LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

"Part of the most Comprehensive Classroom Training, Prep Content & Test Series across the Nation.
From the producers of the Best and the Most number of A.I.Rs in the past years, every year!"

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2021

MOCK CLAT #05

Candidate Name : _________________
Duration : 120 Minutes
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Centre Name : __________
Date of Exam : _________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There are 150multiple choice objective type questions.
3. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are 150.
4. There is a negative marking of 0.25 marks for every incorrect answer.
5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided,
with a BALL PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the TajMahal located?", the correct answer is (b).
The candidate has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below :
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods

6. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered
incorrect and no marks will be awarded for the same.
7. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required
and in the spaces provided for.
9. After the Test is over, the candidate has to return the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator. The
candidate should take the Test Paper along with them.
10. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to face
criminal prosecution.
12. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, pagers or calculators are strictly not permitted inside the
Test Centre/Hall.
13. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the Test is over.
MOCK CLAT #05

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions(Q.1-Q.30): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.

Passage (Q.1-Q.5):The locus of contemporary debates on free expression and the limits thereof across
societies and cultures is individual freedom versus communal welfare. The founding principles for this
discussion can be traced back to two seminal texts whose relevance has not diminished despite the
passage of centuries-Plato's Republic (especially Books II, in and X) and John Milton's Areopagitica.
Plato's polemical treatise builds up a strong case for exiling poets and poetry from an ideal republic he
envisages, while Milton's seventeenth century pamphlet remains a passionate espousal of free speech.
Both arguments are used knowingly or unknowingly by defenders of the faith in opposing camps of free
expression today.

Plato's position vis-à-vis poetry as exemplified through his Republic is a masterful emphasis of the
functionality of art and literature. His stance is that poetry, and by extension literature, should provide
good role models which would aid in character building and anything that does not provide it is
anathema. He is not against poetry or stories as such, since he agrees that stories are necessary to train
the young mind. However, the poetic imagination should be instructed to create only stories of a certain
kind, the story is to be avoided "whenever an erroneous representation is made of the nature of gods and
heroes-as when a painter paints a portrait not having the shadow of a likeness to the original" (Jowett
n.d.). This is why he would keep away from even great poets like Homer and Hesiod, for "the fault of
telling a lie, and, what is more, a bad lie" (ibid.). Plato's objection to poetry is when it represents the
negative emotions among the gods, like the petty rivalries and jealousies that were the cause of many a
mythological war. It is quite obvious that according to the Platonic yardstick, Vyasa and Valmiki would
have been banished along with Homer and Hesiod from the ideal polis. Plato's argument that artists are
imitators who are "thrice removed from reality" and "copy images of virtue and the like, the truth they
never reach," are reasons enough to cast the poet out of the pales of the city (ibid.). There is an implicit
acceptance that the State is right in his statement that the State should provide the template for artistic
creations: "but now the founders of a State ought to know the general forms in which poets should cast
their tales, and the limits which must be observed by them, but to make the tales is not their business.
Plato's ideal republic is also the blueprint for autocratic regimes where artists are expected to follow the
guidelines laid down by the State, like Stalin's famous exhortation.

1. Why according to the passage does Plato keeps away from the great poets such as Homer?
(a) According to Plato only those stories should be studied to aid good character.
(b) According to Plato the writings of Homer were very sub-standard.
(c) According to Plato, Homer had no idea of what he was writing.
(d) All of the above.

2. How would Homer and Hesiod be same as Valmiki and Vyasa according to the passage?
(a) Vyasa and Valmiki are were the Homer and Hesiod of the east.
(b) Both the pairs were the creators of imaginative literature which does not reach the truth.
(c) Plato was against the use of poetry to create stories.
(d) Plato considered any work below his works as sub-standard works.

3. Why does the author says that Plato’s ideal republic is also the blueprint for autocratic regime?
(a) According to the author, Plato is a very ideal man.
(b) Because of the Plato’s thinking that the artists should follow the guidelines laid down by the
government.
(c) It is because of Plato’s hatred for Homer and Hesiod.
(d) All of the above.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 2 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

4. Which of the following is the synonym of the word ‘exhortation’

(a) Insistence
(b) Courage
(c) Success
(d) Defence

5. According to Plato, what is the reason to cast the poet out of the pales of the city?
(a) That the poets are very far away from reality
(b) That they are not good for communal welfare
(c) That they are the freeloaders
(d) That the artists are not needed in an equal society.

Passage (Q.6-Q.10):In an audio file of the interview uploaded to YouTube, Ambedkar can be heard
saying that Gandhi was no reformer. “He was just an episode in the history of India, not an epoch maker,”
Ambedkar said.
While some Gandhian scholars have dismissed Ambedkar’scharacterisation of Gandhi as mere ‘polemic’,
I would argue that his sharp criticism stems from logical analysis and philosophical disagreement rather
than hatred for Gandhi as a political opponent.
After thoroughly interrogating the social and economic foundations of Gandhian philosophy,
Ambedkar diagnosed Gandhism as a dangerous doctrine.
The Gandhian prescription for an ideal society was to establish a perfect caste system. Till 1922, Gandhi
was an ardent proponent of the caste system. He saw great value in caste and openly advocated its
continuance.
Gandhi glorified caste as responsible for the durability of Hindu society; as a seed of swaraj (freedom); as
a unique power of organisation, as a means of providing primary education and raising a defence force;
as a means of self-restraint; as the natural order of society; and most important of all, as the eternal
principle of hereditary occupation for maintaining societal order.
Enunciating all these merits of caste, Gandhi declares, “These being my views I am opposed to all those
who are out to destroy the caste system.”
Later, Gandhi switched his terminology from that of caste to varna.
Around 1925, Gandhi declared that varna rather than caste was his social ideal. He suggested the
smaller castes fuse and ‘reproduce the old system of four varnas.’ The old varna system prevalent in
ancient India had society divided into four vertically hierarchical orders: Brahmins, Kshatriyas, Vaishyas
and Shudras whose socially legislated occupations were learning, warfare, trade and service to the
above three varnas respectively. Ambedkar saw no real change in Gandhi’s position as Gandhi’s varna
ideal carried forward the hereditary occupation from the caste model intact.

Ambedkar rightly pointed out that even within the framework of a Gandhian utopia, the Shudras were to
continue as a servile class. And ati-shudras (present-day Dalits) were to be integrated into the
Shudravarna.

The economic ideal of the Gandhian model was equally revolting for Ambedkar’s modernist sensibilities.
Firstly, Gandhi was against machinery and modern civilisation. In contrast, Ambedkar argues that modern
machinery enables humans to have leisure. And leisure, in turn, is the primary precondition for culture
and civilisation to thrive, which make human life worthy of its existence. Secondly, the Gandhian idea of
‘trusteeship’ is ostensibly geared towards the elimination of class struggle in the relationship between
employers and employees and between landlords and tenants. Ambedkar, being a trained economist,
was highly sceptical of the rich protecting the interests of the poor.

6. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the above passage?

(a) Ambedkar’s criticism of the Gandhi stems from logical analysis
(b) Ambedkar’s criticism of the Gandhi stems from his philosophical disagreement Gandhism
(c) Ambedkar’s analysis of the Gandhi stems from his hatred of the Gandhian lifestyle
(d) Gandhi believed in the varna system of Hindu life.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 3 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

7. Which of the following points to Ambedkar’s disagreement of Gandhi’s economical model?

(a) Views over the modern use of machinery
(b) Views over elimination of class struggle
(c) Views over rich protecting the interest of poor.
(d) All of the above

8. What was the role of Vaishyas in the Varna system?

(a) Learning
(b) Trading
(c) Warfare
(d) Service to other three classes.

9. Which of the following is conveys the central idea of the passage?

(a) Gandhism is a not very ideal form of philosophy
(b) Ambedkar’s criticism of the Gandhian philosophy.
(c) Caste as the basis of society’s ideal.
(d) All of the above.

10. The lines, “These being my views I am opposed to all those who are out to destroy the caste system.”,
suggest the tone of the speaker to be:
(a) Reflective
(b) Apologetic
(c) Frustrated
(d) Decisive

Passage (Q.11-Q.15):If liberalization is the answer to corruption, why did the biggest corruption scandal
occur in telecommunications? After all, telecom was the biggest success story of the reforms. As a result
of market competition, India had the lowest tariffs and the second largest number of mobile phones in the
world. How did one explain the 2G scam? The one thing that the market did not control in telecom was
the radio spectrum. The state controlled it and no one reckoned with a devious minister who created
artificial scarcity in the 2G spectrum and then gave it away in driblets to those who allegedly bribed him.
The man could have been avoided had the licences been awarded via open, transparent bidding on the
Internet.
By January 2011 there was plenty of rage over 2G across the land, and at its heart was the problem of
silence. The public was furious with the prime minister. His telecom minister, Andimuthu Raja, had
announced a policy to distribute radio spectrum to companies in September 2007. Manmohan Singh,
sensing that wrongdoing was afoot, wrote to Raja, objecting to the minister's policy and exhorting him to
be transparent. Raja replied immediately, defending himself. On 3 January 2008, the prime minister
acknowledged this letter-yes, acknowledged', as though he had acquiesced. This gave Raja the
permission to go ahead and issue the controversial licences. In May 2010, the prime minister admitted
that Raja had indeed written to him.

People wanted to know why their prime minister had fallen silent after having objected initially to the
policy. In those dark months, people had desperately wanted to clutch on to an honest man. They
thought they had found one in selfless, ethical Manmohan Singh. Everyone conceded that the prime
minister was personally honest, but they insistently asked about the value of a leader who was himself
upright but whose government was corrupt. It confirmed that the most important quality in a leader was
determination-more important than even intelligence and personal integrity, both of which their prime
minister possessed in abundance. They concludes sadly that Manmohan Singh the leader was a failure.
The prime minister's silence raised questions over his integrity in some people's minds, just as it had in
the case of the venerable Bhishma, the respected and selfless grandfather in the Mahabharata. Bhishma
too had remained silent when Draupadi was being disrobed by his grandchildren. When Draupadi had
insistently looked at him in the assembly and questioned the 'dharma of the ruler', no one had replied.
Everyone, including Bhishma, had remained silent. Then Vidura spat out at the immorality of silence.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 4 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

Quoting Rishi Kashyapa, he had said that when a crime occurs, half the punishment goes to the guilty, a
quarter to his ally and another quarter falls to those who remain silent.

11. Why the author thinks that telecommunication was the biggest liberalization?
(a) Within two decades of liberalization, it gave the opportunity for the biggest political scam in India.
(b) India had the lowest tariff rates in the world and the second largest number of mobile phones in the
world.
(c) The radio spectrum in the telecommunication sector was controlled by the state government.
(d) None of the above.

12. “When a crime occurs, half the punishment goes to the guilty, a quarter to his ally and another quarter
falls to those who remain silent”. Which of the following tone does the line presents?
(a) Scornful
(b) Angry
(c) Contemplative
(d) Satirical

13. According to the author, which of the following reason lead to the conclusion that Manmohan Singh was
a failed leader?
(a) Manmohan Singh lacked intelligence
(b) Manmohan Singh lacked determination
(c) Manmohan Singh lacked integrity
(d) All of the above.

14. Which of the following is synonyms with ‘driblets’?

(a) Cheap
(b) Insignificant
(c) Lots of
(d) Free

15. Why has the author compared Manmohan Singh with Bhisma?
(a) Unlike Bhisma, Manmohan Singh kept Silent when the wrong was being committed.
(b) Like Bhisma, Manmohan Singh kept Silent when the wrong was being committed.
(c) Both of them are grand old man of their empires.
(d) Both of them are respectful characters.

Passage (Q.16-Q.20):Jesus Christ was a historical figure of staggering influence, perhaps the most
enigmatic and inspirational leaders the world has ever seen. As the prophesied Messiah, Jesus toppled
kings, inspired millions and founded new philosophies. As a descendant of the lines of King Solomon and
King David, Jesus possessed a rightful claim to the throne of the King of the Jews. Understandably, His
life was recorded by thousands of followers across the land. Teabing paused to sip his tea and then
placed the cup back on the mantel. 'More than eighty gospels were considered for the New Testament,
and yet only a relative few were chosen for inclusion - Matthew, Mark, Luke and John among them.' Who
chose which gospels to include?' Sophie asked. "Aha! Teabing burst in with enthusiasm. The
fundamental irony of Christianity! The Bible, as we know it today, was collated by the pagan Roman
emperor Constantine the Great.'

I thought Constantine was a Christian,' Sophie said. Hardly, Teabing scoffed. 'He was a lifelong pagan
who was baptized on his deathbed, too weak to protest. In Constantine's day, Rome's official religion was
sun worship - the cult of Sol Invictus, or the Invincible Sun - and Constantine was its head priest.
Unfortunately for him, a growing religious turmoil was gripping Rome. Three centuries after the crucifixion
of Jesus Christ, Christ's followers had multiplied exponentially. Christians and pagans began warring and
the conflict grew to such pro Portions that it threatened to rent Room in two Constantine decided
something had to be done. In 325 AD, he decided to unify Rome under a single religion. Christianity.
Sophie said, 'Why would a pagan emperor choose Christianity as the official religion!! Teabing chuckled.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 5 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

'Constantine was a very good businessman. He could see that Christianity was on the rise, and he simply
backed the winning horse Historians still marvel at the brilliance with which Constantine converted the
sun-worshipping pagans to Christianity. By fusing pagan symbols, dates and rituals into the growing
Christian tradition, he created a kind of hybrid religion that was acceptable to both parties.'

Transmogrification,' Langdon said. The vestiges of pagan religion in Christian symbology are undeniable.
Egyptian sun disk became the halos of Catholic saints. Pictograms of Isis nursing her miraculously
conceived son Horus became the blueprint for our modern images of the Virgin Mary nursing Baby
Jesus. And virtually all the elements of the Catholic ritual the mitre, the altar, the doxology and
communion, the act of "God-eating" were taken directly from earlier pagan mystery religions.

16. Which of the following is Transmogrification?

(a) The influence that Jesus had over millions of people.
(b) The rejection of lots of gospels and retaining only few to be part of new testament.
(c) The symbols of pagans transforming into the new symbols of Christianity.
(d) None of the above

17. Why according to the passage is Jesus a figure of staggering influence?

(a) He toppled the kings
(b) Found new philosophies
(c) Inspired millions on people
(d) All of the above

18. Why did Teabing called Constantine a Businessmen?

(a) On the acumen of Constantine to convert the pagan religion into Christianity.
(b) On the disability of Constantine when he got converted to Christianity on his deathbed.
(c) He made so much profit from the religion
(d) All of the above.

19. Sophie said, 'Why would a pagan emperor choose Christianity as the official religion”. What expression
does Sophie has.
(a) Frustrated
(b) Satirical
(c) Puzzled
(d) Solemn

20. What is the most exact antonym of the word ‘enigmatic’?

(a) Inexplicable
(b) Delphic
(c) Simple
(d) Easy

Passage (Q.21-Q.25):The day was dawning, and the shepherd urged his sheep in the direction of the
sun. They never have to make any decision, he thought. Maybe that’s why they always stay close to me.
The only things that concern the sheep were food and water. As long as the boy knew how to find the
best pasteurs in Andalusia, they would be his friends. Yes, their days were all the same, with the
seamingly endless hours between sunrise and dusk; and they had never read a book in their young lives
and did not understand when the boy told them about the sights of the cities. They were content with just
food and water, and, in exchange, they generously gave off their wool, their company, and – once in a
while – their meat.
If I became a monster today, and decided to kill them, one by one, they would become aware only after
most of the flock had been slaughtered, thought the boy. They trust me and they have forgotten how to
rely on their own instincts, because I lead them to nourishment.
The boy was surprised at his thoughts. Maybe the church, with the sycamore growing from within had
been haunted. It had caused him to have the same dream for a second time, and it was causing him to

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 6 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

feel anger towards his faithful companions. He drank a bit from the wine that remained from his dinner of
the night before, and he gathered his jacket closer to his body.

[Excerpts from the novel, ‘The Alchemist’ by Paulo Coelho]

21. What nature of the sheep has been highlighted by the boy in this passage?
(a) Their monotonous life
(b) Their minimalistic life
(c) Their naïve nature
(d) Their trusting nature

22. How does the boy feel about the sheep?

(a) He feels sympathy for their simple lives
(b) He feels envious of their simple lives
(c) He is just reflective about the lives of his sheep
(d) All of the above

23. In the passage, the author is concerned about which of the following?
(a) The sheep
(b) The sycamore
(c) Himself
(d) All of the above

24. In the italicized line, one error is present. Which of the following is it?
(a) There is a grammatical mistake of tenses
(b) There is a mistake in the use of punctuation-marks
(c) There is a spelling error
(d) There is no error

25. Few figures of speech have been used in the statement. Which of the following has been used?
(a) Simile
(b) Metaphor
(c) Metonymy
(d) Assonance

Passage (Q.26-Q.30):In a new report, the Washington, DC-based air-quality think tank Open AQ notes
that “more data underpins all actions on air pollution”. The report, entitled ‘Open Air Quality Data: The
Global State of Play’, makes its case by arguing that 51% of countries, representing 1.4 billion people,
don’t generate any air-quality data. And of those that do, only 38% share data in real-time.
While it’s easy to agree, in principle, with the egalitarian ideals of data democratisation and transparency,
the report errs when it argues for more investment in regulatory data generation and the government
ownership of data. Specifically, it ignores the political issues underlying the air pollution crisis.
In order to effectively address the air pollution crisis, it is important to first understand the political
economy of the crisis – i.e., acknowledging the nexus of air pollution, politics and the economy.
India’s premiere pollution watchdog agency, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), has also been
exposed to accusations. In 2019, the National Green Tribunal sought a response from the CPCB after a
petition alleged that CPCB had fudged pollution data. Accusations of data misrepresentation have been
levelled against state pollution control agencies as well. For example, in April 2017, the Maharashtra
Pollution Control Board was accused of presenting false data to shield the Koradi thermal power plant
near Nagpur from regulatory action.
The centralised control also tempts regulatory agencies to engage in the selective elimination of data,
often in response to political compulsions. On the 69th Republic Day celebrations in New Delhi, the Delhi
Pollution Control Committee shut down most of its monitors to evade negative press on the city’s air
pollution crisis, especially in the presence of 10 ASEAN state leaders.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 7 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

In February 2019, the citizens of Whitefield, Bengaluru, won a landmark case against a polluting graphite
factory in their neighbourhood. After paying a fine of Rs 50 lakh in 2018, the factory was subsequently
shut down in 2019 on directions from the National Green Tribunal. At the centre of this case was the
exhaustive air quality data generated by the residents of Whitefield – a feat that the region’s foremost
regulatory agency, the Karnataka State Pollution Control Board, had failed to achieve in over two
decades.
The examples above demonstrate that central ownership of data can’t pave the way to data
democratization. In that, Open AQ’s case for data transparency seems logical in an ideal world where
governments do what they ought to do.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from the article ‘Simply Generating More Data and Sharing It Won’t
Solve Our Air Pollution Crisis’ published in The Wire Science]

26. Which of the following word can be used for someone who ‘errs’?
(a) Impeccable
(b) Immaculate
(c) Fallible
(d) Unimpeachable

27. Which of the following statement is consistent with the report of think tank Open AQ?
(a) Data should be owned by private entities.
(b) Government agencies are not well equipped to own data.
(c) Data generation can stop the air pollution.
(d) The data should be controlled and governed by the government.

28. What does the author mean when he says that he wants the democratization of data?
(a) Data should be owned by private entities.
(b) Data serve no purpose in a democratic country like India when controlled by government agencies.
(c) Data should be owned by state government also.
(d) Data should be available to all without any hindrance.

29. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) Data is just a number and serves no purpose to control air pollution.
(b) Data if easily available to public can become a shield against air pollution.
(c) Agencies owned by the government should be regulated by the ministry to ensure transparency.
(d) In United States, the government agencies are well suited to handle data as argued by the think tank.

30. “Delhi Pollution Control Committee shut down most of its monitors to evade negative press on the city’s
air pollution crisis, especially in the presence of 10 ASEAN state leaders”. Which of the following can best
describe the intention of the author behind this statement?
(a) Science is often pressed into the service of political agenda.
(b) Reality of pollution in Delhi might affect the relations with ASEAN nations.
(c) Science should be used to prevent air pollution.
(d) Delhi is most polluted in India.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 8 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

SECTION-B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS

Directions (Q.31–Q.68): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Passage (Q.31-Q.35):The NEP proposes sweeping changes including opening up of Indian higher
education to foreign universities, dismantling of the UGC and the All India Council for Technical
Education (AICTE), introduction of a four-year multidisciplinary undergraduate programme with multiple
exit options, and discontinuation of the M Phil programme. In school education, the policy focuses on
overhauling the curriculum, “easier” Board exams, a reduction in the syllabus to retain “core essentials”
and thrust on “experiential learning and critical thinking”. In a significant shift from the 1986 policy, which
pushed for a 10+2 structure of school education, the new NEP pitches for a “5+3+3+4” design
corresponding to the age groups 3-8 years (foundational stage), 8-11 (preparatory), 11-14 (middle), and
14-18 (secondary). This brings early childhood education (also known as pre-school education for
children of ages 3 to 5) under the ambit of formal schooling. The mid-day meal programme will be
extended to pre-school children. The NEP says students until Class 5 should be taught in their mother
tongue or regional language. The policy also proposes phasing out of all institutions offering single
streams and that all universities and colleges must aim to become multidisciplinary by 2040.

31. The Education policy of 1986 was revised in which year?

(a) 1990
(b) 1992
(c) 2006
(d) 2011

32. Which of the following is not one of the recommendation of the NEP 2020?
(a) Replacing the UGC and AICTE with the Higher Education Commission of India
(b) Setting up of National Research program.
(c) Discontinuation of PhD’s
(d) Discontinuation of M.Phil.

33. Which of the following are the fundamental principles of the policy?
(a) Achieving Foundational Literacy and Numeracy in all students by Grade
(b) No hard separations between arts and sciences, curricular and extra-curricular activities, vocational
and academic streams, among others to eliminate harmful hierarchies and silos in areas of learning
(c) ‘Light but Tight’ regulatory framework to promote integrity, transparency and resource efficiency of the
educational system
(d) All of the above

34. Which of the following is not a council under the Higher Education Council of India (HECI)?
(a) National Higher Education Regulatory Council (NHERC)
(b) General Education Council (GEC)
(c) Higher Education Grants Council (HEGC)
(d) National Education Proctorial Board.

35. The National Education Policy aims to transform India’s education system by which year?
(a) 2030
(b) 2035
(c) 2040
(d) 2050

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 9 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

Passage (Q.36-Q.40):Five years since the signing of a framework agreement between the Indian
government and the National Socialist Council of Nagalim (Isak-Muivah), the deadlock in the talks that
came about in October 2019 persists with the emergence of bottlenecks. The NSCN (I-M) has demanded
that Nagaland Governor [1] should be removed as the interlocutor for talks on the Naga accord. Talks
were expanded in 2017 by including other Naga groups under the banner, the Naga National Political
Groups (NNPGs). Clearly, the Governor’s letter in June addressed to Chief Minister Neiphiu Rio, alleging
the collapse of law and order and that armed gangs “who question the sovereignty and integrity of the
nation” were engaging in “blatant extortion”, touched a sore spot for the NSCN (I-M). While the group
defended the practice by terming it “tax collection”, the letter was not entirely off the mark. Yet, this has
become an issue for the peace process with the NSCN (I-M) going on to release details of the 2015
framework agreement that has not been shared in the public domain so far. While the other Naga groups
also took exception to the Governor’s remarks to the Chief Minister, they have differed with the NSCN (I-
M) on the demand for [1] removal as interlocutor.

36. Which of the following will replace [1]?

(a) RN Ravi
(b) PB Acharya
(c) GaneshiLal
(d) JagdishMukhi

37. Which of the following is not one of the demands of Naga groups?
(a) Separate Flag
(b) Separate Constitution
(c) Sovereign Statehood
(d) Naga national Song

38. Who formed the Naga National Council?

(a) AZ Phizo
(b) IsakChisiSwu
(c) ThuingalengMuivah
(d) None of the above

39. Which of the following is not true?

(a) In 1929, the Naga Club famously told the Simon Commission “to leave us alone to determine for
ourselves as in ancient times”
(b) The British had annexed Assam in 1826, in which they subsequently created the Naga Hills district.
(c) Indira Gandhi promised the Naga Leader to give them the dominion status under the Indian Nation.
(d) A peace accord was signed in Shillong in which the NNC leadership agreed to give up arms

40. What are the current grievances if NSCN-IM?

I. Interpretation of Agreement
II. Grievances against Interlocutor
III. Grievances with Chief Minister
(a) Both A and B
(b) Both B and C
(c) Both A and C
(d) All of the them.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 10 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

Passage (Q.41-Q.45):The conflict in the Caucasus Mountains has remained unresolved for more than
three decades, with periodic bouts of fighting.
Border clashes in July killed at least 16 people, prompting the largest demonstration in years in the
Azerbaijani capital [1], where there were calls for the region's recapture.
Any upsurge in violence could unsettle markets as the South Caucasus is a corridor for pipelines carrying
oil and natural gas from the Caspian Sea to world markets.
Turkish President RecepTayyipErdogan pledged support for Azerbaijan, urging the world to stand with
the country in its "battle against invasion and cruelty". Azerbaijanis are a predominantly Turkic people
with whom Turkey has close ties.
Russia, traditionally seen as an ally of Armenia, called for an immediate ceasefire and talks to stabilise
the situation.
In other reaction:
 UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres said he was "extremely concerned" over and called for both
sides to stop fighting
 France, which has a large Armenian community, called for an immediate ceasefire and dialogue
 Iran, which borders both Azerbaijan and Armenia, offered to broker peace talks
 President Donald Trump said the US was seeking to stop the violence.

41. Which of the following will replace [1]?

(a) Baku
(b) Ganja
(c) Sheki
(d) Sumkayit

42. Which of the following is the reason of dispute between Armenia and Azerbaijan?
(a) Nagorno-Karabakh region has 95% of the population as ethnically Armenian and is controlled by
them but it is internationally recognised as part of Azerbaijan.
(b) Armenia is Christian majority, while Azerbaijan is Muslim majority country.
(c) The leaders of both the nations have fuelled the issue time and again for their vested political
interests.
(d) All of the above

43. Which of the following is true?

(a) Azerbaijan supports Pakistan’s position on the Kashmir issue.
(b) Armenia supports Pakistan’s position on the Kashmir issue.
(c) Pakistan was the first country to recognise Azerbaijan’s Independence
(d) Armenia is Muslim majority nation.

44. India and Azerbaijan are both part of International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), which of the
following countries has the observer status in INSTC?
(a) Republic of Turkey
(b) Republic of Ukraine,
(c) Oman
(d) Bulgaria

45. In April 2016, violent fighting occurred between the two countries in what came to be known as?
(a) Four-day war
(b) Fifteen-day war
(c) Eighteen-day war
(d) Twenty-day war

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 11 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

Passage (Q.46-Q.50):After more than a decade of backdoor negotiations, secret talks and interventions
by a number of interested parties, representatives of the Afghanistan government and the [2] are directly
talking to each other in the [4].
Described by US Secretary of State Mike Pompeo as a “truly momentous” breakthrough, it is however far
from clear what the outcome of the talks will be. But the fact that they are the first-ever peace talks
between the Afghan government and the [2] is historic in itself, and opens a slight window of opportunity
for peace in a country that has been ravaged by seemingly endless war for more than four decades.
India’s challenges and opportunities
If the peace process gathers steam, the [2] could end up playing a bigger role in Afghan politics. New
Delhi has reasons to be unhappy about this because Indian officials, employees and assets have been
repeatedly targeted by the ISI-backed Haqqani network.
The presence of US troops for nearly two decades meant that there was an element of stability in Kabul,
and it ensured that the national capital was not controlled by the insurgents even though they mounted
several deadly bombing attacks on the city.
There is a question mark over the safety and viability of Indian investments in Afghanistan once the
remaining US troops withdraw. New Delhi is also concerned that Pakistan, with its deep links with the
militant groups, will divert some of the hardened fighters to Jammu and Kashmir if peace prevails in
Afghanistan.
Nevertheless, unlike on some earlier occasions, New Delhi took a more pragmatic approach this time
around and participated in the intra-Afghan inaugural dialogue.
Despite New Delhi’s misgivings, not engaging with the [2] at this stage would only mean that India would
have an even lesser say in a future security architecture in Afghanistan, and give Pakistan the edge.
.
46. Which of the following deals paved the way for the above said talks?
(a) India-Afghanistan
(b) US-Taliban
(c) US-Afghanistan
(d) India-US

47. Which of the following can be replaced with [2] in the above passage?
(a) Iran
(b) Iraq
(c) USA
(d) Taliban

48. Which of the following is not one of the objectives of the deal stated in question 1?
(a) An end to violence by declaring a ceasefire.
(b) An intra-Afghan dialogue for a lasting peace.
(c) The Taliban is named in the grey list of FATF.
(d) U.S. troop withdrawal by April 2021.

49. Which of the following can be replaced with the [4] in the above passage?
(a) Doha
(b) Kabul
(c) Heart
(d) Kandahar

50. What was the reason of USA’s deployment of forces in Afghanistan?

(a) Vietnam War
(b) Gulf War
(c) 9/11
(d) Cold war with Russia

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 12 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

Passage (Q.51-Q.56):It’s a brand-new Middle East. Within the span of only a month, the United States
has brokered peace between Israel and two Arab countries—first the United Arab Emirates, then
Bahrain. Both deals are revolutionary in scope: By normalizing ties and focusing on business, trade, and
travel, these “warm peace” agreements go beyond the often tenuous “cold peace” that Egypt and Jordan
made with the Jewish state decades ago. Not only do the UAE and Bahrain deals set the stage for a sea
change in Arab-Israeli relations, but they might even present a novel opportunity to finally solve the most
intractable issue between the two sides: the Israeli-Palestinian conflict.
Ties between Israel and the Gulf have grown exponentially in recent years. Underpinned by the common
threat from Iran, what began as whispers of covert intelligence cooperation gradually transformed to
increasingly public signs of amity. Gulf leaders have acknowledged Israel’s right to exist and defend itself,
Israel’s flag has flown at sporting events, and Israeli officials have been allowed to visit. This process
culminated in last month’s UAE-Israel deal, which seeks to break a major taboo in Arab-Israeli relations
by establishing deep bilateral ties not just between Israeli and Emirati officialdom or security
establishments, but between their peoples. That deal provides the necessary cover for other Gulf states
to follow suit.

51. Which of the following is a signification emanating from the UAE Bahrain Deal with Israel?
(a) Embassies and exchange ambassadors.
(b) The agreement shows how the Arab countries are gradually decoupling themselves from the
Palestine question.
(c) Full diplomatic ties will be established between Israel, the United Arab Emirates and Bahrain which
will have a positive impact on the entire region.
(d) All of the above.

52. Choose the correct.

Which of the following is not true as per the agreement signed between UAE and Bahrain with Israel?
I. It will open door for Muslims around the world to visit the historic sites in Israel and to peacefully pray
at Al-Aqsa Mosque in Jerusalem.
II. Working together with Israel across a range of sectors, including tourism, trade, healthcare and
security.
III. Israel will boost investments in Bahrain.
(a) Only I is correct
(b) Both I and III are correct
(c) Both I and II are correct
(d) All of them are correct

53. What is the name of the accord signed between the three countries?
(a) Abraham Accords
(b) Peace Treaty
(c) Muslim-Jews peace accord
(d) Israel- Arab peace accord

54. Which of the following country had signed the first ever peace deal with Israel?
(a) Jordon
(b) Egypt
(c) India
(d) USA

55. What is the name of the Prime Minister’s Benjamin Netanyahu Political Party?
(a) Likud
(b) Blue and White
(c) Labor Party
(d) United Torah Judaism

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 13 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

56. Which of the following countries don’t come in the geographical area of the Middle East?
(a) Jordan
(b) Bahrain
(c) Cyprus
(d) Tajikistan

Passage (Q.57-Q.62):In a unanimous decision, the Permanent Court of Arbitration at The Hague on
Friday ruled that India’s retrospective demand of Rs [1] as capital gains and withholding tax imposed on
the British telecommunication company for a 2007 deal was “in breach of the guarantee of fair and
equitable treatment”. The court has also asked India not to pursue the tax demand any more against
Vodafone Group.
As the name suggests, retrospective taxation allows a country to pass a rule on taxing certain products,
items or services and deals and charge companies from a time behind the date on which the law is
passed. Countries use this route to correct any anomalies in their taxation policies that have, in the past,
allowed companies to take advantage of such loopholes. While governments often use a retrospective
amendment to taxation laws to “clarify” existing laws, it ends up hurting companies that had knowingly or
unknowingly interpreted the tax rules differently. Apart from India, many countries including the US, the
UK, the Netherlands, Canada, Belgium, Australia and Italy have retrospectively taxed companies, which
had taken the benefit of loopholes in the previous law.

57. Which of the following amounts has been redacted by [1]?

(a) 22,100 crores
(b) 30,200 crores
(c) 31,900 crores
(d) 40,400 crores

58. Though this is a case between India and Vodafone, which is a British company, Netherlands is also
involved. How is that?
(a) Vodafone had bought Hutchinson Whampoa in May 2007, which belongs to Netherlands
(b) The Permanent Court of Arbitration is in Netherlands
(c) India had signed a Bilateral Investment Treaty with Netherlands in 1995
(d) Both (a) and (c)

59. Which of the following articles of the UNCITRAL did the PCA cite to pass the ruling in favour of
Vodafone?
(a) Article 2 (b) Article 3
(c) Article 4 (d) Article 5

60. Which of the following statements regarding this issue is incorrect?

(a) Recently, the Supreme Court of India allowed telecom companies (telcos) 5 years’ time to pay their
Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR) dues to the government.
(b) AGR is applied only to companies who shifted to the 'revenue-sharing fee' model in 1999, from the
'fixed license fee' model.
(c) The Permanent Court of Arbitration was set up in 1989.
(d) The ruling by PCA comes as a huge relief to the telecom sector in India.

61. In which of the following cases can a capital gains tax be applied?
(a) A loss making company is sold at a price lower than the cost that was requiredfor it to be set up
(b) A company bought at some price gets resold at a much higher price than the original purchase price
(c) A company being purchased by another country’s company
(d) Any purchase of asset above the cost of 1 million USD will attract CGT

62. What stake was bought by Vodafone in Hutchinson Whampoa?

(a) 51% (b) 56% (c) 62% (d) 67%

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 14 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

. Passage (Q.63-Q.68):While telescopes offer glimpses of outer space by translating digital data into
stunning images, NASA’s [1] has gone a step further by unveiling a new ‘sonification’ project that
transforms data from astronomical images into audio. Users can now ‘listen’ to images of the Galactic
Centre, the remains of a [2] called Cassiopeia A, as well as the Pillars of Creation Nebula, which are all
located in a region around 26,000 light years away from Earth. The data has been collected by NASA’s
Chandra X-Ray Observatory, Hubble Space Telescope and Spitzer Space Telescope — each of which is
represented by a different musical ‘instrument’.
NASA’s distant telescopes in space collect inherently digital data, in the form of ones and zeroes, before
converting them into images. The images are essentially visual representations of light and radiation of
different wavelengths in space, that can’t be seen by the human eye. This project has created a celestial
concert of sorts by translating the same data into sound. Pitch and volume are used to denote the
brightness and position of a celestial object or phenomenon. So far, the astronomers behind this project
have released three examples made using data collected from some of the most distinct features in the
sky — the Galactic Centre, Cassiopeia A, and Pillars of Creation Nebula.

63. Which of the following has been redacted by [1]?

(a) Houston X-Ray Centre
(b) Chandra X-Ray Centre
(c) Data Sonification Centre
(d) None of the above

64. Which of the following has been redacted by [2]?

(a) Comet
(b) Asteroid
(c) Supernova
(d) Exoplanet

65. Which of the following is included in the Galactic Centre?

(a) Neutron and white dwarf stars
(b) Clouds of dust and gas
(c) A supermassive black hole called Sagittarius A*
(d) All of the above

66. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) The Hubble Space Telescope is in the Low Earth Orbit
(b) It was launched in 1990
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b

67. Who out of the following had theorized the concept of Black Holes?
(a) Stephen Hawking
(b) Albert Einstein
(c) Nikola Tesla
(d) George Westinghouse

68. The "X-ray universe" refers to the universe as observed with telescopes designed to detect X-rays. How
are X-rays produced in the cosmos?
(a) When matter is hypercooled
(b) When matter travels at 5 times the speed of sound
(c) When matter is heated to millions of degrees
(d) When matter is exposed near a black-hole

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 15 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

SECTION – C :LEGAL REASONING

Directions (Q.69 – Q.106): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions based on it.

Passage (Q.69-Q.73):The meaning of offer and acceptance is the basis of a contract. To form a contract,
there must be an offer made by one party which is, in turn, accepted by another party, and then, in most
cases goods and/or services must be exchanged between the two. An offer contains 2 parts. (1) The
Expression: this is where the parties articulate in some form an inclination to enter into a contract and to
make that contract legally binding upon the acceptance by both parties. The expression may take a wide
variety of forms, from a personal discussion to a letter that lays out the basics of the terms. (2) The
Intention: This is a slightly more vague concept, and it is often left up to the courts to determine whether
or not intention was breached by a party. Essentially, intention involves a presumption by both parties
that the agreement will be legally binding and comes down to the belief that neither party would begin
discussions without the intent to live up to their side of the bargain.
Offers can really cover anything, from a verbal agreement to provide a service, such as housesitting, to a
detailed contract with legal terminology that one may find in an agreement to transfer real estate. It’s
more than a promise, because it must be made with the understanding that what is being agreed to will
be legally binding. It can be for the sale of goods, a pledge to perform a service, or even a promise not to
engage in an activity. The more complex the agreement, the greater the likelihood will be that each party
would engage legal counsel to negotiate the contract.
Acceptance is the final agreement of both parties to consent to the terms of the offer. While it is common
for the terms of the offer to be negotiated before acceptance, if it can be shown that through conduct and
communications that the parties did in fact intend to agree to the final terms of the contract, then formal
acceptance of an offer is not required for it to be legally binding. It is also not always necessary that
acceptance be in the form of a signature on a piece of paper, although this is the most commonly
accepted agreement between parties. For instance, if a party performs an act that would not otherwise
happen, such as a painting contractor painting a house or a professional moving company moving
furniture from one location to another, it would be interpreted as acceptance and agreement to the terms
of the offer of payment for these services.

69. Grant offered to buy 100 shares from Carriage Accident Insurance Co. The insurance company sent a
letter of acceptance to Grant but the letter was lost in the post and never arrived. The liquidator of the
insurance company sued Grant for the money owing for the shares. Was there a valid contract?
(a) No, the acceptance was not communicated in a manner accessible to Grant.
(b) No, as the letter and the acceptance never reached Grant.
(c) Yes, as the acceptance was communicated and the contract was formed.
(d) Yes, the contract was formed the moment the offer was accepted.

70. Ravi is extremely thirsty. He says "I would probably give 5000 rupees to anyone who brought me water at
this time." Akash hears this and expecting 5000 rupees, gets Ravi a bottle of water. Upon demanding the
money, Ravi refuses. Can Akash go to court over this?
(a) Yes. Ravi had made a general offer which was fulfilled by Akash.
(b) Yes, Ravi’s offer constituted an expression of interest to enter into a binding contract.
(c) Ravi could not have made a general offer. A specific offer to Akash is necessary for a contract to be
formed.
(d) No, there was no offer, merely a declaration of interest.

71. Neha telegraphed to Aditi, writing: “Will you sell me your Rolls Royce CAR? Telegram the lowest cash
price.” Aditi also replied by telegram: “Lowest price for CAR is Rs. 20 lakh.” Neha immediately sent his
consent through telegram stating: “I agree to buy the CAR for Rs. 20 lakh asked by you.” Aditi refused to
sell the car. Decide
(a) Aditi’s letter was the offer and Neha’s reply was the acceptance. There is a valid contract.
(b) Aditi did not intend to make an offer. She can refuse to sell the CAR as there is no valid contract.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 16 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

(c) Aditi did not show any willingness to enter into a contract. In the absence of a legal intention, there
can be no contract.
(d) Neha’s letter itself did not constitute an offer. There is no valid contract.
72. Arun and Ravi are supposed to be participating in a race. The night before the race, Ravi offers Arun that
if he will not participate in the race Ravi will give him 2000 Rupees. Arun agrees. Decide
(a) The contract is not valid for an offer asking to abstain is not a valid offer.
(b) An offer asking to abstain as consideration for the contract is a valid offer.
(c) A contract opposed to public policy cannot be a valid contract. Thus, this contract is invalid as it is
unethical.
(d) This is not a contract opposed to public policy. It is a contractual transaction and not unethical.
73. Ashrut is a software engineer and works at InfoSys. When his employer asked him to resign from the job,
and in return he would be paid 3 Lakh rupees, Ashrut did not say anything. However, 2 days later, Ashrut
quit his job and then demanded his boss to pay him 3 Lakh rupees. Decide
(a) Ashrut’s employer has entered into a binding contract with Ashrut. It was accepted by conduct.
(b) Ashrut’s employer has not entered into a binding contract with Ashrut. There was no acceptance
which is a fundamental requirement of a contract.
(c) Ashrut’s employer has made an offer which is contrary to public policy. This cannot be a valid
contract.
(d) Ashrut’s employer has sought a consideration which is illegal. There cannot be a valid contract with
an illegal consideration.
Passage (Q.74-Q.79):Volentinon fit injuria is a defence of limited application in tort law. A direct
translation of the latin phrase volentinon fit injuria is, 'to one who volunteers, no harm is done'. Where the
defence of volenti applies it operates as a complete defence absolving the Defendant of all liability. It is
often stated that the Claimant consents to the the risk of harm, however, the defence of volenti is much
more limited in its application and should not be confused with the defence of consent in relation to
trespass. The defence of volentinon fit injuria requires a freely entered and voluntary agreement by the
Claimant, in full knowledge of the circumstances, to absolve the Defendant of all legal consequences of
their actions. There is a considerable overlap with contributory negligence and since the introduction of
the Law Reform (Contributory Negligence) Act 1945, the courts have been less willing to make a
finding of volenti preferring to apportion loss between the parties rather than taking an all or nothing
approach.
The requirements of the defence are that there must be (1) a voluntary (2) agreement (3) made in full
knowledge of the nature and extent of the risk. The agreement must be voluntary and freely entered for
the defence of volentinon fit injuria to succeed. If the Claimant is not in a position to exercise free choice,
the defence will not succeed. This element is most commonly seen in relation to employment
relationships, rescuers and suicide.The second requirement for the defence of volentinon fit injuria is
agreement. The agreement may be express or implied. An example of an express agreement would be
where there exists a contractual term or notice. However, this would be subject to the controls of s.2 of
the Unfair Contract Terms Act 1977. An implied agreement may exist where the Claimant's action in the
circumstances demonstrates a willingness to accept not only the physical risks but also the legal
risks. For knowledge, the test is subjective and not objective and in the context of an intoxicated claimant,
the question is whether the claimant was so intoxicated that he was incapable of appreciating the nature
of the risk.
74. Two brothers Sanjay and Sunil had been working in Dheeraj’s quarry. They tried to test some detonators
without taking requisite precautions and their act was in contravention of statutory provisions and also the
orders of Dheeraj to both of them. One day, this act resulted in an explosion causing injury to Sunil. He
brought an action against Dheeraj saying that his brother was equally responsible for the accident and
that Dheeraj being the employer was held vicariously liable for his brother’s conduct. Decide.
(a) Dheeraj is not liable because he had warned them not to do the dangerous act.
(b) Dheeraj is not liable because he is protected by the defense of volentinon fit injuria.
(c) Dheeraj is liable by the principle of vicarious liability.
(d) Dheeraj is liable because there is a breach of statutory obligation.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 17 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

75. Ashay had to catch a flight to Mumbai. He was already late to the airport. He hailed ataxi on the road and
asked the taxi-driver Agarwal to hurry to the airport at the maximum speedpossible. Agarwal, who was
smelling strongly of liquor, started driving rashly. On the way to the airport, the taxi collided with a truck
near the airport and Ashay was severely injured. He sued Agarwal for negligence.
(a) Ashay would be successful because Agarwal was driving recklessly.
(b) Ashay would not be successful because it was Ashay who asked Agarwal to drive fast and therefore,
he voluntarily agreed to the risk.
(c) Ashay would not be successful because he knew that Agarwal was drunk and therefore, he knew that
the chances of accident were thereby increased.
(d) Both (b) and (c)

76. Ratnesh is a pilot who was supposed to fly the Joint Secretary of the Karnataka Health Ministry to Delhi
for a meeting with the Prime Minister. Ratnesh instructed the Secretary about flight safety and asked to
not use his phone as it could disturb flight navigation.The Secretary however used his phone and the
navigation was disturbed which led to the flight crashing.It turns out that the system was not of a good
quality but would not have failed if not for the disturbance. The Secretary sued the airlines.
(a) The Secretary would be successful because the airlines had a bad navigation system.
(b) The Secretary would not be successful because it was him who used his mobile phone and therefore,
he voluntarily agreed to the risk.
(c) The Secretary would not be successful because he knew that the system was not in a good condition
and therefore, he knew that the chances of accident were thereby increased.
(d) Both (b) and (c)

77. In which of the following circumstances, is the exercise of a free choice most likely?
(a) A politician agreeing to favour a certain party on their request and award them a tender thus risking
corruption charges.
(b) A teacher agreeing to award more marks to the principal’s son risking outrage from parents
(c) A smuggler agreeing to smuggle guns instead of a banned species of flower thus risking significantly
higher punishment
(d) A doctor agreeing to turn off the ventilator of a patient upon being threatened by goons to do so thus
risking disciplinary action.

78. Venkata was intoxicated and in a state of panic when he asked the helicopter pilot to land on ice for he
feared that there was storm ahead. This was not a practice usually done by pilots.The helicopter crashed.
When the accident occurred, Venkata sued the pilot for negligence. The pilot claimed volentinon fit injuria
(a) Venkata consented to the risk for he was in a state of panic
(b) Venkata did not consent to the risk for he was intoxicated
(c) Venkata consented to the risk for he asked the pilot to land on ice
(d) The liability shall depend on the level of Venkata’sintoxication

79. Please refer to the facts above. Venkata did not ask the pilot to land on ice but was constantly looking at
the weather and discussing with his co passengers about the safest option being the possibility of landing
on ice. The driver anticipating that Venkata might be panicking, starting descending on ice.Venkata did
not say anything. The accident occurred.
(a) Venkata consented to landing on ice by not objecting
(b) Venkata did not consent expressly to the landing on ice which was required
(c) Venkata should not have panicked in the first place
(d) Venkata did not consent. Mere silence cannot be construed as active consent

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 18 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

Passage (Q.80-Q.85):Under common law, there are seven types of intentional torts: assault, battery,
false imprisonment, trespass to land, trespass to chattels, conversion, and intentional infliction of
emotional distress. Trespass to chattels refers to the use of property without permission of the owner.
Trespass to chattels can be easily confused with the tort of conversion because they both deal wrongful
interference of personal property.
A trespass to chattels is an intentional interference with another person's lawful possession of a personal
property. A "chattel" refers to any personal property, moving or unmoving. Trespass to chattels does not
apply to real property or any interest in land. In order to prove trespass to chattels, it must be shown that
(1) there was an intent to trespass. Merely intending to do the act is enough to show this element of
trespass. You don't necessarily need to show intent to harm a specific person. (2) The second element is
lack of the owner’s consent. There must be an unauthorized, unlawful interference, which means the
person interfered with or dispossessed the chattel without the owner's permission. Such consent must be
free. The third element is that there must be interference of chattel. A person commits a trespass to
chattel by (1) dispossessing another of the chattel, (2) using or intermeddling with a chattel in the
possession of another, or (3) damaging the chattel. Interference does include dispossession of a chattel,
but it must be something short of conversion. A mistake of ownership is not a valid defense to a trespass
to chattels. In other words, it doesn't matter if the person didn't know the property belonged to you.
Possessing or damaging the property itself is enough to show interference.
In general, a person will be held liable for a trespass to chattels in any of the following situations:
1. The person dispossesses the other of the chattel.
2. The chattel is impaired as to its condition, quality, or value.
3. The possessor is deprived of the use of the chattel for a substantial time.
4. Bodily harm is caused to the possessor, or harm is caused to some person or thing in which the
possessor has a legally protected interest.
In a trespass to chattels claim, you can only recover actual damages (as opposed to nominal damages).
Actual damages are measured by the diminished value of the chattel that resulted from the defendant's
actions.

80. Arjun stole Anand’s phone in the Delhi Metro. Arjun registered an FIR. When the police finally traced
Arjun’s phone at Anand’s place, Anand could not find the phone in his possession. It was found that
Ahuja had taken the phone from Anand’s house and was using it. Anand filed a suit.
(a) Ahuja is liable for trespass to chattel as there was intentional interference with Anand’s property
(b) Ahuja is not liable for trespass to chattel as he did not have the intent to commit the tort
(c) Ahuja is liable for trespass to chattel as Anand was in possession of property
(d) Ahuja is not liable for trespass to chattel as Anand was not in lawful possession of the property

81. Please refer to the facts above. Infuriated, Anand along with his 5 friends went in to Ahuja’s house and
threw away his property from his house on the road. Decide
(a) Anand is liable for trespass to chattel as he interfered with Ahuja’s property by throwing it on the road.
(b) Anand is not liable for trespass to chattel as he did not use Ahuja’s property
(c) Anand is liable for trespass to chattel as he intentionally committed the tort
(d) Anand is not liable for trespass to chattel

82. Munna Bhai is the goon of the locality and gets houses emptied for builders. One such house belonged
to Dr. Anand. Munna Bhai threw away Dr. Anand’s property and occupied his house.
(a) MunnaBhai is liable for trespass to chattel as he interfered with Dr. Anand’s property by occupying it.
(b) MunnaBhai is liable for trespass to chattel as he intentionally committed the tort.
(c) MunnaBhai is not liable for trespass to chattel as he interfered with his land and house.
(d) MunnaBhai is a goon and should be punished.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 19 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

83. Apurv bets with his friends that since his wallet is old, he will pick someone’s pocket and use their wallet.
Apurv acts on this bet and picks Baikunth’s pocket. Decide
(a) Apurv is liable for trespass to chattel as he intentionally picked Baikunth’s pocket
(b) Apurv is not liable for trespass to chattel as he did not specifically announce evil intent against
Baikunth
(c) Apurv is liable for trespass to chattel. Intent against specific person is not required.
(d) Apurv is not liable for trespass to chattel as he only acted in pursuit of a bet

84. A is B’s friend. A wants to take his book lying in B’s cupboard and asks for the lock code to his cupboard.
B refused. A was curious about what was lying in B’s cupboard so he spiked A’s water with a medicine
that made him feel drowsy. A asked B for his lock code and B told him. A accessed B’s cupboard and
took a valuable book away.
(a) A is liable for trespass to chattel as he intentionally deprived B of his property.
(b) A is not liable for trespass to chattel for he took B’s consent before accessing his cupboard
(c) A is liable for trespass to chattel as B’s consent was not free
(d) A is not liable for trespass to chattel

85. Please refer to the facts above. A’s book had been kept by B for a long while now. Despite repeated
reminders, B did not return the same. A sneaked into B’s cupboard and took his own book. However, it
turns out that A did not take his book but B’s book by mistake.
(a) A is liable for trespass to chattel as he intentionally deprived B of his property.
(b) A is not liable for trespass to chattel for he took B’s consent before accessing his cupboard
(c) A is liable for trespass to chattel as mistake of ownership is not a valid defence
(d) A is not liable for trespass to chattel as B was not giving his book

Passage (Q.86-Q.91):Extortion is a criminal offense, which occurs when a person either obtains money
or property from another through coercion or intimidation or threatens one with physical harm unless they
are paid money or property. Euphemistically, refraining from doing harm is sometimes called protection.
Extortion is commonly practiced by organized crime groups. The actual obtainment of money or property
is not required to commit the offense. Making a threat of violence or a lawsuit which refers to a
requirement of a payment of money or property to halt future violence or lawsuit is sufficient to commit
the offense.
Section 383. Extortion.—Whoever intentionally puts any person in fear of any injury to that person, or to
any other, and thereby dishonestly induces the person so put in fear to deliver to any person any property
or valuable security, or anything signed or sealed which may be converted into a valuable security,
commits “extortion”.
The element of dishonesty is the essence of this offence. The chiefelement in the offence of extortion is
that the inducement must be dishonest. Itis not sufficient that there should be wrongful loss caused to an
individual butthe person putting that individual in fear of injury must have the intention that wrongful loss
should be caused. Where the accused honestly believed that thecomplainant had taken the money
belonging to him (the accused), an attemptto get it back cannot be said to be with the intention of causing
wrongful loss tohim.
The essential elements of the crime of extortion can be enumerated as:
1. It should be shown that there was a force to create threat or fear in the victim of the wrongful act.
2. The wrongdoer must be having some interest in putting the victim under fear of any sort of threat or
injury.
3. There should be the presence of a dishonest intention.
4. Such threat or fear of injury in is caused on to the other person in order to force him to transfer any of
his property or any other valuable item.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 20 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

86. K on finding out that Z has been having an affair outside of his marriage, threatens to publish a
defamatory libel concerning Z unless Z gives him money. Z refuses to do so. Has K has committed
extortion?
(a) No, as K has not threatened any harm or injury to his person.
(b) No, as Z has not handed him any money, hence there was no loss.
(c) Yes, as K has caused a fear of injury to reputation in turn of causing him wrongful loss.
(d) Yes, as K has dishonest intention to get a wrongful gain out of Z’s predicament.

87. Z threatens D to sit inside his vehicle without causing any ruckus or he would harm him physically. Later
he called the family members of D to ask for ransom for the release of D or he would cause him harm.
Can Z have been said to cause extortion?
(a) No as Z did not threaten D to cause himself any wrongful gain or loss of valuable property to D.
(b) Yes, as Z caused a fear of injury to D for non-compliance to his measures.
(c) No, as Z caused extortion against D’s family, but to D it is not extortion but could be a case of
abduction.
(d) Yes, as Z has extorted both D and his family by threatening injury in turn for unlawful gain of valuable
property.

88. ‘A’ threatens Z that he will keep Z’s child in wrongful confinement, unless Z will sign and deliver to ‘A’ a
promissory note binding Z to pay certain monies to A. Z signs and delivers the note. Decide?
(a) Yes, as there was the presence of a dishonest intention.
(b) Yes, as it was in order to force him to transfer any of his property or any other valuable item.
(c) No, as there was no threat of injury to his person, it was to his son.
(d) No, as there was no dishonest intention as promissory note is a future contract and does not require
immediate transfer of valuable property.

89. A, by putting Z in fear of grievous hurt, dishonestly induces Z to sign or affix his seal to a blank paper and
deliver it to A. Z signs and delivers the paper to A. Has A committed extortion?
(a) Yes, it is as the blank paper can be turned to valuable security later.
(b) Yes, as he has threatened injury to Z for unlawful purposes.
(c) No, as a blank paper is not a valuable property, hence he couldn’t have extorted him for any wrongful
loss.
(d) No, as all the elements of extortion are not fulfilled in the above instance.

90. Mr. Y, unhappy with his daughter’s choice of groom, threated to harm himself if she did not break of such
engagement and marry a boy of his choice. Scared for her father’s life, she agreed and broke of the
bond. Has Mr. Y committed extortion?
(a) Yes, as he induced harm and injury to force her to commit an act against her will.
(b) No, as did not aim to have any gain of property through this act.
(c) Yes, as he had dishonest intention to achieve his will in her marriage.
(d) No, as family matters are not in the subject matter of extortion.

91. Bank of Hindustan, used to give out small loans against collateral to their customers. Mr. Z took a loan
against his Car and had to return the same with interest in certain installments. When a few installments
failed, the bank warned him against seizing his car in case of next default. Mr. Z filed a suit of extortion.
Decide.
(a) Yes, as the bank aims to harm the property of Z for gain of money.
(b) No, as the bank is duly owed that sum along with the collateral, and it’s not a dishonest intention.
(c) No, as the bank has a right to make any threats in case of defaulting customer.
(d) Yes, as inducing fear to gain is enough to establish extortion regardless of the fact that the loss was
caused or not.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 21 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

Passage (Q.92-Q.95):In the wake of the migrant crisis, several states have amended existing labour
laws, either suspending them altogether or increasing working hours. It is axiomatic that these
amendments must be in consonance with the fundamental rights guaranteed to labour, as also the
Directive Principles of State Policy which enjoin the state to further the interests of labour in its policies.
Any legal changes will inevitably be challenged in court and must meet constitutional standards to survive
such a challenge.
To be compelled to work violates Article 23 of the Constitution of India, which provides a “right against
exploitation” prohibiting human trafficking, begar, and forced labour. In PUDR vs Union of India (1982),
the Supreme Court held that laws protecting contract labour and inter-state migrant workmen were
intended to ensure basic human dignity; violating these laws would violate the right to life under Article
21. In PUDR, the Court also noted that no one would willingly work for less than the minimum wage
without some force or compunction. Yet, rather than encouraging workers to return by securing wages
and improving working conditions, the amendments introduced by the states are removing basic labour
law protections.
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), though unenforceable, are constitutionally-mandated
goals for the State to work towards when making laws. The DPSP enjoin the State to ensure that the
“operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of
production to the common detriment” (Article 39), to “make effective provision for securing the right to
work” (Article 41), “to secure to all workers a living wage, conditions of work ensuring a decent standard
of life.” (Article 43). It is tempting to see the pandemic as a once-in-a-lifetime opportunity to push through
labor reforms. Even so, it is unclear that the whole scale abrogation of the labor law system benefits
either labor or industry. If anything, this is an apt moment for the governments, at both the Centre and in
the states, to renew their commitment to the DPSP.

92. A competent court passed a sentence to a convict providing for a rigorous imprisonment for a period of
seven years. In furtherance to the same, the jailor assigns the prisoner for breaking stones and puts him
as a labourer for an ongoing construction operation inside the jail. The prisoner has not consented for
doing such manual work. Further, he challenges the work to be forced and thus violative of Article 23.
Decide.
(a) The jailor has committed an offence putting him for work against his will.
(b) The jailor has committed no offence as the circumstances would alter in case of a prisoner.
(c) The jailor has committed an offence due to absence of remuneration.
(d) The jailor has committed no offence but the court provided for rigorous imprisonment.

93. Meethesh has a family of 6 members. He is sole bread earner of the family which puts an excessive
financial burden on him. Due to such circumstances, he decides to work in the factory of Mr Bajaj at a
rate less than the minimum wage. Whether this would amount to forced labour? Decide.
(a) This cannot be considered forced labour as it is out of willingness of Meethesh.
(b) This cannot be considered forced labour as he is paid for the services from by him.
(c) This cannot be considered as forced labour but would be a violation of DPSP.
(d) This can be considered as forced labour as due to the external factors the consent is not free.

94. Aman is a diligent and laborious employee. He works for Namit who runs his own business. With an
intention of further growth, Aman decides to work at a different place. When Namit finds out, he threatens
him of false prosecution and imprisonment on account of a false charge of stealing from the business.
This was done to retain him in the business. Would this amount to forced labor. Decide.
(a) No, it would be covered under malicious prosecution.
(b) No, as reasonable compensation is being paid to Aman by Namit.
(c) Yes, as the willingness is induced by threat of prosecution and imprisonment.
(d) Yes, as the remuneration was not enough so he intended to shift to a different place.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 22 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

95. Mannu Singh is a daily wage worker who took a loan of Rs. 35,000/- from the moneylender, Maniram.
The loan was to be utilised for the purposes of marriage of the daughter of Mannu Singh. In exchange of
the loan, Maniram asked Mannu to work on his farm for a period of 15 years where he shall be provided
with food, shelter and a remuneration of Rs. 500 every month. Constrained by the circumstances, Mannu
Singh accepts the offer. A welfare organisation finds out about the arrangement and files a petition on the
ground thatMannu Singh is being forced to work. Decide.
(a) The petition will not succeed as the Mannu is being provided with food and shelter along with the
remuneration.
(b) The petition will not succeed as the arrangement is entered into by the consent of Mannu Singh.
(c) The petition will succeed as this amount to exploitation by Maniram.
(d) The petition will succeed due to lack of free consent.

Passage (Q.96-Q.101):Rape is a crime, which has a devastating effect on the survivors; it has been
described as a “beginning of a nightmare”. The aftershocks include depression, fear, guilt-complex,
suicidal-action, diminished sexual interest. etc., “one becomes afraid of’……..writes a victim, “half the
human race”. Referring to the pitiable condition of women in society Mr. Justice S. Ahmad observed that
“unfortunately, a woman in our country, belongs to a class or group of society who are in a
disadvantaged position on account of several social barriers and impediments and have therefore, been
victims of tyranny at the hands of men with whom they, unfortunately, under the Constitution “enjoy,
equal status”. “Women also have the right to life and liberty; they also have the right to be respected and
treated as equal citizens. Their honour and dignity cannot be touched or violated. They also have the
right to lead an honorable and peaceful life”. Rape is a stigma which exists in the society from a long
time. The dictionary meaning of word rape is “the ravishing or violation of a woman.” She is traumatized
after the event; it is very difficult for a woman to come out of this trauma. Rape in India is a cognizable
offence. There are many provisions in various Acts. The word rape is legally defined u/s 375 of Indian
Penal Code, 1860. It defines the rape and also prescribes its punishment. Whenever a man penetrates or
does sexual intercourse with a woman without her consent or will it amounts to rape. Penetration here
means that only a slightest of the touch of penis to vagina amounts to rape, unruptured hymen of woman
does not prove that rape was not committed.
The Supreme Court has expressed strong disapproval of courts casting a stigma on the victim’s
character, but stigmatization continues, leading to acquittals. Setting aside one acquittal by a Ludhiana
court that labeled the victim with ‘loose character’ while interpreting her consent to sex, the Supreme
Court in a 1996 judgment said, “The trial court interpreted that the victim was habituated to sexual
intercourse just because the speculum the doctor used entered her vagina easily and hence she was of
loose character. These observations lack sobriety expected of a judge. No stigma should be cast against
a victim of sex crime who is on trial”.

96. Madhur meets Anisha at a party where both of them exchange pleasantries. After a while, when both of
them are alone Madhur imposes himself on Anisha and forcefully engages into a sexual intercourse even
when she protests for the same. Decide.
(a) This shall amount to rape due to absence of consent by Anisha.
(b) This shall not amount to rape due to an exchange of pleasantries.
(c) This shall amount to rape due to a sexual intercourse between them
(d) This shall not amount to rape but shall fall under assault.

97. Disha and Harsh have known each other for a long time and have engaged in sexual intercourse at
various instances. All such sexual intercourses involved the consent of the individuals. However, at one
instance, both the individuals had a sexual intercourse for which Disha did not consent to. Whether this
would amount to the offence of Rape. Decide.
(a) This shall not amount to rape as they had sexual intercourse at earlier occasions for which she
consented to.
(b) This shall not amount to rape as consent is vague in the last case.
(c) This shall amount to rape as there was no consent and previous consent is not relevant.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 23 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

98. Apoorva went to get together of her college friends. Ramesh was also there and both of then exchanged
a pleasant conversation. They decided to engage in a sexual activity. Apoorva consented to one
particular type of sexual activity. However, when they got to the point of intercourse, she withdrew her
consent. Would this amount to the offence of Rape? Decide.
(a) No, as she consented for the sexual activity before the beginning of the intercourse.
(b) No, as such withdrawal at such a later stage would not amount to withdrawal.
(c) Yes, as she withdrew her consent for that particular sexual activity.
(d) Yes, as she consented for only one type of sexual activity.

99. Rahul engaged in a sexual intercourse with Simran who was 15 years old. The parents of Simran decide
to file a case against Rahul for the offence of rape. However, he contends that the intercourse had the
consent of Simran therefore cannot be categorized as rape. Decide.
(a) Rahul is not liable as the act was consented by Simran.
(b) Rahul is not liable as the parents cannot file the case bur only Simran
(c) Rahul is liable as the consent of Simran cannot be considered a valid consent.
(d) Rahul is liable as the parents of Simran can decide for their daughter.

100. Choose an appropriate reason of the following for the lack of gender neutral laws:
(a) Women are the ones who are the victims of such heinous crime.
(b) Women cannot commit rape due to biological reasons.
(c) Men are the aggressors in the majority of the cases.
(d) Women are the disadvantaged group due to stunted societal structure so they need more protection.

101. Robin is a police officer who met Malaika at a party. After the party, he told her that if she did not engage
into a sexual intercourse with him then he would put her in jail and harass the family members on account
of the powers he possess through his profession. They both enter into a sexual activity wherein she does
not protest or explicitly resist. Decide.
(a) Robin shall be liable as the consent was obtained by threat.
(b) Robin shall not be liable as there was no explicit resistance.
(c) Robin shall not liable due the existence of inherent consent.
(d) Robin shall be liable for coercion but not the offence of rape.

Passage (Q.102-Q.106):The Indian Penal Code provides some general defences under chapter four that
exonerate criminal liability which based on the premise that though the person committed the offence, he
cannot be held liable. This is because at the time of commission of offence, person was justified of
his/her acts, or there was absence of mensrea. However, it is not all acts that are to be punished. There
are certain defences provided under the ambit of Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 from Sections 76 to 106.
Mistake of fact arises when accused misunderstood some fact that negates an element of crime. This
legal weapon can be used, where accused succeeds to prove that he/she was mistaken to the existence
of some facts or ignorant of the existence of such facts. It is a condition that such mistake must pertain to
fact not law. Section 76 and 79 of IPC contains the provision of mistake of fact. Such mistake must be
reasonable and must be of fact and not of law. The legal maxim, "ignorantiafactiexcusatiignorantiajuris
non excusat" which means ignorance of fact is an excuse, but ignorance of law is no excuse. So it is a
basic requirement to be get protected under the sphere of this defence that mistake must be of fact.
Section 76: Act done by a person bound, or by mistake of fact believing himself bound, by law.Nothing is
an offence which is done by a person who is, or who by reason of a mistake of fact and not by reason of
a mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be, bound by law to do it.
Section 79: Act done by a person justified, or by mistake of fact believing himself justified, by law.Nothing
is an offence which is done by any person who is justified by law, or who by reason of a mistake of fact
and not by reason of a mistake of law in good faith, believes himself to be justified by law, in doing it.
Thus, the general defences enshrined under IPC are of paramount importance in establishing the
parameters of criminal offences. Criminal liability makes a person liable for the acts which are prohibited
by law. Indian Penal Code took cognizance of fact that all acts are not to be punished. The acts devoid of
mensrea are exempted from criminal liability.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 24 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

102. Before going to the Church, Zeeshan fired the gun and left it empty. However, during his absence,
Chester visits the house and takes the gun for shooting and while keeping it back leaves it loaded. Later
on the same day, Zeeshan takes the gun and touches the trigger. The gun goes off and kills his wife who
was sitting in front of him. Decide.
(a) Zeeshan is guilty because he was negligent and that killed the wife.
(b) Zeeshan is not guilty as he was under a mistake of fact.
(c) Zeeshan is guilty and liability should be absolute.
(d) Zeeshan is guilty as such a weapon should be handled with great care.

103. Chulbul is a renowned police officer who is ordered to catch a dangerous criminal named Hari Pandey.
After due enquiry in good faith, Chulbul, believing Prasoon to be Hari Pandey, arrests him. Decide the
liability of arresting a wrong individual and curtailing his fundamental rights.
(a) Chulbul will be liable as this impacted the fundamental rights of Prasoon.
(b) Chulbul will be liable as his enquiry was deficient making an innocent suffer.
(c) Chulbul will not be liable as he was acting under the orders.
(d) Chulbul will not be liable since he acted in good faith.

104. A complaint was made by a nurse engaged with a civil dispensary against the accused who was the
President of the Municipal office at that moment. He wrote a letter to the surgeon on the basis of the
allegations made by the renowned men of the community that the nurse had a bad reputation for having
illicit relations with a lot of men. The letter indicated that the accused approved of such allegations on the
nurse. However, there existed no proof that there was an enquiry made on such facts. Decide.
(a) The President of the Municipal office is not liable as it could be mistake of fact.
(b) The President of the Municipal office is not liable as he did not say anything about the nurse.
(c) The President of the Municipal office is not liable as he just the information further.
(d) The President of the Municipal office is liable as he failed to take due care.

105. Seeta and Geeta had a strained relationship. At one instance, certain expensive utensils were stolen
from the house of Seeta so she thought of a plan to catch hold of the thief. She thought that the thief
would come to the only village pond to fetch water and at that moment she will get hold of it. In
pursuance to the same, she hid herself behind a tree and when she saw Geeta filing water in the utensils
gave a blow with a lathi on her head. Geeta sustained injuries and filed a case against Seeta. Decide.
(a) Seeta is not liable as this would be considered a mistake of fact.
(b) Seeta is not liable as she was just trying to recover her stolen property.
(c) Seeta is liable as there was a complete lack of good faith.
(d) Seeta is liable as Geeta sustained injuries because of her blow.

106. Jadegas & Sons is a renowned firm in the business of import and export. They have been dealing with
edible and non-edible oil since the last fifty years. On one day, they were charged with the offence of
importing non- edible coconuts oil under an open general license. They pleaded that they believed it to
be a non-canalized item and therefore acted in good faith. Decide.
(a) They are not liable as the factual information suggest that they acted in good faith.
(b) They are liable as such act cannot be considered bona fide when they have been functioning for such
a long period.
(c) They are liable as the act was under mistake of law which is not excusable.
(d) They are not liable as they did not possess any dishonest intention.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 25 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

SECTION - D : LOGICAL REASONING

Directions (Q.107-Q.136): Read and analyse the passage and answer the questions:-

Passage (Q.107-Q.111):Like all other animals, our species evolved by gradual processes of natural
selection that equipped us to survive and reproduce within a certain environmental niche. Unlike other
animals, however, our species managed to escape its inherited biological role and take control of its own
destiny. It began to innovate, actively reshaping its way of life, its environment and, eventually, the planet
itself. How did we do it? What set our species, Homo sapiens, apart from the rest?
Searching for just one event, a decisive change in culture or brain structure, would probably be a
mistake.
What caused our species to break out of the pattern set by archaic humans? Again, there were probably
many factors. But from my perspective as someone who studies the human mind, one development
stands out as of special importance. There is a mental ability we possess today that must have emerged
at some point in our history, and whose emergence would have vastly enhanced our ancestors’ creative
powers.
The ability I mean is that of hypothetical thinking – the ability to detach one’s mind from the here and
now, and consciously think about other possibilities. This is the key to sustained innovation and creativity,
and to the development of art, science and technology.
How did hypothetical thinking develop? I want to introduce two suggestions, one by the Israeli linguist
Daniel Dor, the other by the American philosopher Daniel Dennett. Neither is directly about hypothetical
thinking but, combined, they offer a compelling picture of how humans acquired the capacity for it.
Dor’s proposal, made in his book The Instruction of the Imagination (2015), is about the nature and
origins of language. In outline, the story is this. As their societies became more collaborative, archaic
humans needed to communicate in more complex ways, warning, assisting, advising and instructing each
other. They did this pantomime-fashion, using gestures, expressions and vocal mimicry to direct attention
to what they meant. Their object was what Dor calls ‘experiential mutual-identification’– to get their
interlocutors to share and acknowledge their experience, to see what they saw, feel what they felt, react
as they reacted. They were highly skilled at it. Yet this experiential-mimetic form of communication had a
serious limitation. Because it worked by sharing experience, it was limited to communication about things
that were on hand to be experienced.

107. Which of the following, if true, will strengthen the argument that no single event is responsible for a
decisive change in culture or brain structure?
(a) The lifestyle of archaic humans remained largely static over vast periods of time, with few, if any,
signs of artistic activity or technical innovation.
(b) For more than 1.5 million years, archaic humans (earlier Homo species, such as Homo erectus) had
been slowly diverging from the other great apes, developing a way of life marked by increased
collaboration.
(c) Things started to change only in the past 300,000 years, with the emergence of our own species and
our cousins the Neanderthals, and even then the pace of change didn’t quicken much until 40-60,000
years ago.
(d) All of the above

108. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) Archaic humans, in all probability, didn’t possess hypothetical thinking ability.
(b) Hypothetical thinking ability is the core reason why the archaic human emerged as a dominant
species.
(c) Natural selection is closely linked with the ability to think hypothetically.
(d) Archaic humans lacked the ability to think actively.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 26 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

109. Which of the following is true about hypothetical thinking?

(a) We do not know exactly how it developed.
(b) Daniel Dor’s and Daniel Dennett’s works have together helped us understand how exactly
hypothetical thinking developed.
(c) Daniel Dor’s and Daniel Dennett’s are both related to hypothetical thinking, and together offer a
compelling picture of how humans acquired the capacity for it.
(d) All of the above.

110. Which of the following best explains how “experiential mutual-identification” works?
(a) You could communicate that there was a wolf approaching only if you could get your hearers to see
the creature for themselves.
(b) You could communicate that there was a wolf approaching by the use of hand gestures.
(c) You couldn’t communicate about a wolf approaching at all
(d) You could communicate that there was a wolf approaching by the use of sounds.

111. Which of the following would have been true about archaic humans?
(a) The static nature of their lifestyle suggests that they lived in the present, their attention locked on to
the world, and their behaviour driven by habit and environmental stimuli.
(b) In the course of their daily activities, they might accidentally hit on a better way of doing something,
and so gradually acquire new habits and skills, but they didn’t actively think up innovations for
themselves.
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b

Passage (Q.112-Q.117):At first glance, the holy basil is little more than an unprepossessing plant. It has
purplish flowers and broad, flat leaves that track sunlight throughout the day. However, it's what the basil
does at night that has propelled this humble plant into the scientific spotlight. Hours before the dawn, it
springs into action, turning its leaves to face the anticipated direction of the sunrise. The basil seems to
remember where and when the sun has come up on previous days, and acts to make sure it can gather
as much light energy as possible each morning. When scientists try to confuse basilsin their labs by
swapping the location of the light source, the plants simply learn the new orientation.

What does it even mean to say that a basil can learn and remember the location of the sunrise?The idea
that plants can behave intelligently, let alone learn or form memories, was a fringe notion until quite
recently. Memories are thought to be so fundamentally cognitive that some theorists argue that they’re a
necessary and sufficient marker of whether an organism can do the most basic kinds of thinking.Surely
memory requires a brain, and plants lack even the rudimentary nervous systems of bugs and worms.

However, over the past decade or so, this view has been forcefully challenged. The basil isn't an
anomaly.Plants are not simply organic, passive automata. We now know that they can sense and
integrate information about dozens of different environmental variables, and that they use this knowledge
to guide flexible, adaptive behaviour.

For example, plants can recognise whether nearby plants are kin or unrelated, and adjust their foraging
strategies accordingly. The flowerPortulaceagrandifloraaka moss rose, is one of several species that
tends to devote a greater share of resources to growing leaves rather than roots when put with strangers
– atactic apparently geared towards competing for sunlight, an imperative that is diminished when you
are growing next to your siblings. Plants also mount complex, targeted defences in response to
recognising specific predators. The small, flowering Arabidopsis thaliana, aka thale or mouse-ear cress,
can detect the vibrations caused by caterpillars munching on it and so releases oils and chemicals to
repel the insects.

Plants also communicate with one another, and other organisms, such as parasites and microbes, using
a variety of channels - including ‘mycorrhizal networks’ of fungus that link up the root systems of multiple

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 27 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

plants, like some kind of subterranean internet. Perhaps it's not really so surprising, then,that plants learn
and use memories for prediction and decision making.

112. Which of the following can be inferred about holy basil from the passage?
1. it is generally considered unattractive.
2. its leaves adjust themselves to face the direction and time of sunrise
3. all the light energy it needs for a day, it gathers in the early hours of the morning
4. it has been proven to have cognitive abilities.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4

113. The passage is primarily concerned with

(a) describing a recent discovery about holy basil.
(b) disproving a long held notion about distinction between humans and plants
(c) providing evidence to support a putative theory about plant behaviour
(d) analysing contrasting studies about cognitive abilities to arrive at a conclusion.

114. Why does the author refer to mycorrhizal networks?

(a) to give example of a defence mechanism used by plants against parasites and microbes
(b) to prove that even fungus is a type of plant
(c) to point at a possible inspiration for invention of the internet.
(d) to suggest a possible way the plants learn from each other

115. Which of the following does the author provide as a reason for a recent change in scientific beliefs?
(a) plant behaviour shows strong signs of memory despite not having a nervous system.
(b) plants do not have even a rudimentary nervous system
(c) plants can identify the difference between friends and foes, and control their growth accordingly.
(d) memories are fundamentally cognitive, and therefore necessary for thinking

116. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

1. plants have life and movement, but no higher intelligence
2. basil learn to orientthemselves to the light source even in laboratories.
3. plants can differentiate harmless agents from harmful ones and design appropriate defence
mechanisms
4. nature has enough evidence that cognition is not essentially related to memory.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4

117. The author provides which of the following examples to argue that plants can learn from memory ?
(a) The adjustment of basil leaves towards the direction of sunrise
(b) the defence strategy of Arabidopsis thaliana.
(c) the interplant network of fungus
(d) all the above.

Passage (Q.118-Q.123):Adam Smith is the best known of all economists, and is typically hailed as the
founding father of the dismal science itself.Furthermore, he’s usually portrayed as not only an early
champion of economic theory, but of the superiority of markets over government planning. In other words,
Smith is now known both, as the founder of economics, and as an ideologue for the political Right. Yet,
despite being widely believed, both these claims are at best misleading, and at worst outright false.

Smith’s popular reputation as an economist is a remarkable twist of fate for a man who spent most of his
life as a somewhat reclusive academic thinker. Employed as professor of moral philosophy at the
University of Glasgow, the majority of Smith’s teaching was in ethics, politics, jurisprudence and rhetoric,
and for most of his career he was known for his first book,‘TheTheory Of Moral Sentiments’.His
professional identity was firmly that of a philosopher - not least because the discipline of
‘economics’didn’t emerge until the 19th century, by which time Smith was long dead. He died in July
1790, just as the French revolution was getting into full swing.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 28 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

Admittedly, Smith's reputation as an economist isn't entirely mysterious.His oft-quoted ‘An Inquiry Into
The Nature And Causes Of The Wealth Of Nations’ was undoubtedly important in the eventual formation
- in the next century - of the discipline of economics.But even here things are not as straightforward as
they appear. For ‘the wealth of nations’ – a 1000 page doorstopper that blends history,ethics, psychology
and political philosophy - bears little resemblance to the ahistorical and highly mathematical nature of
most current economic theory. If anything,Smith’sbest known book is a work of political economy, a once-
prevalent field of enquiry that suffered a striking decline in the latter half of the 20th century.

Smith’s reputation, however, began to get away from him early on.Shortly after publication,‘the wealth of
nations’ was fêted in the British Parliament by the Whig leader Charles James Fox. Ironically,Fox later
admitted that he had never actually read it.Indeed,Smith suspected that those quickest to sing his praises
had failed to understand the main arguments of his work.He later described ‘the wealth of nations’ as a
‘very violent attack upon the whole commercial system of Great Britain’.Despite this, his vocal political
cheerleaders in Parliament continued to prop up the very system that Smith was railing against.

118. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

1. economics is significantly different from politics and philosophy
2. economics came into worldwide recognition only after 18th century
3. theextensive use of mathematics in current economic theory violates basic premise of economics
4. many people who admired Smiths work, did it through mere hearsay.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4

119. The author is likely to agree with which of the following?

(a) economics as we know today is a pseudoscience
(b) the political theory of Right advocates that government should not control markets.
(c) Adam Smith'sfirst book, ‘the theory of moral sentiments’deserves greater appreciation than his other
book ‘the wealth of nations’
(d) Adam Smith’s‘wealth of nations’ is one of the longest book ever written.

120. Why does the author criticize current economic theory?

(a) because it supports markets over government planning.
(b) because Adam Smith would not have supported the basic tenets of current economic theory.
(c) because it relies extensively on mathematics
(d) becauseinprinciples,it has departed from the work that is considered the origin of economics, and that
blended history,ethics, psychology, and political philosophy.

121. The primary idea of the passage is that

(a) Adam Smith did not like being called an economist
(b) those who call Adam Smith the father of economics, are wrong
(c) themisinterpretation of Adam Smith’s ideologies was coincidental
(d) the current economic theory has been intentionally incorrectly linked to the ideas propagated by
Adam Smith

122. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

(a) Adam Smith is the proponent of the political Right
(b) Adam Smith's work greatly helped establish modern economic theory
(c) Adam Smith was highly critical of the politico-economic scenario of Great Britain in 18th century
(d) Adam Smith despised most of those who applauded him.

123. Why does the author refer to the confession of Charles James Fox?
(a) to suggest that Adam Smith's work was too difficult to understand for most people of his times.
(b) to prove that pretence was rampant amongst British politicians during that time.
(c) to highlight how Adam Smith was applauded by those he criticized.
(d) to imply that the British Parliament unanimously considered ‘the wealth of nations’ a seminal work in
economics.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 29 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

124. Domestic air travel in India is not, of course, a monopoly. Indian airlines have had to contend with some
competition for many years now. But where liberalization and increased competition have lowered prices
and benefited consumers in a number of sectors, the price of domestic air travel has been remarkably
sticky. One reason is the comfortable co-habitation with Indian Airlines as the price leader. But its
privately-owned competition has been gradually intensifying, and improving the quality of service. A price
war is unlikely, however, as these airlines have, over time, learnt to live together.
Which of the following, if true, would cast most doubt on the accuracy of the prediction made in the last
sentence?
(a) The increasing efforts to improve service are most visible in the private airlines.
(b) Many private airlines are funded by conglomerates that see reduced prices as the most effective way
of gaining market share.
(c) Indian Airlines operates a pricing policy that is hard to match for any private organization.
(d) The private airlines cannot afford to lower their prices, as unlike Indian Airlines, they do not have a
large enough customer base to make this profitable.

Passage (Q.125-Q.129):An oracle was not required to tell me that I would suffer from cancer. Given my
family history (two uncles with prostate cancer, brother Barnes with lymphoma cancer, nieceKirstenDunst
– who never smoked – with lung cancer), I’ve long felt that it wasn’t so much a matter of “if,” but of
“when.” Still, last year, when I noticed that a mole on my elbow suddenly seemed darker than usual, my
“matter-of-fact” attitude faded, and I went into denial mode. “Whatever it is, it’s not serious,” I told myself.
“It’s always looked that way.” And when I could no longer ignore the voice in my head – the one that
knew better – I delayed for a few more weeks with the tried-and-true excuse of “I just don’t have time for
this right now.” As someone who is a health blogger, I know just how quickly a person’s health status can
change when they adamantly deny to get tested. Yet there I was, intentionally ignoring a symptom that I
would have told anyone else to get checked out, instantly. When I finally did see my family physician for
something unrelated, I mentioned it on as a “By the way,” to the end of the appointment. Sure enough, it
was melanoma. Ignoring symptoms of a disease with a high mortality rate is a surprisingly common
phenomenon, says Dr. WilliamLensch, Chief of Staffandprofessor at the Harvard Medical School, Boston.
“People will cognitively avoid things they don’t want to be real; it’s a natural defence mechanism,” he
says. Studies have shown the different ways it manifests – from using humour, to complete denial to
acknowledge that an illness might exist. “Many people delay seeing their doctors, and won’t even tell
their spouses,” Dr. Lensch says. And when they finally make an appointment, they tend to minimize their
symptoms. “Patients will lead the discussion in a certain way, so that the doctor will be more likely to
reassure them,” he says, which means that doctors often don’t get a true history and may make important
decisions based on inaccurate information. Denying that something is amiss, Lensch says, leads to
delayed diagnosis and treatment, and poorer outcomes. So why do otherwise rational people take an “if I
don’t see it, it isn’t there” approach to symptoms that can have a perilous effect on their health?

125. If the statements in the given passage are true, then which of the following would also be true?
(a) Doctors must find a way to help patients being calm and evade any warning signs of health risks.
(b) Doctors must find a way to help patients acknowledge a serious illness.
(c) Doctors must find a way to help patients manage their health insurance so they have a hassle free
health care experience.
(d) All of the above

126. Which of the following situations is similar in nature to the one in passage?
I. People will say ‘I’ll deal with it once X or Y is done, then I’ll be in a better place to take some time to
look after it.
II. A study published in the British Journal of General Practice in 2015 found that almost half of
tuberculosis patients realize and act upon early warning signs such as a persistent cough or an
unexplained lump.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 30 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

127. Which of the following is the most logical corollary of the concluding paragraph of the passage?
(a) Dr. Morepen says many people are afraid to even book an appointment because they’re worried
about what a doctor might find.
(b) Males and females have different reasons for going to the doctor. Males go to prove their strength is
untouchable and women go to calm their nerves.
(c) Past studies have shown that people who live in dismal economic conditions are more likely to be
diagnosed late.
(d) When you see a patient like that, you think, ‘How could you possibly have thought this didn’t need to
be dealt with?’

128. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the author’s arguments in the given passage?
(a) In 2015, a study in The Lancet found that only two in six people who have heart attack warning
symptoms call for help.
(b) Dr. Reddy recalls a patient with heart failure who gained 50 pounds before she finally ventured into
the hospital with huge, fluid-laden legs.
(c) We’ve discovered that people are reluctant to even mention the word ‘cancer’ in their responses to
us, almost as though if you mention it, you’re doomed.
(d) In 2016, a study in the New England Journal of Medicine found that visiting a doctor for routine
checks is surprisingly common among geriatric population.

129. In accordance with the passage, which of the following would be the best approach for people to take?
(a) If you are inundated with work, use your workload as a reason for not seeking help.
(b) If you don’t drink, eat in moderation, exercise regularly and are in good shape, there can be nothing
wrong with you.
(c) If you have a health concern and you cannot figure out what to do, you better seek professional
advice.
(d) It is easy for people who have high earnings to visit physicians, but you will manage through self-
examination.

Passage (Q.130-Q.134):Thinking deeply about a writer’s potentially shameful lack of capability to capture
a reader's interest, Francis Bacon has written several times about the experience of starting to write
books. He compared beginning text with the unpleasantness of going to a function without knowing
anyone and guessed that readers often felt revengefully eager in such situations to identify with the
character who tells you what is happening in a book or film. He also related the period before readers
became familiar with an author’s key ideas and idioms to the time before they were toilet trained. Given
how painful this can be, Bacon wondered if one of the reasons we put ourselves through such
discomforts was because we hoped to gain some cognitive privilege as a result.

Take a pause. Take another. Now, take some time before answering the following questions. Having
begun this piece of text, how are you feeling? Were you expecting me to inform you immediately why
Bacon was important; how his ideas related to various cultural historical contexts? if so, don't worry, we'll
get to that soon. As you've probably noticed, though, by addressing you directly, this introduction is taking
a more long-winded route in comparison with other things you must have read, and I am going to
continue in that style for a few pages by offering you not one, but two introductions to Bacon for reasons I
will subsequently explain. The first is autobiography ‘Why me?’ preface; the second answers the question
‘Why Bacon?’ more conventionally.

130. Identify the ‘intelligence’ of the author in writing this piece of text
(a) to introduce, he has written about Bacon’s views on how authors fail to make the reader relate to
them. He attempts to solve this problem by addressing the readers directly in the introduction itself
(b) to introduce, the author has used many unconventional methods which include addressing the reader
directly in the beginning itself

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 31 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

(c) the author has, in the beginning itself, accepted the failure on the part of authors to make the readers
relate to the books in the beginning. He has done this so that people don't have high expectations
from him.
(d) the author has given two introductions to Bacon and has not followed the conventional ‘one-
introduction’ archetype.

131. The passage shows the usage of the following:

(a) Oxymoron (b) Hyperbole (c) chiasmus (d) analogy

132. By taking up the example of a ‘Function’ to explain how the readers feel during the beginning of a text,
which of the following assumption has been made by Bacon.
(a) people often get invited to functions where they do not know anyone.
(b) people, in general, do not enjoy functions
(c) all people feel the need to relate to someone when they go to a function where they do not know
anyone.
(d) most people generally feel the need to relate to someone when they go to a function where they do
not know anyone.

133. It can be inferred that:

(a) the author questions Bacon’s importance in the passage.
(b) the author feels that starting a book is like going to a function without knowing anyone.
(c) ‘why me’ part of the book is more conventional then ‘why Bacon’ part of the book
(d) while writing, the author chooses a long-winded route over a straight one when he has a reason for it

134. This passage could be an excerpt taken from which of the following?
(a) introduction of a book on Bacon
(b) an excerpt from how to write a book
(c) a literary article on Bacon
(d) a paper presented on literary criticism

Direction (Q.135): Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Six persons M, N, O, P, Q and R are having different heights. N is taller to P. M is taller to R but shorter
to P. At least one person is shorter to R. The number of person taller to Q is same as shorter to O. Q is
taller to M.

135. Who among the following is the shortest in thegroup?

(a) O (b) R (c) P (d) N

136. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number/alphabetic series?
X24C3, V22E5, T20G7, ______?
(a) R16I7 (b) R17I9 (c) R18I9 (d) R19I8

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 32 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

SECTION - E :QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

Directions (Q.137-Q.141):Given below is the bar graph which shows the percentage of persons who like
three different types of fruits in five different cities. Study the data and answer the following questions.
Note: One person like only one type of fruit.

100%
90%
80%
percentage of persons

70%
60%
50% Mango
40% Banana
30% Apple
20%
10%
0%
A B C D E
City

137. If difference between number of persons who like apple to persons who like banana in city A is 51 while
average number of person who like mango and apple in city B is 765, then find the ratio of total number
of person in city A to total number of person in city B.
(a) 3:5 (b) 2:5 (c) 1: 3 (d) 3 : 7

138. Find the total number of person in city D. If total number of persons in city D is 200% more than that of in
city C, while difference between number of person who like banana in city D to number of person who like
apple in city C is 588.
(a) 1680 (b) 7840 (c) 3920 (d) 5040

139. Find the total number of person in city E who like Apple if difference between number of person who like
Apple and Mango together and number of person who like Mango and banana together in city E is Rs
240.
(a) 950 (b) 280 (c) 230 (d) 640

140. If Difference between number of person who like apple in city D to person who like Mango in city E is
2100 while sum of number of person who like Mango in city D and number of person who like banana in
city E is 4100, then find total number of person in city D is what percent more than that in city E?
(a) 75% (b) 300% (c) 150% (d) 175%

141. Find total number of person in city B, if ratio of number of person in city A to City B is 2 : 3 and total
number of person in city A & city B together who like apple is 816.
(a) 510 (b) 1020 (c) 1530 (d) 2040

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 33 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

Directions (Q.142- Q.146): These questions are based on the following diagram.

Circle A represents even numbers from 2 to 50.

Circle B represents odd numbers from 2 to 50.
Circle C, represents prime numbers from 2 to 50.

142. How many elements are there in set A only?

(a) 25 (b) 24 (c) 23 (d) 22

143. How many elements are there in set B only?

(a) 14 (b) 25 (c) 10 (d) 13

144. How many elements are there in B n C?

(a) 14 (b) 11 (c) 24 (d) 13

145. How many elements are there in A n C?

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

146. How many elements are there in C' (complement of C)?

(a) 35 (b) 25 (c) 34 (d) 14

Directions (Q.147-Q.150): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.
From a class a total of 200 students appeared in an examination consisting three papers P1, P2 and P3.
56% of students passed in paper P1, 63% passed in P2 and 56.5% passed in P3. 11% students passed
only in paper P1 and P2, 8% passed only in paper P1 and P3, and 22% students passed in all three
papers.
No student failed in all three papers.

147. How many students passed in only paper P2 and P3 but failed in P1?
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 25 (d) 28

148. What is the ratio of the number of students who passed only in paper P2 to the number of students who
passed in P3 only?
(a) 3:2 (b) 4:3 (c) 5:4 (d) 6:5

149. The number of students who passed in paper P1 only is what percentage of the number of students who
passed in only paper P1 and P3 but failed in paper P2?
(a) 187.5% (b) 157.5% (c) 112.5% (d) 97.5%

150. The number of students who passed in at most one paper is what percentage of the total number of
students in the class?
(a) 43.5% (b) 44.5% (c) 45.5% (d) 46.5%

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 34 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

USE FOR ROUGH WORK

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 35 of 36

MOCK CLAT #05

USE FOR ROUGH WORK

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 36 of 36