1.

Which of the following is not included under article 21 of Constitution of India

a. Right to clean and pollution free environment
b. right to medical care
c. right to health
d. Right to free medical care
2. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that the employee was entitled for the
reimbursement of the room rent actually paid, and also held that, the right to life includes right
to health
a. Parmanand Katara v/s Union of India (AIR 1989 SC 2034)
b. State of Punjab V/s Mahinder Singh Chawla AIR (1997 SC 1225)
c. M. C. Mehta V/s union of India (AIR 1987 SC 965)
d. None of the above
3. _________Provides a duty on the state to protect and improve the environment for providing
better living conditions.
a. Article 47
b. Article 48
c. Article 48 (A)
d. Article 39 (e)
4. which section of the Indian penal code, 1860, deals with the offences affecting the public
health and safety.
a. Section 268 to 278
b. Section 284 to 286
c. Neither (a) nor (b)
d. Both (a) and (b)
5. In which case the Supreme Court gave the President that, no doctor or the government
institute should refuse a primary medical aid to the patient only because for the reason that
such a case is a medico-legal case.
a. Parmanand Katara v/s Union of India (AIR 1989 SC 2034)
b. State of Punjab V/s Mahinder Singh Chawla AIR (1997 SC 1225)
c. M. C. Mehta V/s union of India (AIR 1987 SC 965)
d. None of the above
6. Right to health of men, women and workers is protected by article__________
a. Article 39(e)
b. Article 21
c. Article 24
d. Article 39(f)
7. _________Is a science of life and precisely all about life
a. Reiki
b. Siddha
c. Unani
d. Ayurveda
8. The philosophy of science of life and surgical skills enunciated by _______ and ________
a. Ayuh and Veda
b. Takshashila and Nalanda
c. Charaka and Sushruta
d. Rigveda and Atharveda
9. According to a Siddha saint, the medicine in Siddha system is as the the following lines. Which
of the following is incorrect.
a. One that cure physical alignment is medicine
b. One that seize immortality is medicine
c. One that cure psychological alignment is medicine
 d. One that prevents alignment is medicine
10. Which are the humors that the humoral theory presupposes to preserve
a. Pam
b. Balgham
c. Satra
d. All of the above
11. Which of the following is not the variety of Medical Profession in India.
a. Siddha
b. Homoeopathy
c. Bhasmas
d. Magnetic Therapy
12. When did the state of Maharashtra declare Yoga and Naturopathy as a recognised branch of
medicine.
a. February, 2017
b. February, 2016
c. December, 1996
d. September, 2019
13. __________ is a Doctor Who specialises in the study of kidney diseases and ailment.
a. Neurologist
b. Numerologist
c. Nephrologist
d. Nutritionist
14. _________ is a Doctor Who specialises in diagnosis and treats medical condition related to
liver
a. Hematologist
b. Andrologist
c. pulmonologist
d. orthopedist
15. What is a doctor called who specialises in treatment of diseases and disorders affecting the
ankle and foot.
a. Immunologist
b. dermatologist
c. neurologist
d. Podiatrist
16. What does a Otolaryngologist specialises in
a. Hearing aids treatment
b. Eye surgery
c. Treating vision problems
d. Ear nose and throat ailment
17. The person who studies the cause and pattern of diseases in a population or area, and more
efforts to prevent epidermic’s and pandemics from occurring again is called
a. Forensic psychiatrist
b. Parasitologist
c. epidemiologist
d. audiologist
18. In which case the Supreme Court held that the right to health of a worker is a fundamental
right and this right is not only available against the state and its instrumentalities But also
against private industries which must ensure facilities and opportunities of health and vigour to
the workmen.
a. T. Damodar Rao v. The Special officer, municipal Corporation of Hyderabad, AIR 1987 AP
171
 b. Mahendra Pratap Singh v. State of Orissa ( AIR 1997 Or. 37)
c. Kirloskar Bros. Ltd. V. Employees’ State insurance Corporation (1996 2 SCC 682)
d. supreme Court in consumer education and research Centre v. Union of India (1995 3 SCC
42)
19. The word euthanasia translates to ________ in English
a. Bad Death
b. Good Death
c. Mercy Death
d. Right Death
20. During which case the ongoing team beat of youth and Sia was rekindled
a. Aruna Shanbaug case
b. Maruti dubla case
c. Airedale NHS trust case
d. Rathiram case
21. In medical context, PVS is a abbreviation for –
a. Poor vision state.
b. Post vaccination syndrome.
c. Persistent vegetative state.
d. Poor Venous supply.
22. “ similia similibus curantur” is the basis of system of therapeutics known popularly as –
a. Allopathic.
b. Naturopathy.
c. Homoeopathy.
d. Osteopathy.
23. In Aruna shanbaug case which judge felt that “the underlying basis of the decision in Aruna
Shanbaug’s Case is flawed”
a. Justice Chandrachud
b. Justice Dipak Mishra
c. Justice Dutta
d. Justice Altamas Kabir
24. “Over himself, over his own body and mind, the individual is sovereign.” Is written by-
a. Re Jobes
b. John Stuart mill
c. Joe Stuart Mill
d. John Steven Mill
25. The conditions to be fulfilled to validated patient’s informed decision based on his right to self-
determination:
a. He must be fully competent, that is, he has not only sufficient capacity to make a
decision, but also sufficient information to make that decision.
b. He must make such a decision voluntarily, that is, free from any external constraints.
c. Both a and B.
d. Only a
26. Which of the following statement is true regarding right to self – determination
a. This right enables the patient to receive a particular line of medical treatment.
b. This right enables the patient to reject A particular line of medical treatment.
c. A patient has a right to refuse medical treatment even at the risk of personal injury or
death
d. All of the above.
27. A document in which a patient can write, delegate to another person the power to make medical
decision on his behalf, such document is known as
a. Power of attorney
b. Patience self – determination document
c. Durable power of attorney
 d. Medical will
28. Which case was the first “right to die” case to be heard by the court
a. Nancy Drew v. Hotel adieu de Quebec
b. Nancy Beth Cruzan v. Director, Missouri Department of Heath
c. Common cause v. Union of India
d. Aruna Shanbhag v. Union of India
29. The lines of the Hippocratic Oath “ and what so ever I shall see or hear in the course of my
profession, as well as outside my profession in my intercourse with men, if it be what should not
be published abroad, I will never divulge, holding such things to be holy secrets.” Implies to.
a. Privileged communication
b. Right to self-determination
c. Right to confidentiality
d. Right to hold back
30. _______ of the Code of Ethics Regulations, 2002, of the Medical Council of India states that a
registered Medical practitioner cannot Publish photographs or case reports of his patients
without their permission.
a. Clause 7.14
b. clause 7.15
c. clause 7.16
d. clause 7.17
31. which of the following is incorrect.
a. Disclosure about a communicable disease can be made to the public for the public
interest without the permission of the patient
b. If an inmate of a hostel or boarding house is a minor, search information can be
disclosed to the warden or the Superintendent of that Institute without permission hey
the registered medical practitioner shall disclose
c. the secret of the patient that have been learned in the exercise of his profession
d. If the circumstances showed that there is a serious and identified risk, either for the
specific person or to the community tea at large if the information is not disclosed the
doctor has the permission to disclose search information
32. In which of the following case the medical practitioner cannot disclose the information of his
patient
a. When the patient is a minor or a person of unsound mind, search information can be
conveyed to the parent or guidance of the minor.
b. In case of a prisoner such information can be conveyed to the jailer or the superintendent
of the jail.
c. When the patient is transferred to the care of another doctor for treatment search
information can be disclosed to the other doctor.
d. If the disease is noncommunicable disease the doctor can disclose such information
for the public interest
33. __________ refers to the systematic documentation of the patients medical history, treatment
and care maintained by a doctor or a hospital or other similar institution.
a. Medical file
b. Medical history
c. Medical records
d. Medical statements
34. Which of the following is not a medical record
a. X-ray
b. CT scans
c. Blood reports
d. All of the above
35. Following are the rules governing the maintenance of medical records in USA. Which of the
following is incorrect.
a. A corrective pen can be used in case of errors
b. The medical records must bear date and time.
 c. The medical records must be in writing.
d. Any errors on the record must be struck off with one single line.
36. In the absence of any statutory provision to that effect, a police officer and a lawyer can
Demand such confidential information from a doctor.
a. True
b. False
37. The maintenance of complete and accurate medical records of all patients is a duty imposed by
the law on all doctors hospitals and healthcare institutions.
a. True
b. False
38. In India, under the regulation of the medical Council of India, medical records are to be
maintained for the period of _________ from the date of commencement of the treatment of the
patient.
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Four years
39. If the medical record is maintained in an electronic form, it is required to be _________
a. Electronically Stamped by the doctor
b. Electronically Signed by the doctor
c. Electronically Stamped by the management of the hospital
d. Electronically Signed by the RMO
40. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act contain detailed provisions relating to Privileged
communication?
a. Sec. 122 to 129
b. Sec. 122 to 137
c. Sec. 120 to 129
d. Non of the above
41. Which of the following communication can not be considered to be privileged communication?
a. Communication between spouses
b. Communication between father and son
c. Communications of the government
d. Communication between the legal practitioner and his client
42. The doctor can disclose the information received by the doctor from his patient for bona fide
reason and in good faith.
a. True
b. False
43. In case of sexually transmitted disease, if the doctor finds out that such a patient is going to
marry a girl, without disclosing the disease to the girl or her family, would he be justified in
conveying such information to the prospective bride and her family.
a. No
b. Yes
c. Maybe
d. It’s illegal
44. If a patient is at chauffeur And found to be colour blind by the doctor and the doctor advised
him to stop driving as it could be dangerous but he does not heed to the doctors advice in such
case can the doctor disclose the state of his eyes to his employer
a. No
b. Yes
c. Maybe
d. It’s illegal
45. If there is a reasonable suspicion that the patient has committed and offence, the information can
be disclosed by the doctor to the appropriate authorities.
a. True
b. False
46. In the case of common cause v. union of India _________ was upheld by the Supreme Court
a. Active euthanasia
b. Relatively privileged communication
c. Passive euthanasia
d. Privileged communication
47. Is the relationship between the doctor and his patient contractual in nature?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
d. Yes, as it fulfills all the requirement of a valid contract
48. Which of the following is the requirement for a valid contract.
a. Proposal and acceptance
b. Forced consent
c. Lawful consideration
d. Competency of the parties
49. If the doctor gives the patient an appointment ____________________
a. Rejection to the proposal
b. Acceptance to the proposal
c. Neglected the proposal
d. Non of the above
50. In case the patient is a minor or a person of unsound mind, it can be said that the doctor is
entering into a contract with the parent or guardian of the minor or the person of unsound mind
who is acting on the behalf of the minor or for his benefit.
a. True
b. False
51. The presence of the consent of the patient is enough
a. True
b. False
52. The consent is said to be free if it Has not been caused by _________
a. Coercion
b. Undue influence
c. Misrepresentation
d. All of the above
53. If a patient is willing to take an injection as a part of the treatment, such willingness can be
taken as his ________ for the slightest pain and discomfort caused to him by the prick of the
needle
a. Expressed consent
b. Implied consent
c. Forced consent
d. Consent caused by undue influence
54. When the patient visits the doctor, he is deemed to have given his implied consent for
preliminary matters like
a. Palpation
b. Auscultation
c. Ordinary clinical examination
d. All of the above
55. In what case the contract between the doctor and His patient is not a valid contract as it does not
satisfy the requirement of lawful consideration and object
a. A rectal or vaginal examination of the patient
b. Breach of provisions of Termination of pregnancy act
c. Breach of the preconception and prenatal diagnostic technique act
d. Both b and c
56. What kind of a contract is the doctor-patient relationship
a. Written contract
b. Oral contract
 c. Expressed contract
d. Implied contract
57. In case if the doctor fails to perform his obligation, can the patient sue him for breach of
contract.
a. Yes
b. No
c. Depends
d. Not applicable
58. In which case it was observed that it is implied, that the doctor will exercise proper care and
skill when giving the treatment.
a. Bailey v. Herman
b. Greaves & co ltd. v. Baynham
c. Everett v. Griffiths
d. Schloendorft v. Society of New York Hospital
59. When a surgeon has been retained to perform an operation he is contractually bound to perform
the surgery and pay such post-operative visit as many as possible but he cannot guarantee the
patient will be cured out of the disease or illness.
a. Bailey v. Herman
b. Greaves & co ltd. v. Baynham
c. Everett v. Griffiths
d. Morris v. Winsbury White
60. Any interference with the patient’s body without his consent amounts to assault and battery. In
which case was the above statement Held.
a. Bailey v. Herman
b. Greaves & co ltd. v. Baynham
c. Schloendorft v. Society of New York Hospital
d. Canterbury v. Spence
61. By which judge it was observed that if a surgeon performed an operation on the patient’s body
without the patient’s consent, he is guilty of assault.
a. Allen J.
b. Jeremy J.
c. Cardozo J.
d. Khoa J.
62. The right of self – determination allows the patient to ________ what should be done with your
body.
a. Recommend
b. Decide
c. Finalise
d. Determine
63. Which of the following examination requires expressed consent
a. Examination of heart beat
b. Examination of temperature
c. Examination of vagina
d. All of the above
64. In an operation which may result in ________, the consent of both husband and wife is needed
a. Obesity
b. Sterility
c. Death
d. Litigation
65. The doctrine of informed consent to medical treatment is based on the landmark case
a. Canterbury v. Spence
b. Copper v. Nevill
c. Bailey v. Herman
d. Morris v. White
66. Consent is said to be valid when given by –
 a. Adult who is insane
b. Husband of the competent female
c. Solicitation by an agent to take treatment for the specific doctor
d. None of the above
67. The right of self-determination to take treatment or not is enjoyed by –
a. A minor who is of sound mind.
b. A competent adult
c. Spouse of the conscious patient
d. Adult who is insane
68. In an operation which may result in – the consent of both husband and wife is needed
a. Obesity
b. Impotency
c. Eye operation
d. Leg operation
69. In case of Brain death, the debt is certified by a team of medical experts. The board must have –
a. Cardiologist.
b. Police inspector
c. Neurologist
d. Nephrologist
70. Helsinki declaration, 1964 refers to –
a. Transplantation of human organs.
b. Experimentation of drugs on human beings.
c. Experimentation of drugs on animals
d. Prenatal diagnosis of the patient