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OZIMED~
GAMSAT PRACTICE TEST 1
Copyright © 2007 www.ozimed.com
Rev 3.05
SECTION I - REASONING IN HUMANITIES
AND SOCIAL SCIENCES
SECTION Ii - WRITTEN COMMUNICATION
SECTION Ill - REASONING IN BIOLOGICAL
AND PHYSICAL SCIENCES
GAMSAT is the Graduate Australian Medical Schools Admission Test.
OZIMED is a trademark of www.ozimed.com.SECTION! 49
50
ABCD
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ANSWER GRID
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SECTION Ill
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0000OZIMED™
GAMSAT PRACTICE TEST 1
SECTION I - REASONING IN HUMANITIES
AND SOCIAL SCIENCES
75 QUESTIONS
TIME LIMIT: 100 MINUTES
Copyright © 2007 www.ozimed.com
Rev 3.05
Instructions :
BEFORE STARTING: Tear off the answer grid.
Write your answers on this grid.
For this section, you have 10 minutes perusal time.
You may NOT make notes on the question paper during that time.
You may NOT make any mark on the answer sheet during perusal
At the end of ten minutes, start the exam. Mark your answers in the ANSWER GRID.
You have exactly 100 minutes (not including perusal time) to complete this section of the exam,
GAMSAT is the Graduate Australian Medical Schools Admission Test
OZIMED is a trademark of www.ozimed.com.UNIT 1
Questions 1 -7
Cartooning
There are certain organisations that handle all the
complicated details involved in the production and
distribution of cartoons, When a cartoon strip is
very popular, like Peanuts or Blondie, it may
appear in over a thousand newspapers all around
the world. The companies that take care of all this
arranging and keeping track are called syndicates.
‘They represent cartoonists and protect their legal
rights. They arrange schedules and make sure the
cartoons get to the right place at the right time.
‘Another very important thing they do is produce
and sell all the side products of the cartoon. The
syndicates will publish a collection of the cartoons
in book or magazine form. They will arrange for
the production of toys or shirts or posters that
show the cartoon’s characters. You can walk into
many toy stores and buy a small statue or toy
figure of Snoopy or Mickey Mouse or Superman
and quite a few other characters who first saw the
light of day in a daily comic strip. All this sort of
thing is handled by syndicates,
For cartoonists trying to get a start, the first and
most urgent task is to find a syndicate that will
take them on. Once the cartoonist is represented
by a syndicate, the job of sales and promotion is
in the hands of specialists, and the cartoonist’s
career is off to a good start.
Most cartoonists do all the writing and drawing
themselves. Others work as part of a team. One
person may be the writer and another will draw
the pictures. This is the usual case with comic
books that are published. frequently and have
many pages. The team can, in fact, be fairly large.
There will be an editor or general supervisor, the
writer, and one or two people who do the
drawings in pencil. Then there will be someone to
ink in the peneil drawings, a letterer, someone to
take care of the colour, and one or two more
people who deal with all the other odds and ends.
When a cartoonist dies or retires a comic strip is
sometimes abandoned if the drawing and writing
are so distinctive that nobody else is able to carry
it on. But in many cases the strip is taken over by
another cartoonist. If the readers are so attached to
fa strip that they demand it continue, the syndicate
will find somebody to take it over. Sometimes
several people work on a comic strip over a period
of years. This happened
Blondie, and many others. Little Orphan Annie§
for example, has been in existence since 1924, and
during that time many different people have
worked on it. It is still going stro: much the
same characters and much the same drawing style.
1. When cartoonists are taken on by a syndicate
A. They will be able to concentrate on
drawing,
B. Their incomes will rise.
fey
They will be better cartoonists.
D. Their work will be promoted more
widely
ry
Which of the following is the main task of a
syndicate?
A. Publishing.
B. Marketing.
C. Artistic control
D. Encouragement.
3. The phrase "characters who first saw the light
of day in a daily comic strip" refers to the first
time these characters were
A. Conceived.
B. Published.
Marketed.
D. Revealed.
°
4, The information presented in the third
paragraph is designed to
‘A. Illustrate why syndicates like dealing
with teams.
B. Show the relationship between the team
members.
C. Explain why working with a team is,
effective
D. Give an example of the composition of a
team.
Test 1 -Page2
Copyright © 2007 www.ozimed.com‘The person who has the job of supervising the
team is the
A. Writer.
B. Editor
C. Letterer
D. Cartoonist
6. A popular comic strip may he abandoned on
the cartoonist’s death
A. Ino other cartoonist can copy the style.
B. Because cartoons have a limited
production span.
C. If the cartoonist has left no plans for
future strips.
D. Because cartoons die with the cartoonist.
7. Which of the following would be another
appropriate title for this passage?
A. Selling your cartoons.
B. Howto be aricher
C. How to be a better cartoonist.
D. The cartoon business.
UNIT 2
Questions 8 - 13
Driving to Work in 1922
Babbitt fell into a great silence and devoted
himself to the game of beating tramway cars to
the comer: a spurt, a tail-chase, nervous speeding
between the huge yellow side of the tram and the
jagged row of parked motors, shooting past as the
tram stopped - a rare game and valiant.
And all the while he was aware of the loveliness
of Zenith. For weeks together he had noticed
nothing but clients and the vexing To Let signs of
vival agents. Today, in a mysterious way, the light
so enchanted him that he lifted his head
admired each district along his familiar route
he office. The bungalows and shrubs and
irregular drives of Floral Heights. ‘The
one-storey shops in Smith Street, a glare of plate-
glass and new yellow brick; groceries and
Jaundries and chemist shops to supply the more
immediate needs of East Side housewives. The
market gardens in Dutch Hollow, their shanties
patched with comugated iron and stolen doors.
Billboards with crimson goddesses nine fect tall
advertising cinema films, pipe tobacco, and
talcum powder. The old ‘mansions’ along Ninth
Street, like aged dandies in filthy linen; wooden
castles turned into boarding houses, with muddy
walks and rusty hedges, jostled by fast-intruding
garages, cheap blocks of flats, and fruit-stands
conducted by bland, sleek vendors. Across the
belt of railway lines, factories with high-perched
water tanks and tall stacks - factories producing
condensed milk, paper boxes, lighting fixtures,
motor cars. Then the business centre, the
thickening darting traffic, the crammed trams
unloading, and high doorways of marble and
polished granite.
It was big - and Babbitt respected bigness in
anything: in mountains, jewels, muscles, wealth,
or words. He was, for a. spring-enchanted
moment, the lyric and almost unselfish lover of
Zenith. He thought of the outlying factory
suburbs; of the Chaloosa River with its strangely
eroded banks; of the orchard-dappled Tonawanda
Hills to the north, and alll the fat dairy land and big
bams and comfortable herds. As he dropped his
passenger he cried, "Gosh, I feel pretty good this
morning!”
8. On this moming, Babbitt felt
A, Suddenly free of commitments.
B. _ Invigorated by the beautiful day.
C. Interested in leaming more about Zenith,
D. Depressed by the amount of work he had
to do.
9. The last district that Babbitt described before
he reached the business centre was a
A. Dairying district.
B. Residential district.
C. Factory district.
D.
Fruit-growing district.
Copyright © 2007 www.ozimed.com
Test 1-Page310. Babbitt's description of the ‘mansions’
along Ninth Strect implies that they were once
A. Attractive and are now run-down.
B, Occupied and are now empty.
C. Popular and are now ignored.
D. Isolated and are now hemmed- in.
11, ‘The entrances to buildings in the business
centre of Zenith were designed to look
A. _ Intricate.
Obtrusive.
Practical.
pos
Impressive
12. Babbitt's description of his drive to work
introduces the reader to a city which is
A. Unhurried.
B. Orderly.
C. Sprawling
D. Ancient.
13. Which of the following is likely to have
the greatest impression on Babbitt? A person's
‘A. Outward appearance of wealth and
success
B. Educational qualifications
C. Appreciation of the beauty and diversity
of Zenith
D. Ability to conduct business fairly
UNIT 3
Questions 14-19
What can we do about Unplain English?
Compared with many foreign tongues, English is
not an especially difficult language. Yet many
people find it remarkably hard to say what they
mean in a straight-forward way. Even
governments sometimes fail to communicate. The
application for the Seniors Card in one Australian
State — a useful official initiative for residents
aged 60 years or over contained this classic
ambiguity
Tam not in the full-
me workforce Yes
Should the correct answer for a retired perso
have been Yes, [am not in the full-time workforce
‘Are you in customer-oriented mode
or focused on personal recreation?"
The American State of Pennsylvania has a ‘plain
English’ law for its own statutes. This requires an
average word length of less than 1.55 syllables
and an average paragraph length of less than 75
words. No sentence may exceed 50 words and no
paragraph may be longer than 150 words. The
attempt to force style by legislation, while no
doubt well-intentioned, seems naive in the
extreme. Style is not a matter of mathematics
there is no such thing as an ‘ideal’ size for a word,
a sentence or a paragraph.
More often, the problem lies in the use of stilted
or pretentious words, slang, jargon, worn clichés,
archaic terms, mixed metaphors, tautological
expressions and acronyms which are meaningless
to their readers.
Many people believe that the answer lies in
teaching people to write plainly. Certainly the
Seniors Card application form’ breaks a basic
postulate of plain writing - that questions
containing negatives are almost _ invariably
ambiguous. But would re-education help with any
of the following?
Test 1-Page4
Copyright © 2007 www.czimed.comhrough focusing on the company's objectives,
Critical Success Factors (CSFs) and risk profile
we can determine an optimal auiv/review
approach and resources requirements and skills
to ensure maximum value is realised from the
function.
Letter from a leading firm of accountants to a
client
the cost savings achieved through close
cluttering due to the nature of the products; for
=cxample, whether they are specialised products
with a high information content, the nature of
agglomeration economies and whether existing or
potential externalities exist through common use
of indivisible factor outputs,
Report of a Task force on Employment and
Unemployment
‘This is no laughing matter. All the above are
quite genuine extracts from local material created
with a serious intent. All these pieces were written
by people who can be assumed to be intelligent,
and probably capable of making a clear statement
in any situation where a clear statement
required. Why, then, did they produce all this
nonsense?
14. In the article the author's main complaint
is that
A. English is especially difficult to learn.
B. Too many forms contain questions with
negatives,
C. People do not write using straight-
forward language.
D. Some American states are trying to
control English through legislation.
15. According to the author an effective
writing style is one that
A. Can be successfully legislated
B. _ Isaresult of a good education.
C. Requires a retumn to plain English,
D. Should be a matter of mathematics,
16. The author would agree that the ideal
length of a paragraph should be
A. Determined by legislation.
B. Approximately 50 words.
C. Fewer than 150 words.
D. Decided by the writer.
17. The phrase "a basic postulate" is closest in
meaning to
A. Asimple claim.
B. A guide for writing forms
C. A controversial regulation.
D. A fundamental condition.
18. The caption beneath the cartoon is
intended to
A. Make fun of people who feel they are
superior.
B. Illustrate how 'unplain' English fails to
communicate.
C. Test the understanding of those who read
the article.
D. Bean example of the language used by
the well educated.
19. The author of this article would agree with
the statement that
A. There is a need for a re-education
program amongst professional writers.
B. In an attempt to be impressive, writers
often fail to communicate effectively.
C. Writers should be trained in the effective
use of paragraph and sentence length.
D. Archaic terms and tautological
expressions are the greatest cause of
ambiguity in texts
Copyright © 2007 www.ozimed.com
Test i -Page 5UNIT 4 Total Official Aid as %
fon of Donors’ GNP
Questions 20 - 25 2
aor |
ODA as % of GNP oa}
Norway | | 020% |
Denmark
‘Sweden | 0.15% |
Netherlands Ohne
France 0.10%
tannga |= CORCOES)
Luxembourg osx: Keay ead Ce]
Switeetend | : pe es
Australia| 222 | x 0.0%
Portugal |= :
Germany | | |g} | single recipient (over $3 billion in 1993), followed
haces | by Egypt ($2.3 billion), Indonesia ($2.0 billion)
Finland | e and India ($1.5 billion). Israel too is a major
Britain | Zz recipient ($1.2 billion). Rich donors have major
strategic interests in all of these countries which
either have large populations like China, India and
Indonesia or, like Israel, are wealthy - so aid is a
Mew Zealand | much less significant part of their total income.
ae ic
0.0% 02% OA 06% 0.8% 1.0% 12% The graph "Moving Target" shows how aid has
shifted away from spending on health and
150%- Aid Receipts as % GNP ¢ education - the core tasks of poverty reduction -
eo & towards debt relief and emergencies. In fact,
2
ss MOVING TARGET
Aton 2 ‘Trends in the distribution of
§ aid between sectors
2 cd
GB 1987-1989
(11993
90%
60%
30%|
Rwanda and Mozambique received more aid in
1994 than their total income from all other
sources. All the countries listed here receive so
much foreign aid as a proportion of their income
that they are "dependent" - without aid their &
economies would collapse. China is the largest a
Test 1-Page6 Copyright © 2007 www.ozimed.comwverall, considerably more than half is not aid at
all, but returns to the donors in interest payments
and purchases of goods and services
ODA Overseas Development Assistance, or “official”
government aid, which must come from governments,
be intended for development purposes and be in the
form of grants rather than commercial loans.
DAC Development Assistance Committee of the
OECD
GNP Gross National Product - A calculation of total
ational income, including money from abroad.
OECD Organisation for Economic Cooperation and
Development - The "club" of rich nations.
NGOs Non-Government Organisations.
20. Which of the following groups of
countries met the UN target for aid in 1994?
A. US, Spain, Canada and Austria
B. Japan, US, Germany and France
©! Norway, Denmark, Sweden and the
Netherlands
D. Switzerland, the Netherlands, Norway
and Britain
21. In 1993, the country that received the most
aid was
A. India,
B. Rwanda,
C. China.
D. Mozambique.
22. One thing that Congo, Haiti and Tanzania
have in common is that in 1994
A. Their economies collapsed
B. Their economies would not withstand the
withdrawal of aid.
C. They all experienced civil wars.
D. They provided substantial amounts of aid
to other countries.
23. Since 1986, the total official aid as a
percentage of donor's GNP has
A. Increased considerably
B. Remained constant
C. Declined steadily
D. Fluctuated wildly
24, According to the graph Moving Target,
which of the following statements about aid is
TRUE?
A. Mote aid was given in education related
funding than in health related funding,
B, Between 1987 and 1989 the greatest
emphasis was on providing aid in the
form of transport and communication.
C. There were more emergencies in poorer
countries in 1993 than there were
between 1987 and 1989.
D. Poorer nations have failed to establish an
effective education system.
25. You could conclude from the information
that
A.A majority of countries in the world give
aid.
B, Japan gave more than 0.5% of its GNP in
ODA in 1994,
Poorer countries place a high emphasis
on agriculture,
D. In 1994 Belgium gave less than 0.5% of
its GNP in ODA.
a
UNIT 5
Questions 26 - 34
Julius Caesar
Irony is frequently used in literature as a tool to
achieve dramatic impact. This is well illustrated
by Mark Antony's speech after the death of Caesar
in the play Julius Caesar by William Shakespeare.
Caesar was murdered by a small group of
Senators who considered him too ambitious. One
member of this group was Brutus, a man who was
generally considered trustworthy and of high
integrity,
Antony:
Friends, Romans, countrymen, lend me your ears;
Tcome to bury Caesar, not to praise him.
‘The evil that men do lives after them;
The good is oft interred with their bones;
So let it be with Caesar, The noble Brutus
Hath told you Caesar was ambitious:
If it were 0, it was a grievous fault;
Copyright © 2007 www.ozimed.com
Test 1-Page7‘And grievously hath Caesar answer'd it
Here, under leave of Brutus and the rest,
For Brutus is an honourable man;
So are they all, all honourable men,
Come I to speak in Caesar's funeral
He was my friend, faithful and just to me:
But Brutus says he was ambitious;
‘And Brutus is an honourable man.
He hath brought many captives home to Rome,
Whose ransoms did the general coffers fill:
Did this in Caesar seem ambitious?
When that the poor have cried, Caesar hath wept:
Ambition should be made of sterner stuff;
Yet Brutus says he was ambitious;
‘And Brutus is an honourable man.
You all did see that on the Lupercal
1 thrice presented him a kingly crown,
‘Which he did thrice refuse: was this ambition?
‘Yet Brutus says he was ambitious,
‘And, sure, he is an honourable man.
I speak not to disprove what Brutus spoke,
But here T am to speak what I do know.
You all did love him once, - not without cause
What cause withholds you, then, to mourn for
him? O judgment, thou art fled to brutish beasts,
‘And men have lost their reason! - Bear with me:
My heart is in the coffin there with Caesar,
‘And J must pause till it come back to me.
26. Prior to Mark Antony's speech Brutus and
‘a group of Senators had killed Caesar. In the
context of the passage, “Brutus is an
honourable man” represents Antony’s
‘A. attempt to curry favour with Brutus and
the other Senators.
B. disbelief that such a good man as Brutus
could have murdered Caesar,
C. use of irony in damning Brutus with faint
praise
D. _ indecision as to whether Brutus has done
the right thing in killing Caesar.
27. According to the passe
‘A. Caesar brought massive revenues to the
Roman Treasury by ransoming captives.
B. Caesar was crowned king on the
Lupercal.
C. The good that men do lives after them.
D. Brutus admitted that he himself was
ambitious.
28. It may be reasonable to infer from the
passage that
A. Shakespeare paraphrased this speech
from more ancient sources.
B. Caesar was an important Emperor of
Rome.
Brutus killed Caesar hoping to succeed
him as Emperor,
D. Antony was an important supporter and
friend of Julius Caesar.
29. Which of the following best expresses the
main idea of the passage?
‘A. Caesar was ambitious and that is the evil
that will live after bim, even though
Antony moums him as a friend.
B. Both Brutus and Caesar had right on their
side and we can only moum the outcome.
C. Brutus and his fellow conspirators were
acting honourably but were misguided
and we should mourn Caesar's loss as a
tragedy.
Caesar was a great man, murdered by
jealous, petty men and all should mourn
for him as Antony does.
30. The overall point made by Shakespeare's
use of the phrase “Lend me your ears”
‘A. Is that Antony wants them to listen very
carefully to him.
B, Is that Antony is deaf to the arguments of
Caesar's opponents.
C. Is that Antony will cut off the ears of
anyone who doesn’t listen to him,
D. _ Ts that the crowd is deaf now they have
lost the oratory of Caesar.
31. The main purpose of the passage is to
A. Provide a platform for Mark Antony’s
‘own ambitions.
1B, Allow Antony (o praise Caesar without
offending Brutus
Test 1-Page8
Copyright © 2007 wwww.ozimed.com33,
Show Antony’s love for Caesar.
Praise Caesar and damn his murderers.
Which of the following quotes from the
age is not an example of irony:
The noble Brutus”
“Ambition should be made of sterner
stuff?”
“My heart is in the coffin there with
Caesar”
‘And grievously hath Caesar answered
=
In the context of the passage, “brutish
beasts” represents:
A.
B.
c:
D.
34,
All who do not mourn for Caesar.
All humanity
Brutus and the Senators who killed
Caesar.
All of the above
Which of the following conclusions could
be challenged?
A.
B.
ce}
Dd.
Antony is grief stricken over Caesar's
murder.
Antony is a magnificent orator.
Brutus is a brutish, ignoble,
dishonourable man.
Caesar had accomplished many great
things.
UNIT 6
Question 35
"Thate 10 leave him - he was developing into a
useful leg-spinner."
35.
The cartoon suggests that
Cricket-lovers are fanatical about their
sport.
Apes are capable of many skilled tasks.
People will form bonds and play games
in any social situation,
‘The British exported cricket to many
countries.
Copyright © 2007 www.ozimed.com
Test 4-Page 9UNIT 7
Questions 36 - 42
‘The Meeting
Interior. Hotel Albion, Brighton 1940. A large table in
«@ bay window. A German air raid is in progress and
bombing can be heard fairly close. Churchill, the
British Prime Minister, is with Montgomery, who is
fifty-three, but looks younger, foxy, and over-confident.
Unlike any other general, Montgomery wears ordinary
hatiledress. His forceful, nasal delivery and inability
10 pronounce the letter 'R’ accentuate his oddness.
Churchill is tucking into a huge luncheon with great
relish. It fills his half of the large table. In contrast,
Montgomery is picking at the odd bit of cracker
biscuit
MONTGOMERY (very earnest) What I most
need, Prime Minister, is double-decker buses.
Werte the only fully operational division in the
whole of England, ready to meet the Hun, But
some fool in the War Office has made us
immobile!
CHURCHILL
MONTGOMERY We should be given buses,
and held in strategic reserve for counter-attack.
CHURCHILL Shock tactics, eh?
MONTGOMERY I've got tip-top troops, 100
per cent fit. They run ten miles each day, every
‘man jack of them, Women are not allowed, and
alcohol strictly discouraged
I know.
CHURCHILL I believe you make your
senior officers run too?
MONTGOMERY | do, sir. One of my
fadiers had a heart attack because of it. I said.
jolly good,
CHURCHILL You did?
MONTGOM!I Better to find the weak
links now, I said, than when the Hun's at your
throat.
CHURCHILL, Hrumph, You're not
drinking General?
MONTGOMERY [neither drink nor smoke,
and I'm 100 per cent fit
CHURCHILL (instantly) Well, L both,
drink and smoke, and I'm 200 per cent fit. (He
opens another bottle a champagne.)
MONTGOMERY __[ hope you're going to kick
some of our useless generals out, Prime Minister.
T could give you five or six examples
CHURCHILL really don't think you
should talk to me like that.
MONTGOMERY Why not? Plain speaking
when alone, can't do any harm, surely? Besides,
they know they're useless,
CHURCHILL How do they know?
MONTGOMERY I tell them. (He munches a
dry biscuit)
CHURCHILL You must be a very popular
man in the British Army, General Montgomery
MONTGOMERY
I don't care about
popularity, I just want to beat the Germans.
36.
In contrast to Churchill, Montgomery is
presented as a man who
A. Abstains from lavish food and wine.
B. Tends to over-indulge.
C. Cannot afford a luxurious life-style.
D. Will spend money only on necessities.
37. It becomes clear in the scene that
Churchill
A, Was an old acquaintance of
Montgomery
B. Has been given information about
Montgomery.
C. Was trying to get rid of Montgomery.
D. Believes that Montgomery is a very
reliable leader.
38. When he suggests that Montgomery is
very popular in the British Army, Churchill is
being
A. Elusive.
B. _ Perceptive.
Cc. ror
D. — Ambivalent
39. Churchill replies quickly to Montgomery's
claim to be "100 per cent fit" in order to
A
Prevent Montgomery from commenting
on his eating habits.
Test 1- Page 10
Copyright © 2007 www.azimed.comAttempt to rein in Montgomery's
fanatical attitude to fitness,
Defend himself against Montgomery's
criticism,
D. Suggest to Montgomery that he should be
40. The beginning of the scene suggests that
Montgomery attended the meeting to persuade
Churchill to
A. Take care of his health,
B. Dismiss some ineffective generals.
C. Overrule a War Office decision.
D.
Agree to fitness training for all troops.
41, Inthe line, "I really don't think you should
talk to me like that", Churchill is attempting to:
A. Protect the other generals from criticism.
B, Make Montgomery understand that he is
speaking inappropriately.
C. Suggest that suitable action has already
been taken.
D. Prevent Montgomery from becoming
more unpopular with his troops.
42. Montgomery could best be described as
A. Excitable and naive.
B. __Insistent and careful
C. Blunt and intolerant.
D. Persuasive and courageous.
UNIT 8
Questions 43 - 48
The Rehearsal
One noon in 1892, a young man stood in front of
the new Gewandhaus in Leipzig, and watched the
neat, grass-laid square, until then white and silent
in the sunshine, grow dark with many figures.
‘The public rehearsal of the weekly concert was
just over, and, from the half light of the warm
coloured hall, which for more than two hours had
held them secluded, some hundreds of people
hastened, with renewed anticipation, towards
sunlight and street sounds. There was a medley of
tongues, for many nationalities were represented
in the crowd that surged through the ground floor
and out of the glass doors, and much noisy ado,
for the majority was made up of young people, at
an age that enjoys the sound of its own voice. In
black diverging lines they poured through the
heavy swinging doors, which flapped ceaselessly
to and fro, never quite closing, always opening
afresh, and on descending the shallow steps they
told off into groups, where all talked at once, with
lively gesticulation. A few faces had the strained
look that indicates a conscientious listener; but
most of these young musicians were under the
influence of a stimulant more potent than wine,
which manifested itself in a nervous garrulity and
a nervous micth,
‘They hummed like bees before a hive. Maurice
Guest, who had come out among the first, lingered
to watch a scene that was new to him, of which he
‘was as yet an onlooker only. Here and there came
a member of the orchestra; with violin-case or
black-swathed wind instrument in hand, he deftly
threaded his way through the throng, bestowing,
as he went, a hasty greeting upon a colleague, a
sweep of the hat upon an obsequious pupil. The
crowd began to disperse and to overflow in the
surrounding streets. Some of the stragglers
loitered to swell the group that was forming round
the back entrance of the building; here the Iank-
haired Belgian violinist would appear, the
wonders of whose technique had sent thrills of
enthusiasm through his hearers, and whose close
proximity would presently affect them in precisely
the same way. Others again made off, not for the
town, with its prosaic suggestion of work and
confinement, but for the freedom of the woods
that lay beyond.
43. Before watching the crowd in the square,
Maurice Guest had been
A. Walking in the town.
Attending the concert rchearsal
Playing in the orchestra.
vos
Talking to musicians in the square.
Copyright © 2007 www. ozimed.com
Test 1-Page 1144, The word in the passage which refers to
the quality of talking excessively is
A. "Medley."
B, "Proximity."
Cc. "Garrulity."
D. — "Gesticulation.”
45, "They hummed like bees before a hive.”
‘The function of this sentence is to
‘A. Suggest the vastness of the square
B, Sum up the aural impressions of the
second paragraph.
C. Hint that the students worked hard for
Jong hours.
D. Reveal Maurice Guest's anxiety about the
sight in front of him.
46. "He defily threaded his way through the
throng". In this quotation, the word "he" refers
to
A music student.
The Belgian violinist.
Maurice Guest.
pope
‘A member of the orchestra.
47. The people who waited for the Belgian
violinist wanted to
A. Study his technique.
B, Catch another glimpse of him.
C. Ask him to play again.
D. _ Follow him to his home.
48. Which of the following best reflects the
narrative technique used by the author? The
author describes a scene
‘A. Using dialogue and unusual images.
B, In Maurice Guest’s own words,
C. Largely through the eyes of the central
character.
D. — Using first person narration,
UNIT 9
Questions 49 - 56
My Childhood
I spent my childhood on the mountain above
Hobart, From the window-seat in our sunroom, 1
would gaze out over a heart-stopping vista of
ranges and peninsulas, broken by a succession of
inlets and fiords, which finally petered out in the
great empty expanse of the Souther Ocean.
Beyond that, a long way beyond, lay the icy
wastes of the Antarctic. It was the most lovely
place for a child to grow. At the top of our steep,
untended garden of rhododendrons, waratah and
pussy willows was a grove of old pine trees where
my father had constructed a precarious tree house
in the upper branches, This was for my brother
and out of bounds to me, but I'd climb up there
anyway, trembling with terror, because up there it
was easy to believe I was perched at the very top
of the very end of the world.
Behind the overgrown European facade of garden
was the pipeline, a track which followed the water
pipe the whole length of the mountain through the
dripping forest of giant manferns, where tendrils
‘of water seeped from every crevice in the rock-
face and the ground squelched beneath my feet. It
was full of secluded hideaways: dank. magical,
musty. It belonged in fairytales with goblins and
when snow:covered it became the remote empire
of Hans Christian Andersen's fierce Snow Queen,
Before I understood anything wise about my
exquisite birthplace, I understood it was far, far
away from everywhere else 1 had ever heard
about.
School was a quite different experience. 1 was
disliked by the teachers as an untidy chatterbox
and smarty pants. My teachers were not the Teast
impressed that 1 knew Greek myths and Norse
fables; their concem was that I could not recite
my tables, nor could J spell, that my ink always
blotted and smudged and my colouring-in ran
over the lines. In fourth grade, still so vivid in my
memory that I dream about it, | was the only girl
in the school who had to share her desk with a
boy. And you can be sure he was regarded as the
school lout. We were being jointly punished, our
deficiency in niceness was made a daily example.
The really terrible thing was, 1 knew he was
appalled to be sat next {0 me and his misfortune
was a constant source of teasing. As the
Test 1- Page 12 Copyright
1007 www.ozimed.comjeadmaster was 10 remind me more than once,
Princes St Primary School, Sandy Bay, was not
the appropriate place for me. My parents did not
live in the elegant, well-kept, securely upper
middle-class suburb which fed the school and nor
were their bohemian views on child-rearing and
festyle appreciated. It was a source of great
dismay his school was forced to accept the kind of
riffraff who lived up the mountain. But at least
the few other children who caught the bus down
every moming Jearnt to conform to the school's
expectation of good behaviour. I was incorrigible
It was not an easy thing to feel that my life would
consist of being a despised outcast in a place I
could never find in books.
49. It is most likely that there was no school
on the mountain because
A. There was no suitable public transport.
Only a few families lived there.
It was too steep to build a school there.
pow
‘The people who lived there did not
approve of education,
50. ‘The writer describes the Princes St
Primary School as "a place I could never find
in books". By this she means that it was a
place
A. That had none of the magic and mystery
she found in the books she read.
B. That was beyond the realms of her
imagination.
C. Where only quiet well-behaved children
were welcome.
D. Where the teachers had made her lose her
enthusiasm for reading.
51. Most of the children who came down from
the mountain to attend Princes St Primary
School
A. Were polite to the headmaster.
B. — Complied with the school's rules,
C. Succeeded at their leaming.
D. Were approved of by the headmaster
52. In fourth grade the writer had to sit next to
a boy for punishment. As a result the boy
‘A. Became the school lout.
B, Improved his behaviour.
C. Was teased by the other children.
D. — Complained to the headmaster.
53. The headmaster believed that all the
children from the mountain were
A. Unable to learn properly.
B, Brought up badly.
C. — Obliged to attend his school.
D. Too fond of myths and fables.
The writer reveals that as a child she was
A. Adventurous, imaginative and co-
operative.
B. Intelligent, unapproachable and insecure.
C. Intelligent, introverted and co-operative.
D. _ Disobedient, outspoken and imaginative.
Later in life the writer
A. Remained an outeast and continued to
live on the mountain,
B. Maintained the relationships she had
begun in her childhood.
C. Was grateful she had been brought up on
the mountain
D. — Continued to immerse herself in her
myths and fables.
Jn dealing with the children from the
mountain, the headmaster was
A. Dismissive.
B. Discriminatory.
C. Impetuous.
D. Indifferent.
Copyright © 2007 www.ozimed.com Test 7 - Page 13UNIT 10
Questions 57 - 60
WORLD TIMES
AUSTRALIAN EASTERN STANDARD TIME (EST)
‘811200 non, Ausra‘en Eastom Standard Tine the standard ie i foegn
es i shows
Aéite(Sh Ast)
‘ens (Gree)
1130am. “Monte! Canac)...3.00 pm
doo aim. Moscow (Svat Union. 500.
Banglok Tela ann 800am. ‘Now Ovens (USA). 00pm.
Bojig (Cha) 1000am, “New You USA). 2005
Bern (Gemmany) 3008
Bombay (hda)wevccce 708m. OSb (Noma) nwer~ BODE:
"Buenas Ares (Agena). 1.00pm, ‘Otewa Canad}... 900 pm
Coto at) _ 40am, Pat (FAN) one 800A
Cabuta nda) “780em, Porm Wiest Asst}... 10.0087.
(ape Town Sh Aiea]. 4.000.
*oncagp (USA) 8.00pm. "Ousbec (Canad)... 9600p.
Copertagen (Deana... 3008,
Rangoon Burra). 8908
Cobar (and ON ewes 9008m, Rayiavk (cond). 10am
“Ri se Janero (Ba 11.00 pm.
Hvar (Cbs) 009m. Rome (LY) oon» 3008.
“Hawal USA) oo 400m. Rateteam (Nebierand). 300 em,
Hong Keng sand Of... 1000.
Kuala Lumpur Malayse) 1000, Toyo (ApH wn 0080,
Leringrad (Soviet Union)... 800m, “Narcoer (Canad). 600 pm.
LSbon Pog) nse 200m. Vena (ust). 800..
Lenco (England 20am.
“Dero previous dy (Adit oral saree where applicable)
57. The Tasmanian school year is different to
the school years of other states because
‘A. Ithas 3 terms and other states have 4,
B. _ Its first holiday break is longer than any
other state.
C. Ithas 2 holiday breaks and the other
states have 3.
AUSTRALIAN CAPITAL
TERRITORY
1 Febuary - 9 Apt
19 Api 25 June
ra duly 24 September
110clober 17 Decamber
[NEW SOUTH WALES: ‘QUEENSLAND
1 February 8 Apa | 1 February 8 pot
19.Ap 25 June | 19 Apr 18 June
uly 24September | Siuly > —17 September
11 October 17 December
4Odtober —- 17 December
WORLD WEATHER GUI
D.
38.
aa] wa | wae | om | ow
‘evetriam | 62 [4s | tom [aa | vee [$2] 911 [se [zara |76 juss | as
Teng [zo |e ]iara or fr fa ee [re Jie] |
Gena Yavze [1 se tee fe tac ora |
semen eel Gl tal late
np] |e ow | fe |r| [| |
Seg [af eo fa fn ff |e [| [i
sere |v |e | fsa fs [cs ||
gens eure [re [ioe [nr [soe | |
Tar os [we [av [a fees [ze [|r|
erie pa Yat ea fe fs |e eer |
Paris rata as | 1s faa fooro [sy [zara [sa [esis | se Jonna | 6a |
Fed | eff] oe in| rs
ena [ve |x ise fo [vc | [as foo |
Tr [ref | eve [53 eo fae [
Fone [a [a rare [a oo | [so [sof
Savon fara vers [ves || csi fv
Sa fae fence os FT| 2 or we ||
Spd | | ie tf |e ea [es
ef ae Yin fa av a a
eas Ya fos fee oe | ef ere [aro
esas | fs [se ore Jaen fo ea [ze [ae
Tosa fcc | fos fares esse Fe
{Rengoor) Ks
[Toners mein doe rm
| eran ee |
Its last term ends after all other states’ last
terms.
A tourist brochure advertising a New York
holiday in June, July and August, would
recommend
A
3 Febuary
27 boil
arly
4B October -
TASMANIA
18 Febmary -
150
13 Soptamber -
Summer clothing with something warmer
for the evening
Mid-season clothing with a warm coat
for the evening.
Mid-season clothing with strong walking
[NORTHERN TERRITORY
22 January 2 Apt
13 Apt 18 June
19 uy 24 Septamber
4 October 10 December
8 Api
9 ly
1 Octobor
22. December
‘SOUTH AUSTRALIA
2 Jaway - 8 Api
27 August | 27 Aen 2Juy
ze December | 19 July = 24 September
120dober - 17 December
Test 1-Page14 Copyright © 2007 winw.ozimed.comboots.
D. Very warm clothing and snow boots.
59. Ifa man in Sydney telephones a friend in
London at midnight (EST), the time in London
A 2am.
B. 10am.
Cc. 2pm.
D. 10pm.
60. A Queensland businesswoman is planning,
a trip to Tokyo. She would like to take her
children with her but does not want them to
miss too much school. The best time for them
to go would be
A. August.
Bo May.
Cc hay
D. Iune,
UNIT 12
Questions 61 - 68
Animal Farm
George Orwell, widely acknowledged as one of
the great satirists of the twentieth century, wrote
Animal Farm in 1945. The story uses a fable
about animels to satirize the struggle for a
proletarian revolution and Communism. As with
humans, the lofiy ideals of the animals are lost
amid power struggles, corruption, and lies.
Several nights a week, after Mr. Jones was asleep,
they held secret. meetings in the bam and
expounded the principles of Animalism to the
others. At the beginning they met with such
stupidity and apathy. Some of the animals talked
of the duty of loyalty to Mr. Jones, whom they
referred to as ‘Master, or made elementary
remarks such as ‘Mr. Jones feeds us. If he were
gone, we should starve to death.’ Others asked
such questions as "Why should we care what
happens after we are dead” or 'If this rebellion is
to happen anyway, what difference does it make
whether we work for it or not?', and the pigs had
great difficulty in making them see that this was
contrary to the spirit of Animalism. The stupidest
questions of all were asked by Mollie, the white
mare. The very first question she asked Snowball
was: ‘Will there still be sugar after the Rebellion”
'No,' said Snowball firmly. ‘We have no means of
making sugar on this farm. Besides, you do not
need sugar. You will have all the oats and hay you
want.
"And shall I still be allowed to wear ribbons in my
mane? asked Mollie.
‘Comrade,’ said Snowball, ‘those ribbons that you
are so devoted to are the badge of slavery. Can
you not understand that liberty is worth more than
ribbons?"
Mollie agreed, but she did not sound very
convinced.
‘The pigs had an even harder struggle to counteract
the lies put about by Moses, the tame raven:
Moses, who was Mr Jones's especial pet, was a
spy and a tale-bearer, but he was also a clever
talker. He claimed to know of the existence of a
mysterious country called Sugarcandy Mountain,
to which all animals went when they died. It was
situated somewhere up in the sky, a little distance
beyond the clouds, Moses said. In Sugarcandy
Mountain it was Sunday seven days a week,
clover was in season all the year round, and ump
sugar and linseed cake grew on the hedges. The
animals hated Moses because he told tales and did
not work, but some of them believed in
Sugarcandy Mountain, and the pigs had to argue
very hard to persuade them that there was no such
place.
Their most faithful disciples were the two
carthorses, Boxer and Clover. These two had great
difficulty in thinking anything out for themselves:
but having once accepted the pigs as their
teachers, they absorbed everything that they were
told, and passed it on to the other animals by
simple arguments. They were unfailing in their
attendance at the secret meetings in the barn, and
led the singing of ‘Beasts of England’, with which
the meetings always ended,
61. The passage suggests that
A. The most ardent supporters of a
revolution are those least able to think for
themselves.
Copyright © 2007 werw.ozimed.com
Test 4 - PageB. Mollie the White Mare was the stupidest
animal of all
C. Proletarian revolution is inevitable and
animals are used to satirize common
human objections.
D. Animals go to Sugarcandy Mountain
when they dic.
62. It may be reasonable to infer from the
passage that
A. The author has an extreme hatred of
ravens.
B. Snowball is the leader of the revolution.
C. The author is in favour of a Communist
revolution.
D. The pigs are working for Mr Jones
against the revolution.
63. The main purpose of the passage is to
A. Satirize the quest for « proletarian
revolution,
B. Provide entertainment to animal lovers.
C. Raise the issue of animal exploitation by
human beings.
D. _ Satirize the objections to a proletarian
revolution.
64. Which of the following conclusions about
George Orwell could be challenged?
A. He wasa brilliant satirist.
B. He was a committed communist.
C. He wrote "Animal Farm”.
D. He wanted his readers to think.
65. Implicit in the passage is that
‘A. There is no Sugarcandy Mountain.
B, Mr Jones mistreats the animals.
C. The pigs instigate the rebellion.
D. There will be sugar for all after the
rebellion
66. Which of the following was not an
argument used by the animals against the
Rebellion in the passage
A
D.
67.
If we rebel, we will not go to Sugarcandy
Mountain when we die.
Mr Jones feeds us. If he were gone, we
should starve to death.
Why should we care what happens after
we are dead?
We have a duty of loyalty to the Master.
The overall point made by the question, “If
this rebellion is to happen anyway, what
difference does it make whether we work for it
or not” is that
A.
B.
68.
A revolution must be worked for
otherwise it will be taken for granted.
‘The pigs were forcing too much
information on the other animals.
‘There is a basic inconsistency in
revolutionary dogma.
One can’t sit back and expect a
revolution to happen.
Which of the following best expresses the
main idea of the passage.?
A. Ribbons are the badge of slavery
B. Ideas which are absurd when applied to
animals may also be absurd when applied
to humans.
C. Good animals will go to Sugarcandy
Mountain when they die.
D. Mr Jones is a tyrant
UNIT 11
Questions 69 - 75
69. The view presented by the cartoonist is
that military dictators are
A Meticulous.
B. Benevolent.
C. Opportunistic.
D. — Magnanimous.
Test 1-Page16
Copyright © 2007 www.ozimed.com70.
‘THis 15 a svuruesis
(OF falLITARY POLITICS,
Tas DeTAToR'R” Fives THE COIATRN IS sake.
WITH ALL THE MONEY. “THEY HUST START ALL CME
peomses Ave RoRsores)
WERauEE Serr er CERN
Recusene,
WE peTaToR Ye” Fes
THE REoLUTOR SUCCEEDS. NTA ALE SWE MOREY.
| aqe——
RULES He tea DISH,
m Das
ColbNELC® PRoMseS ELECTIONS
‘ANC REFORMS. AWE U.N, PRCOBUITES Ha.
Coumes 6" 25BELE.—
THE POE Batre Wik
ING. GENRRALSMO eS A DeTETOR,
TIECONTRY IS RIOR TEY TRE U.N, RECOgNIZES
MUST START AUL CAER AGAIN Coleus 0"
If the cartoonist drew picture 16, the
caption would most likely deserie
A. A promise of elections.
B. Popular celebrations,
C. Another revolution in the country.
D. Military promotion for the colonel.
Copyright © 2007 www.ozimed.com Test
Th.
carriage; in picture 13 dictator "C' travels by
car. The change is intended to show
A
B.
@
D.
In picture 4 dictator "B" travels by
‘The passage of time.
A wealthier dictator.
‘The growing wealth of the country,
The dictator's need to leave more quickly.
Page 1772.
In picture 3 and picture 12 the illustration
is upside down to show that
om >
9
B.
Everyone happily accepts the situation.
Peasants embrace military regimes.
Revolutions cause upheaval and change.
Widespread destruction is caused by
revolutions.
Which two pictures best reflect the
contrast in lifestyle between the rulers and the
ordinary people?
A
B.
ic
D.
74,
left
A
B.
Gs
D.
15
Pictures 2 and 7
Pictures 6 and 9
Pictures 5 and 10
Pictures 12 and 15
‘Afier the flight of a dictator the country is
Leaderless,
Bankrupt,
Stable.
Uncultivated.
‘The overall aim of the series of cartoons is
to present the
A
Spasmodic occurrence of events in
military dictatorships.
Cyclical nature of military dictatorships.
Social cost of political unrest
Recurrence of international interference
in military regimes.
STOP!
‘That is the end of
SECTION I - REASONING IN HUMANITIES
AND SOCIAL SCIENCES
Take a break of 20 minutes before commencing
Section II - Written Communication,
Do NOT mark any of the sections until you
have completed them all.
Test 7- Page 18
Copyright © 2007 www.ozimed.comOZIMED™
GAMSAT PRACTICE TEST 1
SECTION Ii - WRITTEN COMMUNICATION
2 QUESTIONS
TIME LIMIT: 60 MINUTES
Copyright © 2007 www.ozimed.com
Rev 3.05
Instructions :
You have 10 minutes perusal time.
You may NOT make notes on the question paper during that time.
You may NOT make any mark on the answer sheet during perusal.
At the end of ten minutes, start writing your essays.
You have exactly 60 minutes (not including perusal time) to complete this section of the exam.
GAMSAT is the Graduate Australian Medical Schools Admission Test
OZIMED is a trademark of www.ozimed.com.WRITING TEST A
Select one of the following quotations and
develop an essay in response. Write the quotation
at the top of the page. Give your essay an
appropriate title.
The liberty of the individual must be thus far
limited; he must not make himself a nuisance to
other people.
John Stuart Mill
Education ... has produced a vast population able
to read but unable to distinguish what is worth
reading,
GM.
Trevelyan
All generalisations are dangerous, even this one.
Alexandre Dumas fils
There is only one religion though there are a
hundred versions of it
George Bernard Shaw
‘The highest wisdom has but one science - the
science of the whole - the science explaining the
whole creation and man's place in it.
Leo Tolstoy
WRITING TEST B
Select one of the following quotations and
develop an essay in response. Write the quotation
at the top of the page. Give your essay an
appropriate title.
There are two families in the world, my old
grandmother used to say,
the Haves and the Have-nots.
Miguel de Cervantes,
Democraey substitutes election by the
incompetent many for appointment by the corruj
few.
George Berard Shaw
There is no finer investment for any community
than putting milk into babies.
Winston Churchill
a politician is an arse upon which everyone has sat
except a man
ee cummings
The highest possible stage in moral culture is
when we recognize that we ought to control our
thoughts.
Charles Darwin
STOP!
That is the end of
SECTION Il - WRITTEN
COMMUNICATION
Take a break of 1 HOUR before
commencing
Section Ill - REASONING IN
BIOLOGICAL
AND PHYSICAL SCIENCES.
Do NOT mark any of the sections until you
have completed them all.
Test 1-Page20
Copyright © 2007 www.ozimed.comOZIMED™
GAMSAT PRACTICE TEST 1
SECTION Ill - REASONING IN BIOLOGICAL
AND PHYSICAL SCIENCES
110 QUESTIONS
TIME LIMIT: 170 MINUTES
Copyright © 2007 www.ozimed.com
Rev 3.05
Instructions:
You have 10 minutes perusal time.
You may NOT make notes on the question paper during that time.
You may NOT make any mark on the answer sheet during perusal
At the end of ten minutes, start the exam.
You have exactly 170 minutes (not including perusal time) to complete this section of the exam.
GAMSAT is the Graduate Australian Medical Schools Admission Test.
‘OZIMED is a trademark of www.ozimed.com,UNIT 1
Questions 1-4
In humans, blood groups are determined by
antigens present on the surface of red blood cells.
More than 400 different blood groups have been
identified, but the ABO and Rh systems are the
most important clinically. The ABO system is
controlled by three alleles, IA, IB and 10. 1A and
TB are co-dominant, while 10 is recessive to both
1A and IB,
1. A woman of blood type A presents with a
child of blood type AB. The woman's partner,
with blood type O, denies paternity. The most
probable explanation is that:
‘A. the man's blood type does not rule him.
out as the father, but the woman cannot
be the mother.
B. neither is a possible parent of the child.
C. these are the child's biological parents.
D. the man is not the father.
2. Ifaman of blood type B has previously
fathered a child of blood type O, the chance
that a child of the man and a woman of blood
type O would also be type O is:
A. 15%
B. zero.
Cc. 25%.
D. 50%.
Given the information from the preceding
question, the chance that any child of the man
‘and woman would be a girl with blood type B
is
A. zero.
B. 25%.
Cc. 50%.
dD. 75%.
4, Ifa woman has phenotype A, which of the
following is her possible genotype?
A. BIO
B. AIO
c 00
DAB
UNIT 2
Questions 5 - 6
Circuit Diagram for Digital Number Display
Current flows to each segment in quick
succession. Our eye sees a simultancous display.
Current flows in through letters (A-G) and out
through numbers (1-4).
5, If the current flowed in succession through
BCI, then ABCDEF?, then ABGED3, then
ABC4 the watch would display
A. 1377
B. 1027
Cc. 1977
D. 1827
6. Ifa fault prevented current flowing through B.
and F, the signal ABCDEFG1 would give
A. 6instead of 9
B. 9 instead of 5
C. Sinstead of 8
D. Binstead of 9
Test 1 - Page 22
Copyright © 2007 www.ozimed.comy
INIT 3
Questions 7-11
‘A closed flask at 25°C and standard pressure
contains one mole of COz, two moles of HO: and
two moles of O2.
7. The molar percentage of CO; is:
A, 40%
B. 33%
C. 25%
D. 20%
8. The weight percentage of CO; is:
A. 20%
B. 25%
Cc. 33%
D. 40%
9. The flask contains how many molecules of
On:
A. 15x10?
B. 3.0.x 10”
C. 6.0.x 10%
D. 1.2% 10"
10. _ If the compounds were broken down into
their constituent elements, the total number of
moles of gas would be:
A 4
B. 7
c 6
D5
11. AtSTP, the original mixture would
occupy a volume of
A. 67 litres
B73 litres
C. 112 Iitres
D. 157 litres
UNIT 4
Questions 12 - 15
As the chief physicist for the Wobbly Pulley
Company you have been asked to investigate the
properties of new, synthetic material solid-disk
pulleys. Your experiment uses a stainless steel
wire, passing around the rim of the uniform
pulley. The pulley is mounted so as to rotate
around a (notionally frictionless) fixed axis. ‘The
mass of the pulley is 1010 g, and its radius is 320
mm. A force of exactly 15 N is applied to the
wire,
You remember from your college physics course
that:
For a solid disk, the moment of inertia J= '/ mr?
Angular velocity @ = @, + Gt where @, is the
constant angular acceleration
Applied torque = Tr where 7'is the tension and r
is the radius of the disk
12, The moment of inertia, J, of the pulley is:
A. 35x10? kgm?
B. 42x10? kg n?
C. 52x10? kgm?
D.
6.3.x 107 kg ni
13. What is the value for the applied torque?
A. 48x10'Nm!
B. 48x 10'Nm
Cc. 63Nm
D. 4.8Nm
14, The angular acceleration is measured as
2.07 x 10° rad/s*. If the pulley is initially
stationary, what would its angular velocity be
after accelerating for 5 seconds?
A. 1.04x 10° rad/s
B. 2.07x 10? rad/s
C. 2.07% 105 rads
D. 1.05 x 108 rad/s
Copyright © 2007 wew.ozimed.com
Test 1 - Page 2315. What is the angular momentum (inertia x
angular velocity) if the disk radius = 480 mm,
mass = 620 g and «= 4.72 x 10? rads?
A. 633x10' kg m/s
B. 337x 10' kg m/s
C. 5.09x 10! kg m/s
D. 242x 10? kg m/s
UNIT 5
Questions 16 - 17
Use the following data to answer the questions.
Acid Solutions:
Half Reactions
E® (volts)
Cat +2e 4 Ca -2.76
Net tle 3 Na -271
Mg +2e > Mg = -237
AP +3e > Al - 1.66
Mr +2e > Mn -118
Zn > Zn -0.76
Ce +2¢ > Cu +034
h@) +2e + 2 +054
Ag +le -» Ag +080
On (g)+ 4H! He» 210 (I) + 1.23
CO; + 6e > © 2Cr* +1.33
Ch) +20 > 2Cr +136
MnO; + Se > = Mnf? +151
16. At STP, a galvanic cell is based on the
following reaction:
2AP* (aq) + 3Mg (s) > 2Al (s) + 3Mg™ (aq)
What is the E® for this cell?
A. +035V
B. -166V
Cc. -4.03V
dD +071V
92. At STP, a galvanic cell is based on the
following reaction:
MnO, + HY + ClOy > ClOg + Mr? + 120
What are the coefficients of the balanced
equation?
A 2,4,5,4,23
B 34,5343
C. 2,5,4,4,23
D. 2,6,5,5,2,3
UNIT 6
Question 18
In an experiment to examine the reaction of the
immune system to oncoviruses (cancer-causing
viruses), viral tumours were implanted into three
different strains of mice. The phenotypes and
concentration of serum antibodies produced
against the virus contained in the tumour cells
were measured. The results are shown in the table
below,
Host | Antibody Antibody
Strain |Phenotype| __ Concentration
Day 30 | Day 60
x7 NA | 4.6pgh | 6.2 pai
pos | BA | 33pal | 57 pgil
R34 Be | 15pgl | 1.2pgi_|
18. Which of the following statements is
supported by the information given.
A. Strain X7 produced less antibody than
the other two strains.
B. Stain X7 mice are less resistant to virus-
induced cancers than the other strains.
C.Anantibody phenotype containing A is
related to higher antibody concentrations.
D. All mouse strains produced more
antibody at 60 days than at 30 days.
Test 1-Page 24
Copyright © 2007 www.azimed.comUNIT 7
Questions 19 - 21
Spirometry is a simple method for measuring the
volume of air moving into and out of the lungs. A
spirogram is shown below. The spirogram shows
Tidal volume - the volume of air inspired/expired
with each normal breath
Inspiratory reserve volume - the extra volume of
air which can be inspired above the normal tidal
volume
Expiratory reserve volume - the extra air which
19. The maximum amount of air that can be
expited after a maximum inspiration is known
as
A. _ inspiratory reserve volume.
B. tidal volume.
C. total lung capacity.
D. vital capacity.
20. Referring to Figure 1, the volume of the
air this patient expires in each breath during
quiet breathing is about
can be expired by forceful expiration at the end of liao
a normal tidal expiration B. 1000 ml
Residual volume - the amount of air left in the pot
lungs after the most forceful expiration D. 3500 mi
Inspiratory capacity - tidal volume plus 21. In this person, the inspiratory capacity is
inspiratory reserve volume approximately
Functional residual capacity - expiratory reserve A. 3500ml
volume plus residual volume = the amount of air
left in the Tungs after normal expiration B 3000ml
. . ; : ©. 2500 ml
Vital capacity - the maximum amount of air which
can be inspired and expired from the lungs D. 2000 ml
Total lung capacity - the volume of air in the
Jungs after maximum inspiration
6900
i A
5000
Inspiratory
reserve volume Vitet Inspiratory
capacity | \ capacity Total ung
4000 capacity
3000
Tidal
volume
2000 A
Explratory
receive yolume
1000
f Funelooa
Residual volume residual capacity
9 ¥ ¥
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1 - Page 25UNIT 8
Questions 22 - 28
‘The solubility of a crystalline solid in water at a
given temperature is determined by measuring the
mass of a saturated solution at that temperature
and then measuring the mass of solute that
remained after all the water had been removed,
‘After determining the solubility at a variety of
temperatures, the solubility as a function of
temperature is plotted below.
a)
=F
¥ | —
BT |
3 scol- I ta
2 sol —|—
| |
2 100° — — 4
ze
2 eS
2»
oO 40 60 so 100
Temperature ¢
Points A. B, C, D, E and F represent various
aqueous solutions of the solid
22. Which solution(s) is (are) unsaturated?
A. AD, and F
B. DandC
Cc. E
D. Band C
23. Which solution(s) can become saturated as
a result of an increase in temperature?
A A,D,and F
B. DandC
cE
D. Band
24. In which solution(s) would addition of a
crystal of the solid initiate crystallisation
AE
Test 1 - Page 26
B. DandC
Cc. A,D,andF
D. Band
25. Which solution is the most concentrated?
A
powP
F
D
ic
26. AL 70C, a solution contains 150 g of the
solid in 100 g of water. ‘This solution is
A. — unsaturated.
B, saturated
C. supersaturated.
D.
cither unsaturated or saturated.
27. How much water would be required to
dissolve 220 g of the solid at 60C
A. 50g
B 3g
Cc. 100g
D. 200g
28. How much of the solid will dissolve in 75
1g of water at 40C.
A 44g
B. 56g
Cc. 67g
D. 89g
UNIT 9
Questions 29 - 31
Candida albicans causes a range of genital tract
disease in humans, which are treated with oral or
topical antibiotics. The relative dryness of most
skin areas limits the growth of fungi, but damaged
skin or intertriginous sites (areas of apposed skin)
may be rapidly colonised. Invasion of deeper
tissues can only occur when the host's resistance
is significantly lowered. Candida may be present
in a unicellular yeast form or a multicellular, nore
Copyright © 2007 wwww.ozimed.comranching pseudo-hyphal form. Both forms
reproduce mainly by asexual budding. The
pseudo-hyphae can also form fruiting bodies that
produce haploid gametes (spores). The following
drugs may be used alone or, more commonly, in
combination to treat candida infections.
* Amphotericin binds avidly to the ergosterol in
the membrane of fungi and some protozoa. This
forms a trans-membrane ion channel, which
increases cell wall permeability, leading to loss of
intracellular potassium ions.
* Ketoconazole inhibits fngal P450 enzymes
responsible for ergosterol synthesis, resulting in
inereased cell wall permeability.
* 5.Flueytosine (-FC) is a synthetic anti-fungal
agent. In fungal cells, but importantly not in
humans, 5-FC is converted NH.
to S-fluorouracil (5-FU) 2
which inhibits thymidylate FE
synthetase, blocking its py
ability 10 catalyse the — !)
formation of _ thymidine,
This results in inhibition of
DNA, but not RNA,
synthesis. The structure of 4
5-FC is shown in Figure 1.
Figure 1
29. Drugs which attack the gamete-producing
stage of Candida albicans arc largely
ineffective because:
A. Candida usually reproduces asexually
B. Candida can be killed only when
reproducing asexually.
2
Candida does not produce gametes.
D. Candida spores are insensitive to most
drugs.
30. 5-FC is effective against Candida because
it decreases the availability of:
A. RNA precursors.
DNA precursors.
oO»
essential amino acids.
y
31. Afier 5-FC has entered the cell, which step
must occur for DNA synthesis to be
terminated?
A. Thymidylate synthetase is
phosphorylated,
B. A pyrimidine is converted into a purine.
Uracil is converted into thymidine.
O
D. A pytimidine is substituted for another
pyrimidine,
UNIT 10
Questions 32 - 34
Sulphur trioxide, SO,, is extremely reactive and in
the presence of water produces sulphuric acid,
H,SO,. This reaction is exothermic (ie. heat is
released). Gaseous FSO, dissociates into SOs and
water vapour at about 350 C and a pressure of 300
atm.
Sulphuric acid is one of the most commonly used
industrial chemical. When reacted with metals it
acts as a strong oxidising agent.
Reaction 1:
2 H2SO,+2 Ag > AgSO, + SO: +210
At high temperatures, HSOzalso react with salts
to liberate volatile acids.
Reaction 2:
H,SO, + NaCl > HCI + NaHSO,
32. 1270 g of silver is allowed to react with
excess sulphuric acid, how much water is
produced? (Atomic weight of Ag
approximately 108.)
A 14g
B 45g
C. 36g
D 18g
33. In Reaction 2, which of the following is
true?
A. Sodium ions are reduced and chlorine
ions are oxidised.
B. Sodium ions are oxidised and chlorine
Copyright © 2007 www.ozimed.com
Test 1-Page 27ranching pseudo-hyphal form. Both forms.
reproduce mainly by asexual budding. The
pscudo-hyphae can also form fruiting bodies that
produce haploid gametes (spores). The following
drugs may be used alone or, more commonly, in
combination fo treat candida infections.
* Amphotericin binds avidly to the ergosterol in
the membrane of fungi and some protozoa. This
forms a trans-membrane ion channel, which
increases cell wall permeability, leading to loss of
intracellular potassium ions.
* Ketoconazole inhibits fmgal P450 enzymes
responsible for ergosterol synthesis, resulting in
increased cell wall permeability.
* 5-Flucytosine (5-FC) is a synthetic anté fungal
agent. In fungal cells, but importantly not in
humans, 5-FC is converted NH.
to S-fluorouracil (3-FU) 2
which inhibits thymidylate FE
synthetase, blocking its jy
ability to catalyse the — !) |
formation of _ thymidine,
‘This results in inhibition of N
DNA, but not RNA, }
synthesis. The structure of H
5-FC is shown in Figure 1.
Figure 1
29. Drugs which attack the gamete-producing
stage of Candida albicans are largely
ineffective because
A. Candida usually reproduces asexually.
B. Candida can be killed only when
reproducing asexually.
2
Candida does not produce gametes.
D. Candida spores are insensitive to most
drugs.
30. 5-FC is effective against Candida because
it decreases the availability of:
A. RNA precursors.
B. DNA precursors.
C. essential amino acids.
D. 5-FU
has entered the cell, which step
must occur for DNA synthesis to be
terminated?
A. Thymidylate synthetase is
phosphorylated,
B. A pyrimidine is converted into a purine.
C. Uracil is converted into thymidine.
D. A pyrimidine is substituted for another
pyrimidine,
UNIT 10
Questions 32 - 34
Sulphur trioxide, SOs, is extremely reactive and in
the presence of water produces sulphuric acid,
H,SO,. This reaction is exothermic (i.e. heat is
released). Gaseous FSO, dissociates into SO; and
water vapour at about 350 C and a pressure of 300
aim.
Sulphuric acid is one of the most commonly used
industrial chemical. When reacted with metals it
acts as a strong oxidising agent.
Reaction 1:
2HSO,+2 Ag > AgSO, + S02 +210
At high temperatures, H}SO.also react with salts
to liberate volatile acids.
Reaction 2:
H,SO, + NaCl > HCI + NaHSO,
32. 1270 g of silver is allowed to react with
excess sulphuric acid, how much water is
produced? (Atomic weight of Ag is
approximately 108.)
A 14g
B 45g
C. 36g
D. 18g
33. In Reaction 2, which of the following is
true?
A. Sodium ions are reduced and chlorine
ions are oxidised.
B. Sodium ions are oxidised and chlorine
Copyright © 2007 www.ozimed.com
Test 1-Page 27ions are reduced.
C. Sodium and chlorine ions are neither
oxidised nor reduced.
D. Sodium and chlorine ions are both
reduced.
34. 50.0 ml of 0.200 M HINOs is titrated with
0.100 M NaOH. The graph at right shows pH
versus volume of NaOH added. At the
equivalence
point shown,
how much
NaOH has
been added?
Equivalence
A. 25ml
B. 50ml
Cc. 75m!
D. 100ml
NaOH added (ml)
UNIT 11
Questions 35 - 38
Alkanes are hydrocarbons in which all carbo
carbon bonds are single bonds. Cycloalkanes are
alkanes in which some or all of the carbon atoms
are arranged in a ring. Single ring alkanes have
the general formula C,Ho,, while other alkanes
have the general formula CjHose2
The sixcarbon ring (cyclohexane) is the most
commonly occurring in nature. ‘The predominant
conformation (ie. the conformation having the
lowest energy and
most. stability) of Lal
cyclohexane ig the JI
chair conformation “ANH
(Shown at right).
For single ring
cycloalkanes,
substituents other
than hydrogen
atoms often have
differences
larger energy
between conformations. The equatorial position is
generally lower in energy than the axial position.
The table below compares the energy of
equatorial and axial positions for various common,
substituents.
Substituent difference
Group (Axial/equatorial)
-OH | __-3.97 kJ/mol
“Nib 5.86 ki/mol
Hy, ki/mol
Table 1
cl
35. Whatis the correct
TUPAC name for the
molecule shown at
right?
1,3-dimethyl6-
chlorocyclohexane
B 4-dimethyleyclohexane
c -chlorocyclohexane
D. . 1-chloro-4,6-dimethyleyclohexane
36. Calculate the energy difference between
the two conformations of the molecule shown
below.
cH
A. 0.71 ki/mol
B. 1.42 kJ/mol
C. 5.86 kJ/mol
D. 13.14 kJ/mol
Test 1 - Page 28
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