One-mark questions

SET 1 (power plant)

1. The commercial sources of energy are

(a) solar, wind and biomass

(b) fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear energy
(c) wood, animal wastes and agriculture wastes
(d) none of the above

2. Compounding of steam turbine is done for

(a) reducing the work done
(b) increasing the rotor speed
(c) reducing the rotor speed
(d) balancing the turbine

3. In India largest thermal power station is located at

(a) Kota
(b) Sarni
(c) Chandrapur
(d) Neyveli

4. The percentage O2 by weight in atmospheric air is

(a) 18%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%

5. The percentage O2 by volume in atmosphere air is

(a) 21%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%

6. The proper indication of incomplete combustion is

(a) high CO content in flue gases at exit
(b) high CO2 content in flue gases at exit
(c) high temperature of flue gases
(d) the smoking exhaust from chimney

7. The main source of production of biogas is

(a) human waste
(b) wet cow dung
(c) wet livestock waste
(d) all above

8. India’s first nuclear power plant was installed at

(a) Tarapore
(b) Kota
(c) Kalpakkam
(d) none of the above

9. In fuel cell, the energy is converted into electrical energy.

(a) mechanical
(b) chemical
(c) heat
(d) sound

10. Solar thermal power generation can be achieved by

(a) using focusing collector or heliostats
(b) using flat plate collectors
(c) using a solar pond
(d) any of the above system

11. The energy radiated by sun on a bright sunny day is approximately

(a) 700 W/m2
(b) 800 W/m2
(c) 1 kW/m2
(d) 2 kW/m2

12. Thorium Breeder Reactors are most suitable for India because
(a) these develop more power
(b) its technology is simple
(c) abundance of thorium deposits are available in India
(d) these can be easily designed

13. The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal to

(a) Rankine cycle efficiency
(b) Carnot cycle efficiency
(c) Regenerative cycle efficiency
(d) Boiler efficiency x turbine efficiency x generator efficiency

14. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range of
(a) 15 to 20 percent
(6) 35 to 45 percent
(c) 70 to 80 percent
(d) 90 to 95 percent

15. Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of p1 and high-pressure limit of p2
(a) has higher thermal efficiency than the Carnot cycle operating between same pressure
limits
(b) has lower thermal efficiency than Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limit?
(c) has same thermal efficiency as Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
(d) may be more or less depending upon the magnitude of p1 and p2

16. Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant

(a) improves in summer as compared to that in winter
(6) improves in winter as compared to that in summer
(c) is unaffected by climatic conditions
(d) none of the above

17. Carnot cycle comprises of

(a) two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
(b) two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
(e) two isothermal processes and three constant pressure processes
(d) none of the above

18. In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is given by
(a) change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
(b) change of enthalpy between inlet and outlet
(c) change of entropy between inlet and outlet
(d) change of temperature between inlet and outlet

19. Regenerative cycle thermal efficiency

(a) is always greater than simple Rankine thermal efficiency
(b) is greater than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency only when steam is bled at
particular pressure
(c) is same as simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
(d) is always less than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency

20. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the optimum value of the fraction of
steam extracted for feed heating
(a) decreases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
(b) increases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
(c) is unaffected by increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
(d) none of the above

21. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the greatest economy is affected

(a) when steam is extracted from only one suitable point of steam turbine
(b) when steam is extracted from several places in different stages of steam turbine
(c) when steam is extracted only from the last stage of steam turbine
(d) when steam is extracted only from the first stage of steam turbine

22. The maximum percentage gain in Regenerative feed heating cycle thermal
efficiency
(a) increases with number of feed heaters increasing
(b) decreases with number of feed heaters increasing
(c) remains same unaffected by number of feed heaters
(d) none of the above

23. In regenerative cycle feed water is heated by

(a) exhaust gases
(b) heaters
(c) draining steam from the turbine
(d) all above
24. Reheat cycle in steam power plant is used to
(a) utilise heat of flue gases
(b) increase thermal efficiency
(c) improve condenser performance
(d) reduce loss of heat

25. Mercury is a choice with steam in binary vapour cycle because it has
(a) higher critical temperature and pressure
(b) higher saturation temperature than other fluids
(c) relatively low vaporisation pressure
(d) all above

26. Binary vapour cycles are used to

(a) increase the performance of the condenser
(b) increase the efficiency of the plant
(c) increase efficiency of the turbine

27. A steam power station requires space

(a) equal to diesel power station
(b) more than diesel power station
(c) less than diesel power station

28. Economiser is used to heat

(a) air
(b) feed water
(c) flue gases
(d) all above

29. The modern steam turbines are

(a) impulse turbines
(b) reaction turbines
(c) impulse-reaction turbines
(d) none of the above

30. The draught which a chimney produces is called

(a) induced draught
(b) natural draught
(c) forced draught
(d) balanced draught

31. The draught produced by steel chimney as compared to that produced by

brick chimney for the same height is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) may be more or less

32. In a boiler installation the natural draught is produced

(a) due to the fact that furnace gases being light go through the chimney giving place to
cold air from outside to rush in
(b) due to the fact that pressure at the grate due to cold column is higher than the pressure at
the chimney base due to hot column
(c) due to the fact that at the chimney top the pressure is more than its environmental
pressure
(d) all of the above

33. The draught produced, for a given height of the chimney and given mean
temperature of chimney gases
(a) decreases with increase in outside air temperature
(b) increases with increase in outside air temperature
(c) remains the same irrespective of outside air temperature
(d) may increase or decrease with increase in outside air temperature

34. The draught produced by chimney of given height at given outside temperature
(a) decreases if the chimney gas temperature increases
(b) increases if the chimney gas temperature increases
(c) remains same irrespective of chimney gas temperature
(d) may increase or decrease

35. For forced draught system, the function of chimney is mainly

(a) to produce draught to accelerate the combustion of fuel
(b) to discharge gases high up in the atmosphere to avoid hazard
(c) to reduce the temperature of the hot gases discharged
(d) none of the above

36. Artificial draught is produced by

(a) induced fan
(b) forced fan
(c) induced and forced fan
(d) all of the above

37. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by

(a) forced fan
(b) chimney
(c) steam jet
(d) only motion of locomotive

38. For the same draught produced the power of induced draught fan as compared
to forced draught fan is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) not predictable

39. Artificial draught is produced by

(a) air fans
(b) steam jet
(c) fan or steam jet
(d) all of the above

40. The artificial draught normally is designed to produce

(a) less smoke
(b) more draught
(c) less chimney gas temperature
(d) all of the above

41. For the induced draught the fan is located

(a) near bottom of chimney
(b) near bottom of furnace
(c) at the top of the chimney
(D) anywhere permissible

42. The pressure at the furnace is minimum in case of

(a) forced draught system
(b) induced draught system
(c) balanced draught system
(d) natural draught system

43. The efficiency of chimney is approximately

(a) 80%
(b) 40%
(c) 20%
(d) 0.25%

44. The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle for the steam
initially superheated at inlet is approximated by equation
(a) pvls=C
(b) pv1126 = C
(c) pv1A = C
(d) pv = C

45. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure for maximum mass flow rate per
unit area of steam through a nozzle when steam is initially dry saturated is
(a) 0.6
(6) 0.578
(c) 0.555
(d) 0.5457

46. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure of maximum mass flow rate per area
of steam through a nozzle when steam is initially superheated is
(a) 0.555
(b) 0.578
(c) 0.5457
(d) 0.6

47. The critical pressure ratio of a convergent nozzle is defined as

(a) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure of nozzle
(b) the ratio of inlet pressure to outlet pressure of nozzle
(c) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow rate per unit area is
minimum
(d) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow rate = c
48. The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle for the steam initially
dry saturated at inlet is approximated by equation.
(a)pv = C
(b)pv1A = C
(c)pv1i = C
(d)pv

49. The effect of considering friction losses in steam nozzle for the same pressure ratio
leads to
(a) increase in exit velocity from the nozzle
(6) decrease in exit velocity from the nozzle
(c) no change in exit velocity from the nozzle
(d) increase or decrease depending upon the exit quality of steam

50. The effect of considering friction in steam nozzles for the same pressure ratio leads
to
(a) increase in dryness fraction of exit steam
(b) decrease in dryness fraction of exit steam
(c) no change in the quality of exit steam
(d) decrease or increase of dryness fraction of exit steam depending upon inlet quality

51. In case of impulse steam turbine

(a) there is enthalpy drop in fixed and moving blades
(b) there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
(c) there is enthalpy drop in nozzles
(d) none of the above

52. The pressure on the two sides of the impulse wheel of a steam turbine
(a) is same
(b) is different
(c) increases from one side to the other side
(d) decreases from one side to the other side

53. In De Laval steam turbine

(a) the pressure in the turbine rotor is approximately same as in con¬denser
(b) the pressure in the turbine rotor is higher than pressure in the con¬denser
(c) the pressure in the turbine rotor gradually decreases from inlet to exit from condenser
(d) none from the above

54. In case of reaction steam turbine

(a) there is enthalpy drop both in fixed and moving blades
(b) there is enthalpy drop only in fixed blades
(c) there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
(d) none of the above

55. Curtis turbine is

(a) reaction steam turbine
(b) pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
(c) pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
(d) velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
56. Rateau steam turbine is
(a) reaction steam turbine
(b) velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
(c) pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
(d) pressure velocity compounded steam turbine

57. Parson’s turbine is

(a) pressure compounded steam turbine
(b) simple single wheel, impulse steam turbine
(c) simple single wheel reaction steam turbine
(d) multi wheel reaction steam turbine

58. For Parson’s reaction steam turbine, degree of reaction is

(a) 75%
(b) 100%
(c) 50%
(d) 60%

59. Reheat factor in steam turbines depends on

(a) exit pressure only
(b) stage efficiency only
(c) initial pressures and temperature only
(d) all of the above

60. The value of reheat factor normally varies from

(a) 0.5 to 0.6
(b) 0.9 to 0.95
(c) 1.02 to 1.06
(d) 1.2 to 1.6

61. Steam turbines are governed by the following methods

(a) Throttle governing
(b) Nozzle control governing
(c) By-pass governing
(d) all of the above

62. In steam turbines the reheat factor

(a) increases with the increase in number of stages
(b) decreases with the increase in number of stages
(c) remains same irrespective of number of stages
(d) none of the above

63. The thermal efficiency of the engine with condenser as compared to

without condenser, for a given pressure and temperature of steam, is
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same as long as initial pressure and temperature is unchanged
(d) none of the above

64. In jet type condensers

(a) cooling water passes through tubes and steam surrounds them
(b) steam passes through tubes and cooling water surrounds them
(c) steam and cooling water mix
(d) steam and cooling water do not mix

65. In a shell and tube surface condenser

(a) steam and cooling water mix to give the condensate
(b) cooling water passes through the tubes and steam surrounds them
(c) steam passes through the cooling tubes and cooling water surrounds them
(d) all of the above varying with situation

66. In a surface condenser if air is removed, there is

(a) fall in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
(b) rise in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
(c) no change in absolute pressure in the condenser
(d) rise in temperature of condensed steam

67. The cooling section in the surface condenser

(a) increases the quantity of vapour extracted along with air
(b) reduces the quantity of vapour extracted along with air
(c) does not affect vapour quantity extracted but reduces pump capacity of air extraction
pump
(d) none of the above

68. Edward’s air pump

(a) removes air and also vapour from condenser
(b) removes only air from condenser
(c) removes only un-condensed vapour from condenser
(d) removes air along with vapour and also the condensed water from condenser

69. In a steam power plant, the function of a condenser is

(a) to maintain pressure below atmospheric to increase work output from the prime mover
(b) to receive large volumes of steam exhausted from steam prime mover
(c) to condense large volumes of steam to water which may be used again in boiler
(d) all of the above

70. In a regenerative surface condenser

(a) there is one pump to remove air and condensate
(b) there are two pumps to remove air and condensate
(c) there are three pumps to remove air, vapour and condensate
(d) there is no pump, the condensate gets removed by gravity

71. Evaporative type of condenser has

(a) steam in pipes surrounded by water
(b) water in pipes surrounded by steam
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above

72. Pipes carrying steam are generally made up of

(a) steel
(b) cast iron
(c) copper
(d) aluminium

73. For the safety of a steam boiler the number of safety valves fitted are
(a) four
(b) three
(c) two
(d) one

74. Steam turbines commonly used in steam power station are

(a) condensing type
(b) non-condensing type
(c) none of the above

75. Belt conveyer can be used to transport coal at inclinations upto

(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 80°
(d) 90°

76. The maximum length of a screw conveyer is about

(a) 30 metres
(b) 40 metres
(c) 60 metres
(d) 100 metres

77. The efficiency of a modern boiler using coal and heat recovery equipment is about
(a) 25 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
(c) 65 to 70%
(d) 85 to 90%

78. The average ash content in Indian co als is about

(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 20%

79. Load centre in a power station is

(a) centre of coal fields
(b) centre of maximum load of equipments
(c) centre of gravity of electrical system

80. Steam pressure in a steam power station, which is usually kept now-a-days is
of the order of
(a) 20 kgf/cm2
(b) 50 kgf/cm2
(c) 100 kgf/cm2
(d) 150 kgf/cm2

81. Economisers improve boiler efficiency by

(a) 1 to 5%
(b) 4 to 10%
(c) 10 to 12%

82. The capacity of large turbo-generators varies from

(a) 20 to 100 MW
(b) 50 to 300 MW
(c) 70 to 400 MW
(d) 100 to 650 MW

83. Caking coals are those which

(a) burn completely
(b) burn freely
(c) do not form ash
(d) form lumps or masses of coke

84. Primary air is that air which is used to

(a) reduce the flame length
(b) increase the flame length
(c) transport and dry the coal
(d) provide air around burners for getting optimum combustion

85. Secondary air is the air used to

(a) reduce the flame length
(b) increase the flame length
(c) transport and dry the coal
(d) provide air round the burners for getting optimum combustion

86. In coal preparation plant, magnetic separators are used to remove

(a) dust
(b) clinkers
(c) iron particles
(d) sand

87. Load carrying capacity of belt conveyor is about

(a) 20 to 40 tonnes/hr
(b) 50 to 100 tonnes/hr
(c) 100 to 150 tonnes/hr
(d) 150 to 200 tonnes/hr

88. Method which is commonly applied for unloading the coal for small power plant is
(a) lift trucks
(b) coal accelerators
(c) tower cranes
(d) belt conveyor

89. Bucket elevators are used for

(a) carrying coal in horizontal direction
(b) carrying coal in vertical direction
(c) carrying coal in any direction
90. The amount of air which is supplied for complete combustion is called
(a) primary air
(b) secondary air
(c) tertiary air

91. In ______ system fuel from a central pulverizing unit is delivered to a bunker
and then to the various burners
(a) unit
(b) central
(c) none of the above

92. Under-feed stokers work best for _______ coals high in volatile matter and
with caking tendency

(a) anthracite
(b) lignite
(c) semi bituminous and bituminous

93. Example of overfeed type stoker is

(a) chain grate
(b) spreader
(c) travelling grate
(d) all of the above

94. Where unpulverized coal has to be used and boiler capacity is large, the
stoker which is used is
(a) underfeed stoker
(b) overfeed stoker
(c) any

95. Travelling grate stoker can burn coals at the rates of

(a) 50—75 kg/m per hour
(b) 75—100 kg/m per hour
(c) 100—150 kg/m per hour
(d) 150—200 kg/m2 per hour

96. Blowing down of boiler water is the process

(a) to reduce the boiler pressure
(b) to increase the steam temperature
(c) to control the solid concentration in the boiler water by removing some of
the concentrated saline water
(d) none of the above

97. Deaerative heating is done to

(a) heat the water
(b) heat the air in the water
(c) remove dissolved gases in the water

98. Reheat factor is the ratio of

(a) isentropic heat drop to useful heat drop
(b) adiabatic heat drop to isentropic heat drop
(c) cumulative actual enthalpy drop for the stages to total is isentropic enthalpy heat drop

99. The value of the reheat factor is of the order of

(a) 0.8 to 1.0
(b) 1.0 to 1.05
(c) 1.1 to 1.5
(d) above 1.5

100. Compounding of steam turbine is done for

(a) reducing the work done
(b) increasing the rotor speed
(c) reducing the rotor speed
(d) balancing the turbine

SET 2
1. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but still everybody discuss about the
energy crisis because
(a) Energy transform into different form continuously.
(b) Usable form of energy is dissipated to the surroundings in less usable forms.
(c) Energy is consumed and cannot be used again.
(d) All of these

2. An ideal source of energy should have

(a) higher calorific value
(b) easy transportability
(c) easy accessibility
(d) All of these

3. Fossil fuels are

(a) non-renewable source of energy
(b) renewable source of energy
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

4. Dead organisms are transformed into petroleum and natural gas in

(a) presence of air
(b) absence of air
(c) presence of sunlight
(d) none of the above
5. Which of the following problem is associated with a burning of coal?
(а) Carbon-dioxide emission
(b) acid rain
(c) ash with toxic metal supurity
(d) all of these.

6. Select the important factor for the site selection of a thermal power plant.
(a) Distance from the populated area
(b) Availability of fuel
(c) Availability’ of water
(d) Cost of plant

7. Select the correct order of energy conversion in thermal power plant-

2
3

8. Hydropower plant are located in the

(a) desert area
(b) plane area
(c) hilly terrains
(d) none-of above

9. Biogas is a better fuel than animal dung cake because

(a) biogas has lower calorific value.
(b) animal dung cake has high calorific value
(c) biogas bums smoke and leaves no residue
(d) biogas is used as a fuel for cooking only whereas dung cake can be used for cooking,
illuminate the lanterns.
10. Which of the following organism produces biogas from cow drug sherry in the
biogas plant?
(a) aerobic bacteria
(b) anaerobic bacteria
(c) protozoa
(d) fungi

11. Wind is caused due to

(a) uneven heating of earth’s surface
(b) rotation of earth
(c) local conditions
(d) All of these

12. What are the disadvantage of solar energy

(a) A large surface area is required collect the solar
(b) Daily average of solar energy varies from 4 to 7 kwh/m2
(c) Highly hazardous toxic material is used in the manufacturing of solar device.
(d) All of the above are disadvantages.

13. The temperature inside the solar cooker ranges from

(a) 500-100°C
(b) 100-140°C
(c) 150-200°C
(d) 70-80°C

14. The use of reflector in the solar cooker is to

(a) Decrease efficiency
(b) create green house effect
(c) increase efficiency
(d) none of these

15. Solar cells are made of

(a) germanium
(b) silicon
(c) silver
(d) aluminium

16. The material used for interconnection the solar cells in the solar panel is
(a) silicon
(b) silver
(c) aluminium
(d) copper

17. A solar panel is made by combining in an arrangement

(a) solar concentrator
(b) solar cookers
(c) solar cells
(d) solar chimney

18. Tidal energy is a farm of energy obtained from the

(a) motion of surface water in ponds
(b) ocean in the form of tidal waves
(c) tides occurs in the river water
(d) motion of the wave in sea

19. Tidal energy is harnessed by constructing a dam across

(a) narrow opening to the sea
(b) wide opening to the sea
(c) the river in hilly trains
(d) the river in plane areas

20. Wave energy is caused due to

(a) strong winds blowing across the sea
(b) kinetic energy possessed by huge waves near the sea shore
(c) potential energy possessed by the stored water
(d) both (a) and (b)
21. The working fluid in ocean thermal power plant is
(a) Volatile liquid like ammonia
(b) petrol
(c) charcoal
(d) liquified petroleum gas

22. Geothermal energy is

(a) Heat energy in the interior of earth
(b) energy of molten mars exists in the farm of magma inside the earth.
(c) molten lava on the surface of earth
(d) energy obtained from solar thermal electric plants

23. U-235 will undergo fission by

(a) low energy neutrons only
(b) high energy neutrons only
(c) medium energy neutrons
(d) low energy protons only

24. In a hydropower plant

(a) Potential energy possessed by stored water is converted into electricity
(b) Kinetic energy possessed by stored water is converted into potential energy
(c) Electricity is extracted from water
(d) Water is converted into steam to produce electricity.

25. Which is the ultimate source of energy?

(a) Water
(b) Sun
(c) Uranium
(d) Fossil fuels

26. Which one of the following forms of energy leads to least environmental pollution in
the process of its harnessing and utilisation?
(a) Nuclear energy
(b) Thermal energy
(c) Solar energy
(d) Geothermal energy
27. Ocean thermal energy is due to
(a) energy stored by waves in the ocean
(b) temperature difference at different levels in the ocean
(c) pressure difference at different levels in the ocean
(d) tides arising out in the ocean

28. The major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is how to

(a) split nuclei?
(b) sustain the reaction?
(c) dispose off spent fuel safely?
(d) convert nuclear energy into electrical energy?

29. Which part of the solar cooker is responsible for green house effect?

(a) Coating with black colour inside the box

(b) Mirror
(c) Glass sheet
(d) Outer cover of the solar cooker

30. The power generated in a windmill

(a) is more in rainy season since damp air would mean more air mass hitting the blades
(b) depends on the height of the tower
(c) depends on wind velocity
(d) can be increased by planting tall trees close to the tower

31. Choose the correct statement

(a) Sun can be taken as an inexhaustible source of energy
(b) There is infinite storage of fossil fuel inside the earth
(c) Hydro and wind energy plants are non-polluting
(d) Waste from a nuclear power plant can be easily disposed off

32. A good fuel should possess

(a) high ignition temperature
(b) moderate ignition temperature
(c) high calorific value
(d) both high calorific value and moderate ignition temperature

33. The variety of coal which has the highest carbon content
(a) Anthracite
(b) Peat
(c) Bituminous
(d) Lignite

34. Unit of calorific value of a substance is

(a) Kcal
(b) Joules
(c) J kg
(d) J/kg

35. Biogas is formed in the

(a) presence of air only
(b) presence of water only
(c) absence of air only
(d) presence of water and absence of air

36. Solar energy can be directly converted to electrical energy by which of the following
de-vices?
(a) solar cooker
(b) solar heater
(c) solar cell
(d) solar geyser

37. Which of the following is the ultimate source of energy?

(a) Water
(b) Sun
(c) Fossil fuels
(d) Uranium
38. Which of the following gases is the main constituent of natural gas?
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(c) Propane
(d) Butane

39. Which element is used in solar cells?

(a) Carbon
(b) Silicon
(c) Phosphorous
(d) Sulphur

40. Ocean thermal energy is produced due to

(a) pressure difference at different levels in the ocean.
(b) temperature difference at different levels in the ocean.
(c) energy stored by waves in the ocean.
(d) tides rising out of the ocean.

41. A device in which electricity is produced by the process of controlled nuclear fission
reaction is called
(a) nuclear chain reaction
(b) hydel power plant
(c) nuclear reactor
(d) thermal power plant

42. One major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is

(a) converting nuclear energy into electrical energy.
(b) sustaining the reaction.
(e) splitting the nuclei.
(d) disposing off spent fuel easily.

43. Spent slurry (Bio-waste after obtaining biogas) is used as

(a) fuel
(b) manure
(c) food for livestock
(d) used again for generating biogas
Direction (Q44 to Q48): In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put
forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are. correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

44. Assertion: Fuel has to be burnt to obtain heat energy. B

Reason: The minimum temperature to which a fuel must be heated so that it may catch fire
and start burning is known as ignition temperature.

45. Assertion: The major constituent of biogas is methane.

Reason: Biogas is produced by the aerobic degradation by animal wastes like cow ding in the
presence of water. C

46. Assertion: Wind energy farms cannot be established everywhere.

Reason: The wind energy farms can be established only at those places where wind blows for
most part of the year. A

47. Assertion: Coke is a better fuel than coal.

Reason: Burning of coke cause air pollution. C

48. Assertion: Non-conventional sources of energy are the major source of energy for
generating electricity in power plants.
Reason: Coal and petroleum are non- conventional energy sources. D

Convex
49. Mirrors used for solar cooker are ______________ .

Butane
50. A fuel is a good one if its ______________ value is high.
 New Zealand .
51. Geothermal energy is widely trapped in USA and ______________

Fusion
52. ______________ reaction is more powerful than a fission reaction.

Ammonia
53. Ocean thermal energy is used to boil ______________ before running the turbine.

Solar Cells .
54. Artificial satellites and space probes are electrified using ______________

55. Fossil fuels do not cause pollution. [True/False]

56. Acid rain is formed by acidic oxides of carbon, sulphur and nitrogen. [True/False]

57. The use of turbine is essential for the production of electrical energy. [True/False]

58. The approximate percentage of energy met by India with the use of hydel energy is 25%.
[True/False]

59. Windmills require giant structural erection and vast space. [True/False]

60. New Zealand is called as “Country of Winds”. [True/False]

 Direction (Q49 to Q50): Match Column I with Column II.
61.

Column I Column II

(a) Fossil fuels (i) Renewable

3

(b) Silicon (ii) Electrical energy 4

(c) Geothermal energy (iii) Depleting 1

(d) Turbine (iv) Solar cells 2

62.

Column I Column II

(a) Black surface (i) Water heaters 1

(b) Turbine (ii) Solar cell 3

(c) Semi conductors (iii) Generators 2

(d) Digestor (iv) Bio gas 4

A source of energy is one which can provide sufficient amount of energy in convenient manner

63. Define source of energy.

A source of energy is one which can provide sufficient amount of energy in
convenient manner over a long period of time

64. Why are the coal, petroleum and natural gas called fossil fuels?

Coal, petroleum and natural gas, the common sources of energy, being organic (biotic)
in their origin and formed over a long period of time are called fossil fuels.
 65. If you could use any source of energy for heating your food which one would you prefer?
State one reason for your choice.
LPG because it does not leave any residue on burning.

66. What do you mean by the term ‘thermal power plant’?

Thermal power plant is the power plant where coal is burnt to produce heat energy which is
converted into electrical energy.

67. The cost of production of electricity in a thermal power station located in Bihar/
Jharkhand/Orissa is lesser than in Gujarat/ Maharashtra. Do you agree? Justify your answer.
Yes, it is because in Bihar/Jharkhand/Orissa, coal for thermal power plant is locally available
whereas it has to be transported for any thermal power plant to be located in Gujrat/Maharashtra.

68. Which of the following power plants to produce electricity involves more running
expenses and why? Thermal power station, hydro power station, an array of solar panel, wind
energy farm or geothermal source.
Thermal power stations involve more running cost due to continuous use of coal.

69. What is acid rain?

The rain containing the acidic oxides such as oxides of carbon and traces of nitrogen
and sulphur.

70. List two non-conventional source of energy.

Geothermal, solar, biomass, water, wind are the non-convention source of energy,
(any two)

71. How does technology help in the transformation of energy?

Technologoy help us to provide the various means to transform the energy obtained
from different source into useful form of energy.

72. Justify that the hydropower is a renewable source of energy.

Hydropower is generated from water flowing out of the dam and water in the reservoir would
be refilled each time it rains through the high altitude rivers on which dam is constructed.

73. Why the dams for generating hydroelectricity can be built only in the hilly areas or at the
foothill?

It is because to generate hydroelectricity water can fall from a considerable height.

74. State the main difference between thermal power and hydropower plants based on
electricity generation.
In thermal power plant, chemical energy of fossil fuel is used while potential energy
of stored water is used in hydropower plant to produced electricity.

75. Write the energy conversion that takes place in a hydropower plant.
The energy transformation taking place at hydropower plants is shown below
K.E of - P.E of - K.E of - Mechanical energy - Electrical
flowing water stored water falling water of rotating turbine Energy
76. Name the kind of energy possessed by wind and the device used to harness it.
Kinetic energy, wind mill.

77. What is the minimum speed of wind to run a windmill to maintain the necessary speed of
turbine of an electric generator?

15 km/h.

78. Name the place in India where the largest wind energy farm has been established and how
much electricity does it generate?
It is established near Kanyakumari is Tamil Nadu and it generates 380 MW of
electricity.

79. Which country ranked first in harnessing wind energy for the production of electricity.
Germany.

80. How much land area is needed to establish a wind energy farm for generating 1 MW of
electricity?
About 2 hectares of land.

81. Which country is known as ‘country of winds’?

Denmark.

82. Why a solar cooker painted black form outside?

Black surface absorbs more heat as compared to white or reflecting surface under
identical conditions.

83. Which metal is used to connect various solar cells?

Silver.
84. A solar cell transforms energy of one form into another. What are these two forms of
energy?
A solar cell transform solar energy into electrical energy.

85. Name any two elements that are used in fabricating solar cells.
Germanium, Silicon.

86. Define solar panel.

A group of solar cells arranged in a definite pattern is called a solar panel.

Methane.
87. What is the voltage developed by a typical solar cell?
A voltage of about 0.5 V to 1 V is developed by a typical solar cell.

88. How do satellites get energy to operate all the devices?

From solar energy conversion using solar cell panels.

89. Name the main component of solar cell.

Solar cell consists of different thin layers of silicon.

90. Name a device which can be used for cooking so as to save fuel.
Solar cooker.

91. Which gas is formed by decomposing plant and animal matter in marshy areas?
Methane.

92. Name the part of a biogas plant where reactions take place in the absence of oxygen.
Digester chamber.

93. Bio-gas is also known as gobar gas. Justify.

Starting material for biogas is mainly cow-dung. So, it is also known as gobar gas.

94. Name the microorganism which decompose slurry into biogas.

Anaerobic bacteria.
 95. List two nutrients that the slurry left behind in the biogas plant contain.
Nitrogen and phosphorous.

96. Apart from cow-dung, name other materials which can be used for making bio gas.
Various plant materials like the residue after harvesting the crops, vegetable waste
and sewage.

97. Why is CNG considered as environmental friendly fuel?

CNG does not produce any harmful gases on burning. So atmosphere does not gets polluted.
Fill in the Blanks
1. In the wind energy farms, the wind speed should be higher than 15……….
km/hto
maintain the required speed of
the turbine. nuclear fission
2. The energy produced during controlled ………. reactions is used for generating
electricity at nuclear
power plants.
3. The energy available due to the difference in the temperature of water at the
surface of the ocean and at Ocean thermal energy
deeper levels is called ………. . anaerobic degradation
4. Biogas is produced by the ………. of animal wastes or plant wastes in the
presence of water.
5. Biogas is an excellent fuel as it contains 75% ………. along with other gases like
………., ………. and ………. .
methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide
SET 3
1-Which of the following is (are) renewable resource(s)

(A) wind
(B) tides
(C) geothermal heat
(D) all of the above

2-Which of the following country generate all their electricity using renewable energy?
(A) Iceland
(B) England
(C) USA
(D) China

3-Renwable energy often displaces conventional fuel in which of the following area
(A) space heating
(B) transportation
(C) electricity generation
(D) all of the above

4-Which of the following is used as fuel for transportation

(A) ethanol
(B) aldehyde
(C) ketone
(D) all of the above

5-Biodiesel is produced from oils or fats using

(A) fermentation
(B) transesterification
(C) distillation
(D) none of the above

6-Photovoltaic cell converts solar energy into

(A) heat energy
(B) electric energy
(C) mechanical energy
(D) chemical energy

7-In which of the following region winds are stronger and constant
(A) deserts
(B) offshore
(C) low altitudes sites
(D) all of the above

8-Following country met more than 40% of its electricity demand from wind energy
(A) Denmark
(B) Portugal
(C) Ireland
(D) Spain

9-Concentrated solar power (CSP) systems use ____ to focus a large area of sunlight
into a small beam.
(A) lenses
(B) mirrors
(C) tracking systems
(D) all of the above

10-The difference, in temperature between the core of the planet and its surface, is
known as
(A) geothermal coefficient
(B) geothermal gradient
(C) geothermal constant
(D) none of the above

11-Biomass can be converted to

(A) methane gas
(B) ethanol
(C) biodiesel
(D) all of the above

12-The International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) was formed in

(A) 2008
(B) 2009
(C) 2010
(D) 2011

13-Which of the following was the first solar powered aircraft to complete a
circumnavigation of the world?
(A) Solar impulse
(B) Solar impulse 2
(C) Solar impulse 3
(D) Solar impulse 4

14-Following is true for biomass and biofuels

(A) their contribution in reduction in CO2 emissions is limited
(B) both emit large amount of air pollution when burned
(C) they consume large amounts of water
(D) all of the above

SET 4
1. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
(a) Coal

(b) Forests

(c) Water

(d) Wildlife

2. Which among the following is not a renewable source of energy?

(a) Solar energy
(b) Biomass energy

(c) Hydro-power

(d) Geothermal energy

3. Identify the non-renewable energy resource from the following:

(a) Coal

(b) Fuel cells

(c) Wind power

(d) Wave power

4. Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy sources?

(a) Highly polluting

(b) High waste disposal cost

(c) Unreliable supply

(d) High running cost

5. Photovoltaic energy is the conversion of sunlight into:

(a) Chemical energy

(b) Biogas

(c) Electricity

(d) Geothermal energy

6. Horizontal axis and vertical axis are the types of:

(a) Nuclear reactor

(b) Wind mills

(c) Biogas reactor

(d) Solar cell

7. Which among the following is not an adverse environmental impact of tidal power
generation?
(a) Interference with spawning and migration of fish

(b) Pollution and health hazard in the estuary due to blockage of flow of polluted water into
the sea

(c) Navigational hazard

(d) None of the above

8. Steam reforming is currently the least expensive method of producing:

(a) Coal

(b) Biogas

(c) Hydrogen

(d) Natural gas

9. A fuel cell, in order to produce electricity, burns:

(a) Helium

(b) Nitrogen

(c) Hydrogen

(d) None of the above

10. Fuel cells are:

(a) Carbon cell

(b) Hydrogen battery

(c) Nuclear cell

(d) Chromium cell

11. Both power and manure is provided by:

(a) Nuclear plants

(b) Thermal plants

(c) Biogas plants

(d) Hydroelectric plant

12. The outermost layer of the earth is:

(a) Magma

(b) Mantle

(c) Crust

(d) Solid iron core

13. Common energy source in Indian villages is:

(a) Electricity

(b) Coal

(c) Sun

(d) Wood and animal dung

14. The one thing that is common to all fossil fuels is that they:
(a) Were originally formed in marine environment

(b) Contain carbon

(c) Have undergone the same set of geological processes during their formation

(d) Represent the remains of one living organisms

15. The process that converts solid coal into liquid hydrocarbon fuel is called:
(a) Liquefaction

(b) Carbonation

(c) Catalytic conversion

(d) Cracking

16. Lignite, bituminous and anthracite are different ranks of:

(a) Nuclear fuel
(b) Coal

(c) Natural gas

(d) Biogas

17. Crude oil is:

(a) Colourless

(b) Odourless

(c) Smelly yellow to black liquid

(d) Odourless yellow to black liquid

18. BTU is measurement of:

(a) Volume

(b) Area

(c) Heat content

(d) Temperature

19. The first controlled fission of an atom was carried out in Germany in:
(a) 1920

(b) 1928

(c) 1925

(d) 1938

20. Boiling water reactor and pressurised water reactors are:

(a) Nuclear reactor

(b) Solar reactor

(c) OTEC

(d) Biogas reactor

SET 5
1. Which of the following device converts chemical energy in to electrical energy?

A. Battery

B. Loud Speaker

C. Solar Cell

D. Electric Motor

2. The energy possessed by a body due to its position is called:

A. Kinetic Energy

B. Potential Energy

C. Mechanical Energy

D. Electrical Energy

3. Joule is a unit of:

A. Work

B. Power

C. Momentum

D. None of the above

4. The commercial unit of Energy is:

A. Watt

B. Watt-hour

C. Kilowatt-hour

D. Kilowatt

5. When an object falls freely towards the ground, then its total energy:
A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remains constant

D. First increases then decreases

6. In 1 minute how much energy does a 100 W electric bulb transfers?
A. 100 J

B. 600 J

C. 3600 J

D. 6000 J

7. What happens to the body on which work is done:

A. It loses energy

B. It gains energy

C. No change in the energy

D. First it loses then it gains

8. A radio set of 60 watts runs for 50 hours. How many units of electrical energy are
consumed in kWh?
A. 2 kWh

B. 3 kWh

C. 4 kWh

D. 2.5 kWh

9. What is the smallest unit of power?

A. Watt

B. Kilowatt

C. Horse power

D. Milliwatt

10. On an object the work done does not depend upon:

A. Displacement

B. Angle between force and displacement

C. Force applied

D. Initial velocity of an object

SET 6

1. Natural Gas contains?

a) 95-99% methane
b) 95-99% Ethane
c) 95-99% methane & ethane mix
d) None

2. “The judicious and effective use of energy to maximise profits and enhance competitive
positions”. This can be the definition of:
a) Energy conservation
b) Energy management
c) Energy policy
d) Energy Audit

3. The energy management function is generally vested in –

(a) Senior Management
(b) One energy manager or co-ordinator
(c) Distributed among number of middle managers
(d) (b) & (c) together

4. The objective of energy management includes

a) Minimising energy costs
b) Minimising waste
c) Minimising environmental degradation
d) All the above

5. The ratio of current year’s production to the reference year’s production is called as
a) Demand factor
b) Production factor
c) Utilisation factor
d) Load factor

6. Replacement of steam based hot water generation by solar system is an example of

a) Matching energy usage to the requirement
b) Maximising system efficiency
c) Energy substitution
d) Performance improvement

7. One unit of electricity is equivalent to kcal heat units.

a) 800
b) 860
c) 400
d) 680

8. The benchmarking parameter for air conditioning equipment is

a) kW/Ton of Refrigeration
b) kW/ kg of refrigerant handled
c) kcal/m3 of chilled water
d) Differential temperature across chiller

9. The percentage of energy saved at the current rate of use, compared to the reference
year rate of use, is called
a) Energy Utilization
b) Energy Performance
c) Energy Efficiency
d) None

10. Which instrument is used to monitor O2, CO in flue gas?

a) Combustion analyser
b) Power analyser
c) Pyrometer
d) Fyrite

11. Lux meter is used to measure……

a) Illumination level
b) Sound intensity and illumination level
c) Harmonics
d) Speed

12. For a cement plant the parameter, “kWh/MT of clinker “indicates

a) Energy Index parameter
b) Utility factor
c) Production factor
d) Load factor

13. Energy manager should be well versed with

a) Manufacturing and processing skills
b) Managerial and technical skills
c) Technical and marketing skills
d) Managerial and commercial skills

14. An energy policy does not include

a) Target energy consumption reduction
b) Time period for reduction
c) Declaration of top management commitment
d) Future production projection

15. CO2 measurement of Fyrite kit is based on

a) Weight basis (dry)
b) Volume basis (dry)
c) Weight basis (wet)
d) Volume basis (wet)

16. Non-contact speed measurements can be carried out by

a) Tachometer
b) Stroboscope
c) Oscilloscope
d) Speedometer

17. The tool used for performance assessment and logical evaluation of avenues for
improvement in Energy management and audit is
a) Fuel substitution

b) Monitoring and verification

c) Energy pricing

d) Bench marking

18. Infrared thermometer is used to measure

a) Surface temperature
b) Flame temperature
c) Flue gas temperature
d) Hot water temperature

19. Find out the odd among the following choices for fuel substitution for industrial sector
of India.
a) LDO with LSHS
b) Coal with rice husk
c) Natural gas for fertilizer plant
d) LPG for soft coke

20. What is “Zero Net Energy”?

a. “Zero Net Energy” means not using energy from the internet.
b. “Zero Net Energy” means not using any energy.
c. “Zero Net Energy” means the total amount of energy used every year is equal
to the amount of renewable energy created on site.
d. “Zero Net Energy” means using a net to try and capture energy.

21. Air velocity in ducts can be measured by using and manometer

a) Orifice meter
b) Borden gauge
c) Pitot tube
d) Anemometer
22. An energy audit team is formed during
a) post audit phase
b) audit phase
c) pre-audit phase
d) the time of study

23. Which of the following is not part of energy monitoring

a) data recording
b) data analysis
c) data reporting
d) energy efficiency equipment financing

24. The energy sources that are either found or stored in nature are
a) Secondary Energy Sources
b) Primary Energy Sources
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above

25. Energy consumption per unit of GDP is called as:

a) Energy Ratio
b) Energy intensity
c) Per capita consumption
d) None

26. The power generated in a windmill

(a) is more in rainy season since damp air would mean more air
mass hitting the blades
(b) depends on the height of the tower
(c) depends on wind velocity
(d) can be increased by planting tall trees close to the tower

27. In a hydroelectric power plant more electrical power can be

generated if water falls from a greater height because
(a) its temperature increases
(b) larger amount of potential energy is converted into kinetic
energy
(c) the electricity content of water increases with height
(d) more water molecules dissociate into ions

28. Choose the incorrect statement regarding wind power

(a) It is expected to harness wind power to minimum in open space
(b) The potential energy content of wind blowing at high altitudes is the source of wind power
(c) Wind hitting at the blades of a windmill causes them to rotate. The rotation thus achieved
can be utilised further
(d) One possible method of utilising the energy of rotational motion of the blades of a windmill
is to run the turbine of an electric generator

29. “Geothermal” means:

a. “Geo” means “Fossil” and “Thermal” means “Fuel”
b. “Geo” means “Plants” and “Thermal” means “Oil”
c. “Geo” means “Earth” and “Thermal” means “Heat”
d. “Geo” means “Oil” and “Thermal” means “Drill”

30. ____% of the sun’s energy is absorbed by the Earth.

a. 50%
b. 0%
c. 40%
d. 10%

SET 7

(Q.1) In thermal power plant, heat energy is converted into ( 1 mark )

(a) Light energy
(b) Electrical energy
(c) Sound energy
(d) Potential energy

(Q.2) Storage of water in reservoirs for hydro power plants cause socio-economic
problems besides ( 1 mark )
(a) Air pollution.
(b) Destruction of large eco systems.
(c) Water pollution.
(d) Sound pollution

(Q.3) Hydro Power Plants utilize the potential energy of water stored at a height by

(a) Changing potential energy to kinetic energy of flowing (falling) water and then converting
it to electrical energy.
(b) Changing potential energy to heat energy of water and then converting it to electrical
energy.
(c) Changing potential energy to gravitational energy of water and then converting it to
electrical energy.
(d) There is no interchange of energy takes place

(Q.4) Oxides of Carbon, Nitrogen and Sulphur released on burning of fossils fuels are
harmful because ( 1 mark )
(a) They are acidic oxides and can cause acid rains.
(b) They cause noise pollution
(c) They cause sound problem
(d) They cause vision disorder.

(Q.5) Which of the following is a green house gas?( 1 mark )

(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Ozone
(d) Methane

(Q.6) Minimum wind speed required for moving turbines is: ( 1 mark )
(a) >24 Km/h
(b) >15 Km/h
(c) >12 Km/h
(d) >9 Km/h

(Q.7) Power plants based on geothermal energy are found in: ( 1 mark )
(a) South Africa
(b) New Zealand
(c) Zimbabwe
(d) Denmark

(Q.8) Wood, coal, energy of flowing water and wind are considered to be: ( 1 mark )
(a) Conventional sources of energy
(b) Unconventional sources of energy
(c) Renewable sources of energy
(d) Non-renewable sources of energy

(Q.9) Kinetic energy of moving air or winds in coastal or hilly areas is harnessed to do
mechanical work or generate electricity by using: ( 1 mark )
(a) Wind Mills
(b) Generators
(c) Electric Motors
(d) Shafts

(Q.10) Which of the following is not correct about the construction of solar cookers or
solar heaters ( 1 mark )
(a) Black surface absorb more heat as compared to white objects.
(b) Spherical reflecting surfaces can be utilized to concentrate solar energy.
(c) Covering with a glass plate cause increase in temperature by green house effect.
(d) Black surface do not absorb any heat.

(Q.11) The material which is used in making solar cell is ( 1 mark )

(a) Aluminum
(b) Carbon
(c) Silicon
(d) Iron

(Q.12) Ocean-Thermal-energy conversion plants operate if ( 1 mark )

(a) Water on the surface of oceans is cold.
(b) Temperature difference between the water at surface and water at depths up to 2 km is at
least 293 K or 20o C.
(c) Temperature difference between the water at surface and water at depths up to 2 km is
around 100C
(d) It is independent of temperature difference between the water at surface and water at
depths.

(Q.13) Which of the following is not a form of energy: ( 1 mark )

(a) Mechanical energy
(b) Heat Energy
(c) Muscular Energy
(d) Frictional energy.

(Q.14) Pollution caused by burning of fossil fuels can be controlled to some extent

(a) By increasing the efficiency of the combustion process.

(b) By using fans in the vehicles.
(c) By increasing their cost.
(d) Banning the use of fossils fuels.

(Q.15) Fossil fuels are considered to be non-renewable sources of energy because

(a) They are produced underground and become costly to extract.
(b) They take millions of years to be produced though used in a little time.
(c) They produce a lot of smoke.
(d) They are less efficient fuels.

(Q.16) Global demand for energy has grown to tremendous levels because of ( 1 mark )
(a) Increasing industrialization
(b) Zest for better quality of life.
(c) Transport
(d) all round development

(Q.17) It is a well known fact that energy can neither be created nor be destroyed, but
still we say that there is an energy crisis because ( 1 mark )
(a) Forms of energy keep changing
(b) Total energy before and after remains constant, but some of it is used to carry other
functions.
(c) Usable form of energy is dissipated to the surroundings in less usable forms.
(d) We do not know how to use energy

(Q.18) What is non-renewable source of energy? ( 1 mark )

Non-renewable energy comes from sources that will run out or will not be replenished for thousands or even millions of years

(Q.19) Which type of energy we use to perform our day to day work? ( 1 mark )
solar energy

(Q.20) Can you place alcohol under the category of renewable source of energy?
Yes, alcohol is a renewable source of energy since it can be obtained by fermentation of sugar.

(Q.21) Name a renewable source of energy that we can harness for the whole year non-
stop?? ( 1 mark )
Solar Energy

(Q.22) Which component of sunlight is responsible for carrying heat? ( 1 mark )

Infrared rays

(Q.23) Which material is used for making solar cell? ( 1 mark )

crystalline silicon (c-Si), also known as "solar grade silicon

(Q.24) Name two renewable sources of energy? ( 1 mark )

Renewable resources include biomass energy (such as ethanol), hydropower, geothermal power, wind energy, and solar energy.

(Q.25) Name two non-renewable sources of energy? ( 1 mark )

fossil fuels: coal, petroleum, and natural gas.

(Q.26) What is tidal energy? ( 1 mark )

Tidal energy is a renewable energy powered by the natural rise and fall of ocean tides and currents.

(Q.27) Which type of biogas plant has longer life? ( 1 mark )

fixed dome plants
(Q.28) Pick out the incorrect statement regarding a good source of energy ( 1 mark )
(a) Would do large amount of work per unit volume or mass.
(b) Is accessible and economical.
(c) Is easy to store and transport.
(d) Is one which is expensive

(Q.29) Burning of fossil fuel gives lot of energy, but has disadvantages in the shape of
(a) Scarcity of fossil fuels
(b) Decreased pollution levels
(c) Fossil fuels have less efficiency
(d) Fossil fuels can not be used to generate electricity

(Q.30) Improvement in the technology for using conventional sources of energy is

becoming popular. Pick the odd one statement ( 1 mark )
(a) More of energy is being extracted in the usable form.
(b) Pollution is being restricted.
(c) Sewage is also getting disposed.
(d) The process involves a lot of wastages

(Q.31) Which of the following is not produced by destructive distillation of wood

(a) Charcoal that burns without flames and is smokeless.
(b) Volatile substances that can be used for manufacture of other products.
(c) Harmless water
(d) Acid rain

(Q.32) Biogas plants are gaining popularity in Indian villages because ( 1 mark )
(a) They are available free of cost
(b) Provide a clean and cheap method of disposing animal and agricultural waste.
(c) It is outdated technology so available in villages only
(d) It is being encouraged by the government.

(Q.33) An enormous amount of energy is being received by the Earth from __________
for 5 billion years and will continue to do so for another 5 billion years. ( 1 mark )
(a) Oceans
(b) Sun
(c) Earth’s atmosphere
(d) Melting snow

(Q.34) A typical solar cell develops ( 1 mark )

(a) A potential difference of 0.5 – 1 V and 0.7 W of electricity.
(b) A potential difference of 0.7 V and 0.5 W of electricity.
(c) A potential difference of 0.7 V and 1.0 W of electricity.
(d) A potential difference of 0.9 V and 2.0 W of electricity.
(Q.35) The nucleus of a heavy atom such as uranium, plutonium or thorium when
bombarded with low-energy neutrons, can be split into lighter nuclei and a tremendous
amount of energy in: ( 1 mark )
(a) Nuclear Fission
(b) Nuclear Fusion
(c) Nuclear warfare
(d) Biotechnological processes

(Q.36) Many of the sources of energy ultimately extract their energy from: ( 1 mark )
(a) The Earth
(b) The Sun
(c) The Environment
(d) The Plants

(Q.37) What share of energy requirement in India is met by hydro power plants?
(a) Half
(b) One-third
(c) Quarter
(d) Two-third

(Q.38) Tehri dam is constructed over river: ( 1 mark )

(a) Narmada
(b) Yamuna
(c) Ganga
(d) Mahanadi

(Q.39) Which of the following is not a clean source of energy? ( 1 mark )

(a) Wind
(b) Sun
(c) Uranium
(d) Geothermal energy

(Q.40) What is the % of methane in biogas? ( 1 mark )

(a) 75%
(b) 80%
(c) 85%
(d) 90%

(Q.41) Joining of lighter nuclei to make a heavier nucleus, most commonly hydrogen
isotopes to helium such as 2H + 2H ( 1 mark )
(a) Nuclear Fusion, which is also the source of energy in the Sun and other stars.
(b) Nuclear Fission
(c) Isotopes
(d) Isobars
(Q.42) What is geothermal energy? When is it available? ( 2 Marks )
Geothermal energy is heat within the earth. Geothermal energy is available 24 hours a day, 365 days a year.

(Q.43) Give two merits of solar energy. ( 2 Marks )

Renewable Energy Source, Reduces Electricity Bills, Diverse Applications ,Low Maintenance Costs

(Q.44) What are the limitations of wind energy? ( 2 Marks )

The two major disadvantages of wind power include initial cost and technology immaturity. Firstly, constructing turbines and wind facilities
is extremely expensive. The second disadvantage is technology immaturity.
(Q.45) Why the use of dry wood is not considered as good domestic fuel?? ( 2 Marks )
Because combustion of dry wood results into large amount of smoke which cantains carbon dioxide and thus leads to air pollution and
global warming.and its calorific value is less than LPG or any other fuels which we use as domestic fuel.
(Q.46) What are the advantages of nuclear energy. ( 3 Marks )
One of the most low-carbon energy sources. It also has one of the smallest carbon footprints. It's one of the answers to the energy gap.
It is essential to our response to climate change and greenhouse gas emissions.
(Q.47) Distinguish between renewable and non-renewable sources of energy. Give
examples too. ( 3 Marks ) Renewable resources can be replaced by natural processes as quickly as humans use them. Examples include sunlight and wind.
Nonrenewable resources exist in fixed amounts. They can be used up. Examples include fossil fuels such as coal.

(Q.48) What are the forms of ocean energy that can be harnessed? Give some places in
Tidal energy.
our country where it can be harnessed? ( 3 Marks ) Wave energy. Khambat and Kutch regions.
Ocean termal energy.

(Q.49) State three advantages of solar cooker? ( 3 Marks )

Solar cooking is free,Solar cooking is quick and easy,Food cooked with a solar cooker is healthy.

(Q.50) From one fission of uranium 4x10-11 J of energy is produced. Calculate the total
number of fissions necessary per second to generate a power of 20 KW. ( 3 Marks )
(1*20,000)/4*10^-11 =5*10^14

(Q.51) How much energy is gained by an electron when 1 atomic mass is converted into
energy? Give your answer in MeV. ( 3 Marks )

(Q.52) What is solar cooker? Explain its working with the help of a neat & labeled
diagram. ( 5 Marks )

SET 8

1. A good fuel is one that possesses:

(a) High calorific value and low ignition temperature

(b) Low calorific value and low ignition temperature

(c) High calorific value and moderate ignition temperature

(d) Low calorific value and moderate ignition temperature

2. There are four fuels which all contain only carbon and hydrogen. The fuel having highest
calorific value will be one which has:
(a) More of carbon but less of hydrogen

(b) Less of carbon but more of hydrogen

(c) Equal proportions of carbon and hydrogen

(d) Less of carbon as well as less of hydrogen

3. Coke is more valuable when used:

(a) As a fuel for industrial boilers

(b) As an oxidizing agent

(c) As a reducing agent

(d) As a fuel in domestic ovens

4. In a hydroelectric power plant more electrical power can be generated if water falls from a
greater height because:
(a) Its temperature increases.

(b) Larger amount of potential energy is converted into kinetic energy.

(c) The electricity content water increases with height.

(d) More water molecules dissociate into ions.

5. In order to make efficient solar cooker, the cover of cooker box should be made of:
(a) Transparent plastic sheet

(b) Shining aluminium sheet

(c) Butter paper sheet

(d) Transparent glass

6. Which of the followings is not a fossil fuel?

(a) Coal

(b) Petroleum

(c) Natural gas

(d) Nuclear fuel

7. The rise of sea-water during high tide is caused by the gravitational pull of the:
(a) Sun

(b) Earth
(c) Moon

(d) Mars

8. What is the energy equivalent of one atomic mass unit?

(a) 93.1 MeV

(b) 9.31 MeV

(c) 1 MeV

(d) 931 MeV

9. How many joules are there in 1eV?

(a) 1.6 × 10-19 J
(b) 9.1 × 10-31 J
(c) 6.0 ×1023 J
(d) 1.6 × 10-13 J
10. The disposal of wastes produced in a nuclear power plant is a big problem because it is:
(a) Highly radioactive

(b) Highly inflammable

(c) Extremely foul smelling

(d) Too heavy

11. The energy efficient device for producing light is:

(a) DLF

(b) CFL

(c) FCL

(d) LPG

12. The radiation present in the sunlight that gives us the feeling of hotness is
(a) Visible radiation

(b) Infra-red

(c) Red
(d) Ultra-violet

13. The major constituent of biogas is

(a) Methane

(b) Ethane

(c) Propane

(d) Butane

14. The process by which energy is produced in the sun is

(a) Nuclear fission

(b) Nuclear fusion

(c) Both nuclear fusion and fission

(d) Combustion of hydrogen

15. The diagram shows a simple calorimeter system for measuring the heat given out by a
liquid fuel contained in the burner. The experimental data for four fuels A, B, C and D is
given below. 100 ml (100g) of water was put in the calorimeter and a thermometer is used to
measure the change in temperature. With the help of the data find the fuel which is the least
efficient?

Mass of fuel Rise in temperature

0.80 g 12oC
1.20 g 24oC
0.50 g 9oC
 1.75g 28oC
(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

SET 9

1. Which of the following is a non-renewable energy resource?

solar
methane
hydroelectric
coal

2. The amount of oil that may become available for use is called oil ________.

reserves
reservoirs
resources
traps

3. A coal deposit that is not economical to mine today would be considered part of our
__________ .

coal reserves
coal resources
coal reservoirs
none of these

4. What is the leading source of energy used in the United States today?

coal
oil resources
natural gas
nuclear power

5. The first oil well was drilled in the United States in ________.
 1829
1859
1929
1959

A histogram showing percentages of various types of energy used in the United States in
1997 is given above.

6. Area W represents

coal
solar
nuclear
oil

7. Area X represents

coal
solar
nuclear
oil

8. Area Y represents

coal
solar
nuclear
oil
9. Area Z represents

coal
solar
nuclear
oil

10. Oil, coal and natural gas supply approximately _______ % of the energy used in the
United States

10
25
40
90

11. Of all of the energy produced in the United States, what % is lost in distribution and
inefficient use?

10
25
40
50

12. Chemical reactions triggered by _______ transform organic material into

hydrocarbons.

solar energy
hydroelectric
elevated temperatures
decomposition

13. Energy resources derived from natural organic materials are called ________.

geothermal energy sources

fossil fuels
biomass
all of these

14. A permeable rock that contains hydrocarbon fluids and gasses is called a(n)
_________

oil trap
source bed
 oil reservoir
none of these

15. All oil traps contain ___________.

an impermeable layer
an anticline
a fault
all of these

16. Which of the following is least likely to contain an oil trap?

an anticline
fault
natural stratigraphy
syncline

Cross section of an oil trap. X, Y, and Z represent three distinct fluid layers within the
permeable reservoir rock.

17. The oil trap shown here is a(n) ____________

an anticline
fault trap
stratigraphic trap
salt dome trap

18. Layer X is most likely to be reservoir rock containing _______ in the pore space.

syncrude
water
natural gas
oil

19. Layer Y is most likely to be reservoir rock containing _______ in the pore space.
syncrude
water
natural gas
oil

20. Layer Z is most likely to be reservoir rock containing _______ in the pore space.

syncrude
water
natural gas
oil

21. Which of the following rock types would most likely be the best oil reservoir?

granite
shale
sandstone
salt

22. In an oil trap formed by an anticline, ________ accumulates on top, _____ in the
middle, and _________ at the bottom.

natural gas .... oil .... groundwater

ground water .... oil .... natural gas
oil .... groundwater .... natural gas
oil .... natural gas .... ground water

23. Two-thirds of the world's known oil reserves are located in ________.

Siberia
Gulf of Mexico and Caribbean
the middle East
Indonesia

24. The world has the least amount of which of the following fuel types..

oil
coal
uranium
there are roughly equal amounts of each of these fuels
25. At the current rate of world use, the remaining oil will be depleted in approximately
______ years.

25
100
400
2000

26. Which of the following statements is true?

in the US oil production is greater than oil consumption

in the US oil production equals oil consumption
in the US oil production is less than oil consumption

27. Most of the natural gas used in the United States is consumed by _______.

industry
residential use
electrical utilities
transportation

28. Burning of which of the following fuels produces the least amount of carbon dioxide
per unit of energy?

coal
oil
natural gas
all of these produce the same amount of carbon dioxide.

29. Layer X is _________.

anthracite
bituminous
lignite
tar

30. Layer Y is _________.

anthracite
bituminous
lignite
tar

31. Layer Z is _________.

anthracite
bituminous
lignite
tar

32. In addition to increasing temperature and pressure, the arrow to the left of the
diagram represents increasing __________

metamorphism
heat value
carbon content
all of the above

33. Which country contains about 50% of the world's coal resources?

United States
China
Canada
the former Soviet Union

34. In the United States, coal resources should last approximately ______ years at the
current rate of use.

25
100
400
2000

35. Which of the following problems is associated with the burning of coal?
 acid rain
carbon dioxide emissions
ash with toxic metal impurities
all of these

36. Oil derived from coal, oil shales or tar sands is called ________.

natural gas
biomass
syncrude
none of these

37. Nuclear energy is derived by ___________.

combustion of atoms of U 235

fission of atoms of U 235
fusion of atoms of U 235
the breaking of U 235 bonds

38. Which of the following energy sources does not produce carbon dioxide?

oil
Uranium
coal
natural gas

39. About how many nuclear power plants are there in the US?

10
100
250
500

40. Which of the following statements regarding the nuclear accident at Chernobyl in the
Ukraine in 1986 is false?

radioactive debris was blown into Scandinavia and western Europe

hundreds of square miles of land surrounding Chernobyl was contaminated and made
uninhabitable
food supplies in many countries had to be purified in order to be consumed
excess deaths from cancer may be in the thousands over the next 40 years
41. Most of the uranium ore in the United States is located in the _____

Applachian Mountains
Basin and Range
Colorado Plateau
Great Lakes

42. The primary barrier to using solar energy in the United States is that _______

solar power is not technically feasible

solar power causes major pollution problems
solar power is not economically competitive with other energy sources
all of these

43. Hydroelectric energy provides about _______ of the energy consumed annually in
the United States.

4%
12%
30%
65%

44. Solar energy stored in material such as wood, grain, sugar, and municipal waste is
called __________.

fossil fuels
biomass
geothermal energy
natural gas

45. What type of energy is derived from heated groundwater?

solar energy
geothermal energy
hydroelectric energy
nuclear energy

46. The largest geothermal power plant in the United States is located near which city?

Chicago
Los Angeles
 New York
San Francisco

47. The Geysers produce enough electricity to meet what portion of the needs of San
Francisco?

10%
25%
50%
75%

48. The world faces an energy crisis because _________.

world demand for energy will increase

world oil production will peak and begin to decline
shortages and the resulting escalation of prices can shock the economic and political order
all of the above

SET 10

1. The amount of energy each North American uses per year is equivalent to

a. 13 one-kilowatt heaters operating continuously

b. The amount of gasoline to drive a car 120,000 km

c. 90,000 kg of coal

2. Compared to people in many developing countries, North Americans use about

a. 5 times as much energy

b. 15 times as much energy

c. 50 times as much energy

3. In our country, the most widely used energy resource is

a. Oil

b. Natural gas

c. Coal

4. In our country, the least abundant energy resource is

a. Coal

b. Natural gas for Canada

c . Oil for U.S.

5. How many years did it take nature to make oil?

a. 2,000 years

b. 2 million years

c. 200 million years

6. Which of the following products are produced from oil?

a. Gasoline b. Plastics c. Medicines d. Pesticides e. Cosmetics f. Paints g. Fabrics

7. Which of the following are non-renewable forms of energy?

a. Coal b. Kerosene c. Oil d. Uranium e. Natural gas

8. What percentage of our energy comes from non-renewable fossil fuels?

a. 50 to 60% b. 70 to 80% for Canada c. More than 90% for U.S.

9. Which of the following environmental problems are related to the combustion of fossil fuels?

a. Smog

b. Acid rain

c. Nuclear radiation

d. The greenhouse effect (increase in carbon dioxide levels causing the warming of the Earth’s
surface)

10. Which of the following renewable sources of energy are currently being used in our country?

a. Solar

b. Biomass (energy from plants and animals)

c. Wind energy

d. Hydropower

e. Geothermal energy

SET 11
1. Energy is released from fossil fuels when they are___________________
a) Pumped
b) Cooled
c) Burned
d) Pressurized

Answer: c
Explanation: Fossil fuels are fuels because they release heat energy when they are burned.
They are fossil fuels because they were formed from the remains of living organisms billions
of years ago. Some of the examples of fossil fuels are coal, oil and natural gas.
2. Oil release sulfur dioxide gas when they burn.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Oil release sulfur dioxide gas when they burn. This sulfur dioxide gas causes
breathing problems for living creatures. Along with the health issue this sulfur dioxide which
is emitted from oil also causes acid rain.
3. The most nuclear fuel used in the world is________________
a) Thorium – 232
b) Uranium – 238
c) Uranium – 235
d) Plutonium – 239

Answer: c
Explanation: The most used nuclear fuel is Uranium – 235. It is a radioactive metal. Nuclear
fuels like Uranium do not burnt to release energy. Instead, the fuels are involved in nuclear
reaction in nuclear reaction in the nuclear reactor.
4. The blades in wind turbines are connected to________________
a) Nacelle
b) Tower
c) Foundations
d) String

Answer: a
Explanation: A nacelle is a cover housing that houses all of the generating components in a
wind turbine. Wind turbines have huge blades mounted on a tall tower. The blades are
connected to a nacelle. Thus the nacelle in wind turbines helps to work the wind turbines.
5. In the production of wave energy which form of energy is used?
a) Potential energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Solar energy
d) Wind energy

Answer: b
Explanation: The water in the sea rises and falls because of waves on the surface. Wave
machines use the Kinetic energy in this movement to drive electricity generators. Wave
energy also known as ocean energy. Wave energy is essentially power drawn from waves.
6. A tidal barrage is a barrier built over a___________________
a) River bed
b) River estuary
c) River end
d) River starting

Answer: b
Explanation: A tidal barrage is a barrier built over a river estuary to make use of the kinetic
energy in the moving water. Huge amounts of water move in and out of river mouths each
day because of the tides. The barrage contains electricity generators.
7. In hydroelectricity power_________________
a) Kinetic energy is transferred to potential
b) Potential energy is transferred to kinetic
c) Solar energy is transferred to wind energy
d) Wind energy is transferred to solar energy

Answer: b
Explanation: Hydroelectricity power stations use the kinetic energy in moving water. But the
water comes from behind a dam built across a river valley. The water high up behind the dam
contains potential energy.
8. Solar panels generate electricity.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Solar panels do not generate electricity. They just heat up water by the external
electricity connection given to them. This solar panels are often located on the roofs of the
building where they can receive heat energy directly from the sun.
9. In order to produce solar energy during sunlight, where the energy is stored in the
batteries?
a) Nickel Sulfur
b) Zinc Cadmium
c) Nickel Cadmium
d) Nickel Zinc

Answer: c
Explanation: Nickel Cadmium cells offers along service life thereby ensuring a high degree
of the economy. In the PV industry, Nickel Cadmium battery cells are majorly used for the
energy storage technology from manufacturers and users of PV of grid systems.
10. How many forms of fossil fuels are there________________
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

Answer: c
Explanation: There are three major forms of fossil fuels they are coal, oil and natural gas.
They formed from organic remains of plants and animals that were converted into coal, oil
and natural gas by exposure to heat and the pressure of the earth’s crust over millions of
years.
11. According to WHO, how many premature deaths annually linked to air pollution causing
by the burning of fossil fuels?
a) One million
b) Three million
c) Five million
d) Seven million

Answer: d
Explanation: Fossil fuels are not environmental friendly. Burning of fossil fuels result in
pollution and can cause serious environmental concerns. According to WHO, 7 million
premature deaths annually linked to air pollution by the fossil fuels burning.
12. Energy in the form of heat and light is obtained by________________
a) Biomass
b) Fossil fuels
c) Sun
d) Wind

Answer: c
Explanation: Energy in the form of heat and light is obtained by sun. Sunlight contains a
large amount of energy. The Sun’s energy warms the planet’s surface, powering titanic
transfers of heat and pressure in weather patterns and ocean currents.
13. SI unit for energy is_____________
a) Watt
b) Kilogram
c) Newton
d) Joule

Answer: d
Explanation: SI unit for energy is joule. Metric unit of measurement for energy or work equal
to a force of one Newton applied through a distance of one meter. One joule is equivalent to
0.737324 ft-lbs. Joule is a SI unit of work, energy and heat.
14. Trapped heat inside the earth is known as_______________
a) Heat energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Geothermal energy
d) Thermal energy

Answer: c
Explanation: Geothermal energy is the heat from the earth. It’s clean and sustainable.
Resources of geothermal energy range from the ground to water and hot rock. The term
geothermal originates from the Greek words.
SET 12

1) The water pollution prevention and control act was formed in the year
a. 1986
b. 1974
c. 1981
d. 1980
2) The Indian electricity rules of 1956 cover

a. Inspections of electric installations

b. Licensing
c. General safety precautions
d. Only b and c
e. All of these
3) Energy conservation act was formed in the year

a. 1998
b. 1999
c. 2000
d. 2001
4) The rules of a particular electricity supply system provision for metering, earthing and for other in
accordance with the electricity supply act of

a. 1947
b. 1948
c. 1956
d. 1958
5) Which among the following is not the pronged approach to energy management?

a. Capacity utilization
b. Fine turning of equipment
c. Technology up gradation
d. All of these
e. None of these
6) LNG stands for

a. Liquefied natural gas

b. Liquid natural gas
c. Low nitrogen content gas
d. Liquid nitrogen gas
7) Which is the major energy source to meet the Indian energy demand?
a. Coal
b. Oil
c. Natural gas
d. Lignite
8) Which country has the biggest coal reserves?

a. Russia
b. US
c. China
d. India
9) Which country has highest energy usage per capita?

a. Iceland
b. Qatar
c. Kuwait
d. United Arab emirates
10) In the given options, the non-commercial source of energy is

a. Coal
b. Lignite
c. Firewood
d. Refined petroleum products

SET 13

1-The following is the correct order of energy conversion in thermal power plants
(A) Chemical energy – Mechanical energy – Electrical energy

(B) Mechanical energy – Chemical energy – Electrical energy

(C) Wind energy – Mechanical energy – Electrical energy

(D) Heat energy – Electrical energy – Mechanical energy

2-In thermal power plant, turbine is placed

(A) before boiler

(B) in between boiler and generator

(C) after generator

(D) any of the above

3-In the steam condensing power plants

(A) The amount of energy extracted per kg of steam is increased
(B) the steam, converted into water, can be re-circulated with the help of pump

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

4-In thermal power plants, the dust of flue gases is trapped by

(A) Precipitator

(B) Economizer

(C) Superheater

(D) Air preheater

5-The path of flue gases in Thermal power plant is

(A) Boiler – Economizer – Superheater– Air preheater

(B) Boiler – Superheater – Air preheater – Economizer

(C) Boiler – Air preheater – Superheater – Economizer

(D) Boiler – Superheater – Economizer – Air preheater

6-The following is not a component of Thermal power plant

(A) Condenser

(B) Cooling tower

(C) Turbine

(D) Fuel tank

7-With the increase in _____ the efficiency obeys the ‘law of diminishing returns’
(A) Pressure

(B) Temperature

(C) Volume

(D) All of the above

8- With the increase in _____ the efficiency obeys the ‘straight line law’
(A) Pressure

(B) Temperature

(C) Volume

(D) All of the above

9-Fluid fuels are handled by

(A) burners

(B) stokers
(C) both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

10-For steam boilers, the fuel(s) is (are) mainly

(A) Bituminous coal

(B) Fuel oil

(C) Natural gas

(D) All of the above

11-The most common method(s) used for burning of coal is (are)

(A) Stroker firing

(B) Pulverized fuel firing

(C) both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

12-A ‘stroker’ is a power operated fuel ___ mechanism

(A) Burning

(B) Feeding

(C) Handling

(D) Storage

13-The spreader stroker, secondary air is supplied

(A) through holes

(B) through nozzles

(C) from bottom side

(D) any of the above

14-The following is not a pulverized fuel burner.

(A) Tangential burner

(B) Turbulent burner

(C) Cyclone burner

(D) Radial burner

15-In which of the following type of burner, liquid fuel is raised by capillary action?
(A) Wick burners

(B) Re-circulating burner

(C) Rotating cup burner

(D) All of the above

16-A Fluidised bed may be defined as the bed of ______ particles

(A) Liquid

(B) Solid

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

17-The following is (are) ash handling system(s)

(A) Hydraulic system

(B) Pneumatic system

(C) Steam jet system

(D) All of the above

18-The following is dry type dust collectors

(A) Spray type

(B) Packed type

(C) Impingement type

(D) cyclone separator

19-The major constituent of fly ash is

(A) Silicon dioxide

(B) Aluminium oxide

(C) Calcium oxide

(D) Magnesium oxide

20-The draught produced by the chimney if due to the ____ difference between the
column of hot gases inside the chimney and the cold air outside.
(A) Temperature

(B) Potential

(C) Density

(D) None of the above

SET 14

1. Combined cycle power plants may need

(a) MHD generator
(b) Thermionic converter
(c) Thermoelectric generator
(d) All of the above

2.Depreciation charges are high in the case of

(a) Thermal plant
(b) Diesel plant
(c) Hydroelectric plant
(d) Wind power plant

3.Which of the following in a thermal power plant is not a fixed cost?

(a) Fuel Cost
(b) Interest on capital
(c) Depreciation
(d) Insurance charges

4.The overall efficiency of a thermal power plant is equal to

(a) Ranking cycle efficiency
(b) Carnot cycle efficiency
(c) Regenerative cycle efficiency
(d) Boiler efficiency X Turbine efficiency X Generator efficiency

5.Which of the following coals has the highest calorific value?

(a) Peat
(b) Lignite
(c) Bituminous
(d) Anthracite

6.Compounding of steam is done for

(a) Reducing the work done
(b) Increasing the rotor speed
(c) Reducing the rotor speed
(d) Balancing the turbine

7.Major share of power generated in India is through

(a) Thermal power plants
(b) Nuclear power plants
(c) Hydro-electric power plants
(d) Solar energy

8.The advantage of using pulverized fuel include

(a) Higher boiler efficiency
(b) Easy and complete combustion
(c) Low air requirement
(d) All of these

9.In a thermal power plant, feed water heaters, super heater and air preheaters are
mainly used to
(a) Have a better dust removal in the plant
(b) Have a better Ash removal in the plant
(c) Increase the efficiency of the plant
(d) None of the above

10.Through which source is maximum electricity generated in the world?

(a) Water
(b) Nuclear power
(c) Coal
(d) Solar power

11.Coal used in power plant is also known as

(a) Steam coal
(b) Charcoal
(c) Coke
(d) Soft coal

12.The cost of the fuel transportation is minimum in

(a) Steam power plant
(b) Diesel power plant
(c) hydro-electric plant
(d) Coal based power plant

13.In thermal power plant, the pressure of working cycle is developed by

(a) Condense
(b) Super heater
(c) Feed water pump
(d) Turbine

14.The pH value of water used for boiler of thermal power plant is

(a) Unity
(b) 7
(c) Slightly more than 7
(d) 10

15.For the proper combustion of fuel in a thermal power plant, a proper circulation of
air is also needed. The same is provide with the help of
(a) Draft fan
(b) Economiser
(c) Condenser
(d) Cooling Tower

16.Super heater is employed to

1. Remove moisture from the vapours
2. Increase the temperature of vapours
3. Heat the feed water
Which of the given statements is incorrect?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
17.What is separated with the help of magnetic separators in a coal preparation plant?
(a) Pebbles
(b) Iron particles
(c) Dust
(d) Sand

18.A condenser in a thermal power plant condenses steam coming out of

(a) Boiler
(b) Turbine
(c) Economiser
(d) Super heater

19. In a thermal power plant, which is true for a superheater?

(a) In a superheater pressure rises and temperature remains the same
(b) In a superheater, temperature rises and pressure drops
(c) In a superheater, pressure rises and temperature drops
(d) In a superheater, temperature rises and pressure remains unchanged

20. Which is not fundamental element of cogeneration plant?

(a) Prime mover
(b) Electricity generator
(c) Heat recovery system
(d) Power factor improvement system

SET 15

1. Coal is pulverized to
a) Reduce the pressure of feed water
b) Decrease surface exposure
c) Increase surface exposure
d) None of these

2. Working of Steam power station is based on

a) Thomsan Cycle
b) Rankine cycle
c) Raphson method
d) Thevenin law

3. Overall efficiency of steam power station is

a) Less than 50%
b) 50-60%
c) 60-64%
d) More than 64%

4. Economizer in steam power station

a) Heats feed water
 b) Generates flue gases
c) Adds moisture
d) Is used for burning coal

5. In steam power plant the net change in energy is

a) Zero
b) Positive
c) Negative
d) Infinite

6. Steam Power Plant comparison with Hydro

1. High
2. Low
The running cost of steam power plant is more than hydro power plant.
7. The working fluid in liquid phase of a steam power plant is
a) Water
b) Graphite
c) Steam
d) Flue gases

8. Which of the following is the correct statement about water tube boilers
a) Water flows through the tube
b) Water surrounds the hot tubes
c) None of these

9. Location of Convection Superheater in Steam Plant

a) Furnace between water walls
b) Boiler tube bank

10. Which type of air-heater comprises of a slow moving drum

a) Recuprative type
b) Regenerative type
c) Both of these
d) None of these

11. The turbine and thermal efficiencies of a power plant are 92% and 64.4%
respectively. The boiler efficiency is:
a) 60%
b) 65%
c) 70%
d) 75%
From formula:
Boiler Efficiency = Thermal efficiency / Turbine Efficiency
Boiler efficiency = 64.4/92 = 0.7 = 70%
12. Certain Steam Power Station has an annual load factor of 45%. If the maximum
demand is 25000 kW, then units generated in annum are:
a) 3.44*105 kWh
b) 9.86*107 kWh
c) 8.76*106 kWh
d) 10.92*107 kWh
Explanation = 25,000 * 8760 * 0.4 = 8.76*106 kWh

13. In a Steam Power Station find the calorific value of coal when 0.4 kg coal is
burnt per kWh of generated electricity. If the overall efficiency of a steam power
plant is 28% then the calorific value is:
a) 4655.38 kcal/kg
b) 7678.57 kcal/kg
c) 9545.65 kcal/kg
d) 10,948.78 kcal/kg
Explanation:
Overall efficiency = Electrical output (In terms of heat) / Heat of combustion
Overall efficiency = 860/0.4x
x = 860/(0.4*0.28)
x = 7678.57
14. Major heat losses in steam power station occur in which part:
1. Coal belt
2. Boiler
3. Superheater
4. Condenser
In a steam power station, major losses occur in condenser because the conversion from heat
energy into mechanical energy is not possible without temperature difference
15. The thermal efficiency of a Steam power plant is 33%, while electrical efficiency
is 94%. The overall efficiency is:
a) 27%
b) 28%
c) 31%
d) 36%
Explanation:
Overall efficiency = Thermal efficiency * Electrical Efficiency
Overall efficiency = 0.33 * 0.94 = 0.31 = 31%
SET 16
1. “The judicious and effective use of energy to maximise profits and enhance competitive
positions”. This can be the definition of:
a) Energy conservation
b) Energy management
c) Energy policy
d) Energy Audit
2. The energy management function is generally vested in –

(a) Senior Management

(b) One energy manager or co-ordinator

(c) Distributed among number of middle manager

(d) (b) & (c) together

3. The objective of energy management includes

a) Minimising energy costs

b) minimising waste

c) Minimising environmental degradation

d) all the above

4. The ratio of current year’s production to the reference year’s production is called as. (EA/EM)
a) demand factor

b) production factor

c) utilisation factor

d) load factor

5. Replacement of steam based hot water generation by solar system is an example of

a) matching energy usage to the requirement

b) maximising system efficiency

c) Energy substitution

d) Performance improvement

6. One unit of electricity is equivalent to ___ kcal heat units.

a) 800 b) 860 c) 400 d) 680

7. The benchmarking parameter for air conditioning equipment is

 a) kW/Ton of Refrigeration

b) kW/ kg of refrigerant handled

c) kcal/m3 of chilled water

d) Differential temperature across chiller

8. The percentage of energy saved at the current rate of use, compared to the reference year rate
of use, is called

a) Energy Utilization

b) Energy Performance

c) Energy Efficiency

d) None

9. Which instrument is used to monitor O2, CO in flue gas? (EA)

a) Combustion analyzer

b) Power analyzer

c) Pyrometer

d) Fyrite

10. Lux meter is used to measure…… (EA)

a) Illumination level
b) Sound intensity and illumination level
c) Harmonics
d) Speed

11. For a cement plant the parameter, “kWh/MT of clinker “indicates

a) Energy Index parameter

b) Utility factor
c) Production factor
d) load factor

12. Energy manger should be well versed with

a) Manufacturing and processing skills

b) Managerial and technical skills
c) Technical and marketing skills
d) Managerial and commercial skills

13. An energy policy does not include

a) Target energy consumption reduction

b) Time period for reduction

c) Declaration of top management commitment

d) Future production projection

14. CO2 measurement of Fyrite kit is based on (EA)

a) Weight basis (dry)

b) Volume basis (dry)

c) Weight basis (wet)

d) Volume basis (wet)

15. Non contact speed measurements can be carried out by

a) Tachometer b) Stroboscope c) Oscilloscope d) Speedometer

16. The tool used for performance assessment and logical evaluation of avenues for improvement in
Energy management and audit is

a) Fuel substitution b) Monitoring and verification c) Energy pricing d) Bench marking

17. Infrared thermometer is used to measure

a) Surface temperature

b) Flame temperature

c) Flue gas temperature

d) Hot water temperature

18. Find out the ‘odd’ among the following choices for fuel substitution for industrial sector of India.

a) LDO with LSHS

b) coal with rice husk

c) natural gas for fertilizer plant

d) LPG for soft coke

19. The various types of the instruments, which requires during audit need to be

a) easy to carry

b) easy to operate

c) inexpensive

d) all (a) to (c)

20. Air velocity in ducts can be measured by using ___ and manometer

a) Orifice meter b) Borden gauge c) Pitot tube d) Anemometer

Short type questions and answers

1. List any four important factors involved in deciding final cost of purchased electricity.
The factors which are involved in deciding final cost of purchased electricity are

• Maximum demand charges, kVA

• Energy Charges, kWh

 • TOD Charges, Peak/Non-peak period

• Power factor Charge, P.F

2. What are the principles of energy management?

The principles of energy management involve the following:

i) Procure all the energy needed at the lowest possible price

ii) Manage energy use at highest energy efficiency

iii) Reusing and recycling energy by cascading (waste heat recovery)

iv) Use the most appropriate technology

v) Reduce the avoidable losses

3. What is the need for managerial skills in energy management?

Managerial skills include bringing about awareness, motivating people at all levels, changing the
structure & procedure, monitoring the energy consumption, norms target setting, etc. Both the
organizational and people changes are required.

For example, a mere awareness campaign in an industry on switching off lights, fans and air
conditioners brought about a significant reduction in energy consumption.

4. What do you mean by energy audit?

Energy Audit is defined as “the verification, monitoring and analysis of use of energy including
submission of technical report containing recommendations for improving energy efficiency with cost
benefit analysis and an action plan to reduce energy consumption”.
5. Explain how matching energy usage to requirement can enhance energy efficiency
Mismatch between equipment capacity and user requirement often leads to inefficiencies due to part
load operations, wastages etc. Worst case design, is a designer’s characteristic, while optimization is
the energy manager’s mandate and many situations present themselves towards an exercise involving
graceful matching of energy equipment capacity to end-use needs.
Example: • Eliminate throttling of a pump by impeller trimming, resizing pump, installing variable
speed drives
6. Give any four bench marking parameters followed in equipment/utility related in Industries.
i) kWh/ton of refrigeration (on Air conditioning plant)
ii) % thermal efficiency of a boiler plant
iii) kWh/NM3 of compressed air generated
iv) kWh /litre in a diesel power generation plant.
7. List any one energy audit instrument used for power measurement and one for flue gas
measurement along with parameters to be measured?
8. What is the significance of an energy policy?
A written energy management policy will guide efforts to improve energy efficiency, and represents a
commitment to saving energy. It will also help to ensure that the success of the program is not dependent
on particular individuals in the organization. An energy management policy statement includes a
declaration of commitment from senior management, as well as general aims and specific targets
relating to:
• Energy consumption reduction (electricity, fuel oil, gas, petrol etc.)
• Energy cost reduction (by lowering consumption and negotiating lower unit rates)
• Timetables
• Budgetary limits
• Energy cost centers
• Organisation of management resources.
9. How do you classify energy conservation measures?
Based on energy audit and analyses of the plant, a number of potential energy saving
projects may be identified. These may be classified into three categories:
1. Low cost – high return; 2. Medium cost – medium return; 3. High cost – high return
10. Define ‘energy management’.
The judicious and effective use of energy to maximize profits (minimize the costs) and
enhance competitive positions.
11. List steps involved in pre-audit phase.
Pre-audit phase:
• Plan and organise
• Walk through audit
• Informal interview with plant personnel
12. What are the factors to be considered before procuring fuels for energy efficiency and
economics?
The following factors should be considered before procurement of fuel for energy efficiency and
economics:
• Price at source, transport charge, type of transport
• Quality of fuel
• Energy content
13. What are the few comparative factors need to be looked in to for external benchmarking
used for inter-unit comparison and group of similar units?
Few comparative factors, which need to be looked into while benchmarking externally are:
• Scale of operation
• Vintage of technology
• Raw material specifications and quality
• Product specifications and quality
14. What is the objective of energy management?
The objectives of energy management is to achieve and maintain optimum energy procurement,
utilisation throughout the organisation and
a) To minimise energy costs/ waste without affecting production & quality
b) To minimise environmental effects
15. What are the few important technical feasibility parameters that one should consider during
analysis of energy conservation opportunities?
The technical feasibility should address the following issues:
• Technology availability, space, skilled manpower, reliability, service etc
• The impact of energy efficiency measure on safety, quality, production or process.
• The maintenance requirements and spares availability
16. Define the energy audit as per the energy conservation Act 2001?
As per the
Energy Conservation Act, 2001, Energy Audit is defined as “the verification, monitoring and
analysis of use of energy including submission of technical report containing recommendations for
improving energy efficiency with cost benefit analysis and an action plan to reduce energy
consumption”.
17. What do you understand by ‘plant energy performance’ (PEP)?
Plant energy performance (PEP) is the measure of whether a plant is now using more or less energy
to manufacture its products than it did in the past: a measure of how well the energy management
programme is doing. It compares the change in energy consumption from one year to the other
considering production output. Plant energy performance monitoring compares plant energy use at
a reference year with the subsequent years to determine the improvement that has been made.
18. What are fuel substitution and list one example of fuel substitution?
Fuel substitution is substituting existing fossil fuel with more efficient and less cost / less polluting
fuels such as natural gas, biogas, and locally available agro residues.
E.g. Natural gas is increasingly the fuel of choice as fuel and feedstock in fertilizers,
petrochemicals, power and sponge iron industries.
19. What are the base line data that an audit team should collect while conducting detailed
energy audit?
The audit team should collect the following baseline data: - Technology, processes used and
equipment details
- Capacity utilisation
- Amount & type of input materials used
- Water consumption
- Fuel Consumption
- Electrical energy consumption
- Steam consumption
- Other inputs such as compressed air, cooling water etc
- Quantity & type of wastes generated
- Percentage rejection / reprocessing
- Efficiencies / yield
20. List at least four examples falling under “optimising the input energy requirements” while
maximizing system efficiency?
• Shuffling of compressors to match needs.
• Periodic review of insulation thickness
• Identify potential for heat exchanger networking and process integration.
• Optimisation of transformer operation with respect to load.
 Long type questions and answers

1. Briefly explain with examples on fuel and energy substitution

Fuel substitution: Substituting existing fossil fuel with more efficient and less cost/less
polluting fuel such as natural gas, biogas and locally available agro-residues. Energy is an
important input in the production. There are two ways to reduce energy dependency; energy
conservation and substitution. Fuel substitution has taken place in all the major sectors of the
Indian economy. Kerosene and Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) have substituted soft coke in
residential use. Few examples of fuel substitution
• Natural gas is increasingly the fuel of choice as fuel and feedstock in the
fertilizer, petrochemicals, power and sponge iron industries.
• Replacement of coal by coconut shells, rice husk etc.
• Replacement of LDO by LSHS Few examples of energy substitution 9
Replacement of electric heaters by steam heaters
• Replacement of steam based hot water by solar systems
2. Distinguish between ‘preliminary energy audit’ and ‘detailed energy audit’?
Preliminary energy audit is a relatively quick exercise to:
• Establish energy consumption in the organization
• Estimate the scope for saving
• Identify the most likely (and the easiest areas for attention)
• Identify immediate (especially no-/low-cost) improvements/ savings
• Set a ‘reference point’
• Identify areas for more detailed study/measurement
• Preliminary energy audit uses existing, or easily obtained data
Whereas, detailed energy audit
• Provides a detailed energy project implementation plan for a facility, since it evaluates all
major energy using systems.
• Offers the most accurate estimate of energy savings and cost.
• Considers the interactive effects of all projects, accounts for the energy use of all major
equipment, and
• Includes detailed energy cost saving calculations and project cost. Arrives energy balance
based on an inventory of energy using systems, assumptions of current operating conditions
and calculations of energy use. This estimated use is then compared to utility bill charges.
3. Give a typical energy audit reporting format.
After successfully carried out energy audit energy manager/energy auditor should report to the
top management for effective communication and implementation. A typical energy audit
reporting contents and format are given below. The following format is applicable for most of
the industries. However, the format can be suitably modified for specific requirement applicable
for a particular type of industry.
➢ Acknowledgement
➢ Executive summary - Energy audit options at a glance and recommendations
➢ Introduction about the plant
➢ Production process description
➢ Energy and utility system description - List of utilities - Brief description of each utility
➢ Detailed process flow diagram and energy and material balance
➢ Energy efficiency in utility and process systems
➢ Energy conservation options and recommendations
 - List of options in terms of no cost / low cost, medium cost, and high
investment cost, annual energy and cost savings, and pay back
- Implementation plan for energy saving measures / projects
➢ Annexures

4. Write down the steps involved in ‘Energy management Strategy’? (EA)

1. Identify a strategic corporate approach

2. Appoint energy manager

3. Set up an energy monitoring and reporting system

4. Conduct energy audit

5. Prepare an energy management policy statement

6. Prepare and undertake a detailed project implementation plan

7. Implement a staff awareness and training program

8. Annual review

5. List steps involved in ‘detailed energy audit’.

Pre-audit phase:

➢ Plan and organise

➢ Walk through audit
➢ Informal interview with plant personnel

Audit phase:

➢ Primary data collection

➢ Conduct survey and monitoring
➢ Conduct detailed trials and experiments
➢ Analysis of energy use
➢ Identification and development of energy conservation opportunities
➢ Cost benefit analysis
➢ Report preparation and presentation to the plant personnel and management

Post audit phase:

➢ Implementation and follow-ups

SET 17
1. The energy sources, that are either found or stored in nature are
a) Secondary Energy Sources b) Primary Energy Sources
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above
2. Which of the following is commercial energy source?
a) Electricity b) Coal c) Oil d) All the above
3. Inexhaustible energy sources are known as
a) commercial Energy b) renewable Energy
c) primary energy d) secondary energy
4. Which country has the largest share of the global coal reserves?
a) Russia b) China c) USA d) India
5. The % of gas reserves for Russian Federation, when compared to world reserve is considered at
a) 10 % of World reserve b) 20 % of World reserve
c) 30 % of World reserve d) 40 % of World reserve
6. World oil reserves are estimated to last over
a) 45 years b) 60 years c) 200 years d) 75 years
7. World gas reserves are estimated to last over
a) 45 years b) 65 years c) 200 years d) 75 years
8. The global primary energy consumption (2002) was equivalent to
a) 21,842 Mtoe b) 15,360 Mtoe c) 9405 Mtoe d) 12,396 Mtoe
9. The primary energy consumption of India is
a) 1/29 of the world b) 1/16 of the world
c) 1/7 of the world d) 1/20 of the world
10. The world average per person energy consumption is equivalent to _____tonnes of coal
a) 3 b) 2.2 c) 4.5 d) 1.0
11. Which fuel dominates the energy mix in Indian energy scenario?
a) Oil b) Natural gas c) Coal d) Nuclear
12. The fourth largest producer of coal and lignite in the world is ______ (EM/EA)
a) USA b) Russia c) India d) China
13. Indian per capita energy consumption is ____ of the world average.
a) 4% b) 20% c) 1% d) 10%
14. Energy consumption per unit of GDP is called as:
a) Energy Ratio b) Energy intensity c) Per capita consumption d) None
15. India’s energy intensity is ___ times of world average.
a) 1.5 b) 2.5 c) 3.6 d) 10
16. India’s current percentage peak demand shortage for electricity is: (EM/EA)
a) 1% b) 3% c) 10% d) 14%
17. Name the Act, which is proposed to bring the qualitative transformation of the electricity sector:
a) Regulatory Commission Act 1998 b) Indian Electricity Act 1910
c) Supply Act 1948 d) Electricity Act 2003
18. Which of the following is highest contributor to the air pollution?
a) Carbon Monoxide b) Hydro Carbons c) Sulphur Oxides d) Particulates
19. Projected temperature increase in degree centigrade 2100 due to climate change is:
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8 Increase
20. Acid rain is caused by the release of the following components from combustion of fuels.
a) SOx and NOx b) SOx and CO2 c) CO2 and NOx d) H2O
Short type questions and answers
1. Classify the types of the energy available on the earth?
Energy can be classified into several types based on the following criteria as:
• Primary and Secondary energy
• Commercial and Non-commercial energy
• Renewable and Non-Renewable energy
2. Briefly mention about primary sources of energy?

Primary energy sources are those that are either found or stored in nature. Common primary
energy sources are coal, oil, natural gas and biomass. Other primary energy sources found on earth
include nuclear energy from radioactive substances, thermal energy stored in earth’s interior and
potential energy due to earth’s gravity.

3. What is renewable energy and list at least three renewable energy sources?
Renewable energy is the energy obtained from sources that are essentially inexhaustible but has
limited potential for exploitation. Examples of renewable resources include wind power, solar
power, geothermal energy, tidal power and hydro electric.
4. Name the five states in India, where coal production is concentrated.
Coal production is concentrated in Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Orissa,
Jharkhand and West Bengal
5. Define Reserve to ‘Production Ratio’?
Ans. It is the ratio of fuel reserves remaining at the end of the year to the production in that year.
6. How do you define ‘Final Energy Consumption’?
Final energy consumption is the actual energy demand at the user end. This is the difference
between primary energy consumption and the losses that takes place in transport, transmission,
distribution and refinement.
7. Why developed countries have been able to maintain low ratio of energy to GDP?
This is because they have been able to focus on two important issues like, energy efficiency and
lower energy intensity routes.
8. What is Energy intensity and what it indicates?
Energy intensity is energy consumed per unit of GDP and it indicates the development stage of
that country.
9. Mention the parameters on which the high tension and low tension consumers are charged by
electricity boards.
Generally, high tension consumers are charged based on both demand (kVA) and energy (kWh)
while the low tension consumers are charged based on only energy consumed (kWh).
10. What is main objective of Electricity Act, 2003?
The main objective of Electricity Act, 2003 is to create liberal framework of development for the
power sector by distancing Government from regulation.
11. List down the major sources of pollutants in Air?
The major sources of pollutants in Air are fuel combustion in transport, industry, forest fires, and
solid waste disposal.
12. What is greenhouse gas effect?
The heating up of earth’s atmosphere due to trapping of long wavelength infrared rays by the
carbon di- oxide layer in the atmosphere is called green house effect.
13. What are the key greenhouse gases driving global warming?
Carbon-dioxide, CFC, methane, Ozone, Nitrous oxide etc.
14. What are the two major anthropogenic causes for the generation of Carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere?
➢ Combustion of fossil fuels, Changes in land use
15. List down at least three effects of acid rain?
The effects of acid rains are as follows:
➢ Acidification of lakes, streams and soils.
➢ Direct and indirect affects (release of metals, for e.g. aluminium which washes away plant
nutrients
➢ Killing of wild life.
➢ Decay of building materials, paints, statues and sculptures.
➢ Health problems (respiratory, burning skin and eyes)
16. What is the basis for aim of Energy Security for any country?
The basic aim of energy security for a nation is to reduce its dependency on the imported energy
sources for its economic growth.
17. Differentiate between Energy Conservation and Energy Efficiency?
Energy conservation is achieved when growth of energy consumption is reduced, measured in
physical terms. Whereas the energy efficiency is achieved when energy intensity in a specific
product, process or area of production is reduced without affecting output, consumption or
comfort levels.
18. How a nation benefits from Energy Efficiency programs?
Through energy efficiency, energy imports will be reduced, which helps in conserving limited
resources and lead to improved energy security.
19. How Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) facilitates energy efficiency programs in India?
BEE facilitates Energy efficiency programs in India by preparing standards and labels of appliances,
developing a list of designated consumers, specifying certification and accreditation procedures,
preparing building codes, maintaining central EC fund and undertaking promotional activities in
coordination with centre and state level agencies.
20. List down at least five designated consumers specified by the BEE?
Aluminium, Fertilizers, Iron and Steel, Cement, Pulp and Paper etc.,

Long type questions and answers

1. List the strategies for better energy security of the nation?

Some of the strategies that can be used to meet future challenges to Nation’s energy security are:
• Building stockpiles
• Diversification of energy supply sources
• Increased capacity of fuel switching
• Demand restraint
• Development of renewable energy sources
• Energy efficiency
• Sustainable development
2. Mention some of the long-term energy strategies available for the better energy secured nation?
• Efficient generation of energy resources
o Efficient production of coal, oil and natural gas
o Reduction of natural gas flaring
• Improving energy infrastructure
o Building new refineries
o Creation of urban gas transmission and distribution network
o Maximizing efficiency of rail transport of coal production.
o Building a new coal & gas fired power stations.
o Maximizing efficiency of rail transport of coal production.
o Building new coal and gas fired power stations.
• Enhancing energy efficiency
o Improving energy efficiency in accordance with national, socio-economic, and
environmental priorities
 o Promoting of energy efficiency and emission standards
o Labelling programmes for products and adoption of energy efficient
technologies in large industries
• Deregulation and privatization of energy sector
o Reducing cross subsidies on oil products and electricity tariffs
o Decontrolling coal prices and making natural gas prices competitive
o Privatization of oil, coal and power sectors for improved efficiency.
• Investment legislation to attract foreign investments.
o Streamlining approval process for attracting private sector participation in
power generation, transmission and distribution
3. How do an Industry, nation and globe would benefit from energy efficiency programs?

Energy efficiency benefits for industry, nation and globe are as follows:
Industry:
• Reduced energy bills
• Increased competitiveness
• Increased productivity
• Improved quality
• Increased profits
Nation:
• Reduced energy imports
• Avoided costs can be used for poverty reduction
• Conservation of limited resources
• Improved energy security
Globe:
• Reduced GHG and other emissions
Maintains a suitable environment
4. How energy pricing is done in India?
Coal: Grade wise basic price of coal at the pithead excluding statutory levies for runof-mine
(ROM) coal are fixed by Coal India Ltd from time to time. The pithead price of coal in India
compares favourably with price of imported coal. In spite of this, industries still import coal due
to its higher calorific value and low ash content.
Oil: As part of the energy sector reforms, the government has attempted to bring prices for many
of the petroleum products (naphtha, furnace oil, LSHS, LDO and bitumen) in line with
international prices. The most important achievement has been the linking of diesel prices to
international prices and a reduction in subsidy. However, LPG and kerosene, consumed mainly
by domestic sectors, continue to be heavily subsidised. Subsidies and cross-subsidies have
resulted in serious distortions in prices, as they do not reflect economic costs at all in many cases.
 Natural Gas: The government has been the sole authority for fixing the price of natural gas in the
country. It has also been taking decisions on the allocation of gas to various competing
consumers.
Electricity: Electricity tariffs in India are structured in a relatively simple manner. While high
tension consumers are charged based on both demand (kVA) and energy (kWh), the low-tension
(LT) consumer pays only for the energy consumed (kWh) as per tariff system in most of the
electricity boards. In addition to the base tariffs, some of the State Electricity Boards have
additional recovery from customers in form of fuel surcharges, electricity duties and taxes.
5. Briefly describe the economic reforms in Coal, oil and natural gas and electricity sectors.
Since the initiation of economic reforms in India in 1991, there has been a growing acceptance of
the need for deepening these reforms in several sectors of the economy, which were essentially
in the hands of the government for several decades. It is now been realized that if substance has
to be provided to macroeconomic policy reform, then it must be based on reforms that concern
the functioning of several critical sectors of the economy, among which the infrastructure sectors
in general and the energy sector in particular, are paramount.
Coal The government has recognized the need for new coal policy initiatives and for
rationalization of the legal and regulatory framework that would govern the future development
of this industry. One of the key reforms is that the government has allowed importing of coal to
meet our requirements. Private sector is now allowed to participate in the extraction and
marketing of coal. The ultimate objective of some of the ongoing measures and others under
consideration is to see that a competitive environment is created for the functioning of various
entities in this industry. This would not only bring about gains in efficiency but also effect cost
reduction, which would consequently ensure supply of coal on a larger scale at lower prices.
Competition would also have the desirable effect of bringing in new technology, for which there
is an urgent and overdue need since the coal industry has suffered a prolonged period of
stagnation in technological innovation.
Oil and Natural Gas Since 1993, private investors have been allowed to import and market
liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) and kerosene freely; private investment is also been allowed in
lubricants, which are not subject to price controls. Prices for naphtha and some other fuels have
been liberalized. In 1997 the government introduced the New Exploration Licensing Policy (NELP)
in an effort to promote investment in the exploration and production of domestic oil and gas. In
addition, the refining sector has been opened to private and foreign investors in order to reduce
imports of refined products and to encourage investment in downstream pipelines. Attractive
 terms are being offered to investors for the construction of liquefied natural gas (LNG) import
facilities.
Electricity Following the enactment of the Electricity Regulatory Commission Legislation, the
Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) was set up, with the main objective of
regulating the Central power generation utilities. State level regulatory bodies have also been set
up to set tariffs and promote competition. Private investments in power generation were also
allowed. The State SEBs were asked to switch over to separate Generation, Transmission and
Distribution corporations. While, India currently does not have a unified national power grid, the
country plans to link the SEB grids eventually, and has set up a state company, Powergrid, to
oversee the unification.
SET 18
SET 19
01. Tarapur nuclear power plant has which type of reactor?
Pressurized water reactors.
Boiling water type.
CANDU type reactors.
None of these.

02․ Which of the following rotor is used in thermal power plants?

cylindrical rotor
salient pole rotor
either of these
squirrel cage rotor

03․ India’s largest thermal power station is located at

Kota.
Sarni.
Chandrapur.
Neyveli.

04․ What is the total installed power capacity (MW) in West Bengal as published by
ministry of power in 2011?
6114.05.
10000.32.
8113.27.
15515.22.

05․ NTPC (National Thermal Power Cooperation) has its only thermal power
generating unit in West Bengal at
Durgapur.
Bakreshwar.
Farakka.
Katwa.

06․ Objectives of power system is/are

Cost of electrical energy per KWh is to be minimum
Rated voltage and frequency has to be supplied to the consumers
both 1 and 2
nether 1 nor 2
07․ Which of the following statement is true
At higher voltage, cost of transmission is reduced
At higher voltage, cost of transmission is increased
efficiency decreased
all of the above

08. The thermal efficiency of a steam plant is defined as?

a. The ratio of heat equivalent of electrical output to the heat of combustion of coal.

b. The ratio of heat of combustion of coal to the heat equivalent of electrical output.

c. The ratio of heat equivalent of mechanical energy transmitted to the turbine

shaft to the heat of combustion of coal.

d. The ratio of heat of combustion of coal to the heat equivalent of mechanical

energy transmitted to the turbine shaft.

09. What is the overall efficiency of the thermal plant?

a. The ratio of heat equivalent of electrical output to the heat of combustion of

coal.

b. The ratio of heat of combustion of coal to the heat equivalent of electrical output.

c. The ratio of heat equivalent of mechanical energy transmitted to the turbine shaft
to the
heat of combustion of coal.

d. The ratio of heat of combustion of coal to the heat equivalent of mechanical

energy transmitted to the turbine shaft.

10. A 100 MW steam station uses coal of calorific value of 5780 kcal/kg. The
thermal efficiency is about 30% and the electrical efficiency is 93%. What
would be the coal consumption per hour, when the station is delivering its full
rated output?

a. 48672 kg
b. 53330 kg
c. 71876 kg
d. 31826 kg
SET 20
1. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
(a) Coal
(b) Forests
(c) Water
(d) Wildlife

2. Which among the following is not a renewable source of energy?

(a) Solar energy
(b) Biomass energy
(c) Hydro-power
(d) Geothermal energy

3. Identify the non-renewable energy resource from the following:

(a) Coal
(b) Fuel cells
(c) Wind power
(d) Wave power

4. Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy sources?

(a) Highly polluting
(b) High waste disposal cost
(c) Unreliable supply
(d) High running cost

5. Photovoltaic energy is the conversion of sunlight into:

(a) Chemical energy
(b) Biogas
(c) Electricity
(d) Geothermal energy

6. Horizontal axis and vertical axis are the types of:

(a) Nuclear reactor
(b) Wind mills
(c) Biogas reactor
(d) Solar cell

7. Which among the following is not an adverse environmental impact of tidal power
generation?
(a) Interference with spawning and migration of fish
(b) Pollution and health hazard in the estuary due to blockage of flow of polluted water into
the sea
(c) Navigational hazard
(d) None of the above

8. Steam reforming is currently the least expensive method of producing:

(a) Coal
(b) Biogas
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Natural gas

9. A fuel cell, in order to produce electricity, burns:

(a) Helium
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Hydrogen
(d) None of the above

10. Fuel cells are:

(a) Carbon cell
(b) Hydrogen battery
(c) Nuclear cell
(d) Chromium cell

11. Both power and manure is provided by:

(a) Nuclear plants
(b) Thermal plants
(c) Biogas plants
(d) Hydroelectric plant

12. The outermost layer of the earth is:

(a) Magma
(b) Mantle
(c) Crust
(d) Solid iron core

13. Common energy source in Indian villages is:

(a) Electricity
(b) Coal
(c) Sun
(d) Wood and animal dung

14. The one thing that is common to all fossil fuels is that they:
(a) Were originally formed in marine environment
(b) Contain carbon
(c) Have undergone the same set of geological processes during their formation
(d) Represent the remains of one living organisms
15. The process that converts solid coal into liquid hydrocarbon fuel is called:
(a) Liquefaction
(b) Carbonation
(c) Catalytic conversion
(d) Cracking

16. Lignite, bituminous and anthracite are different ranks of:

(a) Nuclear fuel
(b) Coal
(c) Natural gas
(d) Biogas

17. Crude oil is:

(a) Colourless
(b) Odourless
(c) Smelly yellow to black liquid
(d) Odourless yellow to black liquid

18. BTU is measurement of:

(a) Volume
(b) Area
(c) Heat content
(d) Temperature

19. The first controlled fission of an atom was carried out in Germany in:
(a) 1920
(b) 1928
(c) 1925
(d) 1938

20. Boiling water reactor and pressurised water reactors are:

(a) Nuclear reactor
(b) Solar reactor
(c) OTEC
(d) Biogas reactor

21. Energy from gravitational field is energy obtained from

(a) wind
(b) biomass
(c) coal
(d) tides

22. Tidal pull of moon can distort continents pulling up and down up to
(a) 25 cm
(b) 30 cm
(c) 35 cm
(d) 40 cm

23. Gain in kinetic energy is equal to

(a) loss in P.E − work against friction
(b) loss in K.E − work against friction
(c) loss in P.E + work against friction
(d) loss in P.E × work against friction

24. Environmental impact of coal generation is

(a) ash
(b) stack products (SO2, NOx, CO, CO2)
(c) Submerged land
(d) Both (a) & (b)