunrise: India-Myanmar target insurgent groups camps

in North East.

Named Operation Sunrise, the strategy is aimed at hitting militant groups that are
impacting both India and Myanmar.

It was carried out by the armies of India and Myanmar. In the operation, Other than
NSCN (K), the groups hit were Kamtapur Liberation Organisation (KLO), the United
Liberation Front of Assam, and the National Democratic Front of Bodoland (NDFB).
23
Page
Why is this question important? In February when the first phase of the
Operation Sunrise was launched, the trigger was a threat to the mega Kaladan
Project.

28. With reference to Bt Cotton, consider the following statements

1. It is the only GM crop allowed to be cultivated in the country.

2. ‘Cry1Ab’ is the herbicide-tolerant variety gene of Bt cotton.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a) 1 only

Learning Zone: Bt cotton remains the only GM crop allowed to be cultivated in the
country.

Developed by US giant Bayer-Monsanto, it involves the insertion of two genes viz

‘Cry1Ab’ and ‘Cry2Bc’ from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis into cotton seeds.
This modification codes the plant to produce a protein toxic to Heliothis bollworm
(pink bollworm) thus making it resistant to their attack(insecticidal effect). The
commercial release of this hybrid was sanctioned by the government in 2002.

Why is this question important? The farmers in Akola planted a herbicide-

tolerant variety of Bt cotton. This variety (HtBt) involves the addition of another
gene, ‘Cp4-Epsps’ from another soil bacterium, Agrobacterium tumefaciens.

It is not cleared by GEAC. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

The farmers claim that the HtBt variety can withstand the spray of glyphosate, a
herbicide that is used to remove weeds, and thus it substantially saves them de-
24

weeding costs.
Page
29. In the context of Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following
statements

1. Only the candidate of the ruling party or the party with the majority can be
the speaker of Lok Sabha.
2. It is the Speaker who decides the agenda of various discussions.
3. Speaker tenders his resignation to the Deputy Speaker.
25

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Page
 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b) 2 and 3 only

Learning Zone: Any member of Parliament is eligible to be nominated as a speaker

but most commonly the candidate of the ruling party or the party with the majority
wins this post.

However, there are certain cases when the elected Speaker does not belong to the
majority ruling party of Lok Sabha (G. M. C. Balyogi, Manohar Joshi, Somnath
Chatterjee).

It is the Speaker who decides the agenda of various discussions.

The speaker has the power to adjourn or suspend the house/meetings if the quorum
is not met. Speaker tenders his resignation to the Deputy Speaker.

Why is this question important? Om Birla has been named as the new Lok
Sabha Speaker by the NDA. He is elected Member of Parliament from Kota,
Rajasthan.

30. Which among the following best describes Forest landscape

restoration (FLR)?

(a) Process of regaining ecological functionality and enhancing human well-being

across degraded forest landscapes.
(b) Process of compensatory afforestation for the lost forest areas.
(c) process of regaining ecological functionality and converting the deforested
areas to forested.
(d) Process of increasing 5 per cent of forest land across the country.
26
Page
Ans: (a) process of regaining ecological functionality and enhancing
human well-being across degraded forest landscapes.

Learning Zone: Forest landscape restoration (FLR) is the on-going process of

regaining ecological functionality and enhancing human well-being across deforested
or degraded forest landscapes.

FLR is more than just planting trees – it is restoring a whole landscape to meet
present and future needs.

It is a long-term process because it requires a multi-year vision of the ecological

functions.

Why is this question important? The centre has launched a flagship project on
enhancing capacity on forest landscape restoration (FLR) and Bonn Challenge in
India, through a pilot phase of 3.5 years implemented in the States of Haryana,
Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Nagaland and Karnataka.

The Bonn Challenge is a global effort to bring 150 million hectares of the world’s
deforested and degraded land into restoration by 2020, and 350 million hectares by
2030.

31. With reference to the Regional Cooperation Agreement on Combating

Piracy and Armed Robbery against Ships in Asia (ReCAAP), consider the
following statements

1. Its headquarters is located in Singapore.

2. It is the first regional Government-to-Government agreement to deal with
piracy and armed robbery at sea in Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
27

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Page
Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: The ReCAAP is the first regional Government-to-Government

agreement to deal with piracy and armed robbery at sea in Asia.

Presently 20 countries are members of ReCAAP. India played an active role in the
setting up and functioning of ReCAAPISC along with Japan and Singapore.

Why is this question important? Indian Coast Guard (ICG) will be co-hosting
12th Capacity Building workshop with Regional Cooperation Agreement on
Combating Piracy and Armed Robbery against Ships in Asia (ReCAAP) Information
Sharing Centre (ISC).

32. With reference to ‘ AWaRe’, recently seen in the news, consider the
following statements

1. It is an initiative by UNICEF.
2. It is an online tool aimed at guiding policy-makers and health workers to
spread awareness about the usage of toilets.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Learning Zone: it was launched by WHO. It is an online tool aimed at guiding

policy-makers and health workers to use antibiotics safely and more effectively.

The tool, known as ‘AWaRe’, classifies antibiotics into three groups:

● Access — antibiotics used to treat the most common and serious infections.
● Watch — antibiotics available at all times in the healthcare system.
28

● Reserve — antibiotics to be used sparingly or preserved and used only as a

last resort.
Page
Why is this question important? WHO launches the tool for safer use of
antibiotics, curb resistance- AWaRe.

33. ‘ Defending In Numbers’, a report is often seen in the news, is related

to

(a) Human Rights

(b) Health
(c) Climate Change
(d) Trade among nations

Ans: (a) Human Rights

Learning Zone: The biennial report, titled Defending In Numbers, has been
released by the Asian Forum for Human Rights and Development (FORUM‐ASIA).
The report documented 688 cases of violations and abuses affecting 4,854 people —
including human rights organisations, local communities and media outlets — across
18 countries in the continent between 2017 and 2018.

Why is this question important? Asia continues to be a dangerous place for

defenders of human and environmental rights, even after 20 years of the United
Nations Declaration on Human rights defenders (HRDs).

Across Asia, HRDs are threatened, harassed, persecuted, and at times killed for
promoting and protecting human rights.

Fifty per cent of the total 688 cases in the year have been against those fighting for
the cause of democracy and access to land and environmental rights.

34. ‘Libra’, a cryptocurrency recently released by which among the

following

(a) Google
(b) Microsoft
29

(c) Facebook
(d) Mexico
Page
Ans: (c) Facebook

Learning Zone: Facebook has announced a digital currency called Libra that will
roll out for use in 2020 and allow the platform’s billions of users across the globe to
make financial transactions online.

Why is this question important? It is a digital asset built by Facebook and

powered by a new Facebook-created version of the blockchain, the encrypted
technology used by bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies.

35. Which among the following is not a role of the Financial Stability and
Development Council?

(a) It deals with issues relating to financial sector development, inter–regulatory

coordination.
(b) It deals with financial literacy and financial inclusion
(c) It supervises the functioning of large financial conglomerates.
(d) It meets daily to review the liquidity conditions so as to ensure that the
operating target of monetary policy

Ans: (d) It meets daily to review the liquidity conditions so as to ensure

that the operating target of monetary policy

Learning Zone: The Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) was
constituted in December 2010. The FSDC was set up to strengthen and
institutionalise the mechanism for maintaining financial stability, enhancing inter-
regulatory coordination and promoting financial sector development.

The Council deals, inter-alia, with issues relating to financial stability, financial sector
development, inter–regulatory coordination, financial literacy, financial inclusion and
macro-prudential supervision of the economy, including the functioning of large
financial conglomerates.

FSDC is not a statutory body. Its members are heads of financial sector regulatory
30

authorities (i.e, RBI, SEBI, IRDA, PFRDA), Finance Secretary and Secretary,
Department of Economic Affair; Secretary, Department of Financial Services, and
Page

Chief Economic Adviser.

It is the Financial Markets Committee (FMC) which meets daily to review the liquidity
conditions so as to ensure that the operating target of monetary policy (weighted
average lending rate) is kept close to the policy repo rate.

Why is this question important? FSDC meeting held recently was chaired by the
Union Finance Minister.

36. With reference to recently constituted Dispute Resolution Committee

(DRC) Mechanism for solar/wind sector, consider the following
statements

1. The upper age for the DRC members shall be 70 years.

2. The members of DRC shall be chosen from the eminent persons located in
NCR of Delhi.
3. For presenting the case before the DRC, no lawyers shall be permitted.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Learning Zone: A three-member Dispute Resolution Committee (DRC) will be set

up with the approval of Hon’ble Minister (NRE), consisting of eminent persons of
impeccable integrity.

The upper age for the DRC members shall be 70 years.

The Committee members of DRC shall be chosen from the eminent persons located
in NCR of Delhi so as to avoid expenditure on Air Travel & accommodation.
31

The recommendations of the ‘Dispute Resolution Committee’ (DRC) along with

MNRE’s observations, will be placed before Hon’ble Minister (NRE) for the final
Page
decision. The Ministry shall examine and put up such recommendations to Minister
(NRE) with the comments of IFD within twenty-one (21) days of receipt of
recommendations from the DRC.

To arrive at any decision, Committee will be free to interact with the relevant parties
of the case and shall record their views. For presenting the case before the DRC, no
lawyers shall be permitted.

Why is this question important? In a major decision to facilitate the solar and
wind energy projects, the government has approved a proposal to set up a Dispute
Resolution Committee to consider the unforeseen disputes between solar/wind
power developers and SECI/NTPC, beyond contractual agreement.

37. ‘Sirte Declaration’ often seen in the news, leads to the formation of
which among the following?

(a) BRICS
(b) African Union
(c) World Bank
(d) ASEAN

Ans: (b) African Union

Learning Zone: The AU was announced in the Sirte Declaration in Sirte, Libya on 9
September 1999, calling for the establishment of the African Union. The bloc was
founded on 26 May 2001 in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia and launched on 9 July 2002 in
South Africa.

The African Union replaced the Organisation of African Unity (OAU), established on
25 May 1963.

All UN member states based in Africa and on African waters are members of the AU.

Why is this question important? India has for the first time extended $15 Million
financial support to Niger as support for organising African Union (AU) summit
scheduled to be held in Niger. This will be the 1st time that Niger will be hosting an
32

AU summit.
Page
38. With reference to Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and
Numbers (ICANN), consider the following statements

1. It is a non-profit organization set up by the United Nations.

2. It oversees the administration of domain names.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b) 2 only

Learning Zone: The Internet Corporation of Assigned Names and Numbers

(ICANN) is a non-profit organization that was set up in 1998 to oversee the
administration of domain names. ICANN coordinates and ensures the smooth and
secure functioning of the cybernetic framework.

Although this global multi-stakeholder organization was created by the United States
(US) government since March 2016, ICANN is no longer overseen by the US
government.

Why is this question important? Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and
Numbers (ICANN) and NASSCOM (National Association of Software and Services
Companies) have announced a collaboration for working in developing standards
and identifier technology that will feed into the global consultation for managing
Internet-of-Things (IoT) devices and infrastructure using the internet.

39. ‘Hidden Hunger’, a term which often seen in the news is best defined
as

(a) The condition where malnutrition and obesity frequently co-exist in the same
33

people.
Page

(b) The condition where malnutrition exists in above poverty limit families.
 (c) It is a computer virus used for cyberwarfare.
(d) It a nuclear missile developed by China.

Ans: (a) The condition where malnutrition and obesity frequently co-exist
in the same people.

Learning Zone: In many countries, in both the global North and South,
malnutrition and obesity frequently co-exist in the same people. This is a condition
known as “hidden hunger”.

Why is this question important? These include poverty, inequality, urbanisation

and industrialisation of the food system. The interplay of these factors leaves low-
income households with very limited access to fresh, healthy foods. Instead, many
South Africans — and other people living in similar conditions — subsist on diets
high in sugar and processed starch. These diets contribute to increasing levels of
obesity.

40. With reference to the National Accreditation Board for Certification

Bodies (NABCB), consider the following statements

1. It is a constituent Board of Quality Council of India.

2. It facilitates the export of Indian services and skills into the world market by
attesting that persons are certified following international standards by the
certifying bodies.
3. Any person carrying ISO/IEC 17024 certificate with NABCB logo will be
recognized internationally.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
34

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Page
Learning Zone: NABCB, a constituent Board of Quality Council of India, an
autonomous body attached to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is responsible
for the accreditation of certification/inspection bodies as per applicable international
standards under an international system of equivalence.

NABCB signed the Mutual Recognition Arrangement (MRA) of the Asia Pacific
Accreditation Cooperation (APAC) for its accreditation programme based on
international standard, ISO/IEC 17024.

Any person carrying ISO/IEC 17024 certificate with NABCB logo will be recognized
internationally.

It can also be used by regulators for establishing confidence in certified personnel

for different activities.

Why is this question important? The National Accreditation Board for

Certification Bodies (NABCB), India’s national accreditation body, has secured
international equivalence for its accreditation programme for personnel certification
bodies.

With the above recognition, NABCB hopes to facilitate the export of Indian services
and skills into the world market by attesting that persons are certified following
international standards by the certifying bodies.

41. “back to the village”, recently seen in the news, is initiated in which
among the following State/UT?

(a) Jammu & Kashmir

(b) Delhi
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal

Ans: (a) Jammu & Kashmir

35
Page
Learning Zone: Under the program, the entire administrative apparatus of the
state government is going to visit all the 4483 Panchayat halqas to get the
grassroots level feedback from the general public.

The government has deployed one gazetted officer as nodal officer in each
panchayat halqa, who will interact with panchayat members, the general public to
get the general feedback.

Why is this question important? The program is primarily aimed at directing

development efforts in rural areas through community participation and to create in
the rural masses an earnest desire for a decent standard of living.

42. Consider the following statements with regard to UN Women

1. It was established along with the formation of the UN to accelerate progress

on meeting their needs worldwide.
2. It works to hold the UN system accountable for its own commitments on
gender equality, including regular monitoring of system-wide progress.
3. It provides financial support to member countries that request it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b) 2 and 3 only

Learning Zone: It is the UN entity dedicated to gender equality and the

empowerment of women. It was established in 2010 to accelerate progress on
meeting their needs worldwide. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

The main roles of UN Women are:

36

● To support inter-governmental bodies, such as the Commission on the Status

of Women, in their formulation of policies, global standards and norms.
Page
 ● To help the Member States to implement these standards, standing ready to
provide suitable technical and financial support to those countries that
request it, and to forge effective partnerships with civil society.
● To hold the UN system accountable for its own commitments on gender
equality, including regular monitoring of system-wide progress.

Union Ministry of Home Affairs in collaboration with UN Women launched an

awareness campaign to end violence against women. As part of the campaign a
‘UNITE to end violence against women,’ a metro was flagged off from Sultanpur
railway station.

Why is this question important? United Nations Secretary-General (UNSG)

recently appointed Indian-origin Anita Bhatia as Deputy Executive Director of United
Nations Entity for Gender Equality and the Empowerment of Women (UN-Women)
for Resource Management, Sustainability and Partnerships.

43. With regard to recently released IMD World Competitiveness

Rankings, consider the following statements

1. It is used to evaluate a country’s ability to foster an environment where

enterprises can achieve desirable sustainable growth, generate employment
and increase its citizen’s welfare.
2. India increased its ranking this year compared to the previous year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: It is started in 1989, the report ranks 63 economies on 235

indicators which are incorporated from each of these economies.
37
Page
The indicators are used to evaluate a country’s ability to foster an environment
where enterprises can achieve desirable sustainable growth, generate employment
and increase its citizen’s welfare.

IMD takes into account a wide range of statistics and hard data such as
unemployment, GDP and government spending on health and education as well as
soft data from an international business executive opinion survey on topics such as
social cohesion, globalisation and corruption.

India has moved up one place to rank 43rd (Previously: 44th position in 2018, 45th
in 2017 and 41st in 2016.)

This improved rank is a result of India’s robust economic growth, a large labour
force and its huge market size.

Why is this question important? The 2019 edition of the International Institute
for Management Development (IMD) Business School World Competitiveness
Rankings has been released recently.

44. Which among the following statements is/are true regarding ‘

Population Research Centres (PRCs)’?

1. It works under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

2. They are provided 100 per cent central assistance in the form of grant-in-aid
on a year-to-year basis.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b) 2 only

38
Page
Learning Zone: The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) established a
network of Population Research Centres (PRCs) with the mandate to provide, inter
alia, critical research-based inputs related to the Health and Family Welfare
Programs and Policies at the national and state levels. Hence statement 1 is
incorrect.

Their main role is to undertake research projects relating to family planning,

demographic research and biological studies & qualitative aspect of population
control, with a view to gainfully utilize the feedback from these research studies for
plan formulation, strategies and modifications of ongoing schemes.

Autonomous in their functioning, these PRCs are provided 100 per cent central
assistance in the form of grant-in-aid on a year-to-year basis.

Why is this question important? Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW)
recently organized a two-day orientation workshop for Population Research Centres
(PRCs) to highlight various features of the Health Ministry’s flagship schemes and for
their concurrent monitoring.

45. With regard to the recently implemented pension scheme for small
retail traders and shopkeepers by the central government, consider the
following statements

1. All small shopkeepers, retail traders and self-employed persons have assured
a minimum of Rs.3,000 monthly pension after attaining 60 years of age.
2. The scheme is based on self-declaration as no documents are required except
bank account and Aadhaar Card.
3. The subscriber need not pay any premium amount for the scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
39
Page
Ans: (a) 1 and 2 only

Learning Zone: Under the scheme, all small shopkeepers, retail traders and self-
employed persons have assured a minimum of Rs.3,000 monthly pension after
attaining 60 years of age.

Eligibility: All small shopkeepers, self-employed persons and retail traders aged
between 18-40 years and with Goods and Service Tax (GST) turnover below Rs.1.5
crore can enrol for the pension scheme.

The scheme is based on self-declaration as no documents are required except bank

account and Aadhaar Card.

The Central Government will make a matching contribution (same amount as

subscriber contribution) i.e. equal amount as subsidy into subscriber’s pension
account every month. Hence the statement 3 is incorrect.

Why is this question important? The Union Cabinet has approved a monthly
pension scheme for small retail traders and shopkeepers. The scheme that offers
pension coverage to the trading community will cover 3 crore small retail traders and
shop keepers.

46. Which among the following statements is not true regarding e-

cigarette?

(a) It is a is a battery-powered vaporizer that mimics tobacco smoking.

(b) Propylene glycol is the ingredient that produces thicker clouds of vapour.
(c) In India, it is regulated under Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products
(Prohibition of Advertisement and Regulation of Trade and Commerce,
Production, Supply and Distribution) Act, 2003 (COTPA).
(d) E-cigarette emits nicotine, the addictive component of tobacco products.

Ans: (c) In India it is regulated under Cigarettes and Other Tobacco

Products (Prohibition of Advertisement and Regulation of Trade and
Commerce, Production, Supply and Distribution) Act, 2003 (COTPA).
40
Page
Learning Zone: An electronic cigarette (or e-cig) is a battery-powered vaporizer
that mimics tobacco smoking. It works by heating up a nicotine liquid, called “juice.”
Nicotine juice (or e-juice) comes in various flavours and nicotine levels. e-liquid is
composed of five ingredients: vegetable glycerin (a material used in all types of food
and personal care products, like toothpaste) and propylene glycol (a solvent most
commonly used in fog machines.) propylene glycol is the ingredient that produces
thicker clouds of vapour.

As e-cigarettes contain nicotine and not tobacco, they do not fall within the ambit of
the Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products (Prohibition of Advertisement and
Regulation of Trade and Commerce, Production, Supply and Distribution) Act, 2003
(COTPA), which mandates stringent health warnings on the packaging and
advertisements of tobacco products.

As per the WHO report, Electronic Nicotine Delivery Systems (ENDS) (also known as
e-cigarettes) emits nicotine, the addictive component of tobacco products. In
addition to dependence, nicotine can have adverse effects on the development of
the foetus during pregnancy and may contribute to cardiovascular disease.

Why is this question important? The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
has recommended ‘complete’ ban on Electronic Nicotine Delivery Systems (ENDS),
including e-cigarettes. The recommendation is based on currently available scientific
evidence.

47. With regard to recently constituted ‘Jal Shakti’ ministry, consider the
following statements

1. It has been created by the merger of Ministries of Water Resources, River

Development & Ganga Rejuvenation along with Drinking Water and
Sanitation.
2. The ministry will roll out the government’s ambitious plans to provide piped
water connections to every household in India by 2024.
3. It will address international and inter-state water disputes and the Namami
Gange project which is the flagship initiative to clean the river Ganga.
41

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Page
 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Learning Zone: The Centre has created a new Ministry called ‘Jal Shakti’.
It has been created by the merger of Ministries of Water Resources, River
Development & Ganga Rejuvenation along with Drinking Water and Sanitation.
‘Nal se Jal’ scheme to provide piped drinking water to every household will be a
component of the government’s Jal Jivan Mission.

It will also address international and inter-state water disputes and the Namami
Gange project which is the flagship initiative to clean the River Ganga, its tributaries
and sub-tributaries.

Jal Ministry’s priority will be to provide clean drinking water to everyone.

Why is this question important? The ministry will roll out the government’s
ambitious plans to provide piped water connections to every household in India by
2024.

48. With respect to the National Defence Fund (NDF), consider the
following statements

1. It is created by mandatory contributions by all the employees of Armed

forces.
2. The fund is administered by an Executive Committee with the Prime Minister
as the Chairperson and the Defence, Finance and Home Ministers as
Members.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
42

(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Page
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b) 2 only

Learning Zone: NDF was set up in 1962. It was meant to take charge of voluntary
donations (in cash and kind) received for promotion of national defence effort, and
also to decide on their utilisation. National Defence Fund also accepts online
voluntary contributions.

The Fund is used for the welfare of the members of the Armed Forces (including
Para Military Forces) and their dependents.

The Fund is administered by an Executive Committee, with PM as Chairperson, and

Defence, Finance and Home Ministers as Members. Finance Minister is the Treasurer
of the Fund and the Joint Secretary, PMO dealing with the subject is Secretary of the
Executive Committee.

Why is this question important? A major change has been brought about in the
‘Prime Minister’s Scholarship Scheme’ under the National Defence Fund. Scholarships
increase from ₹2,000 to ₹2,500 a month for boys and from ₹2,250 to ₹3,000 a
month for girls.

The ambit of the scheme was widened to cover the wards of State police officials
martyred in terror or Naxal attacks. New scholarships are given to 5,500 wards of
armed forces personnel, 2,000 wards of paramilitary forces personnel and 150 wards
of forces under the Railways Ministry every year.

49. Which among the following is/are true regarding ‘QUAD’ countries
often seen in the news?

1. Its secretariat is located at Melbourne.

2. The idea was first mooted by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe in 2007.
3. All quad members are democratic countries.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

43

(a) 1 and 2 only

Page
 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b) 2 and 3 only

Learning Zone: Regional coalition which is known as the ‘Quad’, the quadrilateral
formation includes Japan, India, United States and Australia.

All four nations find a common ground of being the democratic nations and common
interests of unhindered maritime trade and security.

The idea was first mooted by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe in 2007. However,
the idea couldn’t move ahead with Australia pulling out of it.

The Quad does not have a secretariat yet.

Why is this question important? The fourth edition of the Quadrilateral meet
among India, Japan, Australia and the United States, after it was revived in
November 2017, was held recently at Bangkok, Thailand.

50. With regard to the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation countries

(OIC), consider the following statements

1. It is the second-largest intergovernmental organization after the United

Nations.
2. The OIC has permanent delegations to the United Nations and the European
Union.
3. India is a member of OIC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

44

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only
Page
 (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a) 1 and 2 only

Learning Zone: Organisation of Islamic Cooperation is an international organization

founded in 1969, consisting of 57 member states.

It is the second-largest inter-governmental organization after the United Nations.

The organisation states that it is “the collective voice of the Muslim world” and works
to “safeguard and protect the interests of the Muslim world in the spirit of promoting
international peace and harmony“.

The OIC has permanent delegations to the United Nations and the European Union.
Permanent Secretariat is in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia.
India is not a member of OIC.

Why is this question important? The 14th summit of the Organisation of Islamic
Cooperation (OIC) was held in Mecca, Saudi Arabia. The agenda of the meeting was
to address ‘current issues in the Muslim world’ and ‘recent developments in a
number of OIC member states.

51. With reference to Nipah Virus recently seen in the news, consider the
following statements

1. It is a virus infection that transmits from animals to human.

2. At present no vaccines are available for both humans and animals to cure
Nipah.
3. Recently an outbreak of Nipah has occurred in the State of Assam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
45

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
Page
Ans: (a) 1 and 2 only

Learning Zone: According to the WHO, the Nipah virus infection is a newly
emerging zoonosis, that is, a disease transmitted from animals to humans. The virus
belongs to a new genus termed Henipavirus (subfamily Paramyxovirinae).

The natural host of the virus is fruit bats belonging to the family Pteropodidae. In
2004, humans were affected after eating the date palm contaminated by infected
fruit bats. Pigs can also act as intermediate hosts.

Currently, there are no vaccines for both humans and animals. Intensive supportive
care is given to humans infected by Nipah virus.

According to WHO, ribavirin can reduce the symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and
convulsions associated with the disease. Individuals infected need to be hospitalised
and isolated.

Why is this question important? The deadly Nipah Virus has resurfaced in Kerala
recently.

52. With regard to ‘Financial Literacy Week’, consider the following

statements

1. It is an annual initiative by the Ministry of Finance.

2. The theme of Financial Literacy Week 2019 is ‘Farmers’.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b) 2 only

46
Page
Learning Zone: It is an annual initiative by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to
promote awareness of key topics through a focused campaign.
The aim of the initiative is to create awareness about financial products and
services, good financial practices, going digital and consumer protection.

Why is this question important? The theme of Financial Literacy Week 2019 is
‘Farmers’ which focuses on how they can benefit by being a part of the formal
banking system.

53. With regard to the Jan Shikshan Sansthan scheme, consider the
following statements

1. It provides vocational training to non-literate, neo-literate, as well as school

dropouts.
2. They were formerly known as Shramik Vidyapeeth.
3. It works under Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Learning Zone: Formerly under the Ministry of Human Resources Development,

Jan Shikshan Sansthan was transferred to the Ministry of Skill Development &
Entrepreneurship in 2018.

Jan Shikshan Sansthan (JSS) was established to provide vocational training to non-
literate, neo-literate, as well as school dropouts by identifying skills as would have a
market in the region of their establishment.

They were formerly known as Shramik Vidyapeeth. The JSS is unique, they link
47

literacy with vocational skills and provide large doses of Life Enrichment Education
(LEE) to the people.
Page
Why is this question important? The Ministry of Skill Development and
Entrepreneurship has decided to waive off fee for SC/ST candidates who join
vocational training under Jan Shikshan Sansthan (JSS).

54. Consider the following statements

1. If a person is elected simultaneously to both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha, he
48

can choose, within 10 days on the house of which he would like to be a

member.
Page
 2. If a person who is already a member of one House and has contested the
election for membership of the other House, he can choose, within 10 days
on the house of which he would like to be a member.
3. If an individual contest from two parliamentary constituencies and if elected
from both, he has to resign one seat within 14 days of the declaration of the
result, failing which both his seats shall fall vacant.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c) 1 and 3 only

Learning Zone: If a person is elected simultaneously to both Rajya Sabha and Lok
Sabha, and if he has not yet taken his seat in either House, he can choose, within 10
days from the later of the dates on which he is chosen to those Houses, the House
of which he would like to be a member.

No such option is, however, available to a person who is already a member of one
House and has contested the election for membership of the other House. So, if a
sitting Rajya Sabha member contests and wins a Lok Sabha election, his seat in the
Upper House becomes automatically vacant on the date he is declared elected to Lok
Sabha. The same applies to a Lok Sabha member who contests an election to Rajya
Sabha. Hence the second statement is incorrect.

Under Sec 33(7) of RPA, 1951, an individual can contest from two parliamentary
constituencies but, if elected from both, he has to resign one seat within 14 days of
the declaration of the result, failing which both his seats shall fall vacant.

Why is this question important? Some of those who won in the recent elections
were elected from more than one constituency; some were already members of
either Rajya Sabha or the legislature of a state. These MPs must vacate one of their
49

seats — because, under the Constitution, an individual cannot simultaneously be a

Page
member of both Houses of Parliament (or a state legislature), or both Parliament
and a state legislature, or represent more than one seat in the House.

55. Which among the following publishes State of India’s Environment

2019 report?

1. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

2. Down To Earth
3. Centre for Science and Environment (CSE)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b) 2 and 3 only

Learning Zone: The State of India’s Environment 2019 in Figures is an exclusive
data-driven analysis of major developmental and environmental sectors. SoE 2019 in
Figures is an annual quantified statement of environmental statistics and analysis
put together by Down To Earth magazine, which Centre for Science and
Environment (CSE) helps publish.

Why is this question important? The datasets can be used by the media to
investigate compelling stories, ask better questions to policymakers to drive them to
come up with better policies for sustainable development agenda.

56. With regard to Cabinet committees, consider the following statements

1. Cabinet committees are extra-constitutional in nature.

2. People without the rank of the cabinet cannot take part in it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

50

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Page
 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a) 1 only

Learning Zone: The Cabinet Committee are organizations which are instrumental
in reducing the workload of the Cabinet. These committees are extra-constitutional
in nature and are nowhere mentioned in the Constitution.

These are permanent in nature with a specific job. The Cabinet Ministers are called
its ‘members’ while the people without the rank of Cabinet Committee are called
‘special invitees’.

Why is this question important? The composition of a Cabinet Committee varies

from 3 to 8 people. Even Ministers who are not the part of the Cabinet can be added
to a Cabinet Committee. Usually, each cabinet committee has at least one Cabinet
Minister. The members of the Cabinet Committee can be from both the Lok Sabha
and the Rajya Sabha.

57. In the context of ‘Economic census’, consider the following statements

1. It is launched in 1976 as a plan scheme.

2. It has been undertaken in every 10 years in the country.
3. It is been conducted by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (C) 1 and 3

51

Learning Zone: Economic census is launched in 1976 as a plan scheme.

Page
All entrepreneurial units in the country which are involved in any economic activities
of either agricultural or non-agricultural sector which are engaged in production
and/or distribution of goods and/or services, not for the sole purpose of own
consumption.

It provides detailed information on operational and other characteristics such as the

number of establishments, number of persons employed, source of finance, type of
ownership etc.

Economic Census Year

First Economic Census 1977
Second Economic Census 1980
Third Economic Census 1990
Fourth Economic Census 1998
Fifth Economic Census 2005
Sixth Economic Census 2013

.
Why is this question important? The 7th Economic Census -2019 is being
conducted by MoSPI to provide disaggregated information on various operational
and structural aspects of all establishments in the country.

MoSPI has partnered with Common Service Centres, CSC e-Governance Services
India Limited, a Special Purpose Vehicle under the MEITY as the implementing
agency.

58. In the context of India’s first trading programme to combat

particulate air pollution-the emission trading scheme (ETS), consider the
following statements

1. It is a market-based system where the government sets a cap on emissions.

2. It allows Industries to buy permits whereas selling of permits can only be
done by the government.
3. It is first introduced in the state of Haryana.
52

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Page
 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a) 1 only

Learning Zone: It is a market-based system where the government sets a cap on

emissions and allows industries to buy and sell permits to stay below the cap.
It is being initiated in Surat by the Gujarat Pollution Control Board (GPCB).
Gujarat programme is the first in the world to regulate particulate air pollution.

Why is this question important? Gujarat has launched India’s first trading
programme to combat particulate air pollution-the emission trading scheme (ETS) –
on World Environment Day 2019, which has air pollution as its theme.

59. Which among the following is/are reasons for India becoming a
lowest-cost producer of solar power?

1. Improved asset utilization.

2. Indigenous hardware production.
3. Cheap cost of land and labour.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b) 1 and 3 only

Learning Zone: India has high solar potential that leads to improved asset
utilization.
53

The country imports the majority of hardware for installation from China which is
cheaper and helps cut the cost by a huge margin. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Page
As the cost of land and labour is cheaper than the rest of the world, it also
contributes to the low-cost production of solar power in India.

Why is this question important? International Renewable Energy Agency

(IRENA) has released a report titled ‘Renewable Power Generation Costs in 2018’. It
finds that India is now the lowest-cost producer of solar power globally. total
installed costs of utility-scale solar PV in India is as low as $793 per kilowatt (kW) in
2018 which is 27 per cent lower than for projects commissioned in 2017. Costs have
dropped by 80 per cent in India.

Canada has the highest cost of $2,427 per kW.

60. With regard to the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA),

consider the following statements

1. It is the first international organisation to focus exclusively on renewable

energy.
2. Its headquarters is located in Beijing.
3. It is an official observer to the United Nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c) 1 and 3 only

Learning Zone: It is an intergovernmental organisation mandated to facilitate

cooperation, advance knowledge, and promote the adoption and sustainable use of
renewable energy.

It was founded in 2009 & its statute entered into force on 8 July 2010 and is
54

headquartered in Masdar City, Abu Dhabi.

Page
IRENA is an official United Nations observer.

Why is this question important? It is the first international organisation to focus

exclusively on renewable energy, addressing needs in both industrialized and
developing countries.

61. In India, Rule 49MA, often seen in the news is related to:

(a) Parliamentary proceedings

(b) Voter Verified Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT)
(c) Child abuse
(d) Electric Vehicle

Ans: (b) Voter Verified Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT)

Learning Zone: Rule 49MA is mentioned under ‘The Conduct of Elections Rules’.
Under the rule, where printer for paper trail is used, if an elector after having
recorded his vote under rule 49M alleges that the paper slip generated by the printer
has shown the name or symbol of a candidate other than the one he voted for, the
presiding officer shall obtain a written declaration from the elector as to the
allegation, after warning the elector about the consequence of making a false
declaration.

The rules outline that if after investigation, the allegation of EVM malfunctioning is
found to be false or incorrect, then the complainant can be prosecuted under
Section 177 of the Indian Penal Code for “furnishing false information”.
In such a case, a jail term of six months or a fine of Rs 1,000 or both are
guaranteed.

Why is this question important? The Election Commission may “revisit” the rule
for the prosecution of a voter for making a false complaint of malfunction of an
electronic voting machine or a voter-verifiable paper audit trail machines- Rule
49MA.
55
Page
62. Which among the following is not an objective of Competition
Commission of India?

(a) To promote and sustain competition in markets.

(b) To protect the interests of consumers.
(c) To protect the interests of farmers.
(d) To ensure freedom of trade.
56
Page
Ans: (c) To protect the interests of farmers

Learning Zone: It is a statutory body of the Government of India, responsible for

enforcing the Competition Act, 2002 throughout India and to prevent activities that
have an adverse effect on competition.

It does not have in its objective to protect the interests of farmers per se.

Objectives of the Commission:

● To prevent practices having an adverse effect on competition.

● To promote and sustain competition in markets.
● To protect the interests of consumers.
● To ensure freedom of trade.

Why is this question important? It is the duty of the Commission to eliminate

practices having an adverse effect on competition, promote and sustain competition,
protect the interests of consumers and ensure freedom of trade in the markets of
India.

The Commission is also required to give opinions on competition issues on a

reference received from a statutory authority established under any law and to
undertake competition advocacy, create public awareness and impart training on
competition issues.

63. With respect to Fixed Dose Drugs (FDC), consider the following
statements

1. FDC’s has increased efficacy, better compliance and reduced cost.

2. Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation gives approval for FDC’s in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
57

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Page
Ans: (C) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: FDC drugs are drugs having two or more active ingredients in a
single dosage. They are widely used to increase patient’s compliance it is easy for
them to take one drug than several.

FDCs’ popularity in India is due to advantages such as increased efficacy, better

compliance, reduced cost and simpler logistics of distribution. FDCs have shown to
be particularly useful in the treatment of infectious diseases like HIV, malaria and
tuberculosis, were giving multiple antimicrobial agents is the norm. FDCs are also
useful for chronic conditions especially when multiple disorders co-exist.

As of April, the CDSCO had approved 1,288 FDCs. This is disproportionately high
compared with the availability in a tightly regulated market like USFDA, which has
only a few hundred approved FDCs.

The problem of unapproved FDCs mainly affects those who get treated in the private
sector. In the absence of a strong pharmacovigilance mechanism in India, there is
no data on adverse events of these unapproved FDCs.

Why is this question important? A drug advisory body sub-committee has asked
pharmaceutical companies to prove that 324 combination medicines are safe and
effective for patients to consume in order to decide whether these drugs should
continue to be sold in India.

64. New START treaty, often seen in news is between which among the
following?

(a) India - UAE

(b) The US - Russia
(c) The US - IRAN
(d) US-North Korea

Ans: (b) the US - Russia

58
Page
Learning Zone: It is a nuclear arms reduction treaty between the United States
and the Russian Federation with the formal name of Measures for the Further
Reduction and Limitation of Strategic Offensive Arms.

It was signed on 8 April 2010 in Prague, and, after ratification entered into force on
5 February 2011.

New START replaced the Treaty of Moscow (SORT), which was due to expire on
December 2012. Its name is a follow-up to the START I treaty, which expired on
December 2009, the proposed START II treaty, which never entered into force, and
the START III treaty, for which negotiations were never concluded.

Why is this question important? Russia has warned that it was prepared to drop
the New START treaty with the U.S. and warned of “global catastrophe” if
Washington keeps dismantling a global arms control regime.

It alleged that Washington showed no genuine interest in conducting talks on

extending the New START treaty, which caps the number of nuclear warheads well
below Cold War limits.

65. In the context of Shanta Kumar Committee on restructuring FCI,

consider the following statements

1. It recommended increasing the number of beneficiaries under the Food

Security Act.
2. It recommended allowing private players to procure and store food grains.
3. It recommended for the deregulation of the fertiliser sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
59

Ans: (a) 2 and 3 only

Page
Learning Zone:
Important Recommendations of the committee are
● Reduce the number of beneficiaries under the Food Security Act—from the
current 67 per cent to 40 per cent.
● Allow private players to procure and store food grains.
● Stop bonuses on minimum support price (MSP) paid by states to farmers, and
adopt cash transfer system so that MSP and food subsidy amounts can be
directly transferred to the accounts of farmers and food security beneficiaries.
● FCI should involve itself in full-fledged grains procurement only in those
states which are poor in procurement.
● Abolishing levy rice: Under levy rice policy, the government buys a certain
percentage of rice (varies from 25 to 75 per cent in states) from the mills
compulsorily, which is called levy rice. Mills are allowed to sell only the
remainder in the open market.
● Deregulate fertiliser sector and provide cash fertiliser subsidy of Rs 7,000 per
hectare to farmers.
● Outsource of stocking of grains.
● Clear and transparent liquidation policy for buffer stock.

Why is this question important? Union Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and
Public Distribution, Shri Ram Vilas Paswan lays down the future roadmap for Food
Corporation of India (FCI).

He stated that primacy will be given to ensuring that the functioning of FCI is
streamlined and fast-paced as per recommendations of the Shanta Kumar
Committee.

66. As per the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010

1. FCRA registration has to be renewed by an organization in every 5 years.

2. Only 75 per cent on the proportion of the foreign funds received could be
used for administrative expenses.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

60

(a) 1 only
Page
 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a) 1 only

Learning Zone: FCRA registration under the earlier law was permanent, but under
the new one, it expired after five years and had to be renewed afresh. Through this
measure, the state can teach a lesson to any NGO which acts against its interests.

The new law put a restriction (50 per cent) on the proportion of foreign funds that
could be used for administrative expenses, thereby allowing the government to
control how a civil society organisation (CSO) spends its money
The following cannot accept Foreign Contributions:
● Election candidate
● MPs/MLAs
● Newspaper-walla: Correspondent, columnist, cartoonist, editor, owner, printer
or publishers of a registered Newspaper.
● Public Servants: Judge, government servant or employee of any Corporation
or any other body controlled on owned by the Government.

As per new rules, Every member of an NGO must now, under oath, through an
affidavit, certify that they have never been involved in “diverting” foreign funds or
propagating “sedition” or “advocating violent means”.

It is mandatory for the office bearers and key functionaries and members of the
NGOs to certify that they have not been “prosecuted or convicted” for “conversion”
from one faith to another and for creating “communal tension and disharmony.

Why is this question important? The Home Ministry has warned NGOs, who
have changed their office-bearers and key functionaries without informing the
Ministry, with penal action, if they fail to do so within a month.

67. Which among the following is not a benefit enjoyed by ‘National

Political Party of India’ according to Election Commission of India?
61
Page
 (a) They get broadcast/telecast facilities over Akashvani/Doordarshan during
general elections.
(b) A recognized National or State party can have a maximum of 40 “Star
campaigners” and a registered unrecognised party can nominate a maximum
of 20 ‘Star Campaigners”.
(c) It is entitled to exclusive allotment of its reserved symbol to the candidates
set up by it throughout India.
(d) The election expenses of such parties need to be submitted only within the
expiry of a year after the election result whereas others have to submit before
the expiry of six months.

Ans: (d) The election expenses of such parties need to be submitted only
within the expiry of a year after the election result whereas others have to
submit before the expiry of six months.

Learning Zone:
● If a party is recognised as a State Party’, it is entitled for exclusive allotment
of its reserved symbol to the candidates set up by it in the State in which it is
so recognised, and if a party is recognised as a `National Party’ it is entitled
for exclusive allotment of its reserved symbol to the candidates set up by it
throughout India.
● Recognised `State’ and `National’ parties need only one proposer for filing
the nomination and are also entitled to two sets of electoral rolls free of cost
at the time of revision of rolls and their candidates get one copy of electoral
roll free of cost during General Elections.
● They also get broadcast/telecast facilities over Akashvani/Doordarshan during
general elections.
● Political parties are entitled to nominate “Star Campaigners” during General
Elections. A recognized National or State party can have a maximum of 40
“Star campaigners” and a registered un-recognised party can nominate a
maximum of 20 ‘Star Campaigners”.
● The travel expenses of star campaigners are not to be accounted for in the
election expense accounts of candidates of their party.
● All registered political parties have to submit a statement of their election
expenditure to the Election Commission within 90 days of the completion of
62

the Lok Sabha elections. Hence (d) is wrong.

Page
Why is this question important? The Election Commission of India has declared
the National People’s Party as a national party. This made the NPP, formed in 2013,
the first from the north-eastern region to earn the tag.

The NPP is recognised as a State party in Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya

and Nagaland.

68. With reference to Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA), often seen in the

news, consider the following statements

1. It is a part of Project Sashakt to recover banks and stressed companies.

2. It is aimed at the resolution of loan accounts with a size of Rs. 50 crore and
above with a single lender.
3. The agreement is based on a recommendation by the Sunil Mehta committee.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only

Ans: (a) 1 and 3 only

Learning Zone: The agreement is part of the proposed Project Sashakt.

“Sashakt” plan is approved by the government to address the problem of resolving
bad loans.

The objective is to use this ICA for faster facilitation of resolution of stressed assets.
It is aimed at the resolution of loan accounts with a size of Rs. 50 crore and above
that are under the control of a group of lenders. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Why is this question important? Following the quashing of its ‘revised

framework for resolution of stressed assets’ by the Supreme Court in April, the
Reserve Bank of India has issued a ‘prudential framework for resolution of stressed
63

assets’ recently.
Page
69. National Strategy for Wellbeing 2031, has recently been adopted by
which among the following?

(a) China
(b) Myanmar
(c) Bhutan
(d) UAE

Ans: (d) UAE

Learning Zone: The United Arab Emirates (UAE) Cabinet has adopted a National
Strategy for Wellbeing 2031.

To make UAE a world leader in quality of life by undertaking various strategic

objectives and initiatives.

To promote an integrated concept of wellbeing, thereby supporting the vision of UAE

Vision 2021 and UAE Centennial 2071.

It includes 14 key areas and 9 strategic objectives, which includes enhancing

people’s wellbeing by promoting healthy & active lifestyles and good mental health
and adopting positive thinking.

Under the strategy, 90 new projects will be launched that will target more than 40
priority areas and will improve physical, psychological and digital health of future
generations.

Why is this question important? The United Arab Emirates (UAE) Cabinet has
adopted a National Strategy for Wellbeing 2031.

70. With reference to Pacific Ring of fire, consider the following

statements

1. The Ring of Fire is the result from subduction of oceanic tectonic plates
64

beneath the lighter continental plates.

Page
 2. Tectonic plates usually only move on average a few centimetres each year,
but when an earthquake strikes, they speed up massively and can move at
several metres per second.
3. Three of the world’s four most active volcanoes is situated in this region.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Learning Zone: The Ring of Fire is a Pacific region home to over 450 volcanoes,
including three of the world’s four most active volcanoes – Mount St. Helens in the
USA, Mount Fuji in Japan and Mount Pinatubo in the Philippines. It is also sometimes
called the circum-Pacific belt.

Around 90% of the world’s earthquakes occur in the Ring of Fire, and 80% of the
world’s largest earthquakes.

The Ring of Fire is the result from subduction of oceanic tectonic plates beneath
lighter continental plates. The area where these tectonic plates meet is called a
subduction zone.

As energy is released from the earth’s molten core, it forces tectonic plates to move
and they crash up against each other, causing friction. The friction causes a build-up
of energy and when this energy is finally released it causes an earthquake. If this
happens at sea it can cause devastating tsunamis.

Tectonic plates usually only move on average a few centimetres each year, but
when an earthquake strikes, they speed up massively and can move at several
metres per second.
65
Page
Why is this question important? Mount Sinabung volcano recently erupted. It is
located in Sumatra Island, western Indonesia. It had erupted in 2010 for the first
time in the past 400 years.

71. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the draft
National Education Policy (NEP), recently released?

1. It aims to cover the three years of preschool before Class 1.

2. It wants early childhood education to be overseen and regulated by the
Ministry of Women and Child Development.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a) 1 only

Learning Zone: It proposes an expansion of the RTE Act. It aims to cover the three
years of preschool before Class 1.

It wants early childhood education to be overseen and regulated by the Ministry of

HRD as part of the school system.

This will be in addition to the private pre-schools and the anganwadis that currently
cater to the 3-to-6 years, age group.

It suggests a new integrated curricular framework for 3 to 8-year olds with a flexible
system based on play, activity and discovery, and beginning exposure to three
languages from age 3 onwards.

Why is this question important? The NEP could result in an upheaval in the
Anganwadi system which has been overseen by the Ministry of WCD for more than
66

four decades.
Page
72. India recently signed a deal to procure SPICE 2000 guided bombs with
which among the following country?

(a) Russia
(b) Israel
(c) US
(d) France

Ans: (b) Israel

Learning Zone: The SPICE stands for Smart, Precise Impact and Cost-Effective. It
is guidance and manoeuvring kit manufactured by Israel’s Rafael Advanced Defense
Systems.

SPICE can overcome errors in locating the target, GPS jamming and also reduces
collateral damage.

Why is this question important? Indian Air Force (IAF) has signed a deal with
Israel’s Rafael Advanced Defense Systems, an Israeli defence firm to procure a batch
of SPICE 2000 guided bombs.

73. With reference to emission standards, What is/are the

difference/differences between BS-IV and the new BS-VI?

1. BS-VI has absolutely no sulphur content in it compared to BS-IV.

2. In BS-VI the emission of NOx (nitrogen oxides) from diesel cars is expected to
reduce by nearly 70% and 25% from cars with petrol engines compared to
BS-IV.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
67

Ans: (b) 2 only

Page
Learning Zone: The major difference in standards between the existing BS-IV and
the new BS-VI auto fuel norms is the presence of sulphur.

The newly introduced fuel is estimated to reduce the amount of sulphur released by
80%, from 50 parts per million to 10 ppm. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

As per the analysts, the emission of NOx (nitrogen oxides) from diesel cars is also
expected to reduce by nearly 70% and 25% from cars with petrol engines.

Why is this question important? International Centre for Automotive Technology

(ICAT) has released India’s first Type Approval Certificate (TAC) for Bharat Stage –
VI (BS-VI) norms for the two-wheeler segment.

Last year, The ICAT issued the approval for BS-VI norms to M/s Volvo Eicher
Commercial Vehicles for the Heavy Commercial Vehicle segment which was also the
first in its segment in India.

74. Which among the following is/are considered as Reciprocal trade

agreements (RTAs)?

1. Preferential arrangements
2. Free trade agreements
3. Customs unions
4. Common markets

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

68

Learning Zone: Countries use bilateral/regional trade agreements to increase

market access and expand trade in foreign markets. These agreements are called
Page
reciprocal trade agreements (RTAs) because members grant special advantages to
each other.

Why is this question important? RTAs include many types of agreements, such
as preferential arrangements, free trade agreements, customs unions, and common
markets, in which members agree to open their markets to each other’s exports by
lowering trade barriers.

75. In the context of The Samadhi Buddha, consider the following

statements

1. It is situated in Mahamevnāwa Park in Anuradhapura, Sri Lanka.

2. Buddha is depicted in the position of the Abhaya Mudra here.
3. The posture here is associated with his first Enlightenment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c) 1 and 3 only

Learning Zone: The Samadhi Buddha is a famous statue situated at Mahamevnāwa

Park in Anuradhapura, Sri Lanka. The Buddha is depicted in the position of the
Dhyana Mudra, the posture of meditation associated with his first Enlightenment.

This statue is 7 feet 3 inches in height and carved from dolomite marble.
The Abhayamudrā "gesture of fearlessness" is a mudrā (gesture) that is the gesture
of reassurance and safety, which dispels fear and accords divine protection and bliss
in many Indian religions. The right hand is held upright, and the palm is facing
outwards.

Why is this question important? Sri Lankan President Maithripala Sirisena has
69

gifted Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi a Samadhi Buddha statue.

Page
76. With reference to the National Programme for prevention and Control
of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases and strokes (NPCDCS),
consider the following statements

1. It manages chronic Non-Communicable diseases through early diagnosis,

treatment and follows up through setting up of NCD clinics.
2. It provides support for diagnosis and cost-effective treatment at primary,
secondary and tertiary levels of health care.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2

Learning Zone: National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer,

Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke (NPCDCS) was launched in 2010 in
100 districts across 21 States, in order to prevent and control the major NCDs.

The main strategies of the programme are as follows:

● Health promotion through behaviour change with involvement of the

community, civil society, community-based organizations, media etc.
● Outreach Camps are envisaged for opportunistic screening at all levels in the
health care delivery system from sub-centre and above for early detection of
diabetes, hypertension and common cancers.
● Management of chronic Non-Communicable diseases, especially Cancer,
Diabetes, CVDs and Stroke through early diagnosis, treatment and follow up
through setting up of NCD clinics.
● Build capacity at various levels of health care for prevention, early diagnosis,
treatment, IEC/BCC, operational research and rehabilitation.
70

● Provide support for diagnosis and cost-effective treatment at primary,

secondary and tertiary levels of health care.
Page
 ● Provide support for the development of a database of NCDs through a robust
Surveillance System and to monitor NCD morbidity, mortality and risk factors.

Why is this question important? A meeting to review the status of the National
Programme for prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases
and strokes (NPCDCS) was held recently.

77. With reference to Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES), consider the

following statements

1. It is characterized as acute-onset of fever and a change in mental status.

2. The disease most commonly affects children only.
3. Viruses are the main causative agents in AES cases.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c) 1 and 3 only

Learning Zone: Acute encephalitis syndrome (AES) is a serious public health
problem in India.

It is characterized as acute-onset of fever and a change in mental status (mental

confusion, disorientation, delirium, or coma) and/or new onset of seizures in a
person of any age at any time of the year.

The disease most commonly affects children and young adults and can lead to
considerable morbidity and mortality.

Viruses are the main causative agents in AES cases, although other sources such as
bacteria, fungus, parasites, spirochetes, chemicals, toxins and noninfectious agents
71

have also been reported over the past few decades.

Page
Japanese encephalitis virus (JEV) is the major cause of AES in India (ranging from
5%-35%).

Nipah virus, Zika virus are also found as causative agents for AES.

Why is this question important? An epidemic of Acute Encephalitis Syndrome

(AES) has broken out in five north Bihar districts.
Locally known as Chamki Bukhar in the state.

72
Page
78. Abujh Marias, recently seen in news refers to which among the
following?

(a) A Martial Art form of Assam

(b) A type of litchi fruit in Bihar
(c) Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) from Bihar.
(d) Folk dance of Andra Pradesh

Ans: (c) Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) from Chattisgarh.

Learning Zone: AbujhMarias is a PVTG community from Chattisgarh.

Abujhmarh, where this tribe lives, is considered by the government to be one of the
last remaining strongholds of Left-wing extremism.

Abujh Marias have their own governance structure. The Abujhmarh forest is spread
over 1,500 square miles in the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh.

Why is this question important? The Chhattisgarh government is processing

habitat rights for Abujh Marias, a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG).

79. Which among the following is not a criterion for determination of

PVTGs?

(a) A pre-agriculture level of technology.

(b) A stagnant or declining population.
(c) Extremely low literacy.
(d) Criminal cases against the community.

Ans: (d) Criminal cases against the community.

Learning Zone: The criteria followed for determination of PVTGs are as under:
● A pre-agriculture level of technology.
● A stagnant or declining population.
● Extremely low literacy.
73

● A subsistence level of the economy.

Page
Why is this question important? PVTGs are more vulnerable among the tribal
groups. In 1975, the Government of India initiated to identify the most vulnerable
tribal groups as a separate category called PVTGs and declared 52 such groups,

while in 1993 an additional 23 groups were added to the category, making it a total
of 75 PVTGs out of 705 Scheduled Tribes, spread over 18 states and one Union
Territory (A&N Islands) in the country (2011 census).

74
Page
80. In the context of polity, which among the following will administer the
oath of the office for the pro-tem speaker of Loksabha.

(a) President
(b) Speaker of the previous session of Loksabha
(c) Senior Most member of Loksabha
(d) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Ans: (a) President

Learning Zone: Usually the senior-most member is elected as the pro-tem speaker.
The president/governor will administer the oath of the office for the pro-tem
speaker.

When the house elects the new speaker the office of the pro-tem speaker ceases to
exist. Hence the office of the pro-tem speaker is a temporary one which will be in
existence for a few days.

Why is this question important? Virendra Kumar a BJP MP from Madhya Pradesh
will be the Pro-tem Speaker of the 17th Lok Sabha.

81. With reference to the proposed Defence Space Research Agency

(DSRA), consider the following statements

1. It has been entrusted with the task of creating space warfare weapon
systems and technologies.
2. The DSRA will be headed by Prime Minister.
3. It is being set up in Bengaluru.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
75

Ans: (d) 1 and 3 only

Page
Learning Zone: The Defence Space Agency is being set up in Bengaluru under an
Air Vice Marshal-rank officer and will gradually take over the space-related
capabilities of the three forces.

DSRA has been entrusted with the task of creating space warfare weapon systems
and technologies.

The agency would be provided with a team of scientists which would be working in
close coordination with the tri-services integrated Defence staff officers.

It would be providing the research and development support to the Defence Space
Agency (DSA) which comprises members of the three services.

The DSA has been created “to help the country fight wars in the space”.

Why is this question important? The Cabinet Committee on Security headed by

Prime Minister Narendra Modi has cleared the setting up of the Defence Space
Research Agency (DSRA).

82. With reference to Leader of Rajya Sabha, consider the following

statements

1. Leader of the Rajya Sabha is designation followed by the convention which is

not mentioned anywhere in the Rules of procedure.
2. Only a Minister can be appointed as Leader of Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b) 2 only

76
Page
Learning Zone: The term Leader of the House has been defined in Rules of
Procedure of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

Leader of the House, according to Rule 2 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of
Business in the Lok Sabha means the prime minister, if he is a Member of the House
or a Minister who is a Member of the House and is nominated by the Prime Minister
to function as the Leader of the House.

The Prime Minister is invariably the Leader of the Lok Sabha.

Why is this question important? Thawarchand Gehlot, Union Minister of Social

Justice and Empowerment was recently appointed as Leader of Rajya Sabha. The
Leader of the Rajya Sabha is appointed by the party in power at Centre.

83. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the New
Delhi International Arbitration Centre (NDIAC) Bill, 2019?

1. It declares the NDIAC as an institution of national importance.

2. NDIAC works under the aegis of Supreme Court of India.
3. NDIAC will be headed by a chairperson who has been a Judge of the Supreme
Court or a Judge of a High Court or an eminent person.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Ans: (c) 1 and 3 only

Learning Zone: The bill seeks to provide for the establishment of the NDIAC to
conduct an arbitration, mediation, and conciliation proceedings. It declares the
NDIAC as an institution of national importance.
77

The Bill provides for setting up of an independent autonomous body for institutional
arbitration and to acquire and transfer the undertakings of the International Centre
Page
For Alternative Dispute Resolution (ICADR) to the New Delhi International Arbitration
Centre (NDIAC). Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

New Delhi International Arbitration Centre (NDIAC) will be headed by a chairperson

who has been a Judge of the Supreme Court or a Judge of a High Court or an
eminent person, having special knowledge and experience in the conduct or
administration of arbitration law or management, to be appointed by the Central
Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.

Why is this question important? The Union Cabinet has approved the Bill New
Delhi International Arbitration Centre (NDIAC) Bill, 2019 for introduction in the
ensuing session of Parliament.

84. With reference to Kelp forest, consider the following statements

1. Kelp forests are confined to Polar regions.

2. Kelps are extremely large brown algae.
3. Kelp attaches to the seafloor and eventually grows to the water’s surface and
relies on sunlight to generate food and energy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

78
Page

(a) 1 and 3 only

 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b) 2 and 3 only

Learning Zone: Kelp Forests are underwater ecosystems formed in shallow water
by the dense growth of several different species known as kelps.

Kelps are actually extremely large brown algae, although they look like plants.
They thrive in cold, nutrient-rich waters.

Kelp attaches to the seafloor and eventually grows to the water’s surface and relies
on sunlight to generate food and energy.

Kelps live further from the tropics than coral reefs, mangrove forests, and warm-
water seagrass beds, so kelp forests do not overlap with those systems.
Kelp forests occur worldwide throughout temperate and polar coastal oceans. In
2007, kelp forests were also discovered in tropical waters near Ecuador. Hence the
first statement is incorrect.

Why is this question important? Climate change could lead to declines of

underwater kelp forests through impacts on their microbiome.

It was predicted that ocean warming and acidification can change microbes on the
kelp surface, leading to disease and potentially putting fisheries at risk.

85. Economic Capital Framework, often seen in the news refers to:

(a) It is the capital required to complete the pending infrastructure projects of

the central government
(b) It is the risk capital required by the central bank while taking into account
different risks.
(c) It is the foreign currency earning of the services sector in India.
(d) It is the capital required to resolve India’s external debt owed by government
79

entities.
Page
Ans: (b) It is the risk capital required by the central bank while taking into
account different risks.

Learning Zone: Economic capital framework refers to the risk capital required by
the central bank while taking into account different risks. The economic capital
framework reflects the capital that an institution requires or needs to hold as a
counter against unforeseen risks or events or losses in the future.

Why is this question important? RBI had constituted a panel on the economic
capital framework. It was headed by Ex-RBI governor Bimal Jalan.

The expert panel on RBI’s economic capital framework was formed to address the
issue of RBI reserves—one of the sticking points between the central bank and the
government.

86. With reference to the Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty

Related Measures to Prevent Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (MLI),
consider the following statements

1. It is a is a multilateral convention initiated by Organisation for Economic Co-

operation and Development.
2. India has not ratified the treaty yet.
3. It will ensure that profits are taxed where substantive economic activities
generating the profits are carried out and where value is created

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Ans: (c) 1 and 3 only

80
Page
Learning Zone: The Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related
Measures to Prevent Base Erosion and Profit Shifting, sometimes abbreviated BEPS
multilateral instrument, is a multilateral convention of the Organisation for Economic
Co-operation and Development to combat tax avoidance by multinational enterprises
(MNEs) through prevention of Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS).

The BEPS multilateral instrument was negotiated within the framework of the OECD
G20 BEPS project and enables countries and jurisdictions to swiftly modify their
bilateral tax treaties to implement some of the measures agreed.

Why is this question important? The Union Cabinet has approved the ratification
of the Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related Measures to Prevent
Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (MLI) recently.

87. In the context of Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Ordinance,

2019, consider the following statements

1. It gives an option to children who are Aadhaar number holders to cancel their
Aadhaar number on attaining the age of eighteen years.
2. It provides for the establishment of the Unique Identification Authority of
India Fund.
3. It provides for criminal penalties, its adjudication, appeal thereof in regard to
violations of Aadhaar Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a) 1 and 2 only

Learning Zone:
The Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Ordinance, 2019
81
Page
 ● Provides for voluntary use of Aadhaar number in physical or electronic form
by authentication or offline verification with the consent of Aadhaar number
holder.
● Provides for use of twelve-digit Aadhaar number and its alternative virtual
identity to conceal the actual Aadhaar number of an individual.
● Gives an option to children who are Aadhaar number holders to cancel their
Aadhaar number on attaining the age of eighteen years.
● Provides for the establishment of Unique Identification Authority of India
Fund.
● Provides for civil penalties, its adjudication, appeal thereof in regard to
violations of Aadhaar Act and provisions by entities in the Aadhaar ecosystem.
Hence statement 3 is wrong.

Why is this question important? In a major move aimed at making Aadhaar

people friendly, the Union Cabinet has approved “The Aadhaar and Other Laws
(Amendment) Bill, 2019” to replace the earlier ordinance.

88. In the context of Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage),

Bill 2019, consider the following statements

1. The Bill makes all declaration of talaq, only in electronic form, to be void and
illegal.
2. The Bill makes the declaration of talaq a cognizable offence, attracting up to
three years’ imprisonment with a fine.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b) 2 only

82

Learning Zone: The Bill makes all declaration of talaq, including in written or
electronic form, to be void (i.e. not enforceable in law) and illegal.
Page
The Bill makes the declaration of talaq a cognizable offence, attracting up to three
years’ imprisonment with a fine. (A cognizable offence is one for which a police
officer may arrest an accused person without warrant.)

The offence will be cognizable only if information relating to the offence is given by
(i) the married woman (against whom talaq has been declared), or (ii) any person
related to her by blood or marriage.

The Bill provides that the Magistrate may grant bail to the accused.

Why is this question important? The Union Cabinet has approved the Muslim
Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill 2019.

89. With reference to Information Fusion Centre-Indian Ocean Region

(IFC-IOR), consider the following statements

1. It is an initiative of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA).

2. It is established with the vision of strengthening maritime security in the
region and beyond.
3. It is established at Cochin, India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans: (b) 2 only

Learning Zone: The IFC has been established at Gurugram, India and is collocated
with the Information Management and Analysis Centre which is jointly administered
by the Indian Navy and Indian Coast Guard. IFC-IOR is established with the vision of
strengthening maritime security in the region and beyond, by building a common
83

coherent maritime situation picture and acting as a maritime information hub for the
region. Establishment of IFC- IOR would ensure that the entire region is benefitted
Page
by mutual collaboration and exchange of information and understanding the
concerns and threats which are prevalent in the region.

Why is this question important? The Indian Navy is hosting a Maritime

Information Sharing Workshop 2019 edition under the aegis of the Information
Fusion Centre-Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR) at Gurugram, Harayana.

The workshop aims to acquaint all participants about IFC-IOR and its information-
sharing mechanisms. It also aims to promote the sharing of best practices in this
field so as to yield a better response to the myriad security and safety challenges
that IOR faces.

90. With reference to Hypersonic Technology Demonstrator Vehicle

(HSTDV), consider the following statements

1. HSTDV is an unmanned scramjet demonstration aircraft.

2. It can be used for launching satellites at low cost.
3. It is indigenously developed by DRDO.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Learning Zone: HSTDV is an unmanned scramjet demonstration aircraft.

HSTDV is a dual-use technology and can have multiple civilian applications. It can be
used for launching satellites at low cost and can also be available for long-range
cruise missiles of the future.

A scramjet engine is an improvement over the ramjet engine as it efficiently operates

84

at hypersonic speeds and allows supersonic combustion.

Page
Why is this question important? DRDO recently conducted the maiden test of an
indigenously developed Hypersonic Technology Demonstrator Vehicle (HSTDV).

91. SDG Gender Index, recently seen in the news is released by

(a) United Nations

(b) UNDP
(c) Equal Measures 2030
(d) International Labour Organization

Ans: (c) Equal Measures 2030

Learning Zone: It is developed by Equal Measures 2030, a joint effort of regional

and global organisations including African Women’s Development and
Communication Network, Asian-Pacific Resource and Research Centre for Women,
Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation etc.

It accounts for 14 out of 17 SDGs (sustainable development goals) that cover

aspects such as poverty, health, education, literacy, political representation and
equality at the workplace.

Why is this question important? India is ranked 95th among 129 countries.
India’s highest goal scores are on health (79.9), hunger & nutrition (76.2), and
energy (71.8).

Its lowest goal scores are on partnerships (18.3, in the bottom 10 countries
worldwide), industry, infrastructure and innovation (38.1), and climate (43.4).

92. With regard to the International Centre for Automotive Technology

(ICAT), consider the following statements

1. It provides services for testing, validation, design and homologation of all

85

categories of vehicles.
Page
 2. It assists the automotive industry in adopting cutting edge technologies in-
vehicle evaluation and component development.
3. It is an initiative under the Department of Heavy Industries, India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Learning Zone: International Centre for Automotive Technology (ICAT) Manesar is

a division of NATRIP Implementation Society (NATIS) under the Department of
Heavy Industries, India.

It provides services for testing, validation, design and homologation of all categories
of vehicles.

It assists the automotive industry in adopting cutting edge technologies in-vehicle

evaluation and component development to ensure reliability, durability and
compliance to the current and future regulations.

Why is this question important? The Project aims at creating core global
competencies in the Automotive sector in India and facilitate seamless integration of
Indian Automotive industry with the world as also to position the country
prominently on the global automotive map.

93. “Sovereign Internet” bill, recently seen in the news has been
introduced by which among the following?

(a) USA
(b) Russia
(c) India
86

(d) Japan
Page
Ans: (b) Russia

Learning Zone: Russian President Vladimir Putin has signed into law a “Sovereign
Internet” bill.

The measures include creating technology to monitor internet routing and to steer
Russian internet traffic away from foreign servers, ostensibly to prevent a foreign
country from shutting it down.

The bill created a system that gives the authorities the capacity to block access to
parts of the Internet in Russia.

Under the new law, Russian Internet access providers will also need to ensure that
their networks have the technical means for “centralised traffic control” to counter
potential threats.

Why is this question important? The government defended the legislation as a

defensive move in case the United States would cut Russia off from the global
Internet. Also, Russia must ensure the security of its network after US President
Donald Trump unveiled a new American cybersecurity strategy in 2018 which
accused Russia of carrying out cyber-attacks with impunity.

94. Which among the following could happen when the UN Sanctions
committee designates someone as a global terrorist?

1. His financial assets or economic resources will be freeze by all the member
states on the UN.
2. All the countries and islands are required to prevent the entry into or transit
through their territories by designated individuals.
3. All member states are required to prevent the direct or indirect supply of arms
and related materiel of all types.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

87

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only
Page
 (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Learning Zone:
When the committee designates someone as a global terrorist the following happens
Asset freeze: All member states of the United Nations are required to freeze without
delay the funds and other financial assets or economic resources of designated
individuals and entities.

Travel ban: All member states are required to prevent the entry into or transit
through their territories by designated individuals.

Arms embargo: All member states are required to prevent the direct or indirect
supply, sale and transfer from their territories or by their nationals outside their
territories, or using their flag vessels or aircraft, of arms and related materiel of all
types, spare parts, and technical advice, assistance, or training related to military
activities, to designated individuals and entities.

Why is this question important? The United Nations Security Council has
designated JeM Chief, Masood Azhar as a global terrorist after China lifted its
technical hold on his listing under the UNSC 1267 sanctions committee. The JeM
itself was sanctioned by the 1267 Committee in 2001.

The proposal to designate Azhar under the 1267 Al Qaeda Sanctions Committee of
the UN Security Council was moved by France, UK and the US on February 27.

95. With regard to Stucco sculpture, consider the following statements

1. Stucco is a material made of aggregates, a binder, and water.

2. Stucco is applied wet and hardens to a very dense solid.
3. It is used as a decorative coating for walls and ceilings.
4. Bodhisattva statue is the biggest stucco sculpture found in the country so far.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

88

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

Page
 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Learning Zone: Stucco is a material made of aggregates, a binder, and water.

Stucco is applied wet and hardens to a very dense solid.

It is used as a decorative coating for walls and ceilings, and as a sculptural and
artistic material in architecture.

Stucco may be used to cover less visually appealing construction materials, such as
metal, concrete, cinder block, or clay brick and adobe.

Why is this question important? Indian archaeologists recently unearthed a rare

life-sized stucco sculpture from a Buddhist site at Phanigiri in Suryapet, Telangana.
It is the biggest stucco sculpture found so far in India. It is about 1.73 metres in
height and 35 cm in width.

It represents a Bodhisattva in Jathaka Chakra. It was created nearly 1,700 years ago
by craftsmen at Phanigiri at peak of Ikshavaku dynasty.

96. With regard to the Centre of Excellence for Waste to Wealth

Technologies, consider the following statements

1. It is constituted under the Ministry of Science and Technology.

2. The initiative is with regard to commemorate the 150th birth anniversary of
Mahatma Gandhi.
3. It will provide an effective platform for stakeholders to bring together
integrated approaches for effective recycling, reuse and resource recovery of
waste.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

89

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
Page
 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

Ans: (b) 2 and 3 only

Learning Zone: To commemorate the 150th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi,

the Office of the Principal Scientific Advisor (PSA) to the Government of India and
Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IIT Delhi) signed a Memorandum of
Understanding for setting up a Centre of Excellence for Waste to Wealth
Technologies for implementation of sustainable, scientific and technological solutions
for waste management, through validation and deployment of available technologies
for transformation of waste to wealth. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

Why is this question important? The waste to wealth mission project has been
approved under the recently constituted Prime Minister’s Science Technology and
Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC).

The partnership will provide an effective platform for stakeholders to bring together
integrated approaches for effective recycling, reuse and resource recovery of waste.

97. RISAT 2BR1, recently seen in news related to:

(a) Communication satellite

(b) Radar imaging satellite
(c) Navigation Satellite
(d) Nuclear Submarine

Ans: (b) Radar imaging satellite

Learning Zone: The RISAT, which was first deployed in orbit on April 20, 2009, as
the RISAT-2, uses synthetic aperture radar (SAR) to provide Indian forces with all-
weather surveillance and observation, which are crucial to notice any potential threat
or malicious activity around the nation’s borders.
90
Page
Why is this question important? RISAT-2BR1 is an Indian radar reconnaissance
satellite that is part of India's RISAT programme and the fourth satellite in the
series. It is built by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). It was launched
on 11 December 2019 at 3:25 PM IST onboard PSLV rocket from Satish Dhawan
Space Centre.

98. International Religious Freedom 2019 report recently seen in a news

released by which among the following?

(a) Amnesty International

(b) United States Commission
(c) United Nation Human Rights Council
(d) World Economic Forum

Ans: (b) United States Commission

Learning Zone: United States Commission has released its International Religious
Freedom 2019 report.

US Commission on International Religious Freedom is a bipartisan, independent

federal government commission, created by the International Religious Freedom Act
of 1998.

Why is this question important? In its Annual Report, USCIRF unflinchingly

describes threats to religious freedom around the world and recommends to the
State Department countries for designation as “countries of particular concern”
(CPCs) for engaging in or tolerating “systematic, ongoing, egregious violations.”
USCIRF also recommends to the State Department that non-state actors cited for
similarly severe violations be designated as “entities of particular concern” (EPCs).
This year, USCIRF has recommended 16 countries for CPC designation and five
entities for EPC designation.

Also, USCIRF placed 12 countries on its Tier 2 list, meaning the violations meet one
or two, but not all three, of the elements of the systematic, ongoing, egregious test
for CPC status.
91
Page
The 12 countries on USCIRF’s Tier 2 list are Afghanistan, Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Cuba,
Egypt, India, Indonesia, Iraq, Kazakhstan, Laos, Malaysia, and Turkey.

99. Which among the following is/are the possible impact of the
Generalised System of Preferences withdrawal on India by the US?

1. It will boost the export market.

2. It will reduce the trade surplus of India with the US.
3. It will lead to cheap imports of agricultural products from the US to India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Ans: (b) 2 only

Learning Zone: India exports nearly 50 products of the 94 products on which GSP
benefits are stopped. The GSP removal will leave a reasonable impact on India as
the country enjoyed preferential tariff on exports worth of nearly $ 5.6 billion under
the GSP route out of the total exports of $48 bn in 2017-18.

Removal of GSP indicates a tough trade position by the US; especially for countries
like India who benefited much from the scheme. India is the 11th largest trade
surplus country for the US and India enjoyed an annual trade surplus of $ 21 bn in
2017-18.

Why is this question important? The U.S. should not terminate the GSP
programme with India after the expiry of the 60-day notice period, a group of 25
influential American lawmakers urged the U.S. Trade Representative, warning that
companies seeking to expand their exports to India could be hit.
92
Page
100. Which among the following sectors are covered by existing laws on
ṣOccupational Safety and Health (OSH) under the National Policy on
Safety, Health and Environment at the Workplace (NPSHEW)?

1. Manufacturing
2. Mining
3. Ports
4. Construction sectors
5. Agriculture

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(e) 2, 4 and 5 only

Ans: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Learning Zone: It’s been a decade since the National Policy on Safety, Health and
Environment at the Workplace (NPSHEW) was announced. It called for legislation on
safety, health and environment at workplaces. Yet, only the manufacturing, mining,
ports and construction sectors are covered by existing laws on Occupational Safety
and Health (OSH).

Why is this question important? Around 2.3 lakh workers were affected and
2,500 died in more than 81 industrial accidents in the past three-and-a-half decades.
Yet sectors such as agriculture, services and transport remain unlegislated from the
point of work-safety.
93
Page
ClearIAS FREE Online Study Materials
Click on the below links to read/download the online notes in ClearIAS.

ClearIAS Study Materials – Useful for UPSC Prelims and Mains

• Indian History Notes – Indian History and Culture.

• Geography Notes – Indian and World Geography.
• Economics Notes – Indian Economy.
• Indian Polity Notes – Constitution, Social Justice etc.
• General Science Notes – Science and Technology.
• Environment Notes – Biodiversity, Climate Change etc.
• Current Affairs Notes – National and international.

ClearIAS Study Materials – For Additional areas in UPSC Mains

• World History Notes – GS paper 1.

• Indian Society Notes – GS paper 1.
• Foreign Relations Notes – GS paper 2.
• International Affairs Notes – GS paper 2.
• Internal Security Notes – GS paper 3.
• Disaster Management Notes – GS paper 3.
• Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude Notes – GS paper 4.

ClearIAS UPSC Mains Special: Paper-wise Study Materials

• Essay Paper
• GS 1 Paper
• GS 2 Paper
• GS 3 Paper
• GS 4 Paper
 Road Map to
CLEAR IAS
START

2 1

Read NCERT Text Join ClearIAS

Books from Class Prelims Online Mock
6-12. Test Series

3 4

Learn ClearIAS Notes Read the standard

(Easy-to-Learn reference text books
Online Study Materials) (clearias.com/ias-books)

6 5

Take ClearIAS Mains Finish your optional subject

Mock Exams and and GS Topics as per
polish your answer ClearIAS Prelims cum Mains
writing skills Integrated approach.

Get your bio-data Success!

reviewed by ClearIAS
Experts.Take ClearIAS
Mock Interviews.

Download ClearIAS App; Clear IAS by Self-Study!

www.clearias.com
The ClearIAS 'TTT' Approach
to clear the IAS exam

Text-books Test-series Techniques

Success in UPSC CSE is:

(1) 50% Knowledge (Text-books)
(2) 50% Skills (Techniques)
PS: ClearIAS Test Series combines both.
 The ClearIAS Approach:
Knowledge + Skills

Learn NCERTS and

Core Areas Standard Text Books

Learn the 'new' and

'unconventional
Core Areas New Areas
areas' from which
UPSC asks questions

Core Areas New Areas Exam Skills

We help you develop the ability to analyse the

question and find the correct answer using IETs
(Analytical Skills)

Download ClearIAS  App;

Enroll in ClearIAS Programs!
ClearIAS Prelims
Online Mock Test
Series

The Test Series You

Should NOT Miss!
Join now!