CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 1 (2008)

1. Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections
on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
• They are non-network connections.
• They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network.
• They are synchronous serial ports.
• They are used for initial router configuration.
• They are asynchronous serial ports.
• They are accessed using their assigned IP address.

2. The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)
• debugging.
• password recovery.
• routing data between networks.
• troubleshooting.
• connecting one router to another.

3. Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?

• connects peripherals in a single location.
• connects multiple networks in a single building.
• provides connectivity on a LAN.
• provides connectivity over a large geographic area.

4. An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)

• switching.
• static addressing.
• IETF standardization.
• dynamic or static routing.
• consistent end-to-end addressing.

5. ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network.
Which items are needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for
the initial configuration? (Choose three.)
• straight-through cable.
• terminal emulation software.
• rollover cable.
• RJ-45 to DB-9 connector.
• V.35 cable.

6.Terminal emulation software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a

router. Which of the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are
correctly set to allow configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
• bits per second.
• data bits.
• parity.
• stop bits.
• flow control.

7. Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose
three.)
• hubs.
• routers.
• communication servers.
• transceivers.
• modems.
• multi-port repeaters.

8. Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)

• contains startup configuration file.
• stores routing table.
• holds fast switching cache.
• retains contents when power is removed.
• stores running configuration file.

9. Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting?

(Choose two.)
• can be accessed remotely.
• does not depend on network services.
• displays startup and error messages by default.
• does not require special components.

10. Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common?
(Choose three.)
• CPU.
• hard drive.
• input/output interfaces.
• keyboard.
• monitor.
• system bus.

11. During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required
for connecting a PC to the console port?
• twisted.
• crossover.
• rollover.
• straight.

12. A router is composed of many internal components. Which of the following

components stores a copy of the router's configuration file?
• metal-oxide memory.
• read only memory.
• flash memory.
• non-volatile random access memory.

13. What contains the instructions that a router uses to control the flow of traffic
through its interfaces?
• packet configuration.
• configuration files.
• flash memory.
• internal components.

14. Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series
router. Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of
the hosts on the LAN? (Choose two.)
• a crossover cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.
• a crossover cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
• a straight-through cable between the auxiliary port on a router and a switch.
• a rollover cable between the console port on a router and a switch.
• straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
• a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.

15. Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?
• volatile random access memory.
• read only memory.
• non-volatile random access memory.
• flash memory.

16. Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards?
(Choose two.)
physical layer.
• application layer.
• transport layer.
• data link layer.
• session layer.

17. Which of the following are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)
• provide temporary memory for the router configuration files.
• connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit.
• can be on the motherboard or a separate module.
• hold the IOS image.
• connect the router to LANs and WANs.

18. Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management

connection on a router? (Choose three.)
• troubleshooting problems.
• monitoring the system.
• capturing LAN data packets.
• configuring the router.
• routing data packets.

19. What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?
• ARP tables.
• bridging tables.
• routing tables.
• switching tables.

20. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

• stores the routing table.
• retains contents when power is removed.
• stores the startup configuration file.
• contains the running configuration file.
• stores the ARP table.

21. Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router?
(Choose two.)
• holds the startup configuration by default.
• can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules.
• stores Cisco IOS software images.
• stores routing table information by default.
• maintains the only copy of an IOS image after the router is booted.

CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 2

1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model
Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
• Network
• Transport
• Physical
• Data Link
• Session

2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer
encapsulation?
• supports error detection
• ensures ordered arrival of data
• provides delivery to correct destination
• identifies the devices on the local network
• assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection

3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
• No address is added.
• The logical address is added.
• The physical address is added.
• The process port number is added.

4. What device is considered an intermediary device?

• file server
• IP phone
• laptop
• printer
• switch

5.Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?

• physical
• data link
• network
• transport

6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network?
(Choose three.)
• determine pathways for data
• initiate data communications
• retime and retransmit data signals
• originate the flow of data
• manage data flows
• final termination point for data flow

7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?

• the destination device on the local media
• the path to use to reach the destination host
• the bits that will be transferred over the media
• the source application or process creating the data

8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the
lowest layer?
• physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
• application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
• application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
• application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
• presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application
9. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the
network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
• Network A -- WAN
• Network B -- WAN
• Network C -- LAN
• Network B -- MAN
• Network C -- WAN
• Network A -- LAN

10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)

• allows modification of the original data before transmission
• identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
• enables consistent network paths for communication
• ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
• enables the reassembly of complete messages
• tracks delay between end devices

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process
represented in the graphic?
• piping
• PDU
• streaming
• multiplexing
• encapsulation

12. What is a PDU?

• corruption of a frame during transmission
• data reassembled at the destination
• retransmitted packets due to lost communication
• a layer specific encapsulation

13. Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session
with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type
best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
• the destination device
• an end device
• an intermediate device
• a media device

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
• A, C, D
• B, E, G, H
• C, D, G, H, I, J
• D, E, F, H, I, J
• E, F, H, I, J
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included
in the green area?
• source
• end
• transfer
• intermediary

16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
• A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
• The network is administered by a single organization.
• The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
• The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
• A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a
common organization.
• Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service
Provider (TSP).

17. Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?

• WAN
• MAN
• LAN
• WLAN

18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?

• path determination and packet switching
• data representation, encoding, and control
• reliability, flow control, and error detection
• detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
• the division of segments into packets

19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?

• manage data flows
• originate data flow
• retime and retransmit data signals
• determine pathways for data

20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?

• to identify devices on the local media
• to identify the hops between source and destination
• to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
• to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
• to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
• define the structure of layer specific PDU's
• dictate how to accomplish layer functions
• outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
• limit hardware compatibility
• require layer dependent encapsulations
• eliminate standardization among vendors

CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 3

1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers
between a client and a server?
• HTML
• HTTP
• FTP
• Telnet

2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)

• applications
• dialogs
• requests
• services
• syntax

3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-

five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)
• centralized administration
• does not require specialized software
• security is easier to enforce
• lower cost implementation
• provides a single point of failure

4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?

• temporarily holds resolved entries
• used by the server to resolve names
• sent by the client to during a query
• passes authentication information between the server and client

5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP
address?
• HTTP
• SSH
• FQDN
• DNS
• Telnet
• SMTP
6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose
three.)
• ARP
• DNS
• PPP
• SMTP
• POP
• ICMP

7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)

• acts as both a client and server within the same communication.
• requires centralized account administration.
• hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.
• can be used in client-server networks.
• requires a direct physical connection between devices.
• centralized authentication is required.

8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose

two.)
• DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
• HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
• POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
• SMTP supports file sharing
• Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access

9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
• MDA
• IMAP
• MTA
• POP
• SMTP
• MUA

10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?

• not widely available
• does not support encryption
• consumes more network bandwidth
• does not support authentication

11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email?
(Choose three.)
• routes email to the MDA on other servers
• receives email from the client's MUA
• receives email via the POP3 protocol
• passes email to the MDA for final delivery
• uses SMTP to route email between servers
• delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol

12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web
server to a client browser? (Choose two.)
• ASP
• FTP
HTML
• HTTP
• HTTPS
• IP

13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together
for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose
two.)
• User accounts are centralized.
• Security is difficult to enforce.
• Specialized operating system software is required.
• File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
• A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.

14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the
network?
• physical
• session
• network
• presentation
• application
• transport

15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is
represented on line 5?
• 80
• 1261
• 15533
• 3912
• 65520

16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)

• scalable
• one way data flow
• decentralized resources
• centralized user accounts
• resource sharing without a dedicated server
17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing
in Microsoft networks?
• DHCP
• DNS
• SMB
• SMTP
• Telnet

18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)
• use daemons
• initiate data exchanges
• are repositories of data
• may upload data to servers
• listen for requests from servers

19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?

• provides segmentation of data
• provides encryption and conversion of data
• provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
• provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices

20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request
for services?
• ceases all connections to the service
• denies multiple connections to a single daemon
• suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
• uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the
service

CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 4

1. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following
statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
• This is a UDP header.
• This contains a Telnet request.
• This contains a TFTP data transfer.
• The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of
43693.
• This is a TCP header.

2. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-
known applications?
• 0 to 255
• 256 to 1022
• 0 to 1023
• 1024 to 2047
• 49153 to 65535

3. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?

• to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
• to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
• to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
• to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
• to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order

4. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from
source to destination, reliably and accurately?
• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• network

5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1.
During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host
A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
• create a Layer 1 jam signal
• reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
• send a RESET bit to the host
• change the window size in the Layer 4 header

6. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?

• to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
• to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical
order
• to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
• to synchronize window size on the server
• to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts

7. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)

• identifies the destination network
• identifies source and destination hosts
• identifies the communicating applications
• identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
• identifies the devices communicating over the local media
8. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being
performed?
• session establishment
• segment retransmit
• data transfer
• session disconnect
• Bottom of Form

9. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the
output that is shown? (Choose two.)
• The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
• A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
• Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
• The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
• 192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.

10. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
• destination logical address
• source physical address
• default gateway address
• source port

11. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
• flow control
• low overhead
• connectionless
• connection-oriented
• sequence and acknowledgements

12. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from
source to destination?
• sequence numbers
• session establishment
• window size
• acknowledgments

13. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for
applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
• TCP
• IP
• UDP
• HTTP
• DNS
14. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
• sequencing
• flow control
• acknowledgments
• source and destination

15. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of
data from source to destination?
• encapsulation
• flow control
• connectionless services
• session establishment
• numbering and sequencing
• best effort delivery

16. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of
order, what will happen to the original message?
• The packets will not be delivered.
• The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
• The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
• The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.

17. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?

• acknowledgement of data delivery
• minimal delays in data delivery
• high reliability of data delivery
• same order data delivery

18. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard
port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the
server?
• 13
• 53
• 80
• 1024
• 1728

19. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
• The two applications exchange data.
• TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
• UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
• The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.
CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 5

1. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data

packets from one interface of a router to another?
• destination network address
• source network address
• source MAC address
• well known port destination address

2. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

• source and destination MAC
• source and destination application protocol
• source and destination port number
• source and destination IP address

3. In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?

• The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
• The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
• The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet
was received.
• The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next
packet to be sent.

4. Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?

• type-of-service
• identification
• flags
• time-to-live
• header checksum

5. Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
• host portion
• broadcast address
• network portion
• gateway address

6. Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default
gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
• 192.135.250.1
• 192.31.7.1
• 192.133.219.0
• 192.133.219.1
7. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on
communications?
• The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to
communicate with hosts on remote networks.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to
communicate with hosts on the local network.
• There is no impact on communications.

8. What is the purpose of a default gateway?

• physically connects a computer to a network
• provides a permanent address to a computer
• identifies the network to which a computer is connected
• identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to
the rest of the network
• identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with
devices on other networks

9. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing
table?
• dynamic
• interior
• static
• standard

10. When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router,
what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
• The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
• The router discards the packet.
• The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
• The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
• The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.

11. What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network?
(Choose three.)
• gateways
• purpose
• physical addressing
• software version
• geographic location
• ownership

12. What is a component of a routing table entry?

• the MAC address of the interface of the router
• the destination Layer 4 port number
• the destination host address
• the next-hop address

13. Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between

networks? (Choose two.)
• router
• hub
• switch
• firewall
• access point
• bridge

14. What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
• too few broadcasts
• performance degradation
• security issues
• limited management responsibility
• host identification
• protocol compatibility

15. Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings.
How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
•3
•4
•5
•7
•8
11

16. Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous
router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the
destination host.
• If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is
used to forward the packet.
• If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet
is forwarded to the next-hop router.
• If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote
network can be forwarded using that route.
• If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the
host will drop the packet.
17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity
problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets
out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which
address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside
network?
• 10.10.10.26
• 127.0.0.1
• 10.10.10.6
• 10.10.10.1
• 224.0.0.0

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many
broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to
resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
• Replace S2 with a router.
• Place all servers on S1.
• Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
• Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
• Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.

19. Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two
statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
• 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the
10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the
192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
• 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the
192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0
to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the
172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
• 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the
172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.

20. What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols?
(Choose two.)
• require no device configuration
• provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
• require less processing power than static routes require
• consume bandwidth to exchange route information
• prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table
21. What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
• A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network
segment.
• A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all
destinations.
• A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the
local network.
• A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when
no other route to the destination exists.

CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 6

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme
shown in the graphic.
• /24
• /16
• /20
• /27
• /25
• /28

2. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
• 172.16.4.127 /26
• 172.16.4.155 /26
• 172.16.4.193 /26
• 172.16.4.95 /27
• 172.16.4.159 /27
• 172.16.4.207 /27

3. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)

• NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
• Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
• Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
• IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.

4. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based • upon
a given IP address and subnet mask?
• binary adding
• hexadecimal anding
• binary division
• binary multiplication
• binary ANDing
5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any
resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What
could be the cause of the problem?
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is a broadcast address.
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

6. What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of

172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0

7. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)

• 172.168.33.1
• 10.35.66.70
• 192.168.99.5
• 172.18.88.90
• 192.33.55.89
• 172.35.16.5
8. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the
following would describe this address?
• This is a useable host address.
• This is a broadcast address.
• This is a network address.
• This is not a valid address.
9. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of
255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
• 172.16.0.0
• 172.16.192.0
• 172.16.192.128
• 172.16.192.160
• 172.16.192.168
• 172.16.192.176

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of
LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using
a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use
the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By
company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address
and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration
should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the
network?

• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39

• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
• IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1

11. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP
addresses? (Choose three.)
• LAN workstations
• servers
• network printers
• routers
• remote workstations
• laptops

12. hich of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)

• larger address space

• faster routing protocols
• data types and classes of service
• authentication and encryption
• improved host naming conventions
• same addressing scheme as IPv4

13. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?

• security
• header format simplification
• expanded addressing capabilities
• addressing simplification

14. What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL
value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)

• The router will discard the packet.

• The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on
the path to the destination host.
• The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
• The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on
the path to the destination host.
• The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the
command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
• The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
• Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
• There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
• The default gateway device is not operating.
• A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.

16. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?

• 128
• 64
• 48
• 32

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble
with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A
has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?

• The router has an incorrect gateway.

• Host A has an overlapping network address.
• Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
• Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
• NAT is required for the host A network.

18. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose
three.)
• identifies an individual device
• is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
• is altered as packet is forwarded
• varies in length
• is used to forward packets
• uses flat addressing

19. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits
of their addresses?

• an internet
• a network
• an octet
• a radix
• Bottom of Form
• Top of Form
• Bottom of Form

20. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
• 10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
• 10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
• 10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
• 10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
• 10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
• 10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000

21. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing

scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial
link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated
the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to
address the remaining networks?

• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.252

CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 7

1. Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a

network? (Choose three.)
• the Layer 3 protocol selected
• the geographic scope of the network
• the PDU defined by the transport layer
• the physical layer implementation
• he number of hosts to be interconnected

2. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning
the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place
in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
• 00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
• 00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
• 00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
• 00-12-3f-32-05-af

3. Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media?
(Choose three.)
• non-deterministic
• less overhead
• one station transmits at a time
• collisions exist
• devices must wait their turn
• token passing

4. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

• The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
• Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
• Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
• Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

5. What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)

• Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
• Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions

6. Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)

• Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
• Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
• Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
• Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
• Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.

7. A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of

exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building.
What is this type of drawing?
• logical topology
• physical topology
• cable path
• wiring grid
• access topology

8. What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
• is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

9. What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model?
(Choose two.)
• Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
• Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
• Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
• Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
• Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods
that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
• All three networks use CSMA/CA
• None of the networks require media access control.
• Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
• Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
• Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

11. Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic
routes from the PC to the laptop?
•1
•2
•4
•8

12. Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source
MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
• source MAC - PC
• source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
• source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
• source IP - PC
• source IP - S0/0 on RouterA
• source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB

13. Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the
physical layer?
• LLC
• MAC
• HDLC
• NIC

14. What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to
another? (Choose two.)
The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
• The default gateway address should not be changed.
• The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
• Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
• The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new
network.

15. What is a function of the data link layer?

• provides the formatting of data
• provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
• provides delivery of data between two applications
• provides for the exchange data over a common local media

16. What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?

The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
• The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.

17. What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?

• provide routes across the internetwork
• format the data for presentation to the user
• facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
• identify the services to which transported data is associated

18. What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
• define the logical topology
• provide media access control
• support frame error detection
• carry routing information for the frame

19. What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
• They are 48 binary bits in length.
• They are considered physical addresses.
• They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
• They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
• They are used to determine the data path through the network.
• They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the
network.

CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 8

1. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and
physical aspects of network communication?
• Presentation
• Transport
• Data Link
• Physical

2. An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the
media by using what device?
• light injector
• OTDR
• TDR
• multimeter

3. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

• It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
• Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
• It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
• It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
• It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

4. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

• when connecting a router through the console port
• when connecting one switch to another switch
• when connecting a host to a switch
• when connecting a router to another router

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet
connection between Host A and Host B?
• coax cable
• rollover cable
• crossover cable
• straight-through cable

6. Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?

• electrical
• optical
• wireless
• acoustic

7. In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
• BNC
• RJ-11
• RJ-45
• Type F

8. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?

• generally uses LEDs as the light source
• relatively larger core with multiple light paths
• less expensive than multimode
• generally uses lasers as the light source

9. Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
• backbone cable
• horizontal cable
• patch cable
• work area cable

10. What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)

• goodput
• frequency
• amplitude
• throughput
• crosstalk
• bandwidth

11. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes
crosstalk within the cable pairs?
• the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
• the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
• the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
• the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

12. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
• create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
• provide physical addressing to the devices
• determine the path packets take through the network
• control data access to the media

13. In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic

interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
• coax
• fiber
• Cat5e UTP
• Cat6 UTP
• STP

14. What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?

• Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
• Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
• An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that
cable.
• The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the
improper connection.

15. Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?

• Options three is right answer (kolmas)

16. What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?

• more host mobility
• lower security risks
• reduced susceptibility to interference
• less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area
17. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
• the metal braiding in the shielding
• the reflective cladding around core
• the twisting of the wires in the cable
• the insulating material in the outer jacket

CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 9

1. In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame
to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B
do?
• Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
• Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
• Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
• Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

• Network layer
• Transport layer
• Physical layer
• Application layer
• Session layer
• Data-link layer

3. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)

• the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before
sending another frame.
• the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before
sending another frame.
• the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
• the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper
synchronization
• the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame.
• the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being
considered unreachable

4. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose
three.)
• addressing
• error detection
• frame delimiting
• port identification
• path determination
• IP address resolution

5. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to
transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
• The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. <---
• The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
• The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
• The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

6. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose
three.)
• recognizes streams of bits
• identifies the network layer protocol.
• makes the connection with the upper layers.
• identifies the source and destination applications
• insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment.
• determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

7. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?

• MAC sublayer
• Physical layer
• Logical Link Control sublayer
• Network layer

8. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay
before attempting to transmit a frame?
• A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
• A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
• A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
• A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during
the transmission.
9. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the
contents that frame field includes?
• header field - preamble and stop frame
• data field - network layer packet
• data field - physical addressing
• trailer field - FCS and SoF

10. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs
to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the
ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose
two.)
• Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the
packet.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
• A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
• A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
• A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11 Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?

• Collisions can decrease network performance.
• It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
• Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
• CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN
technologies.

12. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?

• application
• physical
• transport
• internet
• data link
• network access

13. What is the primary purpose of ARP?

• translate URLs to IP addresses
• resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
• provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
• convert internal private addresses to external public addresses

14. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for
full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements
correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
• A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.

16 Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)

• dynamically assigned
• copied into RAM during system startup
• layer 3 address
• contains a 3 byte OUI
• 6 bytes long
• 32 bits long

17. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks?
(Choose two.)
• reduction in cross-talk
• minimizing of collisions
• support for UTP cabling
• division into broadcast domains
• increase in the throughput of communications

18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today?
(Choose two.)
• coaxial thicknet
• copper UTP
• coaxial thinnet
• optical fiber
• shielded twisted pair

19. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the
correct answer from the list below.
• 85
• 90
• BA
• A1
• B3
• 1C

20. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has
priority to transmit data?
• the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
• the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
• any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
• those that began transmitting at the same time

CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 10

1. Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as
shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
• connecting a PC to a router's console port
• connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
• connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
• connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
• connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet spee
2. Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial
configuration of a Cisco router?
• AUX interface
• Ethernet interface
• serial interface
• console interface

3. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose
three.)
• greater distances per cable run
• lower installation cost
• limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
• durable connections
• greater bandwidth potential
• easily terminated

4. A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to
100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be
inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with
limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
• STP
• UTP
• coaxial
• single-mode fiber
• multimode fiber
5. What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
• loss of signal strength as distance increases
• time for a signal to reach its destination
• leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
• strengthening of a signal by a networking device
6. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the
130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
• 30
• 256
• 2046
• 2048
• 4094
• 4096
7. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to
provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0
8. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which
subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in
each subnet?
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248

9. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
• cross-over
• straight-through
• rollover
• patch cable

10. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?

• hub
• switch
• bridge
• router
• repeater

11. Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a
packet destined for PC2?
• 192.168.1.1
• 192.168.2.1
• 192.168.2.2
• 192.168.3.1
• 192.168.3.54

12. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result
of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
• both host A and B would be successful
• host A would be successful, host B would fail
• host B would be successful, host A would fail
• both Host A and B would fail
13. Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial
cables? (Choose three.)
• RJ 11
• DB 60
• Winchester 15 pin
• DB 9
• smart serial
• RJ 45

14. Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is
shown?
•2
•3
•4
•5

15. What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX
operation? (Choose three.)
• direct configuration of the device
• cable color code association
• cable selection and configuration
• use of cable testers to determine pinouts
• the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
• the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

16. Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose
three.)
• They propagate broadcasts.
• They enlarge collision domains.
• They segment broadcast domains.
• They interconnect different network technologies.
• Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
• They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture
software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To
ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the
monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
• router
• hub
• switch
• wireless access point
18. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many
subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
•1
•3
•4
•5
•7

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology?
(Choose three.)
• Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
• Five broadcast domains are present.
• Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
• Four broadcast domains are present.
• Five networks are shown.
• Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.
20. To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable
wiring option would be used?
• crossover cable
• straight through cable
• rollover cable
• V.35 cable

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would
be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
• Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
• Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
• Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
• Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
• Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
• Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

22. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24
private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet
mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248

CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 11

1. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to
a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has
experienced any input or output errors?
• show running-config
• show startup-config
• show interfaces
• show ip route
• show version
• show memory

2. Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean
router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config
command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to
see in the router output from the show running-config command?
• enable password classline console 0password ccna
• enable secret ciscoenable password classline console 0password ccna
• enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password classline
console 0password ccna
• enable secret ciscoenable password 7 14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7
020507550A
• enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password 7
14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7 020507550A

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the
FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1
interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to
telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4
RouterB(config-if)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login
4. Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on
Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?
• Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
• Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

5. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?

• Router# name Fontana
• Router# hostname Fontana
• Router(config)# name Fontana
• Router(config)# hostname Fontana

6. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which

configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity
with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
• Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
• Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
• Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2
7. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to
this switch?
• NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
• NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
• NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
• NA-SW1(config-if)# description description
8. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for
management purposes?
AUX
Ethernet
• Console
Telnet
SSH

9. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents
private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which
access method should be chosen?
• Telnet
• Console
• AUX
• SSH
10. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?
• after a system restart
• as the commands are entered
• when logging off the system
• when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by
the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)
• line configuration mode
• user executive mode
• global configuration mode
• privileged executive mode
• interface configuration mode
• enable mode

12. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS?
(Choose three.)
• hot keys
• context-check
• context-sensitive
• structured check
• command override
• command syntax check
13. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or
traceroute process?
• Ctrl-C
• Ctrl-P
• Ctrl-R
• Ctrl-Shift-6
• Ctrl-Z

14. Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to
configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
• UBAMA# configure terminal
• UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
• UBAMA(config)# line console 0
• UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
• UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

15. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
• Console Port

16. Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and
connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C
results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful.
What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router
output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
• The host A is turned off.
• The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
• The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
• The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
• The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
• The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.