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MOCK TEST FOR ADVANCED STUDENTS TIME: 150ms

SECTION A – LISTENING

I. LISTENING: You will hear each recording TWICE.

Part 1: You will hear someone giving a talk about global warming. For questions 1-10, complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS AND/OR NUMBERS.

THE TRUTH ABOUT GLOBAL WARMING

Scientists say that with each (1) ________ that goes by, the planet is getting warmer.Scientists don't just take
record low temperatures into account, they measure (2) _____ temperature changes.Research has proved that
over the last (3) _____ years, the Earth's average temperature has risen by about two degrees.Solar flares are
(4) _________ that happen on the surface of the Sun.Scientists say that the Sun's activity has decreased
during the period (5) _________.Some people think that there's no way carbon dioxide can be (6) _________
to the planet.Too much carbon dioxide (7) _________ within the atmosphere.Some people think global
warming can create a longer (8) _________ for plants.While northern regions get warmer, the rest of the
planet will suffer from (9) _________, wildfires and expanding deserts. For some people, climate change
will make food expensive or even (10) _________ to them.
Your answers:

1. 3. 5. 7. 9.

2. 4. 6. 8. 10.

Part 2: Questions 11-20

Questions 11-12: Answer the questions by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each question.

11. When does the student have to move out of his present accommodation?
12. For how long did the college offer him a temporary room?
Questions 13-16: Answer the questions by writing writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.

13. Circle the problem that the student has now.

A. No friends B. No money and no place to live in C. Homesick D. No luggage

14. Circle the help that the Welfare Office can give.
A. To provide long-term accommodation for him. B. To contact the accommodation service.

C. To subsidize his rent payments. D. To offer him a grant.

15. Where could the student get money

A. From a bank B. From a landlord C. From the British Council D. From the Student Union

16. How much could the student get as an emergency loan?

A. Up to ₤200 B. About ₤ 250 C. ₤220 D. ₤2,000

Questions 17-20: Answer the questions by writing A WORD OR NUMBER in each space provided.

17. Would the Union be able to provide a long-term emergency accommodation?

18. How much money does the student have left?
19. Will the student apply for an emergency loan?
20. How does the student feel after talking with the welfare officer?
Your answers:

1. 3. 5. 7. 9.

2. 4. 6. 8. 10.

SECTION B – VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR

Part 1: Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. Write A, B, C or D in the box given.

1.Studies indicate _________ collecting art today than ever before.

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A. there are that more people B. more people that are C. that there are more people D. people there are more

2. I_________ my best suit – everyone else was very casually dressed.

A. needn’t wear B. mustn’t wear C. needn’t have worn D. mustn’t have worn

3. _________, it is obvious that the whole thing was a waste of time and effort.

A. None of us wanted to go in the first place

B. Staff meetings are often boring and have no apparent point to them

C. Since the results were far more satisfactory than anyone had expected

D. Seeing that we couldn’t solve anything in the end

4. _________ the high decrease in inflation, our currency seems to have increased in value.

A. Thanks to B. Despite C. As far as D. What’s more

5. The size and shape of a nail depends primarily on the function _________ intended.

A. which it is B. which it is for C. for which is D. for which it is

6. Helen was _________ disappointed when she learnt that she hadn’t won the beauty contest.

A seriously B bitterly C strongly D heavily

7. After congratulating his team, the coach left, allowing the players to let their _______ down and enjoy themselves.

A. hearts B. heads C. hair D. souls

8. Choose the most suitable response to the following exchange..

Jennifer: “Hey, Tommy. What are you guys doing?” Tommy: “_________”

A. We’re just chilling out. Do you want to come around?B. I don’t think it’s a question I can discuss.

C. We’re talking to you, Jennifer! D. I’m not sure if we’re doing something much.

9. The time has now come when it will be necessary to_________making a plan.

A. see about B. see over C. see through D. see into

10. We don’t have cupboards so we__ boxes. A. do away withB. make do with C. make allowance for D. keep an eye on

Your answers:

1. 3. 5. 7. 9.

2. 4. 6. 8. 10.

Part 2. Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the
corresponding numbered boxes.

1 True relaxation is most certainly not a matter of flopping down in front of the television with a
2 welcome drink. Nor it is about drifting into an exhausting sleep. Useful as though these responses to
3 tension and over-tiredness might be, we should distinguish between them and conscious relaxation in

4 term of quality and effect. Regard of the level of tiredness, relaxation is a state of alert yet at the same
time passive awareness, which our bodies are at rest while our minds are awake.
5

6 Moreover, it is as natural for a healthy person to be relaxed when moving as resting. Being relaxed in
7 action mean we bring the appropriate energy to everything we do, so that to have a feeling of healthy
tiredness by the end of the day, rather than one of exhaustion. Fortunately, as a result of living in
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8 today’s competitive world, we are under constantly strain and have difficulty in coping, let alone
9 nurturing our body’s abilities. What needs to be rediscovered is conscious relaxation. With this in
10 mind we must apply ourselves to understand stress and the nature of its causes.

11

Your answers:

Line Mistake Correction Line Mistake Correction

11. 16.

12. 17.

13. 18.

14. 19.

15. 20.

SECTION C – READING

Part 1: Read the passage and choose the best answer. Write A, B, C or D in the box given.

Hardly a week (1)______ without some advance in technology that would have seemed incredible 50 years ago. And
we can expect the rate of change to accelerate rather than (2)______ within our lifetime. The developments in technology are
(3)______ have a dramatic effect on the future of work. By 2010, new technology will have revolutionized communications.

People will be transmitting messages down telephone lines that (4)______ would have been sent by post. Not only
postmen (5)______ also clerks and secretaries will vanish in a paper-free society. All the routine tasks they perform will be
carried on tiny silicon chip (6)______ they will be as obsolete as the horse and cart after the invention of the motor car. One
change will make thousands, if not millions, redundant.
Even people in traditional professions, (7)______ expert knowledge has been the key, are (8)______ to escape the
effects of new technology. (9)______ going to a solicitor, you might go to a computer which is programmed with all the most
up- to-date legal information. Doctors, too, will find that an electronic competitor will be able to carry out a much quicker and
more accurate diagnosis and recommend more efficient courses of treatment. In education, teachers will be largely
(10)______ by teaching machines far more knowledgeable than any human being. Most learning will take place in the home
via video conferencing. Children will still go to school (11)______, until another place is created where they can make friends
and develop social skills.

What can we do to (12)______ the threat of unemployment? We shouldn't hide our heads in the sand. Unions will try
to stop change but they will be fighting a losing battle. People should get computer literate as this just might save them
(13)______ professional extinction. After all, there will be a few jobs (14)______ in law, education and medicine for those
few individuals who are capable of writing and programming the software of the future. (15)______, there will still be jobs
like rubbish collection and cleaning as it is tough to program tasks which are largely unpredictable.

1. A. goes into B. goes by C. passes by D. passes off

2. A. put down B. take down C. make down D. slow down

3. A. due to B. doomed to C. limited to D. bound to

4. A. already B. so far C. otherwise D. previously

5. A. but B. or C. and D. so

6. A. because B. so that C. that D. such that

7. A. which B. what C. where D. that

8. A. likely B. alike C. unlikely D. unlike

9. A. Instead of B. Because of C. As well as D. Despite

10. A. replaced B. controlled C. influenced D. taken

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11. A. so B. too C. though D. either

12. A. avoid B. evade C. invade D. devoid

13. A. of B. from C. for D. in

14. A. left B. leaving C. to be left D. which leave

15. A. In addition B. Specifically C. Strangely enough D. Unfortunately

Your answers:

1. 4. 7. 10. 13.

2. 5. 8. 11. 14.

3. 6. 9. 12. 15.

Part 2: Fill in the gap with ONE suitable word. Write the words in the box given.

PEER PRESSURE

One of the strongest influences on children today (16) ______ that of their peers. What their classmates think, how they
dress and how they act in class and out of it (17) ________ the behavior of nearly every child at school. In their efforts not to
be different, some children go so far as to hide their intelligence and ability in case they are made ( 18)_________ of.
Generally, children do not want to stand (19) _______ from the crowd. They want to fit in, to be accepted. In psychological
terms, the importance of (20)_________ pressure cannot be over emphasized. There is a lot of evidence that it has great
bearing on all aspects of children's lives, (21) ________ the clothes they wear, the music they listen to and their attitude to
study to their ambitions in life, their relationships and their sense. However, as children grow up into adolescents,
individuality becomes more acceptable, desirable (22)________, and in their search for their (23) _______ personal style, the
teenager and (24) _______ adult will begin to experiment and be more willing to run the the risk of rejection by the group.
Concern about intellectual prowess and achieving good exam results can dominate ( 25) ________the atmosphere of
competition develops and worries about the future override any fears of appearing too brainy.

Your answers:

16. 18. 20. 22. 24.

17. 19. 21. 23. 25.

Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the the correct answer to each of the questions. Write the correct
answer (A, B, C or D) in the box given.

The first two decades of this century were dominated by the microbe hunters. These hunters had tracked down one after
another of the microbe responsible for the most dreaded scourges of many centuries: tuberculosis, cholera, diphtheria. But
there remained some terrible diseases for which no microbe could be incriminated: scurvy, pellagra, rickets, and
beriberi. Then it was discovered that these diseases were caused by the lack of vitamins, a trace substance in the diet. The
diseases could be prevented or cured by consuming foods that contained the vitamins. And so in the decades of the
1920’s and 1930’s, nutrition became a science and the vitamin hunters replaced the microbe hunters. In the 1940’s and 1950’s,
biochemists strived to learn why each of the vitamins was essential for health. They discovered that key enzymes in
metabolism depend on one or another of the vitamins as coenzymes to perform the chemistry that provides cells with energy
for growth and function. Now, these enzyme hunters occupied center stage.

You are aware that the enzyme hunters have been replaced by a new breed of hunters who are tracking genes – the blueprints
for each of the enzymes – and are discovering the defective genes that cause inherited diseases – diabetes, cystic fibrosis.
These gene hunters, or genetic engineers, use recombinant DNA technology to identify and clone genes and introduce
them into bacterial cells and plants to create factories for the massive production of hormones and vaccines for medicine and
for better crops for agriculture. Biotechnology has become a multibillion-dollar industry.

In view of the inexorable progress in science, we can expect that the gene hunters will be replaced in the spotlight.
When and by whom? Which kind of hunter will dominate the scene in the last decade of our waning century and in the early
decades of the next? I wonder whether the hunters who will occupy the spotlight will be neurobiologists who apply the
techniques of the enzyme and gene hunters to the functions of the brain. What to call them? The head hunters. I will return to
them later.

26. What is the main topic of the passage?

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A. The microbe hunters B. The potential of genetic engineering

C. The progress of modern medical research D. The discovery of enzymes

27. The word “which” in bold refers to A. diseases B. microbe C. cholera D. diphtheria

28. The word “incriminated” in bold is closest in meaning to A. investigated B. blamed C.eliminated D. produced

29. Which of the following can be cured by a change in diet?

A. Tuberculosis B. Cholera C. Cystic fibrosis D. Pellagra

30. The word “strived” in bold is closest in meaning to A. failed B. tried C. experimented D. studied

31. How do vitamins influence health?

A. They are necessary for some enzymes to function B. They protect the body from microbes

C. They keep food from spoiling D. They are broken down by cells to produce energy

32. In the third paragraph, the author compares cells that have been genetically altered by biotechnicians to

A. gardens B. factories C. hunters D. spotlights

33. The word “them” in bold refers to A. cells and plants B. hormones C. genes D. gene hunters or genetic engineers

34. The phrase “occupy the spotlight” in bold is closest in meaning to

A. receive the most attention B. go the furthestC. conquer territory D. lighten the load

35. The author implies that the most important medical research topic of the future will be

A. the functions of the brain B. inherited diseases C. the operation of vitamins D. the structure of genes

Your answers:

26. 28. 30. 32. 34.

27. 29. 31. 33. 35.

Part 4: Read the following passage and answer the questions from 36 to 50.

MY LINE OF WORK

Four people talk about their jobs.

A. Lisa – Exhibition Programmes Organiser, Science Museum

I'm responsible for putting temporary exhibitions together. This includes planning and designing the exhibition and
promoting it. I have to read up about the subject of the exhibition beforehand and then talk to important people in the area so
that I can establish the main themes and aims of the exhibition, and plan what objects and pictures should be displayed. I
have to make sure the public can understand the thinking behind the exhibition, which means planning interactive displays,
workshops and theatre. I also have to bring in engineers and electricians to make sure the final display is not dangerous to
visitors. Before the exhibition opens, I help design and write the brochures and leaflets that we'll use to tell people about it.

B. Janet – Teacher of London Taxi Drivers

The first thing I do when I get here at 7.30 a.m. is check the accounts. Then I see what new maps and documents need to be
produced in order to learn the 'runs' or routes necessary to pass the London taxi-driver test. By midday, about 50 students are
in school, working out how to make the journeys. They work out the most direct route, using the correct one-way streets, and
right- and left-hand turns. I get involved when there's a difference of opinion -like whether you can do a right turn at a
particular junction. When they're close to the test, I'll give them a simple route and no matter what way they say they'll go, I'll
tell them they have to use another route because the road is closed. The next student will have to find a third route and again
I'll come up with a reason why they can't go that way. It's just to make them think.

C. Sarah – Marine Conservationist

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I live by the coast and work from home. This involves responding to telephone enquiries, producing educational resources and
setting up training courses. Occasionally, I go into our main office but generally I am on the coast. I also work with schools
and study centres and run courses for coastal managers and those involved in making decisions about the fate of the seas. I do
things like take them out to sea in a boat in an attempt to make them think more about the life underneath them. This often
changes their views as it's very different from making decisions using a computer screen. I am extremely lucky because
conservation is my hobby, so the job has many highs for me. The downside of the job is that I work for a charity, so there is a
constant need for more money. This means I'm always looking for more resources and I'm not able to achieve everything I
want.

D. Chris – Map and Atlas Publisher

My work is pretty varied. I have to make sure that the publishing programme matches market requirements, and ensure that we
keep stocks of 300 or so of the books that we publish. We have very high standards of information and content. We receive
many letters from readers on issues such as the representation of international boundaries and these in particular require a
careful response. I discuss future projects and current sales with co-publishers. I work as part of an enthusiastic group which
makes the job that much more enjoyable. The negative side, as with many jobs, is that there is far too much administration to
deal with, which leaves less time to work on the more interesting tasks such as product development and design

Which person says their job involves

A. Lisa B. Janet C. Sarah D. Chris

36. large amounts of paperwork? 36. ___________

37. training high-level staff in their area of work? 37. ___________

38. taking measures to protect public safety? 38. ___________

39. accepting certain financial limitations? 39. ___________

40. encouraging visitor participation? 40. ___________

41. listening to disagreements? 41. ___________

42. doing considerable background research? 42. ___________

43. introducing problems that require solutions? 43. ___________

44. balancing supply and demand? 44. ___________

45. producing advertising literature? 45. ___________

46. organising trips designed to increase people's awareness? 46. ___________

47. constant updating of their own materials? 47. ___________

48. corresponding with the public? 48. ___________

49. working in an area that has personal meaning for them? 49. ___________

50. working with a team of colleagues? 50. ___________

Part 5: Read the following passage and answer the questions from 51 to 60.

HOW DOES THE BIOLOGICAL CLOCK TICK?

A. Our life span is restricted. Everyone accepts this as 'biologically' obvious. ‘Nothing lives for ever!’ However, in this
statement we think of artificially produced, technical objects, products which are subjected to natural wear and tear during use.
This leads to the result that at some time or other the object stops working and is unusable ('death' in the biological sense). But
are the wear and tear and loss of function of technical objects and the death of living organisms really similar or comparable?

B. Our ‘dead’ products are ‘static’, closed systems. It is always the basic material which constitutes the object and which, in
the natural course of things, is worn down and becomes 'older’. Ageing in this case must occur according to the laws of
physical chemistry and of thermodynamics. Although the same law holds for a living organism, the result of this law is not
inexorable in the same way. At least as long as a biological system has the ability to renew itself it could actually become older
without ageing; an organism is an open, dynamic system through which new material continuously flows. Destruction of old
material and formation of new material are thus in permanent dynamic equilibrium. The material of which the organism is
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formed changes continuously. Thus our bodies continuously exchange old substance for new, just like a spring which more or
less maintains its form and movement, but in which the water molecules are always different.

C. Thus ageing and death should not be seen as inevitable, particularly as the organism possesses many mechanisms for repair.
It is not, in principle, necessary for a biological system to age and die. Nevertheless, a restricted life span, ageing, and then
death are basic characteristics of life. The reason for this is easy to recognise: in nature, the existent organisms either adapt or
are regularly replaced by new types. Because of changes in the genetic material (mutations) these have new characteristics and
in the course of their individual lives they are tested for optimal or better adaptation to the environmental conditions.
Immortality would disturb this system - it needs room for new and better life. This is the basic problem of evolution

D. Every organism has a life span which is highly characteristic. There are striking differences in life span between different
species, but within one species the parameter is relatively constant. For example, the average duration of human life has hardly
changed in thousands of years. Although more and more people attain an advanced age as a result of developments in medical
care and better nutrition, the characteristic upper limit for most remains 80 years. A further argument against the simple wear
and tear theory is the observation that the time within which organisms age lies between a few days (even a few hours for
unicellular organisms) and several thousand years, as with mammoth trees.

E. If a lifespan is a genetically determined biological characteristic, it is logically necessary to propose the existence of an
internal clock, which in some way measures and controls the aging process and which finally determines death as the last step
in a fixed programme. Like the fife span, the metabolic rate has for different organisms a fixed mathematical relationship to
the body mass. In comparison to the life span this relationship is ‘inverted’: the larger the organism the lower its metabolic
rate. Again this relationship is valid not only for birds, but also, similarly on average within the systematic unit, for all other
organisms (plants, animals, unicellular organisms).

F. Animals which behave ‘frugally’ with energy become particularly old for example, crocodiles and tortoises. Parrots and
birds of prey are often held chained up. Thus they are not able to ‘experience life’ and so they attain a high life span in
captivity. Animals which save energy by hibernation or lethargy (e.g. bats or hedgehogs) live much longer than those which
are always active, The metabolic rate of mice can be reduced by a very low consumption of food (hunger diet) They then may
live twice as long as their well fed comrades. Women become distinctly (about 10 per cent) older than men. If you examine the
metabolic rates of the two sexes you establish that the higher male metabolic rate roughly accounts for the lower male life
span. That means that they live life ‘energetically’ - more intensively, but not for as long.

G. It follows from the above that sparing use of energy reserves should tend to extend life. Extreme high performance sports
may lead to optimal cardiovascular performance, but they quite certainly do not prolong life. Relaxation lowers metabolic rate,
as does adequate sleep and in general an equable and balanced personality. Each of us can develop his or her own ‘energy
saving programme’ with a little self observation, critical self-control and, above all, logical consistency. Experience will show
that to live in this way not only increases the life span but is also very healthy. This final aspect should not be forgotten.

The reading passage has seven paragraphs, A-G,

For question 51-56, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number, i-x, in the corresponding numbered boxes.

LIST OF HEADINGS

i The biological clock

ii Why dying is beneficial

iii The ageing process of men and women

iv Prolonging your life

v Limitations of life span

vi Modes of development of different species

vii A stable life span despite improvements

viii Energy consumption

ix Fundamental differences in ageing of objects and organisms

x Repair of genetic material

Example answer: Paragraph A: v

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Your answers

51. Paragraph B …............. 53. Paragraph D …............. 55. Paragraph F ….............

52. Paragraph C …............. 54. Paragraph E …............. 56. Paragraph G ….............

Questions 57 - 60
Read the passage again and write:
YES if the statement agrees with the writer
NO if the statement does not agree with the writer
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about this in the passage
0. Everyone accepts our estricted life span as 'biologically' obvious. ______YES______

57. Objects age in accordance with principles of physical chemistry and of thermodynamics. ______________

58. Through mutations, organisms can adapt better to the environment. ________________

59. Immortality would not pose a serious problem for the theory of evolution. ________________

60. Humans live longer than other species thanks to developments in medical care and better ________________
nutrition.

SECTION D – WRITING

Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one.

1. “Nothing will persuade me to sleep in that haunted house,” she said.

She flatly ……………………………………………………………………………………………
2. I rarely sleep in the afternoon.
I’m not in ……………………………………………………………………………………………
3. No sooner had the witness begun to speak than the judge interrupted her.
The minute ……………………………………………………………………………………….....
4. When she got to the party, everyone was dancing and singing.

On. ……………………………………………………………………………………………........

5. I don't mind which make of car you choose.

It is of …………………………………………………………………….....................................
Part 2: Your friend lent you one of his/her favorite books but you lost it . Write a letter ( about 80-100 words) to apologize
and say why you lost it and what you would do to compensate for it. Use your name and address as Nguyen Van Nam, 100-
Nguyen Thi Minh Khai, Vinh, Nghe An.

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Part 3: With the development of modern technology, robots have gradually replaced people’s labour power. In about
350 words Discuss the advantages and disadvantages and give your own opinion

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ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

SECTION A – LISTENING

Part 1. (2pt x 10 Qs)

 Ôn thi HSg Tỉnh
I. LISTENING (20pts)

Part 1. (10pts; 1pt/ each correct answer)

1. decade 6. harmful

2. long-term 7. traps heat

3. 100/ hundred/ one hundred 8. growing season

4. minor explosions 9. water shortages

5. 2005 to 2010/ 2005-2010 10. (completely) unavailable

Part 2. (10pts; 1pt/ each correct answer)

11. In 2/two weeks 12. one month 13. B 14. B 15. D

16. A 17. No 18. ₤90 19. Yes 20. Optimistic

SECTION B – VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR

Part 1. (1pt x 10 Qs)

1. C 3.D 5. D 7.C 9. A

2. C 4.A 6. B 8. A 10. B

Part 2. (1pt x 10 Qs)

Line Mistake Correction Line Mistake Correction

11. 2 It is Is it 16. 7 mean means

12. 2 As though though 17. 7 that as

13. 4 term terms 18. 8 fortunately unfortunately

14. 4 regard regardless 19. 9 constantly constant

15. 5 which In which 20. 11 understand understanding

SECTION C – READING

Part1. (1pt x 15 Qs)

1. B 4. D 7. C 10. A 13. B

2. D 5. A 8. C 11. C 14. A

3. D 6. B 9. A 12. A 15. C

Part 2. (1pt x 10 Qs)

16. is 18. fun 20. peer 22. even 24. young

 Ôn thi HSg Tỉnh
17. affect 19. out 21. from 23. own 25. as/when

Part 3. (2pts x 10 Qs)

26. C 28. B 30. B 32. B 34. A

27. A 29. D 31. A 33. C 35. A

Part 4. (1pt x 15 Qs)

36. D 39. C 42. A 45. A 48. D

37. C 40. A 43. B 46. C 49. C

38. A 41. B 44. D 47. B 50. D

Part 5. (1pt x 10 Qs)

51. Paragraph B …. ix............ 53. Paragraph D…....vii......... 55. Paragraph F …... viii........

52. Paragraph C ….... ii......... 54. Paragraph E ….... i....... 56. Paragraph G ….... iv.......

57. YES 58. YES 59. NO 60. NOT GIVEN

SECTION D – WRITING

Part 1(10 pts)

1. She flatly refused to sleep in that haunted house.
2. I’m not in the habit of sleeping in the afternoon.
3. The minute the witness began to speak, the judge interrupted her.
4. On her arrival at the party, everyone was dancing and singing.
5. It is of no / little consequence + to me which / what make of car you choose.
Part 2 (20 pts)
Length (1pt): 80 – 100 words
Ideas (10 pts):
- Opening
- A fuller expression of apology.
- Closing
Organization and Style (2pts): informal
Vocabulary and grammar (7pts)
Part 3: (30 pts)
1. Length: (2pts) : about 350 words.
2. Organization & style: (3pts) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the
level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
3. Ideas (15 pts): a provision of main ideas and appropriate details and examples.
4. Grammar and Vocabulary (10pts) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English
language gifted upper-secondary school students.