INTERNAL ASSESMENT 3

INDIAN CONSTITUTION
QUESTION BANK
Part A

1. Which among the following state / union territory got birth with the Punjab Reorganization Act of
1966?
[A] Haryana
[B] Hiamchal Pradesh
[C] Chandigarh
[D] None of the above

2. Which among the following Union Territory had a Judicial Commissioner’s Court?
[A] Pondicherry
[B] Andaman & Nicobar Islands
[C] Daman & Diu
[D] Lakshadweep

3. The Constituent Assembly of India was step up under the framework of?
a. Cripps mission (1942)
b. Cabinet mission (1946)
c. Simon commission (1927)
d. None of these

4. The all important drafting committee had two distinguished jurist and lawyers along
with the chairman Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. They were?
a. B.N Rau and Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer
b. B.N Rau and S.N. Mukherjee
c. Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer and K.M. Munshi
d. K.M. Munshi and S.N. Mukherjee

5. After the creation of Constituent Assembly of Pakistan in 1947, the membership of

Constituent Assembly of India was reduced to 299 from 389 earlier. What was the total
number of members from the provinces in the Constituent Assembly?
a. 229
b. 70
c. 292
d. 93

6. The Constituent Assembly of India was passed and adopted on which of the following
days?
a. 24 January, 1950
b. 26 January, 1950
c. 26 November, 1949
d. 29 August, 1947

7. The philosophy underlying the Indian constitution was embodied quite early in the
Objective Resolution, which was moved in the first session of the Constituent Assembly
(on 13 December 1946) by:
a. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
b. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
c. Chakravarti Rajagopalachari
d. Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar

8. The national Anthem was adopted by the constituent Assembly on which of the
following day?
a. 24 January, 1947
b. 22 July, 1947
c. 29 August, 1947
d. 26 November, 1949

9. The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly had taken place on December 9, 1946
was presided by whom as its interim president?
a. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
b. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
c. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
d. Dr. Sachidanand Sinha

10. Which of the following is called 'Mini Constitution'?

(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
(C) 44th constitutional amendment
(D) Government of India Act, 1919

11. Which of the following is not a feature of Indian parliamentary system?

(A) majority party power
(B) Presence of Actual Executive and Nominal Executive
(C) Appointment of Executive to the Legislature
(D) All of the above

12. Which of the following is not matched correctly?

(A) Right to Equality: Article 14-18
(B) Rights against exploitation: Article 20-22
(C) Right to Religious Freedom: Article 25-28
(D) Right to Cultural and Education freedom: Article 29-30

13. Which of the following is not matched correctly?

(A) Part I: Union and its Territories
(B) Part II: Citizenship
(C) Part III: Directive Principle and State Policy
(D) Part VI: State Governments

14. Which of the following is not matched correctly?

(A) Article 312: The functions of Public Service Commissions
(B) Article 110: Definition of Money Bill
(C) Article 112: Budget
(D) Article 51A: Fundamental Duties

15. Seventh Schedule is concerned with ............?

(A) From languages
(B) Partition of powers between center and states
(C) From the judicial areas of the states
(D) From Panchayati Raj

16. In which of the following union territory a Council of Ministers is elected?

(a) Delhi
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(d) Daman and Diu

17. Which of the following union territory's MLAs do not participate in the election of the
President of India?
(a) Lakshadweep
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Puducherry
(d) both a and b

18. Who governs the union territory "Daman and Diu"?

(a) Deputy Governor
(b) Administrator
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Gujarat High Court

19. Who appoints the Chief Minister of Delhi?

(a) President of India
(b) Home Minister
(c) Deputy Governor
(d) None of the following

20. Who heads the Union Territory of Delhi?

(a) President
(b) Deputy Governor
(c) Home Minister
(d) a and b both

21. Which of the following Union Territories can make laws on concurrent list?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Puducherry
(d) Lakshadweep

22. The Chief Minister of Delhi will give his resignation to......
(a) The President of India
(b) The state's governor
(c) The Deputy Chief Minister of Delhi
(d) Delhi Vidhan Sabha Speaker
23. Who has the right to set up a High Court in any Union Territory?
(a) President
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Parliament
(d) None of the following

24. The Union territories are specified in the _____ schedule

(a) 2nd
(b) 1st
(c) 3rd
(d) 4th

25. The Union of India consists of

i) States
ii) Union territories
iii) Acquired territories
(a) i
(b) i i
(c) i and ii
(d) i, ii and iii

26. Which of the following state/ Union territories has a legislative assembly consisting of only 30
members
(a) Puducherry
(b) Mizoram
(c) Goa
(d) All

27. Which of the following word has not been written in the preamble of the Indian
Constitution?
(A) Sovereign
(B) Socialist
(C) Democratic
(D) Indians

28. What is the true meaning of "Secular"?

(A) All religions are equal in the eyes of the government
(B) Special importance to a religion related to minorities
(C) One religion is promoted by the government
(D) None of the following

29. What is the meaning of "social equality" in the Indian Constitution?

(A) Lack of opportunities
(B) Lack of equality
(C) Equal opportunities for all sections of the societies
(D) None of the following

30. Who among the following said that the preamble of the Indian Constitution is "The
Keynote of the Constitution"?
(A) Ernest Barker
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Dr. Ambedkar
(D) Nelson Mandela

31. "The language of Preamble" of the Indian constitution is taken from the constitution
of......
(A) America
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) Ireland

32. The Preamble of the Constitution of India secures justice, liberty, equality and fraternity to:
a. all persons
b. those who within the territory of India
c. all citizens
d. those citizens who reside within the territory of India

33. Preamble to the Constitution of India:

a. is not a part of the Constitution
b. indicates the objectives to be achieved
c. indicates the source from which the Constitution derives its authority
d. is a source of authority of the Constitution of India

34. The solemn resolution in the preamble of our constitution is made in the name of
a. People of India
b. Constitution of India
c. Indian independence Act 1947
d. None of these

35. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has held that Preamble is the part of the
Constitution?
a. In Berubari’s case
b. In Golaknath’s case
c. In Shankari Prasad’s case
d. In Keshwanand Bharti’s case

36. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution aims at securing

a. dignity of individual and unity and integrity of the nation
b. fundamental rights to all individuals
c. fundamental rights to the citizens of India
d. security of tenure to all government servants

37. The three types of justice referred to in the Preamble of the Constitution are
a. social, economic and political
b. social, economic and religious
c. social, religious and political
d. religious, economic and political
38. How many times has the Preamble of the Constitution of India been amended so far
a. once
b. twice
c. thrice
d. never

39. The idea of the Preamble has been borrowed from the Constitution of which of the foreign country?
a. Canada
b. USA
c. Britain
d. France

40. The basic structure of the Constitution of India is contained in

a. Article 21
b. Article 14
c. Article 32
d. Preamble

41. The plan to transfer power to the Indians and partition of the country was laid down in the?
(A) Cabinet Mission Plan
(B) Simon Commission
(C) Cripps Mission
(D) The Mountbatten Plan

42. For the first time Indian Legislature was made "Bi-cameral" under:
(A) Government of India Act, 1861
(B) Government of India Act, 1892
(C) Government of India Act, 1915
(D) Government of India Act, 1919

43. Who was the chairman of Drafting Committee?

(A) N Gopalaswamy
(B) K.M Munshi
(C) N Madhava Rao
(D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

44. "The Constitution should give India Domination Status", was a proposal in?
(A) Cabinet Mission Plan
(B) Cripps Mission
(C) The Mountbatten Plan
(D) Simon Commission

45. Which article is related to Special Address by the president?

(A) Article 84
(B) Article 85
(C) Article 86
(D) Article 87

46. Which article is related to Assent to Bills?

(A) Article 98
(B) Article 111
(C) Article 112
(D) Article 114

47. How many articles were there originally in Constitution of India?

(A) 395
(B) 397
(C) 403
(D) 410

48. Under the constitution of India who are the ultimate Sovereign?
(A) Indian People
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) All elected leaders of India

49. The constitution is the supreme law of the land. It is protected by

(A) The Supreme Court
(B) The Constituent Assembly
(C) The Parliament
(D) The President

50. Which of the following is not a constitutional body?

(A) Election Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) National Advisory Council
(D) Inter-State Council

51. Which of the following word has not been written in the preamble of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Sovereign
(B) Socialist
(C) Democratic
(D) Indians

52. Which statement is not correct in the case of "Sovereign India"?

(A) India is not dependent on any country
(B) India is not a colony of any other country
(C) India can give any part of its country to any other country
(D) India is obliged to obey the UN in its internal affairs

53. K.M. Munshi was related to......

(A) Constitution draft committee
(B) Preamble Committee
(C) Public Accounts Committee
(D) None of the following

54. Which year is related to Berubari Case?

(A) 1972
(B) 1976
(C) 1970
(D) 1960

55. What is the true meaning of "Secular"?

(A) All religions are equal in the eyes of the government
(B) Special importance to a religion related to minorities
(C) One religion is promoted by the government
(D) None of the following

56. What is the meaning of "social equality" in the Indian Constitution?

(A) Lack of opportunities
(B) Lack of equality
(C) Equal opportunities for all sections of the societies
(D) None of the following

57. Who among the following said that the preamble of the Indian Constitution is "The Keynote of
the Constitution"?
(A) Ernest Barker
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Dr. Ambedkar
(D) Nelson Mandela

58. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) In the Berubari case the Supreme Court had said that the preamble of the Constitution is not a part of
the Constitution
(B) In the Keshavanand Bharti case, the Supreme Court had said that the preamble of the Constitution is
part of the Constitution
(C) "Preamble" of the Indian Constitution has been taken from the Constitution of Canada
(D) None of the above

59. "The language of Preamble" of the Indian constitution is taken from the constitution of......
(A) America
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) Ireland

60. National Human Rights Commission is a ......

(a) Statutory body
(b) Constitutional body
(c) Multilateral institution
(d) Both a and c

61. Who is the current chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?
(a) Justice A.S. Anand
(b) Justice H.L. Dattu
(c) Justice S. Rajendra Babu
(d) Justice K. Balakrishnan

62. Who can be appointed as the chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?
(a) Any sitting judge of the Supreme Court
(b) Any retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(c) Any person appointed by the President
(d) Retired Chief Justice of any High Court

63. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the National Human Rights
Commission?
(a) It was established in 1993.
(b) In the cases of human rights violation, the Commission has no right to punish the culprit
(c) The Chairman and members of this Commission are appointed by the Supreme Court of India
(d) The Commission sends its annual report to the Central Government and State Governments

64. What is the tenure of the chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?
(a) 5 years or upto 62 years of age
(b) 5 years or upto 65 years of age
(c) 6 years or upto 65 years of age
(d) 5 years or upto 70 years of age

65. Who of the following is not included in the Committee constituted for the appointment of the
Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Lok Sabha Speaker
(d) Leader of the main opposition party

66. Which of the following is not the function of the National Human Rights Commission?
(a) To interfere in the proceedings related to any human rights violation case pending in the court
(b) Protecting the human rights of prisoners
(c) To provide Economic compensation to any human rights violation victim
(d) Promoting research in the field of human rights

67. Who of the following has never been appointed as the chairman of the National Human
Rights Commission?
(a) Justice K. G. Balakrishnan
(b) Justice S. Rajendra Babu
(c) Justice A. S. Anand
(d) Justice P. Sathasivam

68. Where is the headquarter of the National Human Rights Commission?

(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) Kolkata

69. When changes have been made in the National Human Rights Commission Act?
(a) 2001
(b) 1999
(c) 2006
(d) 2016

70. Which of the following is called 'Mini Constitution'?

(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
(C) 44th constitutional amendment
(D) Government of India Act, 1919

71. Which of the following statements is false?

(A) Most of the structure of the Indian Constitution has been taken from the Government of India Act,
1935.
(B) The original constitution had 10 schedules
(C) The political part of the Indian Constitution is taken from the British Constitution
(D) Article 368 is related to the constitutional amendment

72. Which of the following is not a feature of Indian parliamentary system?

(A) majority party power
(B) Presence of Actual Executive and Nominal Executive
(C) Appointment of Executive to the Legislature
(D) All of the above

73. Which of the following is not matched correctly?

(A) Right to Equality: Article 14-18
(B) Rights against exploitation: Article 20-22
(C) Right to Religious Freedom: Article 25-28
(D) Right to Cultural and Education freedom: Article 29-30

74. Which of the following is not matched correctly?

(A) Part I: Union and its Territories
(B) Part II: Citizenship
(C) Part III: Directive Principle and State Policy
(D) Part VI: State Governments

75. Which of the following is not matched correctly?

(A) Article 312: The functions of Public Service Commissions
(B) Article 110: Definition of Money Bill
(C) Article 112: Budget
(D) Article 51A: Fundamental Duties

76. The idea of 'concurrent list' in the Indian constitution is taken from the Constitution of ............?
(A) Ireland
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) Japan

77. Seventh Schedule is concerned with ............?

(A) From languages
(B) Partition of powers between center and states
(C) From the judicial areas of the states
(D) From Panchayati Raj
78. What is not taken from British Constitution in the Constitution of India?
(A) Parliamentary rule
(B) Single citizenship
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Cabinet System

79. Which of the following articles cannot be null during the National Emergency?
(A) Article 14 to 18
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 20,21
(D) Article 29,30

80. Keshavananda Bharati case was associated with

A. Fundamental Rights
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. State right
D. Armed rebellion

81.The word ‘socialist’ was added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by which amendment
(a) 44th
(b) 27th
(c) 21st
(d) 42nd
82. The Constitution of India is
a) Rigid
b) (b) flexible
(c) Combination of rigidity and flexibility
(d) Neither rigid nor flexible

83.Right to Freedom is guaranteed in which article

(a) 17
(b) 19
(c) 18
(d) 20
84. The President’s rule in a state can be continued at a stretch for a maximum period of
a) 4years
(b) 2years
(c) 3 years
(d) one year
85. The Council of state in India has how many elected members
(a) 250
(b) 238
(c) 245
(d) 230

86. The executive power in India is actually exercised by

(a) Speaker
(b) President
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Parliament

87. 42nd amendment Act was adopted by the Parliament in

(a) 1967
(b) 1968
(c) 1976
(d) 1977

88. The supreme commander of the armed forces in India is

(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Defence Minister
(d) None of these

89. Public Undertaking Committee is a

(a) Cabinet Committee
(b) Parliamentary Committee
(c) Committee of a political party
(d) None of these

90. What is the maximum gap permissible between two sessions of the Parliament?
(a)3 months
(b) 4 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 12 months

91. The Governor of a state is a

(a) Constitutional head
(b) real head
(c) Hereditary head
(d) nominated head

92. Who elects the Vice President of India

(a) House of the People
(b) Both Houses of Parliament
(c) Council of State
(d) Both Houses of Parliament and state legislatures

93. In consequence of the death or incapacity of the President, vice President can become the President for
(a) 6 months
(b) 12months
(c) 1 month
(d) 5 months
94. Grass root democracy is related to
(a) Panchayath system
(b) Interstate council
(c) Lok Pal
(d) Regionalism

95. The Parliament of India consists of

(a) President, House of the People and Council of state
(b)House of the People and Council of states
(c) Vice President, House of People and Council of states
(d) President, Vice President, House of the People and Council of States
96. The President of India is elected by
A. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament
B. Members of both Houses of Parliament
C. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and state legislative assemblies
D. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and both Houses of the state legislatures

97. A vote taken unexpectedly without voters having been briefed in advance
(a) Snap poll
(b) by-election
(c) opinion poll
(d) exit poll

98. The President of India can----------------------- the House

(c) Sine die
(d) prorogue
(c) adjourn
(d) None of these

99. Recess means

a. The interval between the prorogation of Parliament and its reassembly
b. The Parliament in session
c. Adjournment of the House
d. Dissolution of the House

100. The Speaker use the ‘casting vote’

a. to maintain status quo
b. to challenge the opposition
 (c) to defeat the government
(d) in the absence of the Prime Minister

101. In which year, parliament passed the Citizenship Act?

[A] 1950
[B] 1955
[C] 1960
[D] 1965

102. Who is the chief executive head of the state?

[A] Chief minister
[B] Governor
[C] President
[D] None of the above

103. Delhi was called national Capital Territory by which amendment Act ?
[A] 63rd
[B] 69th
[C] 91st
[D] 93rd

104. Single citizenship in india has been taken from which country?
[A] Britan
[B] Canada
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] USA

105. Which article of Indian constitution deals with constitutional amendments?

(a) Article 332

(b) Article 386

(c) Article 368

(d) None of the above

106. Which constitutional amendment reduced the voting rights from 21 years to 18 years?
(a) 54th

(b) 36th

(c) 62th
(d) 61st

107 Which of the following amendment Act makes the right to education as the fundamental right to
all the children under the age of 6-14 years by inserting Article 21A to the constitution.
(a) 87th amendment, 2003

(b) 86th amendment, 2002

(c) 88th Amendment, 2003

(d) 89th Amendment, 2003

108. Which of the following is true about the constitution (42nd amendment) Act, 1976.
(a) Precedence to directive principles over fundamental rights

(b) Fundamental duties are included

(c) Constitutional amendment should not be questioned in any court

(d) All the above

109. In order to ensure free and fair elections and to conduct all elections to the Panchayats, the
power is vested with

a) Chief Election Commissioner of India

b) Chief Minister of the State

c) State Election Commission

d) Chief Secretary of the State

110. The members of Gram Sabhya are

a) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas

b) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker

c) Sarpanch, gram Sevak and elected Panchas

d) Registered voters of Village Panchayat

111.How soon imposition of National Emergency should be approved by the Parliament?

A) 1 month

B) 2 months

C) 6 months

D) 3 months

112. Which kind of emergency will be imposed in the case of war, external aggression and armed
rebellion?

A) 356

B) 352

C) 360

D) None of the following

113. How many times have the financial emergency imposed in India?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) Never

114. In which of the following amendment the term of Lok Sabha increased from 5 to 6 years?
(a) 40th Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(c) 44th Amendment

(d) 46th Amendment

 115. In which of the following union territory a Council of Ministers is elected?
(a) Delhi

(b) Chandigarh

(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(d) Daman and Diu

PART B
1.The British Parliament passed the Indian Independence Act in
(a) July 1947
(b) (b) January 1947
(c) June 1947
(d) August 1947

2.Periodic elections to the local bodies are made mandatory by

(c) 72nd amendment
(d) 73rd amendment
(c) 86th amendment
(d) 87th amendment

3.Balvant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed to review

(e) National Extension Service
(f) Panchayati Raj
(c) Electoral system
(d) Community Development Programme

4.The Committee appointed in 1977 to study the working of Panchayati Raj institutions was
under the chairmanship of
(g) Balvant Rai Mehta
(h) Ashok Mehta
(c) GVK Rao
(d) LM Singhvi
5.Mandal Commission recommendations were appointed by
(i) Rajiv Gandhi
(j) A B Vajpayee
 (c) P V Narasimha Rao
(d) V P Singh

6.Minto Morley Reforms is also known as

(k) Government of India Act 1919
(l) (b) Government of India Act 1892
(c) Government of India Act 1935
(d) Government of India Act 1909
7.How many duties are included in the Constitution as Fundamental Duties?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 9
(d) 6
8.From among the following which amendment of the Constitution of India made “education to Children”
as a Fundamental Duty?
(a) 86th
(b) 85th
(c) 42nd
(d) 72nd
9.National Development Council was constituted in
(a) 1950
(b) 1951
(c) 1952
(d) 1947

10.The qualification for the Chairman and the members of the Finance Commission are specified in
A) Finance Act of 1951
B) Finance Act of 1952
(c) Finance Act of 1950
(d) Finance Act of 1953

11. Finance Commission is constituted every 5 years by the

A) President
B) Parliament
(c) Union Council of Ministers
(d) Speaker

12. The states enjoy exclusive jurisdiction over subjects of

a. Union list
 b. State list
(c) Residuary List
(d) Concurrent list

13. The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rests with
(a) State government
(b) Parliament
(c) Prime Minister
(d) President
14. The Union Government gives grants-in-aid to the states on the recommendations of the
a. Planning Commission
b. National Integration Council
(c) Finance Commission
(d) National Development Council

15. Which among the following is empowered to constitute Inter State Council?
a. The Parliament
b. The President
(c) The National Development Council
(d) The Planning Commission

16. The salary of judges during their offices can be reduced by the
a. Article 352
b. Article 356
c. Article 360
d. Article 359
17. The unlawful detention of a person is questioned by the writ of
a. Habeas Corpus
b. Certiorari
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Mandamus

18. The High Court in India do not possess

a. Original jurisdiction
b. Appellate jurisdiction
(c) Advisory jurisdiction
(d) Revisory jurisdiction

19. Provisions under 9th schedule

a. Can be challenged in a court of law
 b. Can’t challenge in a court of law
(c) Can seek opinion in a court of law
(d)None of these
20. Under which article of the Constitution the Supreme Court of India has been established
(a) 24
(b) 124
(c) 224
(d) 231

21. The High Court has the power to issue writ under article
(a) 32
(b) 220
(c) 226
(d) 344
22. The power of the Supreme Court can be enlarged by
a. Cabinet
(b) Parliament
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice
23. Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from offices by
a. Executive order
b. Impeachment
(c) Judicial order
(d) Bureaucracy

24. Which article of the Constitution of India deals with the Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
a. Article 74
b. Article 142
c. Article 143
d. Article 147
25. Subjects in the -------------- schedule is beyond the scope of Judicial Review
a. 8th
b. 9th
c. 12th
d. 3rd

26. The Union Legislature in India is empowered

a. Not to amend the basic structure of the Constitution
 b. to amend the basic structure of the Constitution
c. To abrogate the basic structure
d. None of these

27. Preventive Detention is a reasonable restriction on

a. Article 14
b. Article 19
(c)Article 21
(d) Article 32
28. Which of the following is the inevitable outcome of liberalization?
a. Retrace of the state
b. reentry of the state
(c) Neutrality of the state
(d) None of these
29. which of the following is inherent in communalism
a. Peace for all religious sects
b. racial overtone
(c) Ethnic rivalry
(d) Antagonistic assertion in all spheres of life

30. Communalism is opposed to

a. Secular credential
b. ethnic conflict
(c) friendship between class
(d) All of the above

31. Globalisation gives primacy to unbriddled

a. Welfare means
b. Trade
(c) Socialism
(d) Consumerism

32. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is contained in

a. Article 131
b. Article 129
(c) Article 132
(d) Article 136

33. The power of the President to consult the Supreme Court is under Article
(a) 132
 (b) 143
(C) 136
(d) 131
34. The sequence of procedure for passing a Bill in the House is
a. First reading, Committee stage, report stage, second reading, third reading
b. First reading, second reading, committee stage, report stage, third reading
c. First reading, second reading, third reading, Committee stage, report stage
d. First reading, Committee stage, second reading, third reading

35. In a federal system the guardian of the Constitution is

a. the Parliament
b. the Judiciary
(c) the council of Ministers
(d) the National Security Advisor
36. Who said “the Preamble is the key to the Constitution”
a. Dr B.R. Ambedkar
b. Dr Rajendra Prasad
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Rajagopalachari
37. Article 19 of the Constitution of India contains
a. 9 Fundamental Freedoms
b. 8 Fundamental Freedoms
(c) 7 Fundamental Freedoms
(d) 6 Fundamental Freedoms

38. The Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission is appointed by

a. Prime Minister
b. President
(c) Vice President
(d) Council of Ministers
39. Which among the following is not a Fundamental Right?
a. Right to Equality
b. Right to Property
(c) Right to Freedom
(d) Right against exploitation
40. Rights given in the Constitution are called Fundamental Right because
a. They are natural rights
 b. They can’t be suspended
(c) They are a part of the Constitution
(d) They can be enforced and safeguarded by the courts

41. Article 32 stands suspended during an emergency under Article

(a) 352
(b) 356
(c) 360
(d) 362
42. Right to privacy is contained in
a. Article 22
b. Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 22
43. Freedom of expression is included in the article
(a) 15
(b) 19
(c) 21
(d) 22
44. The emergency provisions of the Constitution of India have been borrowed from
a. German Constitution
b. American Constitution
(c) French Constitution
(d) Irish Constitution

45. Concurrent list was adopted from

a. Russian Constitution
b. American Constitution
(c) Swiss constitution
(d) French Constitution

46. Equality before law and Equal protection of law have been modelled on the Constitution of
a. Britain
b. America
(c) Russian
(d) Switzerland

47. Which article of the constitution of India empower the President to take over the administration of
a state on the basis of failure of constitutional machinery
 (a) 365
(b) 352
(c) 356
(d) 360

48. In India the power of ‘amnesty’ has been given to the

a. President
b. Prime Minister
(c) Chief of the army
(d) Parliament

49. Part IV A of the Indian Constitution deal with

a. Fundamental Duties
b. Fundamental Rights
(c) Directive Principles of state Policy
(d) Citizenship

50. The procedure for amending the Constitution of India is

a. Rigid
b. flexible
(c) partly rigid and flexible
d) None of these

51. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Fundamental Duties are given in Part IV of the Constitution
B. After the 42nd constitutional amendment, Fundamental Duties have been added to the Constitution of
India.
C. In 2002, after the 82nd Constitution Amendment Act, another Fundamental Duty was added.
D. Public Representation Act, Built in1951.

52. Consider the following statement in context Emergency provisions.

1) Emergency due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion that popularly known
as National Emergency comes under Art. 356.
2) An Emergency due to the failure of the constitutional Machinery in the states
comes under Article 360.
3) Financial Emergency due to a threat to the financial stability or credit of India
that popularly known as President Rule in the country comes under Article 352.
Which of the statement given above is / are correct.
 a) 1 & 2 only
b) 1, 2 & 3 only
c) 3 only
d) None of the above

53. Consider the following statement.

1) The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 enabled the President of limit the operation of a
National Emergency to a specified part of India.
2) 44th Amendment Act of 1978 substituted the word ‘armed Rebellion’ for internal
disturance.
3) When a National emergency is declared on the ground of war or external
aggression it is known as ‘External Emergency’.
4) When National emergency declared on the ground of ‘armed rebellion’ it is
known as ‘Internal Emergency’.

Which of the statement given above is / are correct.

a) 1, 3 & 4 only
b) 2 & 4 only
c) 1, 2 & 3 only
d) All of the above

54 Consider the following statement on context of Emergency provisions.

1) The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the house of parliament

within 15 days from the date of its issue.
2) The period allowed for approval by the Parliament was two months before the
44th Amendment Act of 1978.
3) If approved by both the house of Parliament the emergency continues for six
months and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the
parliament for every six months.
4) its continuance must be passed by both house of parliament by a special majority.

Which of the statement given above is / are correct.

a) 1 & 2 only
b) 1, 2 & 4 only
c) 2, 3 & 4 only
d) All of the above
55. Consider the following statements:

1) The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interst
for the parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the state list.
2) Resolution appproving the proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the
Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

56. Which among the following authorities decides , how far the fundamental rights can apply to the
members of the armed forces in India?
[A] President of India
[B] Parliament of India
[C] Arms Forces themselves
[D] Arms Forces Tribunal
57. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
[A] Members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the eligible voters
[B] Money Bills can only be introduced in Lok Sabha
[C] The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha
[D] President nominates four members of Anglo-Indian Community to Lok Sabha

58. "The Constitution should give India Domination Status", was a proposal in?

(A) Cabinet Mission Plan

(B) Cripps Mission

(C) The Mountbatten Plan

(D) Simon Commission

59. Constitution of India was adopted by constituent assembly on?

(A) 25 October 1948

(B) 25 October 1949

(C) 26 November 1948

(D) 26 November 1949

60.Which Act is associated with "Courts can interpret the rules and regulations.”?

(A) Regulating Act of 1773

(B) Pitts India Act of 1784

(C) Charter Act of 1793

(D) Charter Act of 189