Animal Kingdom: Non-Chordates

1A
Chapter
1 INTRODUCTION
m What is the need to classify animals?
m Classification helps in assigning a systematic position to newly described species.
With some
m Characteristics of members – l Eukaryotic organisms   l Division of labour  l Definite growth pattern l Capable of locomotion
exceptions
of kingdom Animalia l Multicellular and their cells lack cell wall  l Heterotrophic with holozoic mode of nutrition l Sensory and neuromotor mechanism (Poriferans)

2 BASIS OF ANIMAL CLASSIFICATION

m There are fundamental features common to various individuals and have certain distinct characters which are specific to each phyla/class.
Broad Classification
Body Cavity/Coelom Metamerism/
Hierarchy Level of Types of Symmetry Germ Layers Phylum(s) Notochord
(mesodermal lining) Segmentation
Organisation
Simple Cellular Asymmetrical Not specified Acoelomates Porifera û
Any plane passing through (loose cell aggregates) (No body cavity) Ectoderm
the centre does not divide the Mesoglea
organism into 2 equal halves Coelenterata û
Endoderm
Tissue Radial Diploblastic Ctenophora û
Any longitudinal plane passing through Ectoderm
the central axis of the body divides Undifferentiated Acoelomates
(No body cavity)
Platyhelminthes û
the organism into 2 identical halves mesoglea
Endoderm Mesodermal pouches

Absent

Organ Bilateral Triploblastic Pseudocoelomate

Aschelminthes û
Only one longitudinal Ectoderm Scattered pouches
plane passing through the Mesoderm of mesoderm between
centre of the body divides the Endoderm ecto and endoderm Ectoderm
organism into identical right and left halves Mesoderm Coelom Annelida ü
Arthropoda ü
Complex Organ system True coelomates Mollusca û
(Each system with a Body cavity lined Echinodermata û
specific physiological function) by mesoderm Hemichordata û
Chordata ü Present
Endoderm
m Metameric Segmentation – Body is externally and internally divided into segments with a serial m Some Conclusions From Classification:
repetition of at least some organs
l Poriferans are mostly asymmetrical organisms with cellular level of organisation.
m Notochord – Mesodermally derived rod like structure formed on the dorsal side during
embryonic development in some animals l All diploblastic organisms have radial symmetry and are acoelomates.

m Animals without notochord – Non-chordates (Porifera to echinoderms) l Bilateral symmetry is most advanced form of symmetry that arose with motile organisms.

m Animals with notochord – Chordates l Platyhelminthes are first triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical acoelomates.
m About 2/3rd of all species on earth are Arthropods (Most abundant are insects) l Echinoderms have radial symmetry at adult stage and bilateral in the larval stage.

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 2 Animal Kingdom: Non-Chordates NCERT Maps

‘X’ indicates absence 3

‘+’ indicates presence COMPARATIVE ACCOUNT FROM PORIFERA TO ASCHELMINTHES

Porifera (Sponges) Ctenophora Platyhelminthes Aschelminthes

Parameters Coelenterata (Cnidaria)
(Sea walnuts) (Flatworms) (Round worms)
Habitat/Habit Mostly marine, some are Mostly marine, some are fresh water Exclusively marine Free living or parasitic Aquatic, terrestrial,
fresh water (Spongilla) (Hydra), sessile or free swimming parasitic in plants
and animals
Exoskeleton X Coral forms have skeleton of CaCO3 X X X

Endoskeleton Spicules/spongin fibres X X X X

Digestive system/ m Digestive system absent m Digestive system incomplete m Extracellular and m Digestive system incomplete m Complete alimentary
Digestion m Intracellular digestion m Mouth on hypostome leading to body intracellular with single opening canal with muscular
cavity Gastro-vascular cavity digestion m Extracellular digestion pharynx
m Intra and extracellular digestion m Some forms absorb food m Extracellular digestion
directly from body surface
Respiratory structure Cell surface Body wall Free living-body surface Free living-body surface
Circulatory system Circulating fluid = water
Excretory system/ Body surface Flame cells (Protonephridia) for Excretory tube opens out
Surface excretion and osmoregulation through excretory pore
Nervous system X Neurons appear + + +
Asexual Fragmentation, Budding X High regeneration-Planaria
X
reproduction gemmule formation capacity
Sexual reproduction m Present Present m Present m Present Distinctly dioecious
m Hermaphrodites m Hermaphrodites m Hermaphrodites
Fertilization Internal External Internal
Development Indirect, larva morphologically Indirect/direct Indirect Indirect through many Indirect/direct (young
distinct from adult larval stages one resembles adult)
Unique features m Water canal system m Name derived from cnidoblasts/ m8 external rows m Dorsoventrally flattened m Circular in cross-section
and examples cnidocytes containg nematocysts, of comb plates st
Functions Food gathering present on body and tentacles.
body m 1 ones with complete
Respiratory exchange for locomotion, m Hooks and suckers present alimentary canal
Removal of wastes Functions Anchorage, Defense hence, called in parasitic forms m Females longer than
Parameters Ostia Osculum Capture of prey comb jellies st male
m Obelia exhibits 2 basic forms: m Exhibit m 1 ones with bilateral
m Number Many Usually one m Posterior end curved
Polyp Asexually Medusa Bioluminescence symmetry in males
m Location Body surface Body surface Alternation of
Sessile generation/ Free swimming i.e., property to Examples: Examples: Wuchereria
m Size Minute Large emit light
Cylindrical Metagenesis Umbrella like (Filaria worm),
m Water flow Entry Exit Sexually Examples: Ancylostoma (Hookworm)
Ctenoplana, Ascaris
mChoanocytes/collar cells line the spongocoel Examples:
(central cavity). Physalia (Portuguese man-of-war), (Round worm)
Examples: Pennatula (Sea-pen), Gorgonia
(Sea-fan), Meandrina (Brain coral)

Euspongia Spongilla Sycon Adamsia Aurelia Taenia Fasciola

(Bath sponge) (Fresh water sponge) (Scypha) (Sea anemone) (Jelly fish) Pleurobrachia (Tapeworm) (Liver fluke) Male Female

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NCERT Maps Animal Kingdom: Non-Chordates 3

4 COMPARATIVE ACCOUNT FROM ANNELIDA TO HEMICHORDATA

l All have complete alimentary canal with extracellular digestion l All can reproduce sexually and are usually oviparous
Arthropoda(Joint appendages) Mollusca/Soft bodied Echinodermata Hemichordata
Parameters Annelida (Segmented worms)
Largest Phylum Second Largest Phylum (Spiny skinned) (Half chordates)
Habitat Aquatic and Terrestrial Exclusively marine
Body divisions/ Distinct segments metameres/annuli Head, thorax, abdomen Head, muscular foot Star like Proboscis, collar,
appearance visceral hump trunk (worm like)
Locomotory m Longitudinal and circular muscles Joined appendages Muscular foot Water vascular system X
structure m Parapodia/lateral appendages in some

Exoskeleton X Chitinous/Cuticle Calcareous shells Spines X

Digestive system + + Mouth with file like rasping Mouth-lower side/ventral
organ, radula for feeding +
Anus-upper side/dorsal
Respiratory system/ Body surface Gills, book gills, Feather like gills in Water vascular system Gills
surface tracheal system, book lungs mantle cavity
Circulatory system Closed Open
Excretory system Nephridia Malpighian tubules Gills X Proboscis gland
Nervous system Paired ganglia with double ventral nerve cord + + +
Sense organs Eyes, Tentacles Eyes (simple, compound), Tentacles
+ +
Antennae, Statocyst (balancing)
Mono/Dioecious Monoecious – Earthworm, Leech Mostly dioecious Usually dioecious Dioecious
Dioecious – Nereis (aquatic form)
Fertilization External/internal Usually internal External Usually external External
Development Direct/Indirect Indirect with free swimming larva
Indirect Indirect
Unique features m 1st ones with metameric Examples: m Soft and spongy layer of m Water vascular system that m Presence of rudimentary
and Examples m Economically important insects - skin forms a mantle over helps in Locomotion stomochord
segmentation and true coelom
Apis (Honey bee), Bombyx the visceral hump. Capture and m Earlier considered as
Examples: m Space between hump and transport of food subphylum under phylum
(Silkworm), Laccifer (Lac insect) mantle is mantle cavity. Chordata but now placed
Pheretima (Earthworm) Respiration
m Vectors - Anopheles,Culex, Examples: as separate phylum
m Presence of Calcareous
Aedes (Mosquitoes) Sepia (Cuttlefish), under non-chordata
ossicles
m Living fossil - Limulus (King crab) Loligo (Squid), Examples:
Pinctada (Pearl oyster), Examples: Saccoglossus
m Gregarious pest -
Dentalium (Tusk shell), Cucumaria (Sea cucumber),
Chaetopleura (Chiton), Echinus (Sea urchin), Proboscis
Locusta (Locust) Aplysia (Seahare) Antedon (Sea lily)

Collar

Trunk

Hirudinaria Prawn Pila Octopus Asterias Ophiura

(Blood sucking leech) Scorpion Butterfly (Apple snail) (Devil fish) (Star fish) (Brittle star) Balanoglossus
Nereis

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 4 Animal Kingdom: Non-Chordates NCERT Maps

1. All of the following are basis of classification 5. When any longitudinal plane passing 10. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t.
of animals except [NCERT Pg. 46] through the central axis of the body divides notochord? [NCERT Pg. 48]
(1) Number of cells the organism into two identical halves, it is
(1) Ectodermally derived
called [NCERT Pg. 47]
(2) Body symmetry (2) Rod-like structure
(1) Bilateral symmetry
(3) Nature of coelom
(2) Radial symmetry (3) Present on the dorsal side
(4) Arrangement of cells
(3) Asymmetry (4) Absent in animals ranging from phylum
2. Organ level of organisation is present in the Porifera to Echinodermata
(4) Biradial symmetry
members of which phylum? [NCERT Pg. 46]
6. Choose the odd one w.r.t. coelenterates 11. Select the correct option w.r.t. sponges
(1) Cnidaria (2) Ctenophora
[NCERT Pg. 47] [NCERT Pg. 49]
(3) Platyhelminthes (4) Porifera
(1) Ectoderm (2) Endoderm (1) All are marine
3. What is true for open circulatory system?
(3) Mesoderm (4) Mesoglea (2) All are asymmetrical
[NCERT Pg. 47]
7. Triploblastic acoelomate animals belong to (3) Collar cells line spongocoel only
(1) Cells and tissues are directly bathed in which phylum?
blood (4) Usually monoecious
[NCERT Pg. 48]
(2) Capillaries are present 12. Choose the correct match w.r.t. excretory
(1) Ctenophora (2) Platyhelminthes structure [NCERT Pg. 51-54]
(3) Blood is circulated only through a series
(3) Aschelminthes (4) Annelida (1) Fasciola – Excretory tube
of vessels of varying diameter
8. Presence of truly coelomate animals ranges
(4) Present in earthworm (2) Ancylostoma – Flame cells
from phylum [NCERT Pg. 48]
4. Digestive system in phylum Platyhelminthes (3) Laccifer – Malpighian tubules
(1) Aschelminthes to Chordata
[NCERT Pg. 47] (4) Chaetopleura – Proboscis gland
(2) Annelida to Chordata
(1) Has two openings to the outside of the (3) Platyhelminthes to Chordata 13. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. fertilisation
body
(4) Ctenophora to Chordata [NCERT Pg. 49-54]
(2) Has one opening to the outside of the
9. Metameric segmentation is present in (1) Sponges – Internal
body
[NCERT Pg. 52] (2) Ctenophores – External
(3) Is absent in most of the members
(1) Pheretima (2) Ascaris (3) Roundworms – Internal
(4) Opens through excretory pore to the
outside of the body (3) Balanoglossus (4) Pila (4) Echinoderms – Internal

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NCERT Maps Animal Kingdom: Non-Chordates 5

14. All are correct w.r.t. respiratory organ of (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) 19. Match column-I with column-II and choose
animal shown below, except (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) the correct match. [NCERT Pg. 49-54]

(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) Column-I Column-II

(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) a. Euspongia (i) Calcareous shell
16. Sexes are separate in [NCERT Pg. 52] b. Corals (ii) Exoskeleton of
(1) Pleurobrachia (2) Nereis calcium
carbonate
(3) Taenia (4) Hirudinaria
17. Development may be direct or indirect in c. Pinctada (iii) Spongin fibres
[NCERT Pg. 53]
the members of which phylum? d. Echinus (iv) Calcareous
(1) Feather like gills
[NCERT Pg. 49-52] endoskeleton
(2) Present in visceral hump (1) Porifera
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) Help in respiration and excretion
(2) Ctenophora
(4) Present in the members of second (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) Platyhelminthes
largest phylum (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
15. Match column-I with column-II and choose (4) Aschelminthes
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
the correct option [NCERT Pg. 49-54] 18. All are the functions of water vascular
Column-I Column-II systemin echinoderms except 20. In most of the members of largest phylum,
a. Asterias (i) Jointed the body consists of [NCERT Pg. 53-54]
[NCERT Pg. 54]
appendages (1) Head, muscular foot and visceral hump
(1) Locomotion
b. Sycon (ii) Canal system (2) Head, thorax and abdomen
(2) Reproduction
c. Apis (iii) Excretory system
is absent (3) Respiration (3) Proboscis, collar and trunk

d. Nereis (iv) Parapodia (4) Capture and transport of food (4) Cephalothorax and abdomen

1. _______ members of Animalia are 3. Animals in which the cells are arranged in 4. The body cavity which is not lined by
multicellular. [NCERT Pg. 46] two embryonic layers an external _______ mesoderm, instead, the mesoderm is
present as scattered pouches, is called
2. When body of an organism can be divided and an internal _______, are called
_______. [NCERT Pg. 48]
into identical left and right halves by only _______ animals.
one longitudinal plane, it is called _______ 5. The animals in which body cavity is absent
symmetry. [NCERT Pg. 47] [NCERT Pg. 47] are called _______. [NCERT Pg. 48]

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 6 Animal Kingdom: Non-Chordates NCERT Maps
6. When body is _______ and _______ 11. In ctenophores, body bears _______ 16. Nereis possesses lateral appendages,
divided into segments with a serial _______ external rows of _______ which help in _______ which help in _______.
of at least some organs is called metameric _______. [NCERT Pg. 51]
[NCERT Pg. 52]
segmentation. [NCERT Pg. 48]
12. Some Platyhelminths absorb nutrients from
the host directly through their _______. 17. The body of arthropods is covered by
7. Canal system of sponges helps in _______,
_______ and _______. [NCERT Pg. 49] _______. [NCERT Pg. 53]
[NCERT Pg. 51]
8. In sponges, water enters through minute 18. In cuttle fish, mantle cavity is the space
pores called _______ into a central cavity 13. Aschelminths are parasites in _______ and between _______ and _______.
called _______, from where it goes out _______. [NCERT Pg. 52]
[NCERT Pg. 53]
through _______. [NCERT Pg. 49]
14. In roundworms, alimentary canal is
19. In molluscs, _______ contains a file like
9. In metagenesis, polyps produce medusae complete with a well developed _______.
rasping organ for _______, called _______.
_______ and medusae form polyps
[NCERT Pg. 52] [NCERT Pg. 53]
_______. [NCERT Pg. 50]
15. Annelids possess _______ and _______ 20. Adult echinoderms are _______ symmetrical
10. The name Cnidaria is derived from the
_______ present on the _______ and the muscles which help in _______. but larvae are _______ symmetrical.
_______. [NCERT Pg. 50] [NCERT Pg. 52] [NCERT Pg. 54]
  

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 Animal Kingdom: Chordates
1B
Chapter
1 PHYLUM-CHORDATA 4 CYCLOSTOMATA
Salient features Chordates Non-chordates
General Features : Parameters
Notochord P × Habitat Marine
Triploblastic organisms Central nervous system Dorsal, hollow and single Ventral, solid and double
Bilaterally symmetrical Habit Ectoparasite on fishes
Paired pharyngeal
Coelomates gill slits P × Temperature No (Poikilothermous)
Organ-system level of regulation
organisation
Post anal tail P × Exoskeleton Scales are absent
Closed circulatory system Basic plan of a chordate Position of heart Ventral Dorsal (if present) Endoskeleton Cartilaginous cranium
and vertebral column
2 CLASSIFICATION OF CHORDATES 3 CLASSIFICATION OF VERTEBRATES Appendages Unpaired fins
Sub-phyla Digestive Circular and sucking
system mouth without jaws
Parameters Urochordata/ Cephalochordata Vertebrata
Division Respiratory 6-15 pairs of gill slits
Tunicata system
Protochordates
Circulatory Closed type
Habitat Exclusively marine Variety of habitats - system
Polar ice caps, deserts, mountains,
forests, grasslands and dark caves Excretory Kidneys
Parameters Agnatha Gnathostomata system
Notochord Only in Extends from Present in embryonic stage and is Reproductive Migrate to fresh water
larval tail Jaws Absent Present m
head to tail and replaced by cartilaginous or bony system for spawning
persists throughout vertebral column in the adult Fins/limbs Unpaired fins Paired fins or limbs
m After spawning, the
their life
Examples Salpa, Branchiostoma Scoliodon (Dog fish),
Sexes are – P adult dies within few
days
Doliolum (Amphioxus Rana (Frog),
separate
or Lancelet) Crocodilus (Crocodile), Development m Indirect
Pavo (Peacock), Super class
Canis (Dog)
Larvae return to ocean
after metamorphosis
Ascidia Examples Myxine (Hag fish),
Pisces Tetrapoda
Bear fins Bear two pairs Petromyzon (Lamprey)
of limbs

Class Class Class

Pavo Neophron Chelone Chameleon Cyclostomata Chondrichthyes

(Peacock) (Vulture) (Turtle) (Tree lizard) &
Osteichthyes

Petromyzon
Amphibia Reptilia Aves Mammalia (Lamprey)
All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.

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 8 Animal Kingdom: Chordates NCERT Maps

5 COMPARATIVE ACCOUNT OF GNATHOSTOMATES

Characteristics Chondrichthyes Osteichthyes Amphibia Reptilia Aves Mammalia

Habitat Marine Both marine and fresh water Both on land and in water Mostly terrestrial Terrestrial, aquatic

Habit Predaceous – Dual life Creeping and crawling Most of them can fly except Limbs adapted to fly and live in
flightless birds water
Temperature Poikilothermous (Cold blooded) Homeothermous (Warm blooded)
regulation

Exoskeleton Placoid scales for Cycloid and ctenoid scales m Scales are absent Epidermal scales or scutes m Scales on hindlimbs Skin may possess hair
tough skin m Skin is moist with dry cornified skin m Body covered by feathers and
skin is dry

Cartilaginous Bony Bony (Fully ossified) Bony

Endoskeleton Pneumatic bones

Digestive m Ventral mouth Terminal mouth Cloaca – m Additional gizzard and crop Different types of teeth
system m Teeth are modifiedscales present m Beak present in the jaws
& backwardly directed
m Powerful jaws

Respiratory Gill slits without 4 pairs of gill slits with Gills, skin and lungs Lungs m Lungs, Lungs
system operculum operculum m Air sacs supplement respiration
Circulatory 2 chambered heart with 1 auricle and 1 ventricle 3 chambered heart with 3 chambered heart with 4 chambered heart with 2 auricles and 2 ventricles
system 2 auricles and 1 ventricle 2 auricles and 1 ventricle
except crocodile
(4 chambered heart)
Excretory Kidneys (Excretion and Osmoregulation)
system
Sense m Eye Eyes present Eyes with eyelids
organs
m Ear Tympanum absent Tympanum represents ear Tympanum represents Tympanum represents ear, many External ear/pinna present
ear & many reptiles do not birds have external ear opening
have external ear opening
Fertilisation Internal as pelvic fins Usually external External Internal
of males bear claspers
Oviparous/ Many are viviparous Mostly oviparous Oviparous Viviparous except egg
Viviparous laying Platypus
Development Direct Indirect Direct

Unique features m Streamlined body m Streamlined body m Body divided into Snakes and lizards m Forelimbs modified m Presence of mammary
m Notochord persists m They have air bladder/ head and trunk, shed their scales as into wings glands to nourish young
throughout life swim bladder that regulated tail in some e.g. skin cast m Hindlimbs of birds are ones
m Absence of air bladder, buoyancy Salamander modified for walking, Examples :
hence, swim continuously Examples : m Alimentary canal, Examples :
swimming or clasping Oviparous
to avoid sinking Marine – Exocoetus urinary and reproductive Chelone (Turtle), Testudo the tree branches Ornithorhynchus
Examples : (Flying fish), tracts open into a common (Tortoise), Calotes m Skin is dry without (Platypus)
Carcharodon (Great white chamber called cloaca (Garden lizard), Alligator glands except oil gland Viviparous
shark), Examples : (Alligator). Hemidactylus
at the base of tail Macropus (Kangaroo),
Trygon (Poisonous sting Bufo (Toad), (Wall lizard), Poisonous
Hippocampus Examples : Pteropus (Flying fox), Camelus
ray), Hyla (Tree frog) snakes – Bangarus
(Sea horse) Flying birds (Camel), Macaca (Monkey), Rattus
Torpedo (Electric ray) Ichthyophis Rana (Krait), Vipera (Viper)
Corvus (Crow), Columba (Rat), Canis (Dog), Felis (Cat),
Fresh water (Limbless (Frog)
– Labeo (Rohu), (Pigeon) Psittacula Elephas (Elephant), Equus (Horse)
amphibia) (Parrot) Delphinus (Common dolphin),
Clarias (Magur); Flightless birds
Aquarium – Betta Aptenodytes Panthera tigris (Tiger), Panthera leo
Scoliodon (Dog fish) (Lion).
(Fighting fish), (Penguin)
Pterophyllum Struthio
(Angel fish). Salamandra Crocodilus Naja (Ostrich) Balaenoptera
Catla (Katla), (Salamander) (Crocodile) (Cobra)
Pristis (Saw fish) (Blue whale)

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NCERT Maps Animal Kingdom: Chordates 9

1. Chordates are characterised by the 5. Which of the following is not a feature of 9. Select the mismatch w.r.t. scientific name in
presence of [NCERT Pg. 54] vertebrates? [NCERT Pg. 55] column I and common name in column II.
(1) Double, ventral, solid nerve cord (1) Ventral muscular heart [NCERT Pg. 55]
(2) Notochord (2) Kidneys for osmoregulation Column I Column II
(3) Dorsal heart (3) Paired fins or limbs (1) Clarias Magur
(4) Only organ level of organisation (4) Dorsal, single, solid nerve cord (2) Dog Canis
2. Select the correct statement w.r.t. (3) Calotes Garden lizard
6. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
notochord in urochordates. [NCERT Pg. 55]
chordates. [NCERT Pg. 55] (4) Corvus Crow
(1) Present in larval tail only
(1) Notochord is dorsal to nerve cord 10. Which of the following is a jawless
(2) Extends from head to tail in adults
(2) Notochord is dorsal to gut vertebrate? [NCERT Pg. 56]
(3) Persists throughout the life of organism
(3) Nerve cord is dorsal to gut (1) Petromyzon
(4) Replaced by vertebral column
3. Chordates differ from non-chordates in all (4) Nerve cord is dorsal, single and hollow (2) Scolidon
except [NCERT Pg. 55] 7. Poikilotherms with internal fertilization, (3) Calotes
(1) Presence of paired pharyngeal gill slits oviparity and direct development are all, (4) Macropus
(2) Position of heart except [NCERT Pg. 55] 11. Choose the odd one w.r.t. cyclostomes.
(3) Presence of post anal tail (1) Ascidia [NCERT Pg. 56]

(4) Presence of three germ layers (2) Aligator (1) Sucking and circular mouth
4. All chordates are not vertebrates because (3) Hemidactylus (2) Absence of jaws
[NCERT Pg. 47] (4) Chameleon (3) Scales are absent
(1) Notochord is not replaced by a 8. How many among following are able to (4) Presence of paired fins
cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in 12. In chondrichthyes, scales are
maintain constant body temperature and can
protochordates
fly? [NCERT Pg. 58] [NCERT Pg. 56]
(2) Notochord is present in all vertebrates
throughout life Pteropus, Neophron, Columba, Struthio, (1) Cycloid
Pavo, Macaca (2) Ctenoid
(3) Ventral muscular heart is present
(4) Kidneys are present for excretion and (1) One (2) Three (3) Placoid
osmoregulation (3) Two (4) Four (4) Ganoid
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 10 Animal Kingdom: Chordates NCERT Maps
13. Chondrichthyes differ from Osteichthyes 16. Choose the mismatch. [NCERT Pg. 60] 18. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t.
in possessing [NCERT Pg. 57] Aves? [NCERT Pg. 58]
(1) Columba – Pneumatic
(1) Bony endoskeleton (2) Air bladder (1) Forelimbs have scales
bones
(2) Crop and gizzard are the additional
(3) Claspers (4) Operculum chambers in the digestive tract
(2) Equus – Similar types
14. Cloaca is present in [NCERT Pg. 57] (3) Endoskeleton is fully ossified
of teeth
(1) Rana, Ichthyophis (4) Air sacs supplement respiration
(3) Crocodilus – Scutes
(2) Pteropus, Felis 19. Exclusive characters of members of class
(4) Neophron – Air sacs mammalia are all of the following except
(3) Labeo, Exocoetus
connected to
(4) Camelus, Delphinus [NCERT Pg. 60]
lungs
(1) Mammary glands
15. Which of the following animal is a
homeotherm and is oviparous? 17. Select the odd one w.r.t. external (2) Hair
fertilization. [NCERT Pg. 57] (3) Pulmonary respiration
[NCERT Pg. 58]
(4) Ear pinnae
(1) Aptenodytes (1) Carcharodon
20. Four-chambered heart and epidermal scales
(2) Elephas (2) Betta
on body are present in [NCERT Pg. 58]
(3) Pristis (3) Bufo (1) Bufo (2) Pristis
(4) Exocoetus (4) Pterophyllum (3) Crocodilus (4) Canis

1. Protochordates inhabit ______ water 5. After spawning, within a few days, adult 8. Electric organ is present in ______ and
exclusively [NCERT Pg. 55] poison sting is present in ______
cyclostomes ______. Their larvae, ______,
2. Subphyla ______ and ______ are often [NCERT Pg. 57]
return to the ocean. [NCERT Pg. 56]
referred as protochordates. 9. Due to the absence of air bladder, ______
6. In Chondrichythyes, mouth is located fishes have to swim constantly to avoid
[NCERT Pg. 55] sinking. [NCERT Pg. 56]
______ and in bony fishes, it is mostly
3. Cyclostomes have an elongated body 10. In amphibians, body is divisible into ______
______ in position. [NCERT Pg. 56]
bearing ______ pairs of gill slits. and ______. ______ may be present in
[NCERT Pg. 56] 7. ______ are modified placoid scales in some. [NCERT Pg. 57]
cartilaginous fishes and are ______ directed. 11. ______, ______ and ______ opens into a
4. Cyclostomes are ______ but migrate for
common chamber called cloaca.
spawning to______ [NCERT Pg. 56] [NCERT Pg. 56]
[NCERT Pg. 57]

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NCERT Maps Animal Kingdom: Chordates 11

12. In amphibians, respiration occurs through 15. In Aves, skin is dry without glands except 18. The skin of mammals is unique in
______, ______ and ______. the ______ at the base of the ______ possessing ______ [NCERT Pg. 60]
[NCERT Pg. 57] [NCERT Pg. 58] 19. The digestive tract of birds has additional
13. In reptiles, body is covered by ______ and 16. The characteristic feature of Aves are the chambers, the ______ and ______
______ skin, ______ scales or ______. presence of ______ [NCERT Pg. 58]
[NCERT Pg. 58]
[NCERT Pg. 58] 17. In Aves, jaws are modified into ______ and
20. In Aves, air sacs connected to lungs ______
14. Snakes and lizards shed their scales as forelimbs are modified into ______
______ [NCERT Pg. 58] respiration. [NCERT Pg. 59]
[NCERT Pg. 58]

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 Structural Organisation in Animals: 2A
Animal Tissues Chapter
1 TISSUE 2 TYPES OF TISSUES 4 CELL JUNCTIONS
m A group of similar cells along with Based on
intercellular substances which perform a m Structure of cells
specific function. m Function performed Tight junctions Adhering junctions Gap junctions
m Organs such as stomach, lungs, heart and by cells
m Prevent leakage m Perform cementing to keep m Facilitate the cells to communicate with
kidney comprise specific proportion and Epithelial tissue across a tissue neighbouring cells together each other by connecting the cytoplasm
pattern of all basic types of tissues. Connective tissue of adjoining cells, for rapid transfer of
m Division of labour contributes to survival Muscular tissue ions, small molecules and sometimes
of multicellular organisms e.g., Hydra. Neural tissue big molecules.

Types of glands:
Characteristics Squamous Cuboidal Columnar Ciliated Glandular
3 I. Based on the number of cells
Figure

m Number of cells Single Many

Cells Flattened, Cube-like Tall and Cuboidal or Cuboidal or Unicellular Multi-cellular

irregular slender columnar columnar
(single-layered)

boundaries m Example Goblet cells Salivary glands

epithelium

(Secrete mucus) (Secrete saliva)

Simple

Nucleus Central Central At base Central or at Central or at

base base

Function Diffusion Secretion and Secretion and Move particles or Specialised

boundary absorption absorption mucus in a for secretion
EPITHELIAL TISSUE

specific direction

Location Air sacs of Tubular parts of Stomach and Bronchioles and Salivary
lungs, walls nephron (PCT), ducts intestine fallopian tubes glands
II. Based on the mode of pouring their
of blood of glands
secretions
vessels

Exocrine glands Endocrine glands

(multi-layered)

Layers 2 or more cell layers

Compound
epithelium

m Ducts Present Absent

Function m Protection against mechanical and chemical stresses
m Secretions Mucus, saliva, earwax, Hormones
m Limited role in secretion and absorption
oil, milk, digestive
Location Dry surface of skin, buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and pancreas enzymes and other cell
products
m Microvilli present in PCT and m Epithelial tissue provides a m Free surface of this tissue m Its cells are compactly
small intestine increase covering or a lining for some faces body fluid or outside packed with little intercellular m Endocrine glands directly release their secretions
surface area for absorption. part of the body. environment. matrix. into the fluid bathing the gland

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NCERT Maps Structural Organisation in Animals: Animal Tissues 13

5 CONNECTIVE TISSUE 6 THREE TYPES OF CONNECTIVE TISSUE

m Most abundant and widely distributed tissue I. LOOSE CONNECTIVE TISSUE II. DENSE CONNECTIVE TISSUE
m Links and supports other tissues and organs m Cells and fibres are loosely packed in semi solid matrix m Fibroblasts and fibres are compactly packed in matrix
m Components of Connective tissue: Types Types
l Matrix/ground substance : Modified polysaccharides

or Intercellular material
l Cells: Fibroblasts, macrophages, adipocytes etc. Areolar tissue Adipose tissue Dense regular Dense irregular
l Fibres: Fibroblasts secrete collagen or elastin fibres m Major Fibroblasts, Adipocytes m Cells and Parallel bundles of Fibroblasts and fibres
cells macrophages, mast cells fibres collagen fibres are oriented differently
Fibres provide strength, elasticity and flexibility to the tissue
m Function(s) Serve as support Reservoir of stored m Location Tendons (attach skeletal Skin
framework for epithelium fats muscles to bone)
III. SPECIALISED CONNECTIVE TISSUE m Location Beneath skin Mainly beneath skin Ligaments (attach bone
1. Skeletal Connective Tissues to bone) Collagen fibres
Macrophage Fat
storage
Fibroblast area m Arrangement
Cartilage Bones
Matrix
Collagen Nucleus of fibres
m Solid, pliable Hard and non-pliable fibres
Plasma and cells
m Cells in Chondrocytes Osteocytes Mast cell membrane
lacuna
m Excess of nutrients not meant for immediate use are
m Location/ Tip of nose, outer Constitutes main converted to fats and are stored in adipose tissue
Functions ear joints, structural
between framework; Interact
vertebrae, limbs 7 MUSCULAR TISSUE 8 NEURAL TISSUE
with skeletal
and hands in muscles to bring m (Myofibrils)n ® (Muscle fibres)n ® Muscle m Tissue with greatest control over the body's
adults Show contractility and return to their uncontracted state in responsiveness to changing conditions.
movements; m
Most of the a coordinated fashion Tissue Components
Bone marrow in
cartilages in some bones is the m Play an active role in all movements
vertebrate
site of production of Parameters Skeletal muscle Smooth/Visceral Cardiac muscle Neurons Neuroglial cells
embryos are fibres muscle fibres fibres
blood cells. Unit of neural More than one
replaced by Shape Cylindrical Spindle/fusiform Cylindrical
bones in adults system half the volume of
No. of nuclei Multi-nucleated Uninucleated Uninucleated neural tissue
Collagen Peripheral nuclei Central Central m Excitability 3 7
fibers Striations Striated Non striated Faint striations
m Function Respond to Protect and
Cartilage cell Branching Unbranched Unbranched Branched
(Chondrocyte) changing support neurons
Under control of Yes (Voluntary) No (Involuntary) No (Involuntary) conditions through
2. Fluid Connective Tissue will
various stimuli
m Blood – main circulating fluid that helps in the Junctions Absent Present Present
Neuroglia
transport of various substances Location Attached to bones Heart wall
Dendrite
m Composed of plasma, RBC, WBC, platelets e.g. Biceps
m Fibroblasts and fibres are absent in blood. Cell body
with nucleus
m Cartilage resists compression. Axon
m Calcium salts and collagen fibres in ground substance
provide strength to the bones. m Upon suitable stimulation, the electrical disturbance
m Lacunae are small cavities enclosing cells with in matrix m Communication junctions (intercalated discs) at some fusion generated travels swiftly along the plasma
secreted by them. points allow the cells of cardiac muscles to contract as a unit. membrane of neuron.

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 14 Structural Organisation in Animals: Animal Tissues NCERT Maps

1. Simple epithelium is present in all the 6. Finger like projections of epithelial cells 10. Which is the most abundant and widely
following regions except which increase surface area for absorption distributed tissue in the body?
[NCERT Pg. 101 and 102] are present in [NCERT Pg. 101] [NCERT Pg. 102]
(1) Stomach (2) Fallopian tube (1) Stomach (2) Small intestine (1) Epithelial tissue
(3) Air sacs of lung (4) Skin (2) Connective tissue
(3) Bronchioles (4) Fallopian tubes
2. In which tissue, are cells compactly packed (3) Muscular tissue
with little intercellular matrix? 7. Which of the following is not the secretion of
exocrine glands? [NCERT Pg. 102] (4) Neural tissue
[NCERT Pg. 101]
11. Tendons join [NCERT Pg. 103]
(1) Epithelial tissue (1) Mucus
(1) Skeletal muscle to bone
(2) Muscular tissue (2) Milk
(2) Bone to bone
(3) Neural tissue (3) Ear wax
(4) Connective tissue (3) Smooth muscles to bone
(4) Hormones
3. Select the single layered epithelium in which (4) Striated muscle to non striated muscle
cells are tall, slender and nuclei are present 8. Epithelium responsible for providing 12. Dense irregular connective tissue is present
at the base [NCERT Pg. 101] protection against mechanical and chemical in [NCERT Pg. 103]
stresses is absent in
(1) Squamous epithelium (1) Tendon
(2) Cuboidal epithelium [NCERT Pg. 102] (2) Ligament
(3) Columnar epithelium (1) Pancreatic ducts (3) Skin
(4) Compound epithelium (2) Ducts of salivary glands (4) Cartilage
4. Single layer of cube-like cells having 13. Fibres are absent in [NCERT Pg. 103]
(3) Buccal cavity
microvilli on their free surface are present in
(4) Tubular parts of nephron (1) Areolar tissue
[NCERT Pg. 101]
(2) Blood
(1) Ducts of glands (2) PCT of nephron 9. Cell junctions in epithelial tissue that
perform cementing to keep neighbouring (3) Bones
(3) Bronchioles (4) Fallopian tubes
cells together are (4) Tendons
5. The epithelium, made up of a single layer of
flattened cells with irregular boundaries is [NCERT Pg. 102] 14. Cartilage is present in all the given regions
present in [NCERT Pg. 101] except [NCERT Pg. 104]
(1) Tight junctions
(1) Walls of blood vessels (1) Outer ear joints
(2) Adhering junctions
(2) Pharynx (2) Tip of nose
(3) Gap junctions
(3) Buccal cavity (3) Between vertebrae
(4) Skin (4) Communication junctions (4) Ligaments

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NCERT Maps Structural Organisation in Animals: Animal Tissues 15

15. Biceps is a type of ______. 17. Select the involuntary muscle in which both 19. Read the following statements and select
Select the option that fills the blank adhering junction and intercalated discs are the incorrect statement w.r.t. given muscle
correctly. [NCERT Pg. 104] present [NCERT Pg. 105] fibres [NCERT Pg. 105]

(1) Skeletal muscle (1) Skeletal muscle (1) Smooth muscle fibres taper at both ends
(2) Smooth muscle (2) Cell junctions hold smooth muscle fibres
(2) Smooth muscle
(3) Non-striated muscle together
(3) Cardiac muscle
(4) Cardiac muscle (3) Smooth muscle fibres are bundled
(4) Non-striated muscle 18. Which of the following statement is together in a connective tissue sheath
16. Choose the odd one w.r.t. location of non- incorrect w.r.t. neural tissue? (4) Cardiac muscle fibres are unbranched
striated, involuntary muscle. [NCERT Pg. 105] 20. Select the tissue having hard, non pliable
[NCERT Pg. 105] (1) All cells are excitable in this tissue ground substance. [NCERT Pg.104]
(1) Wall of blood vessels (2) This tissue exerts greatest control over (1) Enamel
the body’s responsiveness
(2) Stomach (2) Bone
(3) Neuroglial cells protect and support
(3) Intestine neurons (3) Cartilage
(4) Heart (4) Neurons are unit of neural system (4) Ligament

1. The structure of the cells vary according to 5. _______ junctions facilitate the cells to 8. _______ are phagocytic cells of connective
their _______. [NCERT Pg. 100] communicate with each other by connecting tissue. [NCERT Pg. 103]
2. Function of _______ is to move particles or the cytoplasm of adjoining cells, for rapid 9. Cells of _______ tissue are specialized to
mucus in a specific direction over the transfer of ions, small molecules and store fats. This tissue is located mainly
epithelium. [NCERT Pg. 101] sometimes big molecules. beneath the _______. [NCERT Pg. 103]
3. _______ cells of the alimentary canal are [NCERT Pg. 102] 10. _______, _______ and _______ are
example of unicellular exocrine glands. 6. Areolar tissue is present beneath the various types of specialized connective
[NCERT Pg. 102] _______ and often serves as a support tissues. [NCERT Pg. 104]
4. ______ junctions help to stop substances framework for epithelium [NCERT Pg. 103] 11. The intercellular material of ______ is solid,
from leaking across a tissue. 7. _______ cells secrete fibres and matrix. pliable and resists compression.
[NCERT Pg. 102] [NCERT Pg. 103] [NCERT Pg. 104]

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 16 Structural Organisation in Animals: Animal Tissues NCERT Maps
12. Ground substance of bones is rich in 15. Blood is a _______ connective tissue. 18. _______ fuse the plasma membranes of
_______ and ______ fibres which give bone cardiac muscle cells and make them stick
[NCERT Pg. 104] together. [NCERT Pg. 105]
its strength. [NCERT Pg. 104]
16. Muscle fibres are composed of numerous 19. ______ make up more than one-half the
13. Osteocytes are present in the fluid filled volume of neural tissue in our body.
fine fibrils, called ______. [NCERT Pg. 104]
spaces called ______. [NCERT Pg. 104] [NCERT Pg.105]
14. The bones interact with _______ muscles 17. _______ junctions at _______ allow the 20. Arrival of the disturbance at the neuron
endings, triggers events that may cause
attached to them to bring about movements. cells of cardiac muscles to contract as a unit. ______ or ______ of adjacent neurons.
[NCERT Pg. 104] [NCERT Pg. 105] [NCERT Pg.106]

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 Structural Organisation in Animals: 2B
Animal Morphology Chapter
1 INTRODUCTION (Cockroach) m Head bears appendages forming Biting 3 DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
and chewing type of mouth parts
m Classification
Kingdom : Animalia Phylum : Arthropoda Alimentary canal Accessory glands
Class : Insecta Genus : Periplaneta Well developed with a mouth m Salivary gland
Labrum
Species : americana (upper lip) surrounded by mouth parts l 1 pair
Grinding region
m Characteristics: Incising region m Foregut (Lined by cuticle entirely) l Present near crop
l Size : 34-53 mm long Mandible Mandible l Pharynx (shorts tubular)

l Oesophagus (Narrow tubular) m Salivary reservoir

l Colour : Brown or black colour; Bright yellow, Hypopharynx
(tongue)
red and green coloured reported in l Crop (sac like for temporary
tropical regions. storage of food)
l Habitat : Damp places throughout world l Gizzard/proventriculus

l Habit : Nocturnal, Omnivorous l Outer thick circular muscles

m Economic : Pests as they spoil food and and

importance contaminate with smelly excreta. inner six chitinous teeth
Maxilla Labium Maxilla
Transmit several diseases by l Grinding of food particles
(lower lip) m Hepatic/gastric caecae
contaminating food material.
l Ring of 6-8 blind tubules
l At the junction of foregut
2 MORPHOLOGY m Exoskeleton : Hard, brown chitinous plates m Mesenteron/ Midgut and midgut
Head – 6 segments called sclerites Dorsal plates – Tergites (Between forgut and l Secrete digestive juice
m Body divisions Thorax – 3 segments Ventral plates – Sternites hindgut)
Abdomen – 10 segments Plates connected by a thin, flexible articular/
m Malpighian tubules (part of
m Wings extend beyond the tip of abdomen in males. arthrodial membrane. excretory system)
m Hindgut (Broader than midgut)
Appendages: l 100-150 in number
Body Divisions: l Ileum
l Yellow coloured, thin
m Head m Filiform antennae l Colon
filamentous tubules at the
l Triangular, right angle to l Long, sensory thread like l Rectum (Opens out through anus)
junction of midgut and hindgut
longitudinal body axis l Segmented arise from membranous socket
l Present in front of eyes
l Help in monitoring environment m Open type 4 BLOOD VASCULAR SYSTEM
m Thorax m Mesothoracic wings/
l Prothorax Forewings/ Heart Blood vessels Haemolymph
l Mesothorax Tegmina (1 pair) m Elongated muscular tube with 13 chambers m Poorly developed m Composed of colourless

l Metathorax l Opaque, dark and leathery m Lying along mid dorsal line of thorax and abdomen m Open into haemocoel plasma and haemocytes
l Cover hindwings at rest m Funnel shaped chambers with ostia on either side m Visceral organs bathed in
Metathoracic wings/
m m Blood flows anteriorly in heart haemolymph
m Abdomen Hindwings (1 pair) Anterior aorta Alary muscles Chambers of heart Haemolymph
l Transparent and membranous 12 pairs, help in circularion
through ostia
l Meant for flight

m Legs (3 pairs)
Sinuses Circulation of
l 1 pair of walking legs on each haemolymph Heart
m Anal cerci (1 pair) thoracic segment

m Head connected to thorax by short extension of prothorax known as neck. It provide great
mobility of head in all directions. Open circulatory system of cockroach Blood
vessels

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18 Structural Organisation in Animals: Animal Morphology NCERT Maps

5 RESPIRATORY SYSTEM 7 NERVOUS SYSTEM

Parameters Head Ventral part of body
m Structures involved: Network of trachea (thin, branching tubes) that open
through 10 pairs of spiracles present on lateral side of the body m Proportion of m Bit of nervous system m Most part of nervous system
m Opening of spiracles is guarded by sphincters nervous system
Supra-oesophageal ganglion (brain) m Paired longitudinal connectives
m Site for exchange of gases: Tracheoles by diffusion. m Structure m
with series of fused ganglia
Supply nerves to
l 3 ganglia in thorax and 6
6 EXCRETORY SYSTEM Antennae and compound eyes ganglia in abdomen.
m Structure involved: Malpighian tubules, lined by glandular and ciliated cells. (Each compound eye consists of 2000
m They absorb nitrogenous waste products and convert them into uric acid which is hexagonal ommatidia)
excreted out through hindgut. m Sense organs: Antennae, Labial palps, Eyes, Maxillary palps, Anal cerci
m Excretory product: Uric acid (Uricotelic) m Cockroach has mosaic vision with more sensitivity and less resolution
m Other excretory structures: Fat body, nephrocytes and uricose glands. m If head of cockroach is cut off, it will still live for as long as one week

8 REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

MALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

Phallic gland
Testis Ovary
Long
m 1 pair, lateral side tubules m 1 pair
Mushroom gland nd th
th th Small th th m2 -6 abdominal segments
m4 -6 abdominal m 6 -7 abdominal segments
tubules m 1 ovary contains 8 ovarioles
segments m Accessory reproductive
l Each ovariole contains chain
gland of developing ova
External genitalia/ gonapophysis: Seminal vesicle
Vas deferens Spermatheca
Functions: Components: Oviduct
m 1 pair
Ejaculatory duct Common oviduct/vagina th
1. Chitinous m6 abdominal segment
1. Right phallomere m Opens through male genital
asymmetrical pore which is ventral to anus Collaterial gland
structure 2. Ventral phallomere Genital chamber
m 1 pair Genital
2. Present around 3. Left phallomere Anal cercus pouch
m Pseudopenis
m Secrete ootheca Vestibulum
male gonopore Caudal/anal style
Gonapophyses
3. Three phallomeres m Titillator m 1 pair, only in males

th th th m Genital pouch is bounded by 7th sternum (boat shaped) along with 8th and 9th sterna
Male genital pouch is bounded dorsally by 9 and 10 terga and ventrally by 9 sternum. m Anterior part of genital pouch: female gonopore, spermathecal pores and collaterial glands
Path of sperms Path of ova
m Testes ® Vas deferens ® Seminal vesicle ® Ejaculatory duct ® m Female genital pore ¬ Common oviduct/Vagina ¬ Oviduct ¬ Ovary (Ovarioles)
Male genital pore ® Spermatheca of female during copulation
Sperms Ova
Anal cerci Anal style
m Female genital pouch
m Paired, long Paired, short m Female deposits ootheca in crack or crevice
m Fertilisation
m Jointed Unjointed 13 times moulting (Paurometabolous development)
m Secretion of collaterial glands form ootheca m Nymph Adult
m Filamentous Thread like Next to last nymphal stage has wing pads but only adult cockroaches have
m On an average female produces 9-10 ootheca, m
m and each containing 14 to 16 fertilised eggs wings.

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NCERT Maps Structural Organisation in Animals: Animal Morphology 19

9 INTRODUCTION (EARTHWORM) 11 ANATOMY 13 CIRCULATORY SYSTEM 17 REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

m Phylum : Annelida Gland cell Cuticle (thin, non-cellular) m Closed type m Hermaphrodite (bisexual)
m 4 pairs of tubular hearts, blood vessels and m Protandrous condition, cross fertilisation
m Habitat: Upper layer of the moist soil Epidermis (Simple columnar
capillaries

Body wall
epithelium with gland cells) m Mutual exchange of sperms occur between
m During day, live in burrows (made by Circular muscle layer l Lateral oesophageal hearts two worms during mating
boring and swallowing the soil Longitudinal muscle layer
th th
2 pairs, 7 and 9 segments m Mate in Juxtaposing opposite gonadal
m Can be traced by faecal deposits known l Lateral hearts openings exchanging packets of sperms
Coelomic epithelium
as worm castings th th called spermatophores
2 pairs, 12 and 13 segments
Pheretima and Lumbricus are common Spermathecal pore
m
12 ALIMENTARY CANAL m Dorsal blood vessel is largest blood 1 m 4 pairs
Indian earthworms vessel 2 th th th th th th th th
m Straight tube between first and last segment 3 m 5 /6 , 6 /7 , 7 /8 , 8 /9
m Anterior loops-1 pair, 10th & 11th segments 4
intersegmental groove
10 MORPHOLOGY m Starts from mouth and opens to the exterior by m Blood glands 4th, 5th and 6th segments, 5
m Ventro-lateral sides
rounded anus. they produce blood cells (phagocytic) and 6
m Long cylindrical body Spermatheca
Mouth
haemoglobin which is dissolved in blood m 4 pairs
m 100-120 segments/metameres plasma. 7 th th
m 6 -9 segments
m Dorsal side: Marked by mid dorsal line 1 m Receive and store
2 8
Buccal cavity spermatozoa during copulation
(Dorsal blood vessel) 3 st rd 14 RESPIRATION
m 1 -3 segments
4
m Ventral side: Marked by presence of Muscular pharynx m Moist body surface (cutaneous respiration) 9 Testis
5
genital openings (pores) m 2 pairs
6 10 th th
Prostomium 15 EXCRETORY ORGANS m 10 and 11 segments
7 Oesophagus 11 Testes sac
m Lobe that cover mouth th th m Nephridia (segmentally arranged coiled
8 m 5 -7 segments Spermiducal funnel
m Helps in burrowing
9 tubules) 12 Seminal vesicle (2 pairs)
m Sensory
l 3 types (Similar in structure)
th th
10 Muscular gizzard m 11 and 12 segments
th th
13
Peristomium 11 m 8 -9 segments 1. Septal nephridia Ovary
Pre-clitellar Mouth m First body 12 m Grinding of soil
l On both sides of intersegmental septa of m 1 pair
segments segment/ buccal particles and th
14
13 decaying leaves m Intersegmental groove of
segment 15 to last segment th th
14 12 and 13 segments
Stomach l Open into intestine 15
Clitellar Clitellum 15 m 9th-14th segments Oviduct
segments th
m Glandular tissue in 14 , 16 m Calciferous glands, 2. Integumentary nephridia Female genital pore
neutralise humic 16
15th and 16th segments 17 acid l Attached to inner lining of body wall from m Single
m Forms cocoon 18 rd
3 to last segment m Mid-ventral
m Present in mature Intestine 17 th
19 m 14 segment
earthworm m 15th-last segment l Open on the body surface through a pore
20 m Absorption of Accessory glands
simple molecules l Forest of integumentary nephridia on
18 m 2 pairs
21
th th
22 clitellar segments m 17 and 19 segments
Post-clitellar Intestinal caecae 19
23 3. Pharyngeal nephridia Common prostatic and
segments m 1 pair, conical spermatic duct (vasa
Metameres 24 m Projects from th th th
m 100-120 in th l 3 paired tufts in 4 , 5 and 6 segments 20 deferentia)
25 26 segment
number
26
Lymph glands 16 NERVOUS SYSTEM Male genital pore Prostate gland
Dorsal blood 27 m 1 pair
28
m Represented by ganglia arranged segment th
m 18 segment
m 1 pair
vessel th th
m 17 -20 segment
m Dark median 29
wise on the ventral paired nerve cord. m Ventro-lateral sides
mid dorsal line 30 m The nerve cord in the anterior region (3rd and
Typhlosole
4th segments) bifurcates, laterally encircling m Fertilisation and development occurs in
31
Dorsal view of Earthworm m Internal median cocoons produced by clitellum which are
32 fold of dorsal wall
the pharynx and joins the cerebral ganglia deposited in soil.
m Setae: S-shaped, ring of setae embedded in 33 th th
m 26 -95 segment dorsally to form a nerve ring.
epidermal pits, present on each body m After about 3 weeks each cocoon produces
34 m Increases
segment except first, last and clitellum. Can surface area for
m Receptor cells for light, touch and taste are 2-20 baby worms with an average of 4
extend or retract and helps in locomotion absorption present on anterior part. Eyes absent. m Direct development (No larval stage)

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 20 Structural Organisation in Animals: Animal Morphology NCERT Maps

18 INTRODUCTION (FROG/Rana tigrina) 21 RESPIRATION 24 CONTROL AND COORDINATION

m Class: Amphibia Location/during Mode of respiration m Include neural system and endocrine glands
m Habitat: Fresh water and land
m Water, hibernation, m Cutaneous (highly Neural systems
m Habit: Poikilotherms, camouflage, undergo aestivation aestivation vascularised
(summer sleep) and hibernation (winter sleep), never
drink water but absorb through skin m Land m Cutaneous, buccal
cavity, pulmonary CNS PNS
m Economic importance:
m Cranial nerves (10 pairs)
l Beneficial to mankind as they eat insects and protect the
crops m Spinal nerves
Brain enclosed Spinal cord enclosed
l Maintain ecological balance as they serve as link of food
m Lungs are a pair of elongated pink coloured m ANS
in cranium in vertebral column
chain and food web in the ecosystem. sac-lik structures present in the thorax
l Muscular legs are used as food in some countries m Pulmonary respiration: Air ® Nostrils ®
buccal cavity ® lungs Forebrain Midbrain Hindbrain
19 MORPHOLOGY m Olfactory lobes m Optic lobes m Cerebellum
m Dorsal side: Olive green with (Paired)
m Cerebral hemispheres m Medulla oblongata (Passes
dark irregular spots. 22 CIRCULATORY SYSTEM (Paired) through foramen magnum
m Ventral side: Pale yellow Trunk
Head m Closed type with single circulation m Unpaired diencephalon and continues into spinal
m Body division: Head and Eye
cord)
Trunk, m Three chambered heart (two atria and one
Neck and Tail absent Fore limb ventricle) covered by pericardium m Sense organs
Hind limb l Sensory papillae – Touch
m Limbs helps in swimming, m Sinus venosus (triangular) joins the right atrium
walking, leaping, burrowing External features of frog
l Taste buds – Taste Cellular aggregations around
m Ventricles opens into a sac like conus arteriosus nerve endings
Parameter Forelimbs Hindlimbs l Nasal epithelium – Smell
on the ventral side of the heart
Digits 4 5 Hepatic l Simple eyes – Vision
Size Smaller Larger and more muscular Liver Intestine
Portal system l Ear – Hearing and equilibrium Well organised structures
Web û ü, for swimming l External ear is absent in frogs.
Renal
m Show sexual dimorphism Kidneys Portal system Lower parts of the body
Parameter Male Female
m Endocrine glands
Copulatory pad First digit of forelimb û
m Blood: l Pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, thymus, pineal body, pancreatic islets,

Vocal sac Prominent û Nucleated RBCs/erythorocytes contain adrenals and gonads

haemoglobin, WBC's/leucocytes & platelets
20 DIGESTIVE SYSTEM m Lymphatic system: Lymph (lacks few proteins 25 REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
and RBCs), lymph channels, Lymph nodes Male Route of sperm:
Fat bodies Testis
Alimentary canal Digestive glands ¯
Testis Vasa efferentia
(Short because frogs Liver, pancreas 23 EXCRETORY SYSTEM Vasa efferentia
m 1 pair, yellowish,
are carnivorous) m 10-12 in number ¯
m Ureotelic ovoid Bidder's canal
Oesophagus (short tube) m Open into Bidder's canal
m Attached to upper ¯
Liver (synthesise bile) Adrenal gland Kidney m Finally communicates with Urinogenital
part of kidneys by a
m Red, bean like urinogenital duct duct
double fold of
Stomach m Each side of vertebral column Urinogenital duct ¯
peritoneum called Cloaca
m Nephron/uriniferous tubule (ureter)
Intestine mesorchium ¯
Rectum (structural and functional Cloacal
Cloacal unit) Female aperture
aperture Route of ova: Ovary
Ureter Ovaries
m Food is captured by the bilobed tongue ¯
m 1 pair, near kidneys
m A mature female can lay
Digestion of food by the action of HCl and gastric juices m Acts as urinogenital duct in males m No functional
m Rectum Body cavity 2500 to 3000 ova at a time.
occur in stomach and is called Chyme m In females, ureter and oviduct ¯ connection with
kidneys m Fertilisation is external and
m Bile (emulsifies fat) and pancreatic juice through common open separately in cloaca Oviduct
¯ Oviduct takes places in water.
bile duct digest carbohydrates and proteins in intestine m Development involves a
Cloaca Cloaca m 1 pair, opens
m Digestion completes in small intestine Urinary bladder
m Red, bean like m Small, median chamber ¯ separately into larval stage called tadpole.
m Digested food is absorbed by villi and microvilli m Helps store & pass faecal matter, Cloacal aperture cloaca Ta d p o l e u n d e r g o e s
m Ventral to rectum Ureter
m Undigested waste moves into the rectum and passes out m Opens in cloaca
urine and sperms to the exterior Urinary
Cloaca metamorphosis to form the
through cloaca via cloacal aperture bladder Cloacal aperture adult.

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NCERT Maps Structural Organisation in Animals: Animal Morphology 21

1. All of the following characteristics describe (1) Abdomen – 10 segments (1) Statement A is incorrect
sexual dimorphism in Periplaneta (2) Anal cerci – 10th segment (2) Statement B is correct
americana, except [NCERT Pg. 111] (3) Malpighian tubules – 100-150 (3) Both A and B statements are incorrect
(1) Wings extend beyond the tip of abdomen (4) Tracheal system – 10 spiracles
(4) Only statement B is incorrect
in males 6. Grinding of food first occurs by which
structure in cockroach? 10. Nerves from supra-oesophageal ganglion in
(2) 7th sternum is boat shaped in females
cockroach innervates A and B .
(3) Anal styles are present in males and [NCERT Pg. 112 & 113]
Choose the option which correctly fill the
absent in females (1) Six chitinous teeth in gizzard
blanks A and B. [NCERT Pg. 114]
(4) Anal cerci are present in females and (2) Crop
A B
absent in males (3) Mandible
(4) Maxillae (1) Antennae Compound eyes
2. The first pair of wings in cockroach arises
from [NCERT Pg. 112] 7. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. (2) Labrum Labium
(1) Prothorax (2) Pronotum circulatory system of cockroach? (3) Antennae Labium
[NCERT Pg. 113] (4) Compound eyes Mandibles
(3) Mesothorax (4) Metathorax
(1) Open circulatory system 11. Match the following columns w.r.t.
3. Transparent, membranous wings which are
(2) Blood vessels are absent cockroach and choose the correct option
used in flight in cockroach are
(3) Haemocytes are present in haemolymph [NCERT Pg. 114]
[NCERT Pg. 112]
(4) Haemolymph flows in heart anteriorly
(1) Mesothoracic wings Column-I Column-II
8. Exchange of gases in cockroach take place
(2) Metathoracic wings a. Testes (i) 6th abdominal
at the [NCERT Pg 114]
segment
(3) Tegmina (1) Trachea (2) Tracheoles
b. Ovary (ii) 4th-6th abdominal
(4) Forewings (3) Spiracles (4) Ostia
segments
4. Hepatic caecae are present at the junction of 9. Read the following statements and choose
the correct option. c. Mushroom gland (iii) 2nd-6th abdominal
[NCERT Pg. 113] segments
Statement-A : Nervous system of
(1) Proventriculus and foregut cockroach consists of a series of fused, d. Spermatheca (iv) 6th-7th abdominal
(2) Gizzard and midgut segmentally arranged ganglia joined by segments
(3) Midgut and hindgut paired longitudinal connectives. (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
Statement-B : In cockroach, head holds a
(4) Crop and gizzard (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
bit of a nervous system while the rest is
5. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. cockroach situated along the dorsal part of the body. (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
[NCERT Pg. 113] [NCERT Pg.114] (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
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 22 Structural Organisation in Animals: Animal Morphology NCERT Maps
12. In female cockroach, sperms are stored in 16. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. 18. Which of the following structure acts as urino
[NCERT Pg. 114] sensory system in earthworm. genital duct in male frogs?
(1) Seminal vesicles [NCERT Pg. 110] [NCERT Pg.118]
(2) Spermatheca (1) Urethra
(1) Eyes are absent but receptor cells are
(3) Ejaculatory duct (2) Ureters
present to distinguish light intensities
(4) Vagina (3) Urinary bladder
(2) Receptor cells for touch are present to
13. Ootheca, which is dark reddish to blackish (4) Vasa efferentia
brown capsule, about 3/8” (8 mm) long is feel vibrations in the ground
formed by the secretions of 19. Male frog can be distinguished externally
(3) Sense organs are located on the anterior
from female frog by all of the following
[NCERT Pg. 114] part of earthworm
features except [NCERT Pg. 116]
(1) Mushroom gland
(4) Taste receptors (chemoreceptors) are
a. Presence of sound producing vocal sacs
(2) Phallic gland absent in earthworm
b. Presence of copulatory pad on the first
(3) Collaterial glands
17. Earthworms are known as “Friends of digit of the forelimbs
(4) Long tubules of male accessory gland
Farmers” because [NCERT Pg. 108, 111] c. Ureters carry both sperms and urine in
14. Choose the odd one w.r.t. external genitalia
in male cockroach a. They make the soil porous male frog

[NCERT Pg. 112, 114, 115] b. Increases soil fertility d. Testes are adhered to the upper part of
kidneys by a double fold of peritoneum
(1) 3 pairs of gonapophyses c. Larger soil particles are grind up into called mesorchium
(2) Chitinous asymmetrical structures finer ones
(1) a, b, c and d
(3) Pseudopenis and titillator are part of left
d. They neutralises humic acid present in (2) a and b only
phallomere
the soil.
(4) Present in male genital pouch, ventral to (3) a, b and c only
anus How many of the above statements are (4) c and d only
15. Posterior part of female genital pouch is correct?
20. On land, frog respires by [NCERT Pg. 118]
called [NCERT Pg. 115]
(1) Four (1) Skin only
(1) Vestibulum
(2) Three (2) Skin and buccal cavity only
(2) Vagina
(3) Genital chamber (3) Two (3) Skin, lungs and buccal cavity
(4) Gonapophyses (4) One (4) Lungs only

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NCERT Maps Structural Organisation in Animals: Animal Morphology 23

1. Size of cockroaches ranges from _____ 8. Malpighian tubules are lined by _____ and 14. In cockroach, the ejaculatory duct opens
inches to _____ inches (____to ____ cm). into _____ situated _____ to anus.
_____ cells. They absorb _____ waste
[NCERT Pg. 111] products and convert them into _____ which [NCERT Pg. 114]
2. Head of cockroach is formed by fusion of is excreted out through the _____.
15. In cockroach, each ovary is formed of a
_____ segments and lies anteriorly at _____
[NCERT Pg. 114] group of _____ ovarioles. Oviducts of each
angle to the longitudinal body axis, head
shows greater mobility in all directions due ovary unite into a single median _____.
9. In cockroach, brain is represented by _____
to flexible _____. [NCERT Pg. 112] [NCERT Pg. 114]
[NCERT Pg. 114]
3. In female cockroach, _____ is boat shaped 16. The process of increasing fertility of soil by
and together with _____ and _____ forms a 10. Each compound eye consists of _____ the earthworms is called _____.
blood or genital pouch. [NCERT Pg. 112] hexagonal ommatidia. _____ vision is
[NCERT Pg. 111]
4. Anterior part of genital pouch in female present in cockroach with more _____ and
cockroach contains _____, _____ and less _____. [NCERT Pg. 114] 17. The characteristic feature of the intestine of
_____. [NCERT Pg. 112] earthworm is the presence of internal
11. On an average, a female cockroach
5. In male cockroach, genital pouch or median fold of dorsal wall called _____. This
produces _____ ootheca, each containing increases area of _____. [NCERT Pg. 108]
chamber is bounded dorsally by _____ and
_____ and ventrally by the _____. _____ eggs. [NCERT Pg. 115]
18. Summer sleep is called _____ and winter
[NCERT Pg. 112] 12. The development of Periplaneta americana sleep is called _____. [NCERT Pg. 116]
is _____. The nymph grows by moulting
6. Male genital pouch in cockroach contains 19. Vasa efferentia in frog are _____ in number
dorsal _____, ventral _____ and _____. about _____ to reach the adult form.
that arise from _____. They enter the
[NCERT Pg. 112] [NCERT Pg. 115] kidneys on their side and open into _____.

7. In cockroach excretion is performed by 13. The _____ nymphal stage has _____ but [NCERT Pg. 119]
_____. In addition, the _____, _____ and only _____ cockroaches have wings. 20. _____ of cranial nerves are present in frog.
_____ also help in excretion.
[NCERT Pg. 115] [NCERT Pg. 119]
[NCERT Pg. 114]

  

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 Biomolecules
3
Chapter

1 BIOMOLECULE 2 ELEMENTAL ANALYSIS

m All the carbon compounds that we get from living tissues can be called m Elemental analysis gives elemental composition of living m Carbon and hydrogen with respect to
‘biomolecules’. However, living organisms have also got inorganic tissues in the form of hydrogen, oxygen, chlorine, carbon etc. other elements are more in any living
elements and compounds in them. Weigh organisms than in earth’s crust
Wet weight
Chemical Analysis m Living tissue Dry m Oxygen is the most abundant element
Living tissue + Trichloroacetic acid All water evoporates Dry weight in living organism
(Plant tissue/animal (Cl3CCOOH) Burn ‘Ash’ (contains only m Analytical technique gives an idea about
m Dried the molecular formula and the probable
tissue/microbial paste) All carbon compounds inorganic elements)
living tissue oxidise to CO2 and H2O structure of the compound.
Thick slurry
Comparison of Elements Present in Average Composition of Cells
Non-living and Living Matter
Cheese cloth Element % Weight of Earth’s crust Human body Component % of the total cellular mass
Hydrogen (H) 0.14 0.5 Water 70-90
Carbon (C) 0.03 18.5 Proteins 10-15
Oxygen (O) 46.6 65.0 Nucleic acids 5-7
Carbohydrates 3
Nitrogen (N) very little 3.3
Filtrate (Acid soluble) Retentate (Acid insoluble) 0.03 0.3
Lipids 2
Sulphur (S) Ions 1
Roughly cytoplasmic components Sodium (Na) 2.8 0.2
Calcium (Ca) 3.6 1.5
Magnesium (Mg) 2.1 0.1 Water is the most abundant chemical in
Inorganic Organic Organic Silicon (Si) 27.7 negligible living organisms
Biomicromolecules Biomacromolecules
m Water m M.wt - 18-800 Da m M.wt - > 10,000 Da
4 CARBOHYDRATES
+ + +2
m Ions (e.g. Na , K , Ca , m Monomeric form m Polymeric form

Mg , PO4 , SO4 , etc.) E.g., Simple sugars

+2 –3 –2 Polysaccharides
Nucleotides Nucleic acids Monosaccharides/sugar Polysaccharides
m Gases
Amino acids Proteins m Single unit m Many units/long chains of sugars
Lipids (Not a polymer) No. of m Units linked together by glycosidic bond formed
Carbon 5C 6C by dehydration.
3 METABOLITES (BIOMOLECULES)
m Not strictly biomacromolecule Formula C5H10O5 C6H12O6
m M.wt < 800 Da Example Ribose Glucose Homopolysaccharides Heteropolysaccharides
Primary metabolite Secondary metabolite m Cell membrane fragments form
HOCH2 O CH2OH m Same monomer units mDifferent monomer units
m Identifiable
m Not involved in primary vesicles which are not water soluble O

metabolism Structure
OH
functions Some Secondary Metabolites OH OH OH
m Seems to have no direct Features Glycogen Starch Inulin Cellulose Chitin
m Play known function in growth and Pigments Carotenoids, Anthocyanins OH OH OH
Found in Animals Plants Plants Plants Animals
roles in development of organisms Alkaloids Morphine, Codeine
m G l y c o g e n ® R i g h t e n d i s Function Storage Storage Cell wall Exoskeleton
physiological m Many of them are useful Terpenoides Monoterpenes, Diterpenes
reducing while left end is non- (Structural) of arthropods
processes e.g. to human welfare e.g., Essential oils Lemon grass oil reducing Monomer Glucose Fructose Glucose N-acetyl
rubber, drugs, spices and Toxins Abrin, Ricin m Starch hold I2 in helical portion glucosamine
sugars, amino
pigments. Some have Lectins Concanavalin A m Cellulose can not hold I2 as no
acids lipids, ecological importance helical portion Branching P
Drugs Vinblastin, curcumin
nitrogen bases, m E.g., Flavonoids, Polymeric Rubber, gums, cellulose m Cotton fibre ® Cellulose Colour Red Blue X
etc. antibiotics etc. substances m Paper is made from plant pulp with I2

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NCERT Maps Biomolecules 25

5 NUCLEIC ACIDS Wastson-Crick model of B-DNA

Polymer of nucleotides m DNA exists as double helix (secondary m Phosphate moiety links 3¢-carbon of one
m Sugar/monosaccharide
structure) sugar of one nucleotide to 5¢ carbon of
m Each nucleotide comprises Heterocyclic Nucleoside
nitrogenous base Nucleotide m Two polynucleotide strands are helically coiled sugar of succeeding nucleotide
around a common axis m Nitrogen bases are perpendicular to
Phosphate
m The two polynucleotide strands are antiparallel backbone and faces inside.
Nitrogenous base Nucleoside Nucleotide i.e., run in opposite direction and complementary m At each step of ascent, strand turns 36°
m Adenine m Adenosine O m Adenylic acid to each other m 1 turn = 10 base pairs
NH2 HOCH2 O Adenine HO–P–OCH2 O Adenine
Substituted

m A and G of one stand compulsorily base pairs with T m 1 complete turn = 34Å
Purines

N N OH and C respectively, on the other strand m Rise per base pair = 3.4Å
m Always two hydrogen bonds exist between A and T O
N NH
and three hydrogen bonds between C and G
OH OH OH OH
Guanine Guanosine O 2 hydrogen bonds
m m m Guanylic acid
m Thymine m Thymidine m Thymidylic acid CH2 O Thymine Adenine CH2
O
m Cytosine m Cytidine m Cytidylic acid
O
Pyrimidine

Uracil Uridine m Uridylic acid

Substituted

m m Base pair Phosphodiester bond –

O O (formed by dehydration) O P O
HOCH2 O Uracil Ester bond –
HN HO–P–OCH2 O Uracil O O HO O
–
OH O P O
O 3 hydrogen bonds
N O
H Sugar
OH OH phosphate O
OH OH H 2C Guanine Cytosine O CH2
backbone
m Ribose sugar and uracil exist in RNA (Ribonucleic acid) O
m 2¢-deoxyribose sugar and thymine exist in DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid)
m DNA and RNA function as genetic material
O

6 LIPIDS
m Generally water insoluble I. Many lipids are esters of fatty acids and glycerol II. S o m e l i p i d s h a v e p h o s p h o r o u s a n d
m Could be simple fatty acids (R – COOH) where R group could be phosphorylated organic compound called
Methyl (–CH3), ethyl (–C2H5), higher no. of –CH2 (C–1 to 19) No. of Glycerol phospholipids
l Type
m Types of fatty acids fatty acids (trihydroxy propane) e.g., Lecithin - found in cell membrane
Monoglyceride 1 1 CH2 – CH – CH2 Neural tissues - lipids with more complex
Parameter Saturated Unsaturated
Diglyceride 2 1 structure O
No. of C = C X One or more OH OH OH
Triglyceride 3 1 O CH2 – O – C – R1
double bonds
R2 – C – O – CH O
Example Palmitic acid (16 carbon Arachidonic acid (20 carbon Melting point State in winters Examples
including carboxyl including carboxyl carbon) Fats Higher Solid Ghee, Butter CH2 – O – P – O – CH2 – CH2
carbon) Oils Lower Liquid Gingelly oil H N
+

CH3 – (CH2)14 – COOH O Phospholipid (Lecithin) CH3 CH3 CH3

O CH2 – O – C – R1 III. Cholesterol, have lipid like properties
R2 – C – O – CH O
CH2 – O – C – R3
Triglyceride (R1 R2 and R3 are fatty acids) Cholesterol
HO

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26 Biomolecules NCERT Maps

7 AMINO ACIDS 8 STRUCTURE OF PROTEINS

m Organic compounds containing an amino group and an acidic group m Each protein is a heteropolymer of amino acids linked by peptide bonds (formed by dehydration) and
as substituents on same carbon i.e., a-carbon, hence called a- only 20 types of amino acids participate in their formation.
amino acids. m Biologists describe structure of proteins at four levels :
m Substituted methane, four substituent groups occupying four
valency positions. Level Typical Structure
m Chemical and physical properties of amino acids are essentially of Primary Positional information of sequence of amino COOH
m NH2
amino, carboxyl and R-functional groups acids Left end Right end
Types of amino acids m N-terminal m C-terminal
m Protein thread as extended rigid rod m First amino acid m Last amino acid
I. On the basis of R-group II. On the basis of Nature of
amino acids Secondary m Thread folded in the form of a helix i.e., similar to
R-group Amino acids
Nature Amino acids revolving stair case
–H Glycine
Acidic Glutamic acid m Only right handed helices observed in proteins
–CH3 Alanine Alpha-Helix Beta-pleated sheet
(methyl) Basic Lysine Tertiary m 3-dimensional view, like hollow woolen ball Hydrogen bond
– CH2 – OH Serine Neutral Valine m This structure is absolutely necessary for many Disulphide bond
(hydroxy methyl) Aromatic Tyrosine, tryptophan, biological activities of proteins
phenylalanine Quaternary m More than one polypeptide chains are involved eg.
III. On the basis of Body’s
requirement Haemoglobin consists of 4 subunits: 2a and 2b
Zwitterionic Form m It is based on how individual polypeptide are
Non-essential Essential m A particular property of amino arranged with respect to each other
Synthesised Not synthesised acids is the ionisable nature of
by body by body – NH2 and –COOH group. 10 DYNAMIC STATE OF BODY CONSTITUENTS Carbonic anhydrase
Not required Required m In solutions of different pH the CO2 + H2O H2CO3
m Living state is a non-equilibrium steady state to be able to
in diet in diet structure of amino acids
perform work m Carbonic anhydrase is present in
changes.
m Living process is constant effort to prevent falling into equilibrium cytoplasm
R R R m Living state and metabolism are synonymous. m With enzyme - 6,00,000 molecules of
+ + – –
H3N – CH – COOH H3N – CH – COO H2N – CH – COO m Without metabolism there can not be a living state H2CO3 formed in 1 sec, Rate increases
m Metabolism is sum total of all the reactions in the body 10 million times
Zwitterionic form m There is no uncatalysed metabolic conversion in living system
(Both positive and negative charge) m Without enzyme - 200 molecules/hr
Metabolic pathways (Series of linked reactions)
m Rate refers to the amount of product formed
9 SOME PROTEINS AND THEIR FUNCTIONS per unit time, expressed as rate = dP/dt
Catabolic pathways Anabolic pathways
Protein Functions m Degradation pathways m Biosynthetic pathways m Rate double or decreases by half for every
Collagen Intercellular ground substance m Complex structure converts m Formation of complex structure 10°C change in either direction.
into simpler structure from simple structures m Flow of metabolites through metabolic
Trypsin Enzyme Energy released (stored in Energy is used
m m pathways has a definite direction, this is
Insulin Hormone ATP) m Examples called dynamic state of body constituents
Antibody Fights infectious agents m Examples l Acetic acid ® Cholesterol m Biomolecules are constantly being changed
Receptor Sensory reception (smell, taste, hormone) anaerobic l Amino acids ® Proteins into some other biomolecules and also
l Glucose Lactic acid
GLUT-4 Enables glucose transport into cells made from some other biomolecules called
(skeletal muscle)
anaerobic turnover
l Glucose Ethanol (In yeast)
m Collagen is the most abduant protein in animal world Glycolysis m Glucose concentration in blood : 4.2 - 6.1 m
m RuBisCO is the most abduant protein in the whole of the biosphere l Glucose Pyruvic acid mol/L
10 steps

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NCERT Maps Biomolecules 27

11 ENZYMES (BIOCATALYST) 13 CLASSIFICATION AND NOMENCLATURE OF ENZYMES

Properties: m Thousands of enzymes have been discovered, isolated and studied. Most of these enzymes have been classified into
m Tertiary structure m Unchanged at the end of reaction different groups based on the type of reactions they catalyse. Enzymes are divided into 6 classes each with 4-13
m Highly specific m Not used up in the reaction subclasses and named accordingly by a four-digit number.
m Proteinaceous in nature except ribozymes (nucleic acids)

m Increases rate of reaction by lowering activation energy

Class Name Function
m Have active site/pockets where substrate binds I Oxidoreductases/ Enzymes which catalyse oxidoreduction between two substrates S and S’
m Inorganic catalysts work efficiently at high temperatures and high dehydrogenases: S reduced + S’ oxidised ® S oxidised + S’ reduced.
pressures while enzymes get denatured at high temperature
II Transferases: Enzymes catalysing a transfer of a group, G (other than hydrogen) between a pair of
(> 40°C) except enzymes of thermophilic organisms (can
tolerate 80°-90°C). substrate S and S’. S – G + S’ ¾® S + S’ – G
m For metabolic conversion, substrate ‘S’ has to bind the enzyme at III Hydrolases: Enzymes catalysing hydrolysis of ester, ether, peptide, glycosidic, C – C, C – halide or
its active site and results in obligatory formation of ‘ES’ complex P-N bonds.
(Transient phenomenon), essential for catalysis.
IV Lyases: Enzymes that catalyse removal of groups from substrates by mechanisms other than
m Structure of substrate gets Transition state
transformed into structure of Activation energy hydrolysis leaving double bonds. X Y
product(s)
Potential Energy

without enzyme
Activation C– C X–Y+C=C
E+S ES EP E+P energy with V Isomerases: Includes all enzymes catalysing inter-conversion of optical, geometric or positional
Substrate enzyme
(S) isomers.
‘Altered structural states’
(unstable) VI Ligases: Enzymes catalysing the linking together of 2 compounds, e.g., enzymes which catalyse
Product (P)
Progress of reaction joining of C-O, C-S, C-N, P-O etc. bonds.
m Difference in average
energy content of ‘S’ from (1) Temperature 12 FACTORS AFFECTING ENZYME ACTIVITY
that of transition state is m Enzyme shows highest activity at optimum temperature
called ‘Activation energy’ (3) Substrate concentration
m Enzyme activity declines both below and above optimum value

Enzyme activity
m Transition state – High m Low temperature preserves enzymes in temporarily inactive state
Initially rate of reaction increases with increase in
energy unstable state substrate concentration but becomes constant when
m High temperature destroys enzymatic activity by denaturing their
m ‘P’ is at lower level than ‘S’ – all enzymes get saturated with substrate
structure
Reaction is exothermic (2) pH (4) Binding of specific chemicals
m ‘S’ is at lower level than ‘P’ – m Enzyme shows highest activity at optimum pH When binding of chemicals shuts off enzyme activity,
Temperature
Reaction is endothermic the process is called inhibition and chemical is
m Rate of reaction declines both below and above optimum pH

Enzyme activity
called inhibitor
Enzymes 14 CO-FACTORS Prosthetic group Competitive inhibitor:
m Organic, tightly bound to apoenzyme
m Haem is prosthetic group for catalase and m Inhibitor compete with substrate for active site
Simple enzymes Conjugated enzymes
m Only protein
peroxidase m Closely resembles substrate in molecular
Co-enzyme pH structure and inhibits enzyme activity
Apo-enzyme (inactive) Co-factor m Organic, loosely bound to apo-enzyme for Vmax m Consequently, substrate can not bind and as a
m Protein part m Non-protein part transient period (just during catalysis) result enzyme action declines.
reaction (V)

e.g., NAD, NADP (Contain niacin vitamin)

Velocity of

m
Catalytically active enzyme Vmax m e.g., (1) Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by
Metal ions 2
m Form coordination bond with active site and malonate
Catalytic activity is lost if co-factor is one or more coordination bond with substrate (2) Control of bacterial pathogens by
+2
removed m Zn for carboxypeptidase K [S] competitive inhibitor
m

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 28 Biomolecules NCERT Maps

1. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. 5. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. average 9. Select the statement which holds true for
elemental analysis of living and non-living composition of cells [NCERT Pg. 147] lipids [NCERT Pg. 144]
matter [NCERT Pg. 143]
(1) Protein – 10-15% (1) Arachidonic acid has 20C excluding
(1) Oxygen is the most abundant element in
(2) Lipids – 3% carboxyl carbon
the human body
(3) Nucleic acids – 5-7% (2) Palmitic acid has 18C carbon excluding
(2) All the elements present in earth’s crust
are also present in living organisms carboxyl carbon
(4) Water – 70-90%
(3) ‘Ash’ analysis gives an idea about (3) Glycerol is trihydroxy propane
6. Select a secondary metabolite which is
organic constituents of living tissue alkaloid also [NCERT Pg. 146] (4) Neural tissues have lipids with more
(4) Analytical techniques gives an idea simple structures
(1) Carotenoids (2) Morphine
about molecular formula and probable
(3) Vinblastin (4) Ricin 10. Select the amino acid which has extra amino
structure of the compound
group [NCERT Pg. 144]
2. For chemical analysis of living tissue, it is 7. Choose the odd one w.r.t. aromatic amino
grind with [NCERT Pg.142] acids [NCERT Pg. 144] (1) Valine
(1) Cl2CHCOOH (2) Cl3CCOOH (1) Glycine (2) Glutamic acid
(3) ClCH2COOH (4) CH3COOH (2) Tyrosine (3) Lysine
3. All the given molecules are present in
(3) Tryptophan (4) Tyrosine
retentate except [NCERT Pg. 142,146]
(4) Phenylalanine 11. Which of the following is zwitterionic form of
(1) Lipids
8. The chemical and physical properties of amino acid? [NCERT Pg. 144]
(2) Amino acids
amino acids are essentially of the
(3) Polysaccharide
X , Y and the Z groups. Choose (1)
(4) Nucleic acids
the option which is correct for X, Y and Z
4. Molecular weight of lipids is
[NCERT Pg. 144] (2)
[NCERT Pg. 146]
(1) X-amino, Z-Hydroxyl
(1) Less than 800 Da
(2) 10,000 Da (2) Y-Hydroxyl, Z-R-group (3)

(3) > 10,000 Da (3) Y-Carboxyl, Z-R-group

(4) < 18 Da (4) X-Carbonyl, Z-Hydroxyl (4)

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NCERT Maps Biomolecules 29

12. In a nucleotide, phosphate group is linked to (1) Monosaccharides – Glycosidic bond 17. Which structure is absolutely necessary for
A by B bond. Choose the option which the many biological activities of proteins?
(2) Nucleotides – Phosphodiester [NCERT Pg. 150]
correctly fill the blanks [NCERT Pg. 144] bond
(1) Primary (2) Secondary
A B
(3) Glycerol and fatty – Ether bond (3) Tertiary (4) Quaternary
(1) Adenine Ester acids
18. Pitch of B-DNA is [NCERT Pg. 152]
(2) Sugar Ether (4) Amino acids – Peptide bond
(1) 34Å (2) 0.34 nm
(3) Nitrogen base Glycosidic 15. Which of the following characteristics hold (3) 3.4 Å (4) 36Å
(4) Sugar Ester true for glycogen? [NCERT Pg. 148] 19. Which of the following is an example of
13. Select the neutral amino acid (1) Unbranched biosynthetic pathway? [NCERT Pg. 153]

[NCERT Pg. 144] (2) Structural polysaccharide of plants (1) Formation of cholesterol from acetic acid
(3) Right end is reducing (2) Formation of pyruvic acid from glucose
(1) Tyrosine
(4) Give blue colour with I2 (3) Formation of amino acids from proteins
(2) Phenylalanine
16. Sugar present in DNA is [NCERT Pg. 149] (4) Formation of ethanol from pyruvic acid
(3) Tryptophan
20. Enzyme which catalyses hydrolysis of
(4) Valine (1) Glucose
peptide bond belongs to which class?
(2) Ribose [NCERT Pg. 158]
14. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. components
and the bond linking them (3) 2′deoxyribose (1) Oxidoreductases (2) Hydrolases
[NCERT Pg. 144,151] (4) 2-deoxyglucose (3) Lyases (4) Ligases

1. _______ and _______ with respect to other 4. Some secondary metabolites have _______ 7. _______ amino acids are those which our
elements are abundant in any living body can make. [NCERT Pg. 147]
importance. [NCERT Pg. 146]
organism than in earth’s crust. 8. Chitin is a polymer of _______ which is
5. _______ metabolites have identifiable present in _______ of arthropods.
[NCERT Pg. 142]
functions and play known roles in normal [NCERT Pg. 149]
2. _______ are not strict biomacromolecules.
physiological processes. [NCERT Pg. 146] 9. Only _______ handed helices are observed
[NCERT Pg. 147]
in proteins. [NCERT Pg. 150]
3. _______ is the most abundant chemical in 6. Oils have _______ melting point and hence
10. Backbone of deoxyribose nucleic acid is
living organisms. [NCERT Pg. 147] remain as oil in winters. [NCERT Pg. 144] formed by _______. [NCERT Pg. 151]

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 30 Biomolecules NCERT Maps
11. In B-DNA, the change in angle per base pair 15. In presence of carbonic anhydrase, 18. When the inhibitor closely resembles the
rise is _______. [NCERT Pg. 152] _______ molecules of H2CO3 are formed substrate in its molecular structure and
inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is
12. Living state is a _______ steady state to be _______ second. [NCERT Pg. 155]
known as _______ inhibitor.
able to perform work. [NCERT Pg. 153]
16. The difference in average energy content of [NCERT Pg. 158]
13. There is no _______ metabolic conversion
substrate from that of transition state is 19. _______ is the protein part of the enzyme.
in living system. [NCERT Pg. 152]
called _______. [NCERT Pg. 156] [NCERT Pg. 159]
14. Almost all enzymes are _______. There are
20. _______ groups are organic co-factors and
some _______ that behave like enzymes. 17. At low temperature, enzymes become
are tightly bound to the apo-enzyme.
These are called _______. _______, whereas at high temperature, they _______ is the prosthetic group for
[NCERT Pg. 154] get _______. [NCERT Pg. 157] peroxidase and catalase. [NCERT Pg. 159]

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 Digestion and Absorption
4
Chapter
1 BASIC REQUIREMENTS OF LIVING ORGANISMS
Digestion: The process of conversion of complex food 1. Food: m Provide energy and organic material for growth and repair of tissues. 2. Water:
m Important for metabolic processes.
substances to simple absorbable forms by mechanical and
Major components Minor components m Prevent dehydration of the body.
biochemical methods. lCarbohydrates, Proteins, Fats lVitamins, Minerals

2 HUMAN DIGESTIVE SYSTEM 3 HISTOLOGY OF GUT

Alimentary canal Layers Typical
m Human digestive system consists of m Serosa m O u t e r m o s t l a y e r, m a d e u p t o t h i n
Digestive glands/Associated glands mesothelium (epithelium of visceral organs)
Mouth with some connective tissues.
Leads to Muscular organ, attached to the
l

Parotid gland Teeth floor of oral cavity by the frenulum m Muscularis m Inner – Circular muscles
Oral cavity/ l Upper surface of the tongue has
m Outer – Longitudinal muscles
m Has Tongue
Buccal cavity small projections called papillae. m Sub-mucosa m Loose connective tissue with nerve, blood
Submaxillary Some papillae have taste buds. and lymph vessels.
and Pharynx m Mucosa m Innermost layer lining the lumen
sublingual
m Common passage for food and air
glands
Oesophagus m Thin, long tube Serosa
Gastro- m Passes through neck, thorax and diaphragm Inner-circular
oesophageal Muscularis
sphincter Outer-longitudinal
Sub-mucosa
Stomach m J-shaped bag in upper left side of abdominal cavity Mucosa
l 4 regions
Cardiac – Oesophagus opens here Lumen
Fundic
Pyloric
sphincter Body – Main central region
Modifications
Pyloric – Opens into small intestine mStomach m Oblique muscle layer is present
Duodenum – ‘C’-shaped m Irregular folds of mucosa called Rugae
Pancreas Small intestine 3 regions
m
Jejunum – Long coiled part m Small intestine m Finger like foldings of mucosa called villi
Ileum – Highly coiled, opens
m Cells lining villi produce microscopic
Ileo-caecal
valve into large intestine projections called microvilli giving brush
border appearance
Large intestine m 3 regions Caecum – Blind sac, host symbiotic microbes
l Vermiform appendix: m Villi, microvilli, rugae – Increase surface area for absorption
Vestigial organ, finger- m Villi are supplied with blood capillaries and lacteals (Lymph
Opens out like tubular projection vessel) m Gastric glands, goblet cells and crypts of Lieberkuhn –
through Present in mucosa m Brunner’s gland – Present in sub-mucosa
m The muscular activities of different parts of alimentary canal can

Colon Ascending be moderated by neural mechanisms, both local and through CNS.
Anus Transverse
Descending m Epiglottis prevents the entry of food into the glottis (opening of trachea/wind pipe)
Sigmoid during swallowing. m Sphincters are muscular structures that regulate the flow of
Fig.: Human digestive system Rectum partially digested food in the alimentary canal.

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 32 Digestion and Absorption NCERT Maps

4 TEETH 6 DUCTS ASSOCIATED WITH LIVER AND PANCREAS

m Dentition: Incisor Gall bladder
1
l Thecodont – Each tooth is embedded in socket of jaw bone 2 1 (Concentrate
Canine 3 Ducts from liver
l Heterodont – Different types: Incisor (I), Canine (C),
3 and store bile)
Premolars 4 4
Cystic duct
Premolar (PM), Molar (M) 5 Common hepatic duct
l Diphyodont – 2 sets of teeth during life
(Duct of gall bladder)
6 6
Molars Socket Common bile duct Pancreas
l A set of temporary/milk/deciduous teeth which are replaced by a set of 7 of jaw
permanent/adult teeth I C PM M 8 Pancreatic duct
Duodenum
Teeth in each half of upper jaw 21 2 3
m Dental formula = = × 2 = 32 m Enamel – Hard chewing surface, helps
Teeth in each half of lower jaw 21 2 3 in mastication of food.
Hepato-pancreatic duct
5 DIGESTIVE GLANDS (Guarded by sphincter of Oddi)
Exocrine part secrete alkaline pancreatic
Glands Location pH Secretion Contents Function m Pancreas juice containing enzymes
m Salivary Glands Outside buccal 6.8 Saliva/ m Mucus Lubrication and adhering of masticated
Endocrine part secrete hormones,
cavity salivary food into bolus
insulin and glucagon
1 Pair – Parotids Cheek juice into m Electrolytes-Na+, K+,
1 Pair – Submaxillary/ Lower jaw oral cavity Schematic flow of digestive juices
Cl–, HCO3–
Submandibular Liver Bile Hepatic ducts Common hepatic duct
1 Pair – Sublinguals Below tongue m Lysozymes Antibacterial agent, prevent infections (hepatic
Salivary amylase cells) Pancreatic duct Cystic duct
m Carbohydrate splitting enzyme
m Gastric glands Mucosa of 1.8 Gastric m Mucus Lubrication and protection of mucosal Duodenum Hepato-pancreatic duct Common bile duct
stomach juice in Active form
epithelium from excoriation by HCl
stomach m Pepsinogen Protein digestion Sphincter of Oddi
l Mucus neck cells m Prorennin Active form
Digestion of milk proteins m Hepatic lobules are structural and functional unit
l Peptic/chief cells (infants)
of liver.
m Lipase Fat digestion m Each lobule is covered by a thin connective tissue
l Parietal/oxyntic
m HCl Acidic pH, activation of gastric
sheath called Glisson’s capsule.
cells proenzymes m Hepatic cells are arranged as cords in hepatic lobule.
m Intrinsic factor Absorption of vitamin B12
m Liver (Largest gland) Right side of >7 Bile m Bile salt Emulsification of fats
1.2-1.5 kg abdomen released m Bile pigments Bilirubin and biliverdin
below into m Cholesterol m Control of activities of gastro intestinal tract
diaphragm duodenum m Phospholipids l Bile activates lipases l Saliva secretion – Stimulated by sight, smell and/or
m Pancreas Between >7 Pancreatic m Trypsinogen Active form
Protein digestion presence of food in oral cavity
(Heterocrine gland) limbs of juice m Chymotrypsinogen l Gastric and intestinal – Local hormones produced by
duodenum released m Procarboxypeptidase
secretion gastric and intestinal mucosa
into m Amylase Carbohydrate digestion
duodenum m Lipases Fat digestion – Neural mechanisms – local and
m Nucleases Nucleic acid digestion via CNS
m Intestinal glands 7.8 Intestinal m Mucus Lubricate and protect intestinal mucosa from acid and provide alkaline medium for enzymatic activities
l Brunner’s gland Sub mucosa juice/ m Brush border enzymes
(no enzyme) of duodenum l Disaccharidases Carbohydrate digestion
Succus
l Crypts of Lieberkuhn Mucosa of l Dipeptidases Protein digestion
entericus
small intestine l Lipases Fat digestion
between l Nuleosidases Nucleosides digestion
bases of villi m Enterokinase Activates trypsinogen into trypsin which in turn activates other enzymes in the pancreatic juice

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NCERT Maps Digestion and Absorption 33

7 DIGESTION OF FOOD
m Various types of movements in alimentary canal (e.g. peristalsis) are generated by muscularis layer that helps in a thorough mixing up of the food with various secretions and thereby
Mechanical process
facilitate digestion. m Bolus passes down into oesophagus by swallowing/deglutition. m Complex food substances Biochemical process
simple absorbable forms.

Juice Site of Carbohydrates Proteins Fats Nucleic Acids

Digestion
Saliva Buccal cavity (30%) Starch Salivary amylase Maltose — — —
Gastric Stomach HCl Lipase minor role —
m Pepsinogen Pepsin
Juice (stores food —
for 4-5 hrs.) Proteins Peptones (peptides) + proteoses
Rennin
m Milk protein Infants
Peptones + proteoses
—
Bile Intestine — — m Emulsification of fats
i.e. Fats ® micelles —
m Activates lipases
Pancreatic Intestine Polysaccharides
Enterokinase
m Trypsinogen Trypsin Fats Nucleic acids
juice (Starch) m Chymotrypsinogen Chymotrypsin
Lipases Nucleases
m Procarboxypeptidase Carboxypeptidase
Pancreatic amylase
Proteins Diglycerides
+
Nucleotides
Disaccharides Peptones Dipeptides
Monoglycerides
Proteoses
Succus Intestine Maltase
Dipeptides
Dipeptidases
Amino acids
Lipases Nucleotidases
Maltose 2 Glucose m Monoglycerides Fatty acids Nucleotides Nucleosides
entericus Lactase + +
Lactose Glucose + Galactose Nucleosidases
Diglycerides Glycerol
Sucrase Sugars + Nitrogen bases
Sucrose Glucose + Fructose

m Food in stomach mixes with acidic gastric juice by churning movements and is called chyme. m Breakdown of biomacromolecules into its simplest form occurs in the duodenum.

8 ABSORPTION OF DIGESTED PRODUCTS

Method Mechanism Examples Summary of different substances absorbed
– in different parts of alimentary canal
m Passive: (Along concentration gradient) Simple diffusion m Glucose, amino acids, Cl ions
Facilitated transport m Glucose, amino acids Directly Mouth and lower Certain drugs
Osmosis m Water absorbed side of tongue
m Active: (Against concentration gradient) by utilising energy m Glucose, amino acids, Na+ ions into blood
Stomach Simple sugars,
alcohol, water
m Absorption is the process by which the end
Enterocyte Protein
products of digestion (in the form of small units) Fatty acid Lymph Fatty acids, glycerol
Fatty acid Lacteals Small
pass through intestinal mucosa into the blood or + +
Incorporate into Micelles/ in villi intestine
lymph. Glycerol Glycerol Blood Glucose, fructose,
small droplet Triglyceride Indirectly
amino acids
m The digested food is absorbed into the body + ¯ absorbed
Triglyceride
through the epithelial lining of the intestinal villi Bile salts
in blood
Large intestine Water, drugs,
of jejunum and ileum. Chylomicron Blood stream some minerals
Lumen of small intestine

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 34 Digestion and Absorption NCERT Maps

9 ASSIMILATION 11 PROTEIN ENERGY MALNUTRITION (PEM)

m The digested end products formed in duodenum m Dietary deficiencies of proteins and total food calories are widespread in children of underdeveloped countries.
are absorbed and finally reach the tissues which m It may affect large sections of the population during drought, famine and political turmoil.
utilise them for their activities. This process is
Parameters Kwashiorkor Marasmus
called Assimilation.
Food Dietary deficiency m Proteins m Proteins and calories

Age m Child more than 1 year m Infants less than 1 year

Digested
food Maximum Reason m Replacement of mother’s milk by high m Replacement of mother’s milk too early by other
absorption
Alimentary Blood calorie, low protein diet foods or mother has second pregnancy when
in small older infant is too young
canal Undigested and intestine
unabsorbed food Assimilation
Characteristics m Extensive oedema i.e. swelling of body parts m Extensive emaciation of body, Skin is dry,
Body m Wasting of muscles, thinning of limbs thin and wrinkled, thinning of limbs
Faeces cells

10 ROLE OF LARGE INTESTINE

m No significant digestive activity occurs here. Growth rate and body weight decline
In PEM
Absorption of water, minerals, Growth and development of brain and mental faculties are impaired
m Site for certain drugs
Secretion of mucus, to adhere m Solid faeces initiate neural reflex, causing urge for its removal.
waste and for lubrication
m Undigested, unabsorbed substances enters caecum through ileo-caecal valve and the wastes solidified into coherent faeces which is temporarily stored in rectum till defaecation.
m Egestion of faeces to outside through anal opening is defaecation. It's a voluntary process and is carried by a mass peristaltic movement.

12 ENERGY VALUES 13 DISORDERS OF DIGESTIVE SYSTEM

Gross Calorific Value Physiological Value Disease/Problem Cause and Symptoms
m Amount of heat liberated from m Actual amount of
complete combustion of 1 gm of energy released on Inflammation of intestinal tract m Most commonly due to bacterial and viral infections.
food in bomb calorimeter (metal combustion of 1 g of m Can be due to parasites like roundworm, tapeworm, threadworm, hookworm, pin worm etc.
chamber filled with O2) food in body
Jaundice m Liver affected
l Carbohydrates - 4.1 K cal/g 4.0 K cal/g
4.0 K cal/g
m Skin and eyes turn yellow due to deposit of bile pigments.
l Proteins - 5.65 K cal/g
l Fats - 9.45 K cal/g 9.0 K cal/g
Vomiting m Ejection of stomach content, feeling of nausea precedes vomiting.
m It’s a reflex action controlled by vomit centre, medulla.

m 1 kilo calorie is the amount of energy required to raise Diarrhoea m Abnormal frequency of bowel movement and Increased liquidity of faecal discharge,
the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°C reduces food absorption.
m Energy requirements of animals, and the energy Constipation m Faeces are retained within the colon as bowel movement occurs irregularly.
content of food expressed in terms of heat energy,
(calorie (cal) or joule (J)). Since this value is tiny Indigestion m Food not digested properly, feeling of fullness.
amount of energy, physiologists commonly use m Can be due to inadequate enzyme secretion, anxiety, food poisoning, over eating and
kilocalorie (kcal) or kilo joule (kJ). spicy food.

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NCERT Maps Digestion and Absorption 35

1. The number of molars, premolars, canines 5. Food thoroughly mixed with acidic gastric 9. Gross calorific value of protein is
and incisors in upper jaw of adult humans juice of the stomach is called [NCERT Pg. 264]
are respectively. [NCERT Pg. 258]
[NCERT Pg. 261] (1) 5.65 k cal/g (2) 4.0 k cal/g
(1) 2 1 2 3 (2) 6 4 2 4
(1) Chyle (2) Bolus (3) 4.1 k cal/g (4) 9.1 k cal/g
(3) 4 2 4 6 (4) 2 1 2 2
(3) Chyme (4) Faeces 10. Which of the following are not absorbed into
2. In the basic histology of human gut,
the lymph vessels from intestinal epithelial
muscular coat of stomach is having an 6. Digestive juices that enters into the
cells? [NCERT Pg. 265]
additional layer of which muscle fibres? duodenum through sphincter of Oddi are
[NCERT Pg. 259] (a) Chylomicrons
(a) Gastric juice
(1) Circular muscle fibres (b) Amino acids
(2) Longitudinal muscle fibres (b) Bile juice
(c) Monosaccharides
(3) Oblique muscle fibres (c) Pancreatic juice (d) Protein coated fat globule
(4) Skeletal muscle fibres (d) Succus entericus [NCERT Pg. 262] (1) (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
3. Most of the digestive glands are present in (1) Only (c) (2) Only (b) (3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) only
the mucosa except [NCERT Pg. 262]
(3) Both (b) and (c) (4) Both (c) and (d) 11. Nucleases like DNase and RNase are found
(1) Goblet cells
in [NCERT Pg.263]
7. Choose the symptom which occurs in
(2) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
kwashiorkor but absent in marasmus (1) Gastric juice (2) Intestinal juice
(3) Brunner’s gland
[NCERT Pg. 266] (3) Pancreatic juice (4) Saliva
(4) Gastric gland
12. The chemical process of digestion is
4. Find the incorrect statement (1) Growth inhibition
initiated in [NCERT Pg. 261]
[NCERT Pg. 258, 259] (2) Wasting of muscles
(1) Gastric cavity (2) Oral cavity
(1) Diphyodont is a type of dentition where
(3) Oedema of limbs
temporary teeth are replaced by (3) Small intestine (4) Oesophagus
permanent teeth (4) Depletion of subcutaneous layer of fat 13. Factor essential for absorption of vitamin B12
(2) Some of the papillae on tongue bear 8. Which layer of stomach forms irregular folds is produced by [NCERT Pg. 262]
taste buds to increase surface area for absorption? (1) Mucus neck cells
(3) Cardiac sphincter regulates the opening [NCERT Pg. 259] (2) Peptic cells
of stomach into duodenum
(1) Submucosa (2) Mucosa (3) Parietal cells
(4) Caecum hosts some symbiotic micro-
organisms (3) Muscular layer (4) Serosa (4) Chief cells

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 36 Digestion and Absorption NCERT Maps
14. Read the following statements and choose 16. Enterokinase which activates trypsinogen is 19. Active absorption of sodium through
the correct answer. secreted by [NCERT Pg. 262] mucosal cells are coupled with movement of
A – Among the different regions of small [NCERT Pg. 264]
(1) Pancreas
intestine, duodenum is the main site of (a) Glucose
(2) Liver
digestion.
(b) Amino acids
R – It is the longest part of small intestine (3) Stomach
with maximum number of villi. (c) Fatty acids
(4) Intestinal mucosa
[NCERT Pg. 263] (d) Glycogen
17. When the food is not properly digested and
(1) A and R, both are correct leads to a feeling of fullness, it is called (1) (a) and (d) (2) (b) and (d)
[NCERT Pg. 265] (3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (b)
(2) A is correct and R is incorrect
(1) Heartburn (2) Indigestion 20. Following are some structures associated
(3) Both A and R are incorrect
(4) R is the correct reason for A (3) Ulcer (4) Constipation with alimentary canal of man

15. One amongst the following is not associated 18. Which of the following is not a component (a) Rugae (b) Ileo-caecal valve
with pancreatic juice? [NCERT Pg. 263] of bile? [NCERT Pg. 262] (c) Pyloric sphincter (d) Villi
(1) Procarboxypeptidase (1) Bilirubin Which of the given structures increases
(2) Trypsinogen (2) Bile salts absorptive surface area? [NCERT Pg. 259]
(3) Nucleotidase (3) Lipase (1) (d) only (2) (a) and (d)
(4) Amylase (4) Cholesterol (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)

1. Tooth embedded in a socket of jaw bone is a b

5. Pepsin and trypsin are protein digesting • Sucrose → Glucose + ——
called ______. [NCERT Pg. 257]
enzymes. Pepsin acts in X medium and
2. Structural and functional unit of liver is called c
• Lactose → Glucose + ——
d
______. [NCERT Pg. 260] trypsin in Y medium. [NCERT Pg. 263]
[NCERT Pg. 263]
3. Initial activation of trypsinogen occurs by 6. Conversion of complex food substances into 8. X pairs of salivary glands are present
______. [NCERT Pg. 262]
simple absorbable forms occurs by ______ Y the buccal cavity and release their
4. The hard chewing surface of teeth that secretions into the Z . [NCERT Pg. 260]
directly comes in contact with food and and ______ methods. [NCERT Pg. 257]
9. Thin connective tissue sheath around
helps in mastication of food is ______. 7. Fill the blanks with correct representation hepatic lobule is called ______.
[NCERT Pg. 258] for a, b, c and d. [NCERT Pg. 260]
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NCERT Maps Digestion and Absorption 37

10. The egestion of faeces to the outside 14. Back flow of faecal matter from large 18. ______ protect mucosal epithelium from
through the anal opening is called ______. intestine to small intestine is prevented by excoriation by concentrated HCl.
[NCERT Pg. 265] ______. [NCERT Pg. 264] [NCERT Pg. 262]
11. Breakdown of fats into very small micelles is 15. Gastric and intestinal secretions are 19. Chylomicrons are ______.
termed as ______. [NCERT Pg. 262] stimulated by ______. [NCERT Pg. 264]
[NCERT Pg. 265]
12. Principal organ for absorption of nutrients 16. Yellowing of eyes in Jaundice is due to
20. Reflex action of vomiting is controlled by
and water is ______. [NCERT Pg. 265] deposit of _____. [NCERT Pg. 265]
______ in CNS. [NCERT Pg. 265]
13. ______ part of gut allows passage of food 17. Deficiency of food and calories together in
and air through it. [NCERT Pg. 258] infants less than 1 year of age can lead to
______. [NCERT Pg. 266]

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 Breathing and Exchange of Gases
5
Chapter

1 BREATHING/RESPIRATION 3 OUTLOOK OF HUMAN RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

Exchange
Atmospheric CO2 produced Epiglottis Nostrils Functions Humidification of air
oxygen by cells (Elastic cartilage that covers Conducting zone Transport of air

Conducting zone
Nasal chamber
glottis during swallowing) Common passage Traps dust present in
2 RESPIRATORY ORGANS Pharynx
In close contact with for air/food inhaled air
Habitats
m Based on thoracic lining Larynx Voice box Bring air to body temperature
Levels of organisation
Organism Mechanism Outer Respiratory zone — Exchange of gases
m Sponges, coelenterates m Simple diffusion 2 pleural Trachea Divides at
flatworms membranes 5th thoracic
Inner vertebra
m Earthworm m Moist skin
Bronchus 5 EXCHANGE OF GASES
m Insects m Tracheal tubes In contact

Inside Lungs
m Aquatic arthropods, m Branchial/Gills
Primary m Partial pressure drives respiration
with lung
molluscs, fish surface Secondary

Respiratory zone
Amphibians, reptiles, m Site of exchange
m m Pulmonary/lungs
Tertiary Till here supported l Alveoli (Primary)
aves, mammals
Pleural fluid by incomplete Between blood and tissues
Initial cartilaginous rings
l

Amphibians show cutaneous respiration all the time reduces bronchiole

friction on lung m Partial pressure:
Terminal
surface bronchiole Vascular bags with l Pressure contributed by an individual gas in a
4 MECHANISM OF BREATHING Alveoli thin, irregular walls mixture of gases
m Lungs, enclosed in an anatomically air tight
thoracic chamber: essential for breathing as we Normal rate of breathing 12-16 times/minute in adult human Respiration steps Atmosphere Partial pressure of
cannot alter pulmonary volumes directly. gases (mm Hg)
Involve CO2 O2
m Movement of air follows the pressure gradient O2 CO2
m Specialised set of structures involved in Inspiration Expiration
1. Breathing/pulmonary 159 0.3
breathing: m Intrapulmonary pressure Low High
m Pressure in the –ve +ve ventilation
lungs w.r.t. atmosphere 104 40
Sternum 2. Diffusion across alveolar
Vertebrae (Dorsal) m Shape of diaphragm Flat Dome-shaped
(ventral) membrane (less than 1
Intercostal muscles
(Lateral) mm thick)
m Exchange of gases is based on :
Rib cage l Concentration gradient
l Thickness of membrane 3. Transport of gases by
Contraction : Changes volume
l Solubility of gases - CO2 is 20-25% blood 95 45
Diaphragm in dorso-ventral axis
more soluble than O2
(Posterior)
l Any factor that affects diffusion rate
Contraction : Changes volume in antero-posterior axis
4. Diffusion b/w blood and
Diffusion membrane comprises of 3 layers: thin
squamous epithelium of alveoli, endothelium of tissues
Additional muscles involved in expiration :
capillaries and basement substance in between 5. Cellular respiration CO2 O2 40 45
Abdominal muscles

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NCERT Maps Breathing and Exchange of Gases 39

RESPIRATORY VOLUME AND6 CAPACITIES

RESPIRATORY VOLUME AND CAPACITIES Standard volumes Value in ml Standard capacities
Instrument - Spirometer 1. Tidal volume/air inhaled or exhaled per breath TV - 500
Significance - Clinical assessment of pulmonary functions IC VC
2. Inspiratory reserve volume/forceful inhalation IRV - 2500-3000 TLC
EC 3. Expiratory reserve volume/forceful exhalation ERV - 1000-1100
4. Residual volume/air left in lungs after forceful FRC
Minute volume : TV × respiratory rate i.e., 500 × 12 = 6000-8000 ml RV - 1100-1200
Pulmonary capacity : Addition of various respiratory volumes e.g., FRC = RV + ERV exhalation

8 REGULATION OF RESPIRATION
7 TRANSPORT OF GASES
m Humans have significant ability to maintain and moderate the respiratory
O2
rhythm to suit the demands of the body tissues
Lungs Blood Tissue
Oxygen dissociation curve Regions Pneumotaxic Chemosensitive Aortic Carotid
CO2 involved center Area receptors receptors
Oxygen Carbon dioxide Location Pons Medulla Aortic arch Carotid artery
oblongata
m 5 ml of O2 is delivered to m 4 ml of CO2 is delivered to
the tissues by 100 ml of alveoli by 100 ml of Reduces duration Respiratory adjustments
oxygenated blood deoxygenated blood of inspiration

m 3% dissolved in plasma m 7% dissolved in plasma

Sensitive to ­pCO2, ­ H+
m 97% as oxyhaemoglobin m 20-25% as carbamino Hb
m Binding of O2 with Hb is m Binding of CO2 with Hb is
related to pCO2 as well as Influence
primarily related to pO2
pO2 Medulla oblongata
Carbamino- Primary respiratory rhythm center
Hb + O2 Oxyhaemoglobin Hb + CO2
haemoglobin
The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.
Parameter Association Dissociation Association Dissociation
m High pO2 ­ ¯ ¯ ­
9 DISORDERS
m Low pCO2 ¯ ­ ­ ¯ Diseases Impact zone Characteristic(s)
m High H+ ¯ ­ ­ ¯ m Asthma - Inflammation of bronchi, - Wheezing sound
m High temperature ¯ ­ ­ ¯ bronchioles
Lungs Tissue Tissue Lungs m Emphysema - Alveolar wall damage - Respiratory surface
m Location
(Alveoli) (Alveoli) in chronic cigarette smokers decreased
m Occupational - Lungs - Fibrosis, lungs damage
m Each Hb. molecule carries or binds 4 oxygen molecules in a reversible manner.
respiratory
m Oxygen dissociation curve obtained is sigmoid disorder
m Maximum (70%) CO2 is transported as bicarbonates facilitated by enzyme carbonic
anhydrase, which exists more in RBCs and minute quantities in plasma
Masks give protection to workers engaged in industries that are
C. anhydrase C. anhydrase involved in dust producing, grinding and stone breaking.
CO2 + H2O H2CO3 –
HCO + H
+
3

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 40 Breathing and Exchange of Gases NCERT Maps

1. Among vertebrates which of the following do 4. Given below is the diagrammatic (1) Squamous epithelium of alveoli
not exclusively respire through lungs? representation, explaining mechanism of (2) Endothelium of alveolar capillaries
[NCERT Pg. 268] breathing. (3) Endothelium of systemic capillaries
(1) Birds (2) Mammals (4) Basement substance
(3) Reptiles (4) Amphibians 6. The part starting from external nostrils upto
2. How many of the given structures in the box terminal bronchioles is not associated with
below are surrounded by incomplete [NCERT Pg. 270]
cartilaginous rings? [NCERT Pg. 269] (1) Gaseous exchange

Trachea, Pharynx, Secondary bronchus, (2) Clearing air from foreign particles
Primary bronchiole, Alveoli (3) Humidification of air
(4) Bringing air to body temperature
(1) One
Choose the correct option w.r.t. given 7. Following diagram represents a section of
(2) Four diagram. [NCERT Pg. 271] an alveolus with a pulmonary capillary
(3) Three
(1) Diaphragm becomes dome shaped due [NCERT Pg. 273]
(4) Two to contraction of its muscles and
3. Normal inspiration involves contraction of decreases the volume of thoracic cavity
which of the given muscles? (2) Volume of thoracic cavity decreases due
[NCERT Pg. 270] to contraction of external intercostal
muscles
a. Diaphragm
b. External intercostals (3) Diaphragm is relaxed and arched
upwards which decreases the volume of
c. Internal intercostals
thoracic cavity The diffusion membrane includes :
d. Abdominals
(4) Contraction of external intercostal Cellular layer/s Non cellular layer/s
(1) a, c muscles shifts the ribs inwards and (1) A, C, D –
(2) a, d downwards (2) D, E C
(3) b, d 5. Diffusion membrane involves all the (3) D, E, C –
(4) a, b following layers except [NCERT Pg. 273] (4) A C, D
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NCERT Maps Breathing and Exchange of Gases 41

8. How much amount of air is inspired or (1) 159 mmHg (2) 116 mm Hg (1) a, c only (2) a, b, c only
expired per minute during normal breathing (3) 95 mm Hg (4) 40 mm Hg (3) b, c, d only (4) a, b, c, d
by an adult man? [NCERT Pg. 271]
14. Which of the given factor favours the 18. Which of the following disease in
(1) 500-800 ml (2) 1000-1100 ml dissociation of CO2 from carbamino
characterised by proliferation of fibrous
(3) 6000-8000 ml (4) 2500-3000 ml haemoglobin? [NCERT Pg. 274]
connective tissue in upper part of lungs?
9. Vital capacity is represented by all except (1) High pCO2, low pO2 - In tissue
[NCERT Pg. 276]
[NCERT Pg. 272] (2) Low pCO2, high pO2 - In alveoli
(1) Asthma
(1) TV + ERV + IRV (2) EC + IRV (3) Low pO2, high pCO2 - In alveoli
(4) High pO2, high pCO2 - In alveoli (2) Emphysema
(3) IC + ERV (4) RV + TLC
15. The enzyme carbonic anhydrase facilitates (3) Bronchitis
10. All the following factors favour the formation
which of the given reactions? (4) Occupational respiratory disease
of oxyhaemoglobin except
[NCERT Pg. 275]
[NCERT Pg. 274] 19. Select the incorrect statement
a. CO2 + H2O → H2CO3
(1) High pO2 [NCERT Pg. 274, 275]
b. H2CO3 → HCO3– + H+
(2) Low pCO2 (1) Concentration of CO2 in veins and
c. H2CO3 → CO2 + H2O oxygen in arteries regulate the
(3) High H+ ion concentration
d. HCO3− + H+ 
→ H2 CO3 respiratory rhythms in humans
(4) Normal body temperature
(1) a, d only (2) b, c only (2) In emphysema, there is damage to the
11. How much amount of oxygen is delivered by
alveolar walls and decrease in total
100 ml of oxygenated blood to the body (3) a, c only (4) a, b, c, d
respiratory surface area
tissues under normal physiological 16. Neural signals from the pneumotaxic centre
conditions? [NCERT Pg. 274] can alter the respiratory rate by (3) Carbamino-haemoglobin results from
(1) 20 ml (2) 5 ml [NCERT Pg. 275] association of CO2 with haemoglobin

(3) 15 ml (4) 10 ml (1) Increasing the duration of expiration (4) Human beings have a significant ability
(2) Increasing the duration of inspiration to maintain and moderate the respiratory
12. Which of the following is a common passage
rhythms
for air and food? [NCERT Pg. 269] (3) Reducing the duration of inspiration
(1) Larynx (4) Altering the pCO2 and pO2 in blood 20. At what pO2, does 50% of haemoglobin get
saturated under normal conditions in
(2) Trachea 17. Thoracic chamber is formed
humans? [NCERT Pg. 274]
(3) Pharynx [NCERT Pg. 276]
(1) 10-15 mm Hg
(4) Nostrils a. Dorsally by vertebral column
b. Ventrally by sternum (2) 27-30 mmHg
13. The partial pressure of oxygen in
atmosphere air at sea level is c. Laterally by ribs (3) 37-40 mm Hg
[NCERT Pg. 272] d. Lower side by diaphragm (4) 45-50 mm Hg

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 42 Breathing and Exchange of Gases NCERT Maps

1. Mechanism of breathing varies among 7. Solubility of CO2 is ________ times higher 14. Each haemogobin molecule can carry a
different animals depending mainly on their than that of oxygen. [NCERT Pg. 273] maximum of ________ atoms of oxygen.
_______ and ________. [NCERT Pg. 268] [NCERT Pg. 274]
8. pCO2 in dexoygenated blood is _______
2. During swallowing, entry of food in the
and in oxygenated blood is _______ 15. Maximum amount of CO2 is transported in
respiratory tract is prevented by ________
respectively. [NCERT Pg. 273] the form of ________ [NCERT Pg. 275]
flap called ________. [NCERT Pg. 269]
9. The volume of air left in the lungs after a 16. Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood can
3. In humans, trachea is a straight tube
normal expiration is called ________. deliver approximately ________ ml of CO2
extending upto mid thoracic cavity and
divide at level of _____ vertebra. [NCERT Pg. 272] to the alveoli. [NCERT Pg. 275]

[NCERT Pg. 269] 10. Primary site for exchange of gases is 17. Respiratory rhythm center in humans is
________. [NCERT Pg. 272] located in ________ [NCERT Pg. 275]
4. Contraction of diaphragm increases volume
of thoracic chamber along ________ axis. 11. Oxygen binds with haemoglobin in a 18. Chemosensitive area, adjacent to the
[NCERT Pg. 270] ________ manner to form oxyhaemoglobin. rhythm center is highly sensitive to _____
5. During inhalation, there is an _____ in [NCERT Pg. 274] and ________. [NCERT Pg. 275, 276]
pulmonary volume and the intrapulmonary
12. ________ curve is obtained when 19. A chronic disorder in which alveolar walls
pressure is ________ than the atmospheric
percentage saturation of haemoglobin with are damaged and respiratory surface
pressure. [NCERT Pg. 271]
oxygen is plotted against pO2. decreases is _____. [NCERT Pg. 275]
6. The volumes of air involved in breathing
[NCERT Pg. 274] 20. The role of ________ in the regulation of
movement can be measured by using
instrument named as ________. 13. On an average, a healthy human breathes respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant in

[NCERT Pg. 271] ________ times/minute. [NCERT Pg. 274] humans [NCERT Pg. 275]

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 Body Fluids and Circulation
6
Chapter
1 BLOOD VASCULAR SYSTEM Functions performed: 4 BLOOD GROUPS
Constituents: Blood + Blood vessels + Heart m Transport of nutrients, O2, glucose etc Based on Rh grouping
ABO grouping
m Removal of harmful substances

m Synthesised in Red bone marrow Medium of transport:

m Components: Parameter Natural Antigen Natural Antibodies Parameter Rh+ve Rh–ve
(A) Plasma (matrix, 55%) m Definition Chemicals that induce Proteins produced in m Rh factor ü û
Water Blood & lymph
Water: 90-92% immune response response to antigens m Present on RBC û
m Sponges & coelenterates m Humans
Proteins: 6-8% m Present On RBC In plasma
m Fibrinogens – Clotting m Albumins – Osmotic balance m Globulins –Defense m Type A, B Anti- A, B 80% humans are Rh +ve
Minerals: Na +, Ca +2, Mg +2, HCO–3 , Cl –
(B) Formed Elements (45%) m Blood group and Rh factor compatibility of donor and recipient is done before transfusion to avoid
Nutrients: Glucose, amino acids, lipids
clumping of RBCs Special case of Rh incompatibility
Parameter RBCs/Erythrocytes WBCs/ Leucocytes Platelets/Thrombocytes Blood Antigens Antibodies Donor’s Mother Rh –ve Foetus Rh +ve
Number 5-5.5 million/mm3 6000-8000//mm3 1,500,00-3,500,00/mm3 Group on RBCs in Plasma Group
st
Red due to iron containing 1 baby normal, as during pregnancy, no mixing
Colour Colourless Colourless A A anti-B A, O of blood due to separation by placenta
Hb (12-16 gm/100 ml)
B B anti-A B, O
Nucleus Absent Present Absent
During delivery, there are chances of mixing of blood
Life span 120 days Generally short lived Short lived AB A, B nil AB, A, B, O
Transport of gases Coagulation of blood. O nil anti-A, B O Rh –ve mother makes antibodies against Rh antigen
Function Defense If number drops, can lead
to loss of blood from body Antibodies cross placenta in subsequent pregnancy
Universal Donor
Types of WBCs Universal Recipient
Granulocytes Severe anemia and jaundice in baby
Agranulocytes -ve +ve
Rh person upon exposure to Rh
blood will form Rh specific antibodies Erythroblastosis foetalis
Basophils Eosinophils Neutrophils Monocytes Lymphocytes
m % of total 0.5 - 1% 2 - 3% 60 - 65% 6 - 8% 20 - 25%
WBCs 3 BLOOD VESSELS Administer anti Rh antibodies to the mother
st
immediately after 1 delivery, save baby
m Shape of Layers in wall:
nucleus Name Position Composition
5 CIRCULATORY PATHWAYS
m Function Involved in Resist infections, Tunica externa Outermost Fibrous connective tissue
Phagocytic in action Involved in immune & collagen fibres
inflammatory associated with Open Closed
response of body Tunica media Middle Smooth muscle & elastic
reactions allergic reactions m Sinuses Present Absent
fibres
m RBCs are biconcave and enucleated in most mammals m Graveyard of RBCs - spleen Tunica intima Innermost Squamous endothelium m Regulation Imprecise Precise
m Platelets are cell fragments of megakaryocytes m Basophils secrete heparin, of blood flow
histamine, serotonin Artery Vein
m Tunica media Thick Thin m Examples Arthropods, Annelids,
m Lumen Narrow Wide molluscs chordates
2 BLOOD CLOTTING/ COAGULATION
m In response to injury/ trauma, clotting prevents loss of blood from body. Vertebrates Auricle(s) Ventricle(s) Circulation
m Events involved: Fishes 1 1 Single
6 LYMPH (Tissue fluid)
Injured tissue Plasma – Clotting factors = Serum m Colourless Amphibians, 2 1 Incomplete
Release Formation of Thrombokinase m Blood - (Larger proteins + most formed elements) most reptiles
Platelets chemicals (Cascade (enzyme complex) m Rich in lymphocytes
process) m Carrier for nutrients, hormones and fats Crocodile, Aves 2 2 Double
Prothrombin Fibrinogens m Lymphatic vessels drain interstitial fluid back to Mammals
major veins
m Ca 2+ ions play an important role in clotting
(Coagulam/reddish brown clot) Fishes pump deoxygenated blood to gills for
m Clotting factors in blood are in inactive form
Lacteals are lymph vessels in intestinal
Fibrins + entangled formed elements villi to absorb fats oxygenation.
Thrombins

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44 Body Fluids and Circulation NCERT Maps

Heart 7 HUMAN CIRCULATORY SYSTEM 10

4 ELECTROCARDIOGRAPH (ECG)
m Mesodermally derived organ present in m ECG is a graphical representation of electrical activities of heart during a cardiac cycle
between lungs, muscular, chambered, tilted to left Aorta
m Instrument – Electrocardiograph          m Graphical print – Electrocardiogram
Vena cava Pulmonary artery
m Protected by double walled, membranous bag- Sino-atrial node Pulmonary veins m For a standard ECG – 3 leads are connected to monitor heart activity – Right wrist, left wrist and left ankle
Pericardium with pericardial fluid Right atrium Left atrium
R Graphical standards Represent Event associated
Atrio-ventricular
2 upper, smaller– Auricles node Bundle of His
m P wave Depolarisation of atria Contraction of atria
Chordae tendinae
m 4 chambers
2 lower, larger – Ventricles Right ventricle Left ventricle P T m QRS complex Depolarisation of ventricles Contraction of ventricles
Q S
m Septum Interventricular septum m T wave Repolarisation of ventricles Relaxation of ventricles
Between auricles: Inter-atrial (thin, muscular) Apex

Between ventricles: Inter-ventricular (thick walled) l Number of QRS complexes in a given time period, determine the heart beat rate of an individual
Between auricle & ventricle: Auriculo-ventricular (thick fibrous) Valves are muscular l End of T-wave marks the end of systole
m Cardiac Between right auricle & right ventricle – Tricuspid flaps or cusps that allow l Any deviation in ECG indicates a possible abnormality or disease e.g. ECG machine makes sound
valves Between left auricle & left ventricle – Bicuspid/Mitral unidirectional flow of blood pip----pip---pee as patient goes into cardiac arrest.
At base of pulmonary artery – Semilunar and prevent its backward
At base of aorta flow 11
4 REGULATION OF CARDIAC CYCLE
m Cardiac muscles Contractile tissue Sino-auricular node/ Right upper corner of right atrium Activities of heart are regulated intrinsically i.e autoregulated as human heart is myogenic
(SA node/pacemaker)
Nodal tissue Medulla oblongata can moderate
(Auto excitable) Atrioventricular node/ Left lower corner of right atrium
AV node Cardiac functions through
m SAN – Maximum – 70-75 action AV bundle Interventricular septum
excitability potentials/min Purkinje fibres Divides at apex of ventricle Autonomic nervous system (ANS)

8 TYPES OF CIRCULATION Parameter Sympathetic Parasympathetic

Pulmonary:
Pulmonary Pulmonary Heart beat rate Increase Decrease
m Double circulation Right ventricle Lungs Left auricle
artery veins Strength of ventricular Hormones of adrenal medulla
l No mixing of Systemic: Increase Decrease
deoxygenated and Aorta Vena cava contraction increase cardiac output
oxygenated blood occurs Left ventricle Tissues Right auricle
Cardiac output Increase Decrease
Hepatic portal
m Hepatic portal circulation – Digestive tract Liver
vein
4 DISORDERS OF CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
12
m Coronary circulation – Blood flow to and from the cardiac musculature
Disease Effects
9
4 CARDIAC CYCLE Atrial systole (2) Cardiac arrest Heart stops beating
m Sequential events in the heart (1) Joint SAN generates action potentials Heart failure Heart is not pumping blood effectively enough to meet needs of body
which are cyclically repeated. diastole Ventricular systole (3) Atherosclerosis/(CAD) Deposit of Ca+2, fats, cholesterol in blood vessels that makes arterial lumen
Heart beat rate = 72 beats/min Coronary artery disease narrower
AV node, AV bundles, bundle of His
Duration of 1 heart beat = 0.8 sec. transmit the action potential further High blood pressure Repeated checks of blood pressure of an individual ³ 140/90, leads to heart
Events of 1 cardiac cycle diseases and also affects vital organs like brain and kidneys.
Angina pectoris/ Not enough oxygen is reaching heart muscles. It affects blood flow. Common
Location/Structure Joint Diastole Atrial Systole Ventricular Systole acute chest pain in middle aged and elderly.
Auricle Contract, increase flow of
Relax, filling blood into ventricles by 30% Relax Heart attack Heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply.
Contract, throw out 70 ml of
Ventricle Relax Relax blood/ventricle – Stroke volume
Tri & Bicuspid valves Open Open st
Closed, 1 heart sound Lub m Heart sounds (Lub & dub )can be heard by Stethoscope and have clinical diagnostic significance.
nd m Cardiac output = Stroke volume × Heart rate = 70 × 72 ; 5 litres
Semilunar valves Closed, 2 heart
Closed Open m Cardiac output of athletes is higher than a normal man
sound Dub

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NCERT Maps Body Fluids and Circulation 45

1. A drop of each of the following is placed on 7. First heart sound is due to 12. The opening of the right and left ventricles
different slides, which of the them will not [NCERT Pg. 285] into the pulmonary artery and the aorta
coagulate? [NCERT Pg. 281] respectively are provided by the
(1) Opening of tri and bi-cuspid valves
(1) Blood (2) Plasma (2) Closure of tri and bi-cuspid valves [NCERT Pg. 283]
(3) Serum (4) Lymph (3) Opening of semilunar valves (1) Mitral valve
2. The exchange of material between blood (4) Closure of semilunar valves (2) Semilunar valves
and interstitial fluid occurs only at the level of
8. Four chambered heart is found in (3) Tricuspid valve
[NCERT Pg. 282]
[NCERT Pg. 282] (4) Bicuspid valve
(1) Arteries (2) Veins
(1) Humans only
(3) Capillaries (4) Arterioles 13. During right ventricular systole, back flow of
(2) Mammals only blood into right atrium is prevented by
3. If the parasympathetic influence on heart is
removed, heart will [NCERT Pg. 287] (3) All vertebrates
[NCERT Pg. 285]
(1) Beat slowly (2) Beat faster (4) Some reptiles, birds and mammals
(1) Mitral valve (2) Tricuspid valve
(3) Show no change (4) Stop beating 9. Purkinje fibres are modified
(3) Bicuspid valve (4) Semilunar valve
4. Arrange the conducting regions of the heart [NCERT Pg. 284]
(1) Muscle fibres 14. Number of QRS complexes that occur in the
in a sequence from starting with
ECG in a given time period determine
[NCERT Pg. 284] (2) Nerve fibres
(3) Yellow elastic fibres [NCERT Pg. 286]
(a) AV node (b) AV bundle
(4) White collagen fibres (1) Cardiac output
(c) SAN (d) Purkinje fibres
(1) c – b – a – d (2) c – a – b – d 10. In ECG, P-wave represents (2) Stroke volume
(3) a – d – c – b (4) a – b – d – c [NCERT Pg. 286] (3) Heart beat rate
5. Every 100 ml of human blood contains (1) Depolarisation of ventricles (4) Strength of heart
approximately how much amount of (2) Repolarisation of auricles 15. In which of the following animals, does the
haemoglobin? [NCERT Pg. 279] (3) Depolarisation of atria heart receive only deoxygenated blood?
(1) 8-12 gm (2) 12-16 gm (4) Excitation of auricles and ventricles [NCERT Pg. 282]
(3) 12-16 mg (4) 18-12 mg 11. Which is not related to human heart? (1) Frog (2) Crocodiles
6. Which vascular connection connects [NCERT Pg. 283]
(3) Snake (4) Fish
digestive tract and liver? [NCERT Pg. 287] (1) It has a size of clenched fist
(1) Coronary circulation 16. In a normal person at rest, each ventricle
(2) Mesodermally derived structure
ejects out [NCERT Pg. 285]
(2) Renal portal system (3) Protected by double walled pericardium
(1) 1 lt./min (2) 500 ml/min
(3) Hepatic portal system (4) Four chambered with right side having
(4) Systemic circulation thickest wall (3) 5 lt./min (4) 2 lt./min

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 46 Body Fluids and Circulation NCERT Maps
17. Match the following columns and select the 18. Choose the incorrect statement (c) Neutrophils (III) Related with
correct match. [NCERT Pg. 280] allergic
Column-I Column-II (1) Blood groups are based on presence or reactions
(a) Heart attack (I) Heart stops beating absence of natural antigens that can (d) Platelets (IV) Phagocytosis
(b) Cardiac (II) Not enough oxygen is induce immune response
arrest reaching heart muscles (2) Natural antibodies are proteins [NCERT Pg. 279]
leading to chest pain
produced in response to natural antigens (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) Heat failure (III) Heart is not pumping
blood effectively to (3) Anti-A, Anti-B are present in a person (1) (III) (IV) (II) (I)
meet the body’s having blood group AB
demand (2) (III) (I) (IV) (II)
(4) During blood transfusion, blood of donor
(d) Angina (IV) Heart muscles is carefully matched with blood of (3) (IV) (I) (III) (II)
suddenly damaged by
recipient
inadequate blood (4) (I) (IV) (II) (III)
supply 19. Match the column-I and Column-II and
select the correct option. 20. Which contractile layer of the vein is
[NCERT Pg. 288]
predominantly thinner than the artery in
(a) (b) (c) (d) Column-I Column-II humans? [NCERT Pg. 286]
(1) (IV) (I) (II) (III) (a) Eosinophils (I) Transport of (1) Tunica intima
(2) (IV) (I) (III) (II) gases (2) Tunica externa
(3) (I) (IV) (III) (II) (b) Erythrocytes (II) Clotting of (3) Tunica media
(4) (I) (III) (II) (IV) blood (4) Layer having collagen fibres

1. _____ protein of plasma helps in osmotic 5. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by 8. Platelets are cell fragments produced by
balance. [NCERT Pg. 279] administering ______ to the mother specialized cells in the bone marrow called
immediately after the _______. ____. [NCERT Pg. 280]
2. Plasma without clotting factors is called
________. [NCERT Pg. 279] 9. _____ of the human heart has thickest
[NCERT Pg. 281]
muscular wall. [NCERT Pg. 283]
3. The most abundant cells among the WBCs
6. _____ ions play a very important role in 10. Lacteals in the intestinal villi majorly absorb
are ______. [NCERT Pg. 279]
clotting. [NCERT Pg. 281] _____ from the enterocytes
4. Person with AB blood group can accept [NCERT Pg. 282]
7. Life span of RBCs is _____.
blood from person with _____ blood groups.
11. Closure of semilunar valves produce ____
[NCERT Pg. 280] [NCERT Pg. 279]
heart sound. [NCERT Pg. 285]
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NCERT Maps Body Fluids and Circulation 47

12. Prominent heart sounds can be heard [NCERT Pg. 287] 18. Each time the heart beats, each ventricle
through instrument named _____. 15. Pulmonary circulation starts by pumping of pumps out about, 70 ml of blood. This
[NCERT Pg. 285] deoxygenated blood by _____. volume is termed as _____.

13. Blood vessels exclusively involved in [NCERT Pg. 289] [NCERT Pg. 285]
circulation of blood to and from the cardiac 16. Action potential in SAN, increase the flow of 19. Hypertension is characterized by increase in
musculature are called _____ blood into the ventricles by about _____%. systolic and diastolic blood pressure beyond
[NCERT Pg. 287] [NCERT Pg. 284] ____ and ____ respectively.

14. Though the heart muscles are auto- 17. Return of ventricles from excited to normal [NCERT Pg. 287]
excitable, their functions can be moderated state is represented by ______ wave in the 20. CAD affect the vessels that supply blood to
by ____ and ____ mechanisms. ECG. [NCERT Pg. 286] the ____ muscles. [NCERT Pg. 288]

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 Excretory Products and Their Elimination
7
Chapter
1 EXCRETORY WASTE Inferior Renal 4 HUMAN EXCRETORY SYSTEM 5 KIDNEY
vena vein
Metabolism Excess ingestion cava Capsule-outer tough covering
Structures Involved
Kidney m 1 pair, bean shaped, reddish brown Columns of Bertini Cortex (Outer)
Zones
Results in accumulation of m Length 10-12 cm, Width 5-7 cm, /Renal columns Medulla (Inner)
l Nitrogenous wastes – NH3, urea, uric acid
–3 –2 Thickness 2-3 cm m Part of cortex which
+ + –
l Other contents – CO2, H2O, ions(Na , K , Cl , PO4, SO4 ) m Weight 120-170 g extents between Hilum
Renal
Removed artery m Between T12 - L3 vertebra, close to medullary pyramids m Notch towards concave surface
Dorsal dorsal inner wall of abdominal cavity m Ureter, blood vessels
Partially/Completely aorta Ureter m 1 pair and nerves enter
2 NITROGENOUS WASTES Urinary m Have stretch receptors Renal pelvis
m Nature of nitrogenous waste formed and their excretion vary bladder m Store urine till voluntary signals mFunnel shaped space with
among animals depending on the habitat/availability of water. from CNS carries out its release Fig. : Section of kidney projections called calyces
Major Nature & Toxicity Typical Urethra m Guarded by sphincters
nitrogenous Examples Medullary pyramids are conical masses that project into calyces.
and water m Meant for release of urine
waste required
m Ammonia
MICTURITION : 6 NEPHRON
Ammonotelic Maximum l Diffusion CNS (voluntary signals)
l Aquatic insects
m Process of release of urine
through gills Send motor messages m Functional unit of kidney m Nearly 1 million/kidney
l Many bony fishes surface or
m Mechanism - Micturition reflex
l Aquatic
Urinary bladder m Each nephron has two parts - (i) Glomerulus (ii) Renal tubule
body surface m Smooth muscles contract
amphibians as ammoium Urinary bladder (Store urine) Afferent arteriole Efferent arteriole
m Urethral sphincters relax
ions Activates

s
al
Release Glomerulus

gn
m Urea Ureotelic Lesser l Kidneys filter Malpighian body/ Peritubular capillaries
Stretch receptors

si
l Marine fishes urea from Urine Renal corpuscle
Bowman’s
l Many terrestrial blood capsule Proximal convoluted
amphibians Types of Nephron tubule
l Mammals Distal convoluted
m Uric acid
Parameters Cortical Juxtamedullary tubule
Uricotelic Least l Pellet/Paste
l Land snails m Number More Less Descending limb
l Insects m Loop of Henle Too short Very long
l Reptiles
Henle’s of loop Henle
m Extension into Very little Deep loop
l Birds
medulla (Hairpin Ascending limb
m Ammonia converts into urea in liver. m Vasa recta Absent / reduced Present shaped) of loop of Henle
m Elimination of urea, uric acid is meant for conservation
of water i.e., a type of terrestrial adaptation. m Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) : Vasa recta Collecting duct
m Kidneys do not play a significant role in removal of ammonia.
Sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in distal convoluted
tubule and afferent arteriole at the location of their contact.
m Some amount of urea may be retained in the kidney Fig. : Nephron
m Nephrons are dipped in interstitial fluid having specific osmolarity
matrix of some animals to maintain desired osmolarity.
– Cortex - 300 mOsm / L – Medulla - upto 1200 mOsm/L (Gradient)

3 EXCRETORY STRUCTURES m Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed by afferent arteriole - a fine branch of renal artery
m Most invertebrates – Simple tubular forms m Malpighian corpuscle, PCT, DCT - Located in cortex
m Vertebrates – Complex tubular organs called kidneys m Loop of Henle - Dips into medulla
Structures Examples m Protonephridia are primarily concerned m Many DCTs open into straight tube called collecting duct, many of which converge into renal pelvis
m Protonephridia / m Platyhelminthes (Planaria) with osmoregulation through medullary pyramids in the calyces
m Rotifers m Function of excretory structures :
flame cells m Efferent arteriole emerging from glomerulus forms peritubular capillaries around renal tubule
m Some annelids Eliminate nitrogenous wastes
m Cephalochordates (Amphioxus)
m Vasa recta :
m Nephridia Maintain ionic and acid-base balance l Branch of peritubular capillaries
m Annelids (Earthworms)
m Malpighian tubules
of body fluids, i.e., osmoregulation l Parallel to loop of Henle
m Insects (Cockroaches)
m Antennal/ Green glands m Crustaceans (Prawn) l ‘U’ shaped

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NCERT Maps Excretory Products and Their Elimination 49

7 URINE FORMATION Glomerular Filtration/Ultra filtration

9 REGULATION OF KIDNEY FUNCTION / GLOMERULAR FILTRATION RATE
~ 1/5 of cardiac output or 1100-1200 ml blood/min is
Main Processes filtered by kidneys Hypothalamus JGA Heart
Glomerular Non-selective Low blood volume/ Increase in
1. Low GFR/ Increase blood
filtration process Renal Artery Body fluid volume/ blood volume Glomerular blood flow to atria of
Ionic concentration
180 L filtrate Switch off flow/ Glomerular heart
/day Arterioles Activate blood pressure
Osmoreceptors
Tubular Tubular Osmoreceptors of Activate
2. 3. secretion (i) Endothelium of glomerular blood vessels hypothalamus to release Suppress Release of ANF
reabsorption
ADH/Vasopressin from JG cells to (Atrial natriuretic
Nearly 99% of filtrate m H+, K+ and ammonia neurohypophysis ADH/Vasopressin
release renin factor)
get reabsorbed secreted into filtrate (ii) Basement membrane Filtration
Work Work
by renal tubules m Maintains ionic and membrane Angiotensinogen Angiotensin I
By acid base balance m Constrict blood vessels Vasodilation
(iii) Epithelium of Bowman’s m Increase reabsorption Angiotensin II
capsule of water from DCT
Bowman’s capsule have Work Result
Active Passive podocytes arranged in intricate (Prevent diuresis)
m Constrict blood vessel
process process manner so as to leave some Result m Activate adrenal cortex to release m Blood pressure
Glomerular filtrate
m Glucose, Na
+
m Nitrogenous spaces called slit pores / aldosterone, that causes
(Plasma except proteins) m Blood volume increases decrease
amino acid wastes, H2O, filtration slits reabsorption of Na+ and water m GFR decrease
m Blood pressure increases
m GFR increases Result
Urine m Filtration is due to pressure in the glomerular
1-1.5 L/day capillaries. m Blood pressure increase
m Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) = Filtration/min m GFR increase
125 ml / min (Renin-Angiotensin mechanism)
m Kidney has an ability to regulate GFR.
ANF mechanism acts as a check on Renin-Angiotensin mechanism
FUNCTIONS OF THE TUBULES
8 COUNTER CURRENT MECHANISM TO CONCENTRATE FILTRATE 10
PCT DCT m Flow of filtrate in different limbs of following structures are in CHARACTERISTICS AND
Nutrients Conditional
HCO–3 opposite direction (Counter current) : COMPOSITION OF URINE
Reabsorption NaCl K+ H2O NaCl H 2O HCO–
3
l Loop of Henle (HL) l Vasa recta (VR) l HL and VR m Colour - Light yellow
300 m Proximity of HL and VR and counter current in them increase osmolarity towards
mOsm/L m pH = 6
H+ NH3 inner medullary interstitium (300 mOsm/L in cortex to 1200 mOsm/L)
Secretion K+ K+ H+ m Odour - Characteristic
m Interstitium gradient is caused by NaCl and urea.
H+ m Human kidneys can produce urine nearly
m NaCl transported by ascending limb of HL exchanged with descending limb of vasa
+ recta and is returned to medullary interstitium by ascending limb of VR. 4 times concentrated than initial filtrate.
K
m Urea which enters in thin part of ascending limb of HL is transported back to m Urea - 25-30 gm/day
PCT :
Lined by simple cuboidal interstitium by collecting tubule. m Various conditions can affect characteristics
m
brush border epithelium m This mechanism maintain interstitial concentration gradient that helps in easy of urine.
m Nearly all essential nutrients, passage of water from collecting tubule thereby concentrating filtrate (urine).
H 2O NaCl H 2O
70-80% electrolytes and Abnormal Condition Indicate
water are reabsorbed VR HL constituents
m Major site of reabsorption Urea Cortex of urine
300 mOsm/L
& selective secretion Glucose Glucosuria Diabetes mellitus

600 mOsm/L H 2O Ketone bodies Ketonuria Diabetes mellitus

H 2O NaCl
H 2O
Parameter Descending Ascending Urea Urea
limb limb 900 mOsm/L NaCl Medulla
Permeable 1200 mOsm/L
Water Salt H 2O Analysis of urine helps in clinical diagnosis
Impermeable Salt Water 1200 mOsm/L
of many metabolic disorders as well as
Filtrate Concentrated Diluted malfunctioning of the kidneys.
l HL primarily helps to maintain osmolarity gradient in kidney interstitium.
Concentrating Diluting (Minimum reabsorption)
limb limb l Mammals have ability to produce concentrated urine.

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50 Excretory Products and Their Elimination NCERT Maps

11 DISORDERS OF EXCRETORY SYSTEM 12 ROLE OF OTHER ORGANS IN EXCRETION

Disorders Symptoms or Treatment Accessory structure Remove Basic work
Renal calculi Stone or insoluble mass of crystalised salts (e.g. oxalates)
Lungs CO2, m Remove large amount of CO2 approximately 200 mL/min
Glomerulonephritis Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney
water m Remove significant quantity of water
Renal/kidney failure Malfunctioning of kidneys leads to accumulation of urea in blood (Uremia),
highly harmful, may lead to kidney failure. Liver Bilirubin, vitamins m Most of these substances pass out alongwith digestive
Treatment (Largest gland) biliverdin, drugs wastes
(i) Haemodialysis : Process to remove urea from blood cholesterol,
Method is a boon for thousands of uremic patients all over the world.
degraded steroid
Blood drained from artery Mix with Heparin Pumped hormones
(Anticoagulant) through
Skin
Composition of Dialysing unit
dialysing fluid is mSweat glands Sweat contains m Primary function of sweat is to facilitate cooling effect on
same as plasma Filtration based on Artificial kidney body surface
Mix with Clear concentration gradient Porous cellophane
m NaCl
except the Anti
nitrogenous coagulant blood Nitrogenous wastes tubes surrounded m Urea
wastes freely move out by dialysing fluid
Pumped back to m Lactic acid
body through
Vein
m Sebaceous Sebum contains m Sebum provides a protective oily covering for the skin
glands
(ii) Kidney transplantation m Sterols
Ultimate method in correction of acute renal failure m Hydrocarbons
l Functional kidney is taken from donor
m Waxes
l To minimize rejection, close relatives are preferred as donor
l Modern clinical problems have increased success rate of such complicated Salivary glands m Small amount of nitrogenous wastes are eliminated
techniques through saliva

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NCERT Maps Excretory Products and Their Elimination 51

1. Dialysing fluid have the same composition 5. All the following processes are involved in 9. Which of the following is not an accessory
as that of [NCERT Pg. 298] the urine formation except excretory organ? [NCERT Pg. 298]
(1) Plasma – Nitrogenous wastes [NCERT Pg. 293] (1) Liver (2) Skin
(2) Serum – Urea (1) Glomerular filtration (3) Kidneys (4) Lungs
(3) Lymph – Proteins (2) Glomerular secretion 10. Which of the following is released in
response to an increase in blood volume
(4) Plasma + Electrolytes + Heparin (3) Tubular reabsorption
and pressure? [NCERT Pg. 297]
2. Sweat produced by sweat glands contain all (4) Tubular secretion
except [NCERT Pg. 298] (1) Renin (2) Angiotensin II
6. Which of the following is not reabsorbed by
(3) Aldosterone (4) ANF
(1) NaCl (2) Urea the kidney? [NCERT Pg. 295]
11. Under which of the following conditions,
(3) Uric acid (4) Lactic acid (a) Urea (b) Glucose
there will be the presence of abnormally
3. Which of the given regulatory mechanisms (c) Potassium (d) Amino acids high ketone bodies in urine?
can be observed once there is increase in (e) Creatinine
volume of body fluid? [NCERT Pg. 297] [NCERT Pg. 298]
Choose the correct option.
a. Osmoreceptors on hypothalamus switch (a) Fasting for a day
(1) (c), (e) (2) (a), (c)
off (b) Diabetes insipidus
(3) (b), (d) (4) (e) only
b. Vasopressin from neurohypophysis is (c) Diabetes mellitus
released 7. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is
(d) Starvation
[NCERT Pg. 294]
c. Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na + (1) (a), (c) (2) (c), (d)
and water (1) 125 mL/day (2) 180 L/day
(3) (b), (c) (4) (a), (b)
(3) 1.25 mL/day (4) 1.8 L/day
d. Constriction of blood vessels occur 12. Counter current mechanism include
8. Which of the given option is correct about
(1) a, c only (2) b, c, d only [NCERT Pg. 296]
juxtamedullary nephron? [NCERT Pg. 293]
(3) a, d only (4) Only a (1) They lack vasa recta (a) Henle’s loop (b) Vasa recta
4. Selective secretion of K+ and H+ ions occur (2) Their loop of Henle runs deep into the (c) PCT (d) DCT
in all the following regions except medulla (1) (b), (c), (d)
[NCERT Pg. 295] (2) (a), (b), (c)
(3) Their glomerulus is in the outer medulla
(1) PCT (2) DCT (3) (a), (b)
(4) Their peritubular capillaries join to form
(3) Collecting duct (4) Henle’s loop calyces (4) (b), (c)

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 52 Excretory Products and Their Elimination NCERT Maps
13. Which of the following function is not 17. Choose the correct sequence on the basis 20. Choose the correct option corresponding to
concerned with kidney? [NCERT Pg. 294] of their decreasing toxicity.[NCERT Pg. labels a, b, c and d in the given diagram.
(1) Acid-base balance 290] [NCERT Pg. 295]
(2) Maintenance of blood pressure
(1) Uric acid – Urea – Ammonia
(3) Detoxification of body fluids
(4) Excretion of nitrogenous wastes (2) Ammonia – Uric acid – Urea
14. How many of the following organisms in a (3) Uric acid – Ammonia – Urea
box are uricotelic? [NCERT Pg. 290]
(4) Ammonia – Urea – Uric acid
Land snail, Bony fishes, Reptiles,
Amphibians 18. Haemodialysis is most commonly used for
(1) One (2) Two [NCERT Pg. 298]
(3) Three (4) Four (1) Renal calculi
15. Osmolarity of interstitial fluid is equivalent to
(2) Uremia
that of blood plasma at [NCERT Pg. 296]
(1) Interstitial fluid in cortex (3) Oedema
(2) Base of loop of Henle (4) Glycosuria (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Inner medullary interstitium
19. During urine formation, which process is
(4) Median medullary interstitium (1) H2O H2O HCO3− Uric acid
non-selective? [NCERT Pg. 299]
16. Podocytes are associated with the wall of
[NCERT Pg. 293] (1) Tubular reabsorption (2) HCO3− H2O K+ Urea
(1) Glomerular capillaries
(2) Tubular secretion
(2) Proximal convoluted tubule (3) NH3 NaCl H2O Urea
(3) Bowman’s capsule (3) Glomerulus filtration
(4) K+ NaCl H2O H+
(4) Distal convoluted tubule (4) Ultrafiltration and tubular secretion

1. ________ is the excretory structure in 3. Primary function of sweat is to facilitate 5. ________ does not constitute a part of
Platyhelminthes. [NCERT Pg. 291] ________ [NCERT Pg. 298] single uriniferous tubule. [NCERT Pg. 293]
2. Average length and width of kidney in 4. ________ hormone facilitate reabsorption of
humans is a________ and ________ water from the DCT and prevent diuresis. 6. Urinary bladder opens out through
respectively. [NCERT Pg. 291] [NCERT Pg. 297] ________. [NCERT Pg. 291]
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NCERT Maps Excretory Products and Their Elimination 53

7. Part of nephron which shows minimum 12. Expulsion of urine from urinary bladder is 17. Fine capillary network emerging from
reabsorption of contents is ________. ________. [NCERT Pg. 297] efferent arteriole is called ________.
[NCERT Pg. 294] [NCERT Pg. 293]
13. ________ act as semipermeable membrane
8. Concentration gradient in the medullary during haemodialysis. [NCERT Pg. 298] 18. Increase in blood volume and blood
interstitium is mainly caused by ________
and ________. [NCERT Pg. 296] 14. In micturition, urethral sphincters are pressure stimulate specific cells of cardiac
________. [NCERT Pg. 298] atria to secrete ________ to cause
9. Glomerulus and its surrounding Bowman’s
capsule together form a specialized 15. Henle’s loop primarily helps to maintain vasodilation. [NCERT Pg. 297]
structure called _____. [NCERT Pg. 292] osmotic gradient ranges between ________ 19. Urine is ________ times more concentrated
to ________ within the kidney interstitium.
10. In a normal healthy adult, on an average than blood plasma. [NCERT Pg. 297]
________ of urea is excreted out per day. [NCERT Pg. 300]
20. Juxtaglomerular cells produce ________
[NCERT Pg. 298] 16. Process of separation of metabolic wastes
from blood through artificial means is known enzyme in response to fall in glomerular
11. The greatest fraction of water is reabsorbed
as ________. [NCERT Pg. 298] filtration rate. [NCERT Pg. 297]
in ________. [NCERT Pg. 294]

  

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 Locomotion and Movement
8
Chapter
1 MOVEMENT AND LOCOMOTION 4 SKELETAL MUSCLE FIBRES & ITS TYPES
m Skeletal muscles are closely associated with the skeletal components of the body.
m Movement Significant feature of living beings
l
m Locomotion Voluntary movements resulting in change in
l Skeletal muscle Sarcolemma Types
place/location. Many (Plasma
Locomotion is performed by organisms for variable reasons, e.g., Sarcolemma membrane) Red White
m Muscle fibre bundles/ Sarcoplasm
Muscle fibre
l Their habitats Blood (cytoplasm) Myoglobin
capillary
(muscle cell) Fascicles Nucleus
l Demand of situation like search of food, mate, breeding
Held by Many muscle (syncitium) Mitochondria
ground, escape from enemies/predators Sarcoplasmic
fibres
Fascia reticulum SR
2 TYPES OF MOVEMENT / LOCOMOTION (collagenous (store Ca+2)
connective tissue) Respiration Mainly Mainly
Type Structure Examples and functions aerobic anaerobic
Amoeboid Pseudopodia m Leucocytes, macrophages,
involve microfilaments Amoeba m Each muscle fibre have many parallelly arranged myofibrils / myofilaments.
and streaming of m Muscle fibre: Anatomical unit of muscle.
protoplasm Fascicle (muscle bundle)
m Skeletal muscles are primarily involved in locomotion and change in body posture.
Ciliary Cilia m Removing dust particles from
trachea
m Passage of ova through
5 MYOFILAMENTS AND STRUCTURE OF CONTRACTILE PROTEINS
female reproductive tract Each myofibril has dark and light bands due to actin and myosin distribution that establish striated appearance.
Flagellar Flagella m Maintenance of water current in
canal system of sponges Filament Held by Protein Monomer Polymer Typical
m Locomotion in Euglena
m Swimming of spermatozoa m Thin/actin Z-line Actin Globular Filamentous m F-actin helically arranged
Light/I-band

Muscular Muscles m Movement of limbs, jaws, tongue

(bisect (contractile) 'G' - actin 'F'-actin
m Running, walking, climbing, flying Troponin I-band) Tropomyosin — — m Tropomyosin run close to
Tropomyosin F-actin throughout its length
(2 strands)
Troponin 3 m Troponin distributed at regular
m All locomotions are movements but all movements are intervals on tropomyosin
not locomotion. F-actin (2 strands) m Mask active binding sites for
m In Paramoecium - Cilia helps in movement of food through myosin on actin filaments
cytopharynx and in locomotion as well.
m Thick M-line Myosin Meromyosin HMM - Head Project outward at
In Hydra - Tentacles are used for capturing of prey
Dark/A-band

m
(thin fibrous (contractile) (MM) (Heavy) - Short arm regular distance and
& also for locomotion. Actin binding sites
Head membrane) angle from each other
m Locomotion requires a perfect coordinated activity of LMM - Tail from the surface of
ATP binding sites
muscular, skeletal and neural systems. (Light) polymerised myosin
Cross
arm filament and is known
3 MUSCLES as cross arm.
m Muscle tissue: Mesodermal in origin
m 40-50% of body weight of a human adult is contributed by muscles. Basis Location Appearance Regulation Example
m Properties l Excitability l Contractility l Extensibility l Elasticity m Classification 1. Skeletal Striated Voluntary m Muscles of limbs
m Many cardiac muscle cells assemble in branching pattern to form a of muscles 2. Visceral Non-striated/smooth Involuntary m Inner walls of visceral organs
cardiac muscle 3. Cardiac Striated Involuntary m Muscles of heart

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NCERT Maps Locomotion and Movement 55

6 MECHANISM OF MUSCLE CONTRACTION/ m Globular head is active ATPase enzyme and has binding sites for ATP and active sites for actin.
SLIDING FILAMENT THEORY m Thin filaments make I/Isotropic band – actin Arranged alternately throughout the length of myofibrils
m Contraction of muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of the thin Thick filaments make A/Anisotropic band – actin + myosin parallel to each other and to longitudinal axis of myofibrils
filaments over the thick filaments.
m Sarcomere: Functional unit of contraction between 2 'Z' lines (elastic fibres) = 1 A-band + 2 half I-band
A motor neuron alongwith the muscle fibres connected to it
H-zone is non overlapped part of thick filament by thin filaments. Z line A band I band
constitute a motor unit. m

via Release
CNS Motor 7 SKELETAL SYSTEM
neuron m This system has significant role in movement shown by the body.
Neurotransmitter Acetylcholine
m Framework of 206 bones & few cartilages
m Principle division l Appendicular skeleton l Axial skeleton H zone
At Neuromuscular Junction / Motor end plate, action potential is Axial skeleton (Bones-80) Sarcomere
Bones distributed along main axis
generated in sarcolemma that causes release of Ca+2 in sarcoplasm
Structure Bones No. Name of bones Typical feature or basic function
from SR leading to Ca+2 increase in sarcoplasm included
Skull Frontal bone
Cranium 1- Frontal 1- Occipital - Protect brain
Ca+2 binds to troponin subunit, change in its confirmation, unmask Parietal bone 8 2- Parietal 1- Ethmoid - Articulates with superior region of vertebral
Sphenoid bone
2- Temporal 1- Sphenoid column by 2 occipital condyles (Dicondylic skull)
active site for myosin binding on actin filament
Ethmoid bone 2- Nasal 1- Mandible - Form front part of skull
Energised myosin (Myosin – ADP + Pi) binds to actin
Lacrimal bone Facial 14 2- Lacrimal 2- Maxilla
Nasal bone
2- Zygomatic 5- others
Zygomatic
bone Hyoid 1 1- U-shaped - Present at the base of buccal cavity
Cross bridge = Actin-myosin-ADP + Pi Maxilla
Ear 2-Malleus - Present in the middle ear
Mandible
Result ossicles 6 2-Incus
m Pull thin filaments toward centre Hyoid bone
2-Stapes
Shortening/ m Pull Z-line Occipital Temporal Occipital
contraction m Length of I-band reduced bone bone condyle

of sarcomere m Length of A-band retained Vertebral Cervical Dorsal 7- Cervical - Main framework of trunk
Column vertebra Vertebrae 12- Thoracic - Protects spinal cord
ADP+Pi released from myosin head (serially 26 5- Lumbar - Supports head
Thoracic arranged 1- Sacral-Fused - Point of attachment of ribs and muscles of back
vertebra units) 1- Coccygeal-Fused
New ATP binds to myosin head m 1st vertebra is atlas that articulates with
Intervertebral occipital condyles.
Lumbar m Seven cervical vertebrae exist in almost
Cross bridge broken disc vertebra
all mammals.
Sacrum
m Neural canal of vertebrae - site from where
Coccyx
ATP hydrolysis on myosin head spinal cord passes

Sternum Chest bone 1 1-Flat bone - On ventral, midline of thorax

Cycle repeats
Ribs 1 True ribs 14-Vertebrosternal - Attach dorsally to vertebrae and ventrally to
Process will continue till Ca2+ pumped 3
2 sternum with hyaline cartilage
back to sarcoplasmic cisternae True
4 Sternum False ribs 24 6- Vertebrochondral - Not directly attached to sternum but to 7th rib with
ribs
5 hyaline cartilage (8th to 10th pair)
6
Z-line return to original position 7 Ribs
Floating 4- Vertebral - Not connected ventrally (11th and 12th pair)
m Reaction time of fibres vary in different muscles. 8 Vertebral ribs
False
9 column
m All ribs are bicephalic thin flat bones
m Repeated activity of muscle leads to accumulation of lactic ribs i.e., they have 2 articulating ends on dorsal side
acid due to anaerobic breakdown of glycogen in them, 10
11 m Vertebral column + Sternum + Ribs = Rib Cage
Floating ribs
causing fatigue. 12

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56 Locomotion and Movement NCERT Maps

8 APPENDICULAR SKELETON (BONES - 126) 9 JOINTS

m Consists of bones of limbs (30 × 4 = 120) and girdles (6) m They are essential for all types of movements involving bony parts of the body.
m Point of contact between bones or bones and cartilages.
m Force generated by muscle is used to carry out movement through joint, where joint acts as fulcrum.
Pectoral girdle Pelvic girdle m Types of joints (Basis – Major structural forms)
& upper arm & lower arm
Types Bones joined by Movement Examples
Half of girdle

Clavicle

Coxal bone
(Collar) Ilium Fibrous Dense fibrous Do not allow any Flat skull bones fused end to end
bone connective tissue movement via sutures to form cranium
Pubis
Scapula Ischium Cartilaginous Fibrous cartilage Limited movement Adjacent vertebrae
(Between Synovial Fluid filled synovial Considerable Humerus & pectoral girdle (Ball and socket joint)
Humerus Femur
2nd & 7th Thigh
(longest cavity between 2 bones movement, helps in Knee joint (Hinge joint)
ribs)
bone)
locomotion and Atlas & axis (Pivot joint)
Patella Knee (Ventral) many other Between carpals (Gliding joint)
Radius Tibia movements Carpal & metacarpal of thumb (Saddle joint)
Ulna Fibula
Wrist Carpals (8) (7) Tarsals
Palm Metacarpals (5) Metatarsals
Ankle 10 DISORDERS
Digits Phalanges Fingers
(14) Disease Causes Impact
Myasthenia gravis Autoimmunity m Affect neuromuscular junction
m Girdles helps in the articulation of limbs with axial m Fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscles
skeleton
m Scapula, a dorsal triangular flat bone, have elevated Muscular dystrophy Genetic m Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles
ridge/spine, expanded to form acromion process that +2
Tetany Low Ca in body fluid m Rapid spasms in muscle (wild contractions)
articulates with clavicle
m Glenoid cavity in scapula articulates with humerus Arthritis m Inflammation of joints
head to form shoulder joint
Gout Accumulation of m Inflammation of joints
m Acetabulum, formed by fusion of ilium, ischium and
uric acid crystals
pubis, articulates with femur to form hip joint
m 2 halves of pelvic girdle meet ventrally to form pubic Osteoporosis Age related m Decreased bone mass, increased chances of fracture
symphysis containing fibrous cartilage Decreased levels of estrogen

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NCERT Maps Locomotion and Movement 57

1. Identify the structures labelled as X, Y and Z 5. Which is not correct about muscle? B. Pulling of actin filaments towards
in the given figure [NCERT Pg. 306] [NCERT Pg. 303] A-band leads to contraction.

(1) It is mesodermal in origin C. Acetylcholine is released at

neuromuscular junction which generate
(2) 40-50% of body weight is formed by it action potential.
Which of the above structure(s) masks the (3) They have properties like excitability and
D. Release of Ca+2 ions from SR, binds to
myosin binding site on actin filament during contractibility subunit troponin of actin filaments.
resting state?
(4) They are classified on the basis of
Which of the following sequence of above
(1) X only (2) Y and Z reception of type of stimulus
events is correct? [NCERT Pg. 307]
(3) X and Z (4) Y and Z 6. The red and white muscle fibres can be
(1) A, B, C, D (2) C, D, B, A
distinguished from each other on the basis
2. Which of the following when binds to the
of all except [NCERT Pg. 308] (3) C, D, A, B (4) C, B, D, A
myosin head results in its detachment from
actin? [NCERT Pg. 307] (1) Amount of myoglobin 9. In order to initiate muscle contraction, Ca+2
ions binds to which of the following muscle
(1) Ca+2 (2) Mg+2 (2) Dependence on aerobic process of
energy protein? [NCERT Pg. 307]
(3) ATP (4) ADP
(3) Amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum (1) Tropomyosin (2) Actin
3. Choose the odd one w.r.t. locomotion
(4) Thickness & length of actin & myosin (3) Troponin (4) Myosin
[NCERT Pg. 302] filaments 10. I-band lacks [NCERT Pg. 306]
(1) Hydra use tentacles for capturing prey 7. The central part of thick filaments, not (1) Actin (2) Tropomyosin
(2) Use of hind limbs for search of food in overlapped by thin filament at relaxed state
of muscle fibre is [NCERT Pg. 305] (3) Myosin (4) Troponin
different fields
(1) H-zone (2) I-band 11. Select the incorrect pair.
(3) Climbing a tree
(3) A-band (4) Sarcomere [NCERT Pg. 309, 310]
(4) Flying to escape from predators
8. During the mechanism of muscle (1) Axial skeleton – 80 bones
4. Pseudopodial movements are characteristic
contraction, following events occur.
of all except [NCERT Pg. 303] (2) Skull region – 22 + 1 + 6 bones
A. Myosin head activated by ATP
(1) Leucocytes (2) Amoeba (3) Vertebrosternal ribs – 2 pairs
hydrolysis binds to exposed active sites
(3) Macrophages (4) Ova to form cross bridge. (4) Vertebrochondral ribs – 3 pairs

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 58 Locomotion and Movement NCERT Maps
12. Which set of bones are single in human (1) Humerus and femur 18. Which of the following joints does not allow
body? [NCERT Pg. 309, 311] (2) Metacarpals and metatarsals any movement in our body?
(1) Nasal, coxa [NCERT Pg. 312]
(3) Radius and tibia
(2) Mandible, hyoid (1) Between adjacent vertebrae
(4) Carpals and tarsals
(3) Temporal, sternum (2) Pubic symphysis in pelvic girdle
15. Presence of a coxal bone formed by the
(4) Frontal, maxilla (3) Between skull and atlas
fusion of three smaller bones is a feature of
13. Match the appropriate number of the bones
[NCERT Pg. 311] (4) Suture in skull bones
associated with given structures and choose
the correct option (1) Pectoral girdle (2) Pelvic girdle 19. Which of the given disorder is commonly
caused by decreased level of estrogen in
[NCERT Pg. 310, 311] (3) Vertebral column (4) Tarsals
aged woman? [NCERT Pg. 310]
a. Limb bones (i) 12 16. Acetabulum is bounded by
(1) Arthritis
b. Thoracic vertebrae (ii) 2 [NCERT Pg. 311]
(2) Osteoporosis
c. Hip girdle (iii) 30 (1) Ischium and pubis only
(3) Myasthenia gravis
d. Lumbar vertebrae (iv) 5
(2) Ilium and pubis only (4) Gout
(v) 3
(3) Ilium, ischium and pubis 20. During contraction and relaxation of skeletal
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(4) Pubis only muscle, size of which band remains
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(v), d(iv)
unchanged? [NCERT Pg. 308]
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) 17. Which pair of ribs do not articulate directly
with the sternum but attach with hyaline (1) I-band
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
cartilage of other ribs? [NCERT Pg. 310] (2) A-band
14. Which of the following option include the
(1) 6th, 7th, 8th (2) 8th, 9th, 10th (3) H-zone
bones whose number is not same in upper
and lower limbs? [NCERT Pg. 311] (3) 7 , 8 , 9
th th th
(4) 10 , 11 , 12
th th th (4) Z-line

1. Acromion process is the part of _______ 3. Muscle bundles are held together by a 5. M-line is present in the middle of _______
common collagenous connective tissue
bone. [NCERT Pg. 311] band. [NCERT Pg. 305]
layer called _______. [NCERT Pg. 304]
2. Store house of Ca+2 ions in striated muscle 6. Monomeric unit of thick myosin filament is
4. Spermatozoa show _______ movement.
fibres is _______. [NCERT Pg. 304] [NCERT Pg. 303] called _______. [NCERT Pg. 306]

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NCERT Maps Locomotion and Movement 59

7. Ribs have two articulation surfaces on 12. Maximum movement is possible at _______ 17. Pubic symphysis is a type of _______ joint.
_______ side so are called _______. joints. [NCERT Pg. 312] [NCERT Pg. 311]
[NCERT Pg. 310] 13. Red colour of red muscle fibres is due to
18. In a shoulder joint, head of humerus
8. _______ is the autoimmune disorder oxygen storing pigment called _______.
articulates with _______ cavity.
affecting neuromuscular junction. [NCERT Pg. 308]
[NCERT Pg. 312] 14. Pliable nature of cartilage is due to _______. [NCERT Pg. 311]

9. _______ is the fundamental contractile unit [NCERT Pg. 309]

19. Tetany, a rapid spasm in muscle is due to
of a skeletal myofibril. [NCERT Pg. 308] 15. The cross arm of myosin head has two sites _______ ions in body fluid.
10. Patella covers the knee _______. to bind with _______ and _______.
[NCERT Pg. 306] [NCERT Pg. 312]
[NCERT Pg. 311]
16. _______ is the longest bone in our body. 20. Ventral side of thorax is supported by
11. Our palm is formed of _______ bones.
[NCERT Pg. 311] [NCERT Pg. 311] _______ bone. [NCERT Pg. 310]

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 Neural Control and Coordination
9A
Chapter
Parts
1 INTRODUCTION 2 SYSTEMS MAINTAINING HOMEOSTASIS 3 NEURON
Dendrite
m Coordination is the process through which two or more PARAMETERS NEURAL ENDOCRINE m Neuron is the structural and functional Cell body
organs interact and complement the functions of one SYSTEM SYSTEM unit of the neural system
another to maintain homeostasis in our body. m Integration Through Through m Composed of a cell body, dendrites
m The neural system and the endocrine system jointly neurotransmitters hormones and axon Nucleus Nissl's granules

coordinate and integrate all the activities of the organs m Coordination Quicker Slower Types Location
so that they function in a synchronised fashion. l Neural system provides an organised network of Schwann
cell
point to point connections with target cells.
2 or more Cerebral cortex
4 TYPES OF AXONS/NERVE FIBRES Myelin
Axon
6 GENERATION OF IMPULSE Bipolar 1 Retina of eye sheath
Parameters Myelinated Non-myelinated
m The electrical potential difference across the resting Unipolar 0 Embryonic stage Neurotransmitters
Myelin sheath + – plasma membrane is called the resting potential Node of
are stored in
Ranvier
The electrical potential difference across the axonal m Above given neurons have only one axon. synaptic vesicles of
Node of Ranvier + – m
Synaptic knobs
membrane after receiving threshold stimulus is m Cell body contains cell organelles. Axon
Location Autonomic and called action potential/nerve impulse. m Impulse from dendrite moves towards cell terminal
somatic neural m Cycle of events: body and in axon away from cell body. Fig.: Structure of a neuron
system +
+++ Threshold –––
Na influx
m Schwann cells surround both myelinated and ––– stimulus + ++ ¯¯ 8 TRANSMISSION OF IMPULSE
non-myelinated nerve fibres but they form myelin Change in m Nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another across a
sheath only in myelinated fibres. Resting state permeability Depolarisation synapse.
(This state is of axolemma
for Na+ Change in Events observed: Axon
5 CONCENTRATION GRADIENT ACROSS maintained by
permeability m Neurotransmitters released
+
Na+/K+ pump) K efflux
AXONAL MEMBRANE +++
­­ of axolemma
––– in synaptic cleft Axon terminal
m Excitability of neurons is attributed to polarised for K+
m Bind to receptors on post Synaptic vesicles
state of neural membranes. Repolarisation Pre-synaptic S
synaptic neuronal (PSN) Y
m It has selectively permeable ionic channels membrane N
membrane Synaptic cleft A
responsible for differential concentration gradient 7 CONDUCTION OF IMPULSE m Opening of ion channels in Post-synaptic S
P
across the axonal membrane PSN membrane E
+
m Impulse generated at a site arrives at another site and Receptors
m Axonal membranes are more permeable for K , same sequence is repeated along the length of axon. m Generates a new potential
Neurotransmitters
+
m Current flows in a circuit when it moves from A to in PSN
nearly impermeable to Na and impermeable to
B site. Types of Synapse
negatively charged proteins. Inner
m Flow of charge is from A B Features Electrical synapse Chemical synapse
Types of fluids Composition Outer
+ +
m Pre & post neuron Close proximity Separated by fluid-filled
membrane
ECF K ¯, Na ­ through gap junctions synaptic cleft

ICF
+ +
K ­, Na ¯ m Flow of impulse Direct Through neurotransmitters
m Transmission Faster Slower
m Nature – Excitatory or inhibitory
m Ionic gradients across resting membrane are m Existence Rare Common
maintained by the active transport of ions by the
+
sodium-potassium pump which pumps 3Na Transmission of impulse across electrical synapse is very similar
+
outwards and 2K into the cell to impulse conduction along a single axon.

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NCERT Maps Neural Control and Coordination 61

9 NEURAL SYSTEM 13 REFLEX ACTION AND REFLEX ARC

Afferent Dorsal root White
m Neurons can detect, receive & transmit stimulus m Its a response to peripheral nervous stimulation pathway ganglion matter
Muscle spindle
l Hydra – Network of neurons m Involuntary i.e., without conscious effort (receptor)
l Insects – Organised neural system with m Involves part of CNS. Gray
matter
brain and ganglia Reflex pathway
l Vertebrates – Well developed neural system Afferent Efferent Stimulus
Receptor CNS Effector/Excitor Motor Efferent Interneuron
neuron neuron Motor
endplate pathway neuron
10 HUMAN NEURAL SYSTEM m Neurons are arranged in series in a reflex pathway. Response (effector)
m Afferent neurons transmit impulse via dorsal nerve root.
Fig.: Knee jerk stretch reflex (Kick out)
CNS PNS m Inter neuron is not a part of this stretch reflex
m Brain & spinal cord m All nerves of body from
brain and spinal cord 12 BRAIN
m Nerve fibres of PNS m Brain is central information processing organ of the body
Midbrain
Forebrain
Afferent Efferent m Corpora Quadrigemina
Send impulses from Transmit impulses from CNS to m Cerebrum l located between thalamus/hypothalamus
tissues/organs to CNS peripheral tissues/organs l Major part of brain and pons
l Cleft divides it longitudinally l 4 lobes on dorsal side between forebrain
into right & left cerebral and pons.
Somatic neural system Autonomic nervous system hemispheres, connected l Integrates visual, tactile and auditory inputs.
by corpus callosum Cerebral Aqueduct
Transmit impulses from Relays impulses from CNS to m

CNS to skeletal muscles involuntary organs and m Thalamus l Canal passes through midbrain

smooth muscles l Major coordinating centre for

sensory & motor signaling Hindbrain
Visceral nervous system (VNS) m Hypothalamus m Pons
l Fibrous tract that connects different
m Part of PNS l Lies at base of thalamus
l Has various centres for controlling
regions of the brain
m Complex of nerves, fibres, ganglia and plexuses
body temperature, urge for eating and m Cerebellum
m CNS viscera
VNS drinking Fig.: Sagittal section l Convoluted surface to accommodate more
l Secretes hormones of human brain neurons
l Integrates information received from
11 CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM m Regions in cerebral Appearance Composition semicircular canal and auditory system
hemisphere Medulla oblongata
m Acts as command & control system of the body m

Protective l Outer/cortex Grey Concentrated cell bodies l Connects brain to spinal cord
m Skull
coverings l Inner White Myelinated nerve fibres l Has centres for controlling respiration,
m Meninges
cardiovascular reflexes and gastric secretions
m The cerebral cortex includes
m Brain Stem is composed of Midbrain, Pons and Medulla oblongata
Outer Middle Inner
m Name of Duramater Arachnoid Piamater Sensory areas Motor areas Association areas Basic Functions of Brain
meninx (Neither sensory nor motor) m Controls the voluntary movements m Controls hunger, thirst
m In contact Skull Brain Functions m Balance of body m Circadian rhythms
with m Functioning of vital organs (kidneys, m Human behaviour
Inter sensory Memory Communication
Major Divisions of Brain: associations lungs, heart) m Activities of endocrine

Divisions Major parts m Thermoregulation glands

m Limbic system/Limbic lobe
m Forebrain Cerebrum, thalamus, hypothalamus l Parts included: Inner part of cerebral hemisphere, hippocampus, amygdala and hypothalamus
m Midbrain Corpora quadrigemina l Functions: l Involved in expression of emotional reactions (e.g., excitement , pleasure, rage, fear)
m Hindbrain Pons, medulla, cerebellum l Motivation l Regulation of sexual behaviour l Autonomic responses l Olfaction

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 62 Neural Control and Coordination NCERT Maps

1. Which neural system relays impulses from 4. In a resting membrane, K+ passively moves 8. Which is not a part of brain stem?
CNS to the skeletal system? from [NCERT Pg. 317]
[NCERT Pg. 321]
[NCERT Pg. 316] (1) Axoplasm to ECF by diffusion
(1) Sympathetic neural system (1) Pons
(2) ECF to axoplasm by diffusion
(2) Parasympathetic neural system (2) Cerebellum
(3) Somatic neural system (3) Axoplasm to ECF by gated channels
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Autonomic neural system (4) ECF to axoplasm by gated channels
2. Which is the major coordinating centre for (4) Midbrain
5. Which of the given meninges is in contact
sensory and motor signaling?
with brain tissue? [NCERT Pg. 320] 9. Limbic system includes [NCERT Pg. 321]
[NCERT Pg. 321]
(1) Piamater a. Amygdala
(1) Hypothalamus
(2) Thalamus (2) Arachnoid b. Hippocampus
(3) Cerebrum (3) Dura mater
c. Hypothalamus
(4) Midbrain
(4) Pia-arachnoid
3. In the given diagram, identify A, B and C. d. Midbrain
[NCERT Pg. 320] 6. Corpus callosum, a tract of nerve fibres
e. Corpora quadrigemina
connects [NCERT Pg. 321]
(1) Two cerebellar hemispheres (1) a, c, d (2) c, d, e

(2) Two cerebral hemispheres (3) a, b, c (4) a, b, c, e

(3) Cerebellar and cerebral hemispheres 10. Which statement is not related to the
following diagrammatic presentation?
(4) Four lobes of corpora quadrigemina
[NCERT Pg. 322]
7. Cardiovascular centre is present in
A B C
[NCERT Pg. 321]
(1) Cerebellum Medulla Pons
(2) Cerebrum Medulla Pons (1) Pons
(3) Cerebrum Pons Olfactory (2) Cerebellum
lobe
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Corpus Cerebrum Medulla
callosum (4) Cerebrum

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NCERT Maps Neural Control and Coordination 63

(1) It is showing knee jerk reflex 14. Na+-K+ pump transports which of the (1) Sensory area
following ions across plasma membrane of
(2) It shows two reflex arcs (2) Motor area
neuron? [NCERT Pg. 317]
(3) Knee jerk arc has only one synapse in (3) Association area
Outside Inside
CNS
(4) Afferent area
(4) Multisynaptic reflex arc goes to the same (1) 3 Na+ 2 K+
18. Which of the following has very convoluted
muscle to relax it (2) 2 Na+ 3 K+ surface in order to provide the additional
11. Select the organism having simplest form of (3) 3 K+ 2 Na+ space for many more neurons?
neural organization. [NCERT Pg. 316]
(4) 2 K+ 3 Na+ [NCERT Pg. 321]
(1) Spongilla
15. Which system provides an organised (1) Pons
(2) Hydra network of point-to-point connections for a (2) Olfactory lobes
(3) Pheretima quick coordination?
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Apis [NCERT Pg. 315]
(4) Medulla
12. Nissl’s granules exist in [NCERT Pg. 317] (1) Neural system
19. Voluntary muscular coordination is under the
(1) Cell body and axon (2) Endocrine system control of
(2) Axon and synaptic knob (3) Feedback system [NCERT Pg. 321]
(3) Cell body and dendrites (4) Neuroendocrine system (1) Hypothalamus
(4) Axon and dendrites 16. Cell body with only one axon as a cell (2) Cerebellum
process is found in
13. After depolarisation, resting membrane (3) Cerebral hemisphere
potential is restored within fraction of second [NCERT Pg. 317]
(4) Medulla oblongata
due to X and is maintained by Y . (1) Retina of eye
20. Which of the given options is not absolutely
[NCERT Pg. 318] (2) Embryonic stage
essential for all reflex actions?
X Y (3) Dorsal root ganglia of spinal nerve
[NCERT Pg. 322]
(1) Efflux of Na +
Influx of K + (4) Cerebral cortex
(1) Receptor organ
(2) Influx of Na +
Efflux of K + 17. Which area of cerebral cortex is responsible
(2) Interneuron
for complex functions like intersensory
(3) Efflux of K+ Na+-K+ pump (3) Afferent and efferent neuron
associations, memory and communications?
(4) Influx of K +
Na -K pump
+ +
(4) Part of CNS
[NCERT Pg. 321]

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 64 Neural Control and Coordination NCERT Maps

1. _______ is the process through which two 7. Cerebral cortex contains motor areas, 14. Centre for cardiovascular reflexes is
or more organs interact and complement the sensory areas and _______ areas. present in _______. [NCERT Pg. 321]
functions of one another. [NCERT Pg. 315] [NCERT Pg. 321] 15. Myelin sheath in peripheral nervous system
2. Impulse transmission is faster in _______ as 8. In vertebrates _______ plays a central role is formed by _______ cells.
compared to _______ synapse. in integrating endocrine and nervous [NCERT Pg. 317]
[NCERT Pg. 319] system. [NCERT Pg. 321]
16. Visceral nervous system is the part of
9. Cerebral aqueduct passes through _______ ______. [NCERT Pg. 321]
3. Central information processing organ of our
and connect cavities between ______ and
body is _______ that acts as the command 17. _______ part of human neural system is a
_______ brain. [NCERT Pg. 321]
and control system. [NCERT Pg. 320] site of processing of vision, hearing and
10. _______ part of brain connects brain with thoughts. [NCERT Pg. 320]
4. The chemical senses of _______ and
the spinal cord. [NCERT Pg. 321]
_______ are functionally similar and 18. Corpora quadrigemina are present on
11. Sympathetic and parasympathetic system
interrelated. [NCERT Pg. 323] _______ side of midbrain. [NCERT Pg. 321]
are a part of _______ neural system.
5. _______ control our body temperature. [NCERT Pg. 316] 19. Withdrawal of leg when touched with hot
thing is a type of _______.[NCERT Pg.
[NCERT Pg. 321] 12. Cerebral cortex is made up of _______
322]
matter.[NCERT Pg. 321]
6. Cerebrum is divided into two halves along
20. _______ part of brain is responsible for co-
_______ axis and are connected by the 13. Amygdala controls _______.
ordination between different muscular
corpus callosum. [NCERT Pg. 327] [NCERT Pg. 321] activities. [NCERT Pg. 321]

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 Neural Control and Coordination 9B
Chapter
1 SENSORY RECEPTION AND PROCESSING 3 EYE
m Sensory organs detect all types of changes in the environment m The wall of the eyeball is Middle layer (Choroid)
Input Output composed of three layers: Anterior, opaque, pigmented, visible coloured portion of the eye
Iris
Sensory receptors CNS Parts/ Organs Regulates the diameter of pupil through its muscle fibres
l External
(Detect (Process (Response to Ciliary body Thick anteriorly
& analyse) stimuli) l Middle Holds the lens in place through ligaments
stimuli)
l Inner
Thin over posterior 2/3rd part
Choroid
2 SENSE ORGANS Contains many blood vessels and looks bluish

Sense organ Sense Features associated Inner layer (Retina)

Nose Smell m Mucus coated olfactory epithelium Outer – Photoreceptor cells
having three types of cells Types: Rods & cones
(single) Retina
Middle – Bipolar cells
m Neurons extend directly into bean sized
olfactory bulb that are extensions of Inner– Ganglion cells
limbic system. Aqueous Vitreous
chamber chamber Only cones are densely packed
Tongue Taste m Input from taste buds is conveyed to the Thinned central portion of retina
(single) Lens Fovea
brain and a complex flavour of food or drink Pupil Point with greatest visual
is perceived External Layer (Sclera) acuity or resolution
Anterior – Cornea Lens
Ear Hearing, m Input from organ of Corti and vestibular m Transparent Lies medial to and slightly above
(paired) apparatus is conveyed to CNS. Posterior –Sclera m Crystalline
balance posterior pole of eye ball
Blind
No rods or cones here
Eye Vision m Enclosed in sockets of skull (orbits) spot
Composition Retinal blood vessels enter
(paired) m Nearly spherical in structure Optic nerve leaves the eye
Dense connective tissue Optic
nerve
m The chemical senses of gustation (taste) and olfactory (smell) are m Macula lutea – Yellowish pigmented spot lying at the posterior pole of eye lateral to the blind spot with
functionally similar and inter related as they detect dissolved chemicals. a central pit called fovea.
Photoreceptor cells Vision Photopigments (light sensitive proteins)
4 CHAMBERS IN EYE
Between Between Rods Twilight/Scotopic vision Rhodopsin/ Purplish red protein/visual purple
Cornea Lens Retina
Cones Day light/ Types of cones
Aqueous chamber Vitreous chamber Photopic vision Red m Different photopigments in these cones

Contains and Colour vision Green m Sensation of different colours by various combinations
Aqueous humor Vitreous humor Blue m Equal stimulation of these gives sensation of white light
Appearance
Thin watery fluid Transparent gel m Photopigments contain an aldehyde of vitamin A/retinal and protein, opsin.

5 MECHANISM OF VISION Focusses Opsin Change in

light rays (change in structure) membrane
Generate Generate
Enter Contain permeability transmitted action potential Impulse
Visible Cornea Lens Photo Rhodopsin potential Bipolar cells Ganglion cells Optic Visual
to sent forward to
light sensitive dissociates difference in nerve cortex
rays cells into Retinal photoreceptor cells m Brain analysed image formed on retina based on earlier memory and experience

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66 Neural Control and Coordination NCERT Maps

6 THE EAR 7 LABYRINTH

Anatomical m It is a fluid filled inner ear, consists of two parts: Bony and Membranous labyrinths
Divisions Outer Ear Middle Ear Internal Ear Encloses
Pinna + Ear canal Malleus Stapes Labyrinths m Bony Labyrinth Membranous Labyrinth
Pinna (M) ® (I) ® (S) (filled with perilymph) (filled with endolymph)
Components:
Incus
m Fine hair and wax glands
Vestibular Parts of Membranous Sub-parts Receptors Basic functions
are present in their skin
apparatus labyrinth
m Pinna gathers/collects
the vibrations in the air Cochlear (a) Semicircular Crista
nerve canals (3) ampullaris m Maintenance of balance of the body
m Vestibular apparatus
Cochlea (b) Otolith organ and posture.
External auditory (complex system)
Eustachian tube Macula m Influenced by gravity and movements
meatus/canal
extends inwards m Connects middle Utricle Saccule
upto tympanum Tympanum ear cavity to the
pharynx m Cochlea Sensory hair m Hearing
(eardrum)
m Equalises pressure (coiled appearance) cells in organ
on either side of of Corti
tympanum
m Semicircular canals lie at right angle to each other and the base of each canal is swollen called ampulla.
m Tympanic/ (a) Connective tissue covered with skin on the
membrane is outside m These membranous canals are suspended/surrounded by perilymph of the bony canals
composed of (b) Mucus membrane on the inside m Vestibular apparatus is present above the coiled cochlea.
m Ear ossicles Arranged in a chain (M ® I ® S) m Receptors present in vestibular apparatus have hair cells.
l Structural Malleus is attached to tympanum
details Stapes is attached to the oval window
8 COCHLEA
l Function Increase efficiency of transmission of sound Reissner's
waves to the inner ear Demarcating Chambers Fluid present Terminating membrane
Scala
membrane within region media
9 MECHANISM OF HEARING Scala vestibuli Perilymph Oval window Scala
Reisnner's vestibuli
m Ear converts sound waves into neural impulses
Scala media Endolymph
m The cerebellum integrates information received from the semicircular Basilar Organ
canals of the ear and the auditory system. Scala tympani Perilymph Round window of Corti

Sound waves
Organ of Corti Tectorial
Received by membrane
Vibrations
Ear transmitted Ear m Located on Basilar membrane Basilar
External Transmits Scala tympani
extends drum through ossicles vibrations membrane
ear inwards m Contains sensory hairs present in rows on internal side
to
of organ of Corti, that act as auditory receptors. Fig.: Sectional view of cochlea
Oval window
Auditory Impulse is analysed and
cortex sound is recognised Generate
waves in l Apical part – Possess stereocilia
Transmit
impulse to Perilymph l Above them there is thin elastic membrane
m Sensory hair
Auditory cells called Tectorial membrane
Hair cells Induce
nerve
of cochlea l Basal part – Is in close contact with afferent
Afferent Generates against Bend Ripples in the
nerve fibres forming the auditory nerve
transmitted neurons impulses tectorial basilar membrane
further to in Fig.: Sectional of organ of Corti
membrane

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NCERT Maps Neural Control and Coordination 67

1. Which one of the following is odd one w.r.t. (1) a, b only (2) b, c only 11. What would be the correct sequence of path
retina? [NCERT Pg. 324] (3) a, c only (4) a, b and c followed by light when it falls on eye and the
(1) Macula lutea (2) Fovea impulse generated? [NCERT Pg. 324]
7. Neurons of olfactory epithelium extend from
(3) Blind spot (4) Crista external environment directly into the (a) Visual cortex (b) Cornea
2. Cells of retina that are specialized to olfactory bulbs. These bulbs are an (c) Vitreous humor (d) Lens
transduce light signals to electric signals are extension of [NCERT Pg. 323]
(e) Aqueous humor (f) Retina
[NCERT Pg. 324]
(1) Thalamus (2) Cerebrum
(1) Bipolar cells (2) Ganglionic cells (1) b – c – d – e – f – a
(3) Limbic system (4) Midbrain
(3) Cones and rods (4) Glial cells (2) b – e – d – c – f – a
8. Vestibular apparatus helps in maintaining
3. Which of the given fluid in cochlea induces a (3) a – f – b – e – d – c
body balance and posture as it senses
ripple in basilar membrane? (4) d – b – a – c – e – f
[NCERT Pg. 326]
[NCERT Pg. 327] 12. Select the part of the ear where sound is
(1) Internal movement influenced by stress
(1) Blood (2) Perilymph transduced. [NCERT Pg. 326]
(2) Movement influenced by gravity
(3) Endolymph (4) Intracellular fluid (1) Tympanic membrane
(3) Increasing pitch of sound
4. Maximum number of cones are present in (2) Semicircular canal
[NCERT Pg. 324] (4) Sound production
9. Basilar membrane is in contact above and (3) Ear ossicles
(1) Blind spot (2) Fovea
below with which fluid respectively? (4) Organ of Corti
(3) Pupil (4) Optic nerve
5. Reissner’s membrane is present between [NCERT Pg. 326] 13. A molecule cannot be tasted or smelled until
which of the following cavities or Below Above it has been [NCERT Pg. 323]
membranes? [NCERT Pg. 326] (1) Endolymph Perilymph (1) Converted into a neurotransmitter
(1) Middle ear and inner ear (2) Perilymph Perilymph (2) Converted into a peptide/protein
(2) Scala media and scala tympani (3) Converted into multi molecular complex
(3) Endolymph Endolymph
(3) Scala media and scala vestibuli (4) Dissolved in a liquid
(4) Perilymph Endolymph
(4) Scala tympani and scala vestibuli
10. The diameter of pupil is regulated by 14. The sensory information for hearing is finally
6. How many of the following inputs are interpreted in [NCERT Pg. 327]
[NCERT Pg. 327]
received and integrated in the midbrain?
[NCERT Pg. 328] (1) Ciliary body (1) Basilar membrane

a. Tactile (2) Iris muscle fibres (2) Organ of Corti

b. Auditory (3) Lens itself (3) Auditory cortex of brain

c. Visual (4) Ligaments attached to ciliary body (4) Olfactory part of the brain

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 68 Neural Control and Coordination NCERT Maps
15. Select the incorrect statement (a) Fenestra ovalis (b) Tympanum 19. Rhodopsin or visual purple contains a
[NCERT Pg. 324] (c) Middle ear (d) Fenestra rotunda derivative of which of the following
(1) Scotopic vision is the function of rods (e) Scala tympani (f) Scala vestibuli vitamin/s? [NCERT Pg. 324]
(2) Rods are present in abundance at the [NCERT Pg. 327] (1) E and K (2) B complex
blind spot (1) b – c – a – f – e – d
(3) A and C (4) A
(3) Fovea is densely packed with cones (2) b – c – d – f –e – a
(4) Visual cortex is the area where image 20. Bipolar cells of retina are arranged closely
(3) b – c –f – a – e – d
formed on the retina is recognized (4) b – c – d – a – e – f between A and B respectively.
16. Complete the analogy: 18. Different types of cones possess their own [NCERT Pg. 324]
Aqueous humor : Watery fluid characteristic photopigment that respond to
Vitreous humor : [NCERT Pg. 324] specific wavelength of light. Upon equal A B
(1) Transparent fluid (2) Transparent gel stimulation of the cones, the sensation of (1) Rods Cones
(3) Opaque gel (4) Opaque colloid light produced is of which colour?
(2) Photoreceptors Choroid
17. Select the option that correctly arranges, [NCERT Pg. 324]
(1) Black (2) White (3) Photoreceptors Ganglionic cells
the sequence of travel of sound waves in the
ear. (3) Green (4) Orange (4) Ganglionic cells Optic nerve

1. Internal ear is responsible for ______ and 8. With each taste of food or sip of drink, the 14. Ear drum is attached to ______ ear ossicle
_______. [NCERT Pg. 326 & 327] brain integrates the differential inputs from [NCERT Pg. 325]
2. Cones are photoreceptors and are the _______ and a complex flavour is 15. Eustachian tube connects middle ear cavity
responsible for providing _______ vision. perceived. [NCERT Pg. 323] with _______. [NCERT Pg. 325]
[NCERT Pg. 324] 9. _______ forms the roof of scala media in 16. Olfactory receptors are made by ______
3. The space between cornea and lens is human ear. [NCERT Pg. 326] tissue. [NCERT Pg. 323]
called _______. [NCERT Pg. 324] 10. Olfactory membrane have _______ 17. Socket of the skull enclosing eyes are called
4. Image formed on retina is recognized by receptors. [NCERT Pg. 323] ______. [NCERT Pg. 323]
_______ area of brain. [NCERT Pg. 325] 11. Tympanic membrane is composed of A 18. Ciliary body is the thick part of ______ layer
of an eye [NCERT Pg. 323]
5. Vestibular apparatus consists of X and outside and B inside [NCERT Pg. 325]
19. When three types of cones are stimulated
Y organ. [NCERT Pg. 326] 12. Visible coloured portion of eye is known as equally, sensation of ______ is produced
______. [NCERT Pg. 324] [NCERT Pg. 324]
6. _______ is the site for sharpest vision in
eye. [NCERT Pg. 324] 13. Tongue detects taste through taste A 20. Twilight vision is a function of X and is
7. _______ integrates information received containing B receptors also called Y vision
from the semicircular canals of the ear and
the auditory system. [NCERT Pg. 328] [NCERT Pg. 323] [NCERT Pg. 324]
  
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 Chemical Coordination and Integration 10
Chapter
1 INTRODUCTION 4 HYPOTHALAMUS AND PITUITARY GLAND
m Significance : As the nerve fibres do not innervate all m Hypothalamus contains several groups of neurosecretory cells called nuclei which produce hormones that regulate synthesis and secretions from
cells of the body and the cellular functions require
pituitary gland enclosed in bony cavity, Sella tursica.
continuous regulation, hence the role of endocrine Hypothalamic neurons
system is integrated with neural system. Hypothalamus

2 ENDOCRINE GLANDS AND HORMONES Connected through Connected through stalk but
secrete not via portal circulation
Endocrine glands Hormones Portal circulation
(Ductless) Stalk
glands form Anterior Pituitary Posterior pituitary
Invertebrates TYPES OF HYPOTHALAMIC HORMONES
Together regulate Endocrine system (few hormones) Example Target Released hormone Stores and releases hypothalamic hormones
physiological functions &
Vertebrates Releasing GnRH Pituitary Gonadotrophins
in the body Neural system
(many hormones) hormone

HORMONES Inhibiting Somatostatin Pituitary û Pars distalis Pars intermedia Pars nervosa
hormone [Merged in humans]
m Released into blood and transported to target organ
m Non-nutrient chemicals
m Act as intercellular messengers Adenohypophysis Neurohypophysis
m Produced in trace amounts
Hormones of Pituitary Basic function Hormones released Basic functions
3 HUMAN ENDOCRINE SYSTEM Growth hormone (GH) Growth of body Oxytocin m Acts on smooth muscles and
Hypothalamus
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) Synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones by thyroid stimulates their contraction
Pineal m Stimulates vigorous contractions of
gland
Head Pituitary
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Synthesis and secretion of steroid hormones from uterus at the time of child birth
Thyroid and Parathyroid adrenal cortex m Milk ejection from mammary glands
Thorax Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) Male – Regulates spermatogenesis along with androgens Vasopressin/ADH/ m Acts at kidney and stimulates
Thymus
Female – Stimulates growth and development of ovarian Anti-diuretic hormone resorption of water and electrolytes
follicles
Pancreas by the distal tubules
Adrenal Gonadotrophins (stimulate
m Reduces loss of water through urine
gonadal activity)
Abdomen (Diuresis)
Testis (in male)
Luteinising hormone (LH) Male – Stimulates the synthesis and secretion of
Ovary (in female) androgens
Fig. : Location of endocrine glands Female – Induces ovulation of fully mature Graafian
follicle, maintains corpus luteum
m Other organs with diffused tissues and cells: ACROMEGALY
Prolactin Regulates the growth of the mammary glands and
gastrointestinal tract, heart, liver and kidneys Serious complications of hypersecretion of GH in
formation of milk in them
middle age can leads to premature death if unchecked.
5 PINEAL GLAND Melanocyte stimulating hormone Acts on the melanocytes of skin and regulates
(MSH) by pars intermedia pigmentation of skin
The disease is hard to diagnose in early stages and
m Location: Dorsal side of forebrain often goes undetected for many years, until changes in
m Hormone released: Melatonin DISORDERS external features become noticeable.
m Basic functions: Disease Age Cause Symptoms
l Regulate 24 hours diurnal rhythm of our body (sleep Pituitary dwarfism Hyposecretion of GH Stunted growth
wake cycle) Gigantism Hypersecretion of GH Abnormal growth of the body
l Influence body metabolism, temperature,
pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense Acromegaly Middle age Hypersecretion of GH Severe disfigurement especially of face
capabilities Diabetes insipidus – Hyposecretion of ADH Diminished ability of the kidney to conserve water leading to water loss and dehydration

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 70 Chemical Coordination and Integration NCERT Maps

6 GLANDS OF THORACIC REGION 7 DISORDERS OF THYROID GLAND

Thyroid Location/Feature Number Hormones Basic functions m Hypothyroidism m Hyperthyroidism
Cause Cause
Vocal cord m Side of trachea 1 T4 (thyroxine) or m Regulate basal metabolic rate (BMR) l Iodine deficiency in diet l Cancer of the thyroid
m Bilobed structure connected through m Control metabolism of carbohydrates, during pregnancy and after gland
tetraiodothyronine
a thin flap of connective tissue called proteins and fats. birth l Development of nodules
isthmus T3 (triiodothyronine) m Maintain water and electrolyte balance
1. Goitre: Enlargement of of the thyroid gland
m Regulate development and maturation of
m Consists of follicles made up of thyroid gland 1. Exopthalmic goitre or
CNS
follicular cells enclosing a cavity, in 2. Cretinism: Stunted growth, Graves' disease:
Thyroid
m Support process of RBC formation
stromal tissue (erythropoiesis) and regulates menstrual mental retardation, low l Enlargement of thyroid
l Iodine is essential for the normal cycle intelligence quotient abnormal gland
rate of hormone synthesis in the skin and deaf-mutism l Protrusion of eyeballs
Trachea Thyrocalcitonin (TCT) Regulates blood Ca+2 levels
thyroid gland 3. In adult women, menstrual l Increase in BMR and
(Protein hormone)
cycle can become irregular weight loss.
Parathyroid m Back side of the thyroid gland 4 Parathyroid m Increase level of Ca+2 (hypercalcemic)
lThyrocalcitonin and parathormone hormone/ PTH m Acts on bones and stimulates the process of 9 PANCREAS
Thyroid play a significant role in (peptide hormone) bone resorption (dissolution/
demineralisation) Pancreas: A composite gland whose main hormones maintain
calcium homeostasis
glucose homeostasis
m Stimulates the reabsorption of Ca+2 by the
Parathyroid renal tubules. Endocrine part Exocrine part
glands
m Increases Ca+2 absorption from digested food.
Thymus m Lobular structure located between 1 Thymosins m Play a role in differentiation of T-lymphocytes, 1 to 2 million Islets of Langerhans
lungs behind sternum on ventral side of (peptide hormones) thus provide cell mediated immunity (1-2% of pancreatic tissue) Major cells
aorta m Promote production of antibodies thereby
l Degenerates in old age so immune providing humoral immunity.
a-cells b-cells
responses become weak

Secretes peptide hormones

8 ADRENAL GLAND
Glucagon Insulin
m One pair located on anterior part of kidneys
m Target Hepatocytes Hepatocytes, Adipocytes
Hormone Functions
m Stimulates Glycogenolysis, Glycogenesis
Zona glomerulosa Main Glucocorticoid m Stimulates gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis
gluconeogenesis
(outer most layer) is cortisol
m Blood ­ ¯
Adrenal cortex

m Inhibit cellular uptake and utilisation of amino acids, maintains the

cardiovascular system and the kidney functions glucose level (Hyperglycemic) (Hypoglycemic)
m Produces anti-inflammatory reactions and suppresses immune response m Glucose
m Stimulate glomerular filtration rate uptake and ¯ ­
m Stimulate RBC production utilisation by cells
Adrenal gland

+ +
DISORDER
Zona fasciculata Major Mineralocorticoid m Stimulates reabsorption of Na and H2O and excretion of K and m Diabetes mellitus – Caused by prolonged hyperglycemia
–
(middle layer) is aldosterone PO4 ions, thus helps in maintenance of electrolytes, body fluid volume, Characteristics – Loss of glucose in urine, Ketone bodies
osmotic pressure and blood pressure. formation
Adrenal cortex
Zona reticularis Androgenic steroid m Play a role in growth of axial hair, pubic hair and facial hair during Treatment – Insulin therapy
(inner layer) puberty.
(Centrally located)
Adrenal medulla

Adrenaline/epinephrine m Increase alertness, pupilary dilation, piloerection, sweating

m Increase heart beat, the strength of heart contraction and Disorder Cause Characteristic
Nor-adrenaline/nor- the rate of respiration Addison's Underproduction Alters carbohydrate
epinephrine or m Stimulate breakdown of glycogen resulting in an increased disease of hormones of metabolism causing
Catecholamines concentration of glucose in blood. adrenal cortex acute weakness and
or Emergency/fight/flight m Increase breakdown of lipids and proteins Adrenal fatigue
medulla
hormones

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NCERT Maps Chemical Coordination and Integration 71

10 GONADS Primary sex organs: Form gametes and secrete hormones 11 HORMONES OF HEART, KIDNEY AND GASTROINTESTINAL TRACT
Tissue Organ Hormone Basic function
m Atrial wall Heart m ANF m When blood pressure increases, it dilates blood
Parameter Male (Testis) Female (ovary)
vessels to reduce blood pressure.
m Location Scrotal sac (outside abdomen) in abdomen
m Juxtaglomerular Kidney m Erythropoietin m Stimulates erythropoiesis
Ovarian follicles and corpus luteum cells (JG cells)
m Structure Leydig cells/ interstitial cells
responsible m Endocrine cells GIT m Gastrin m Acts on gastric glands and stimulates secretion
in different parts of of HCl and pepsinogen
m Steroid hormone Androgens mainly testosterone Estrogen Progesterone gastro-intestinal
m Function tract
m GIP/gastric m Inhibits gastric secretions and motility
l Development and maturation of male accessory l Growth and activities of l Supports pregnancy
female secondary sex inhibitory peptide
sex organs. l Stimulates formation
organs m Cholecystokinin m Acts on exocrine part of pancreas and gall
l Stimulate spermatogenesis of alveoli (store milk bladder to stimulate secretion of pancreatic
l Stimulate development
and milk secretion enzymes and bile juice
l Acts on CNS and influence male sexual behaviour of growing follicles
(libido) m Secretin m Acts on exocrine part of pancreas and stimulates
l Regulate sexual secretion of water and bicarbonates
l Stimulate muscular growth, growth of facial and behaviour
m Non-endocrine m Growth factors m Essential for normal growth, repair and
axillary hair, aggressiveness and low pitch of voice. l Appearance of tissue regeneration of tissues
secondary sex
l Produce anabolic (synthetic) effects on protein characters like mammary
and carbohydrate metabolism gland development, high
All these given hormones are peptide hormones.
pitch etc.

12 MECHANISM OF HORMONE ACTION Hormone (e.g., FSH)

Uterine cell
membrane Receptor Ovarian cell
Hormone m Hormone receptors are located in the target tissue only membrane
(e.g, estrogen)
m Each receptor is specific to one hormone only Response 1
m Most intracellular receptors are present in the nucleus
Nucleus m Steroid hormones and iodothyronines enter the target cell (Generation of second messenger)
Genome (Cyclic AMP or Ca++)
m Hormones acting through extracellular receptors do not
Hormone-receptor mRNA enter the target cell
complex Biochemical responses
Proteins Classification of Hormones

Physiological responses (Tissue Physiological responses

growth and differentiation) Based on chemical nature (e.g., ovarian growth)

Fig: Mechanism of action of a steroid hormone Fig: Mechanism of action of a protein hormone

Steroids – Cortisol, testosterone, estradiol, progesterone Amino acid derivatives – Epinephrine

Iodothyronines – Thyroid hormones Peptide, Polypeptide, Protein – Insulin, glucagon, pituitary and
Bind to Bind to hypothalamic hormones etc.
Intracellular/Nuclear receptors Extracellular/Membrane bound receptors

Interact with Generate +2

Genome and regulate gene expression and Hormone receptor complex Second messengers cAMP, IP3, Ca etc
chromosome functions
m Brings biochemical changes in target tissue
Cumulative effect
Results in
physiological and developmental effects

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 72 Chemical Coordination and Integration NCERT Maps

1. How many of the given hormones play a (1) Cretinism 9. Which of the given hormone binds with
significant role in calcium balance in the (2) Graves’ disease extracellular membrane receptors?
body? [NCERT Pg. 335]
(3) Exophthalmic goitre [NCERT Pg. 340]
a. Parathormone b. Thyrocalcitonin
(4) Simple goitre (1) FSH (2) Estrogen
c. Thymosin d. Thyroxine
5. Which one is not a secondary messenger? (3) Aldosterone (4) Progesterone
(1) a and c (2) b and c
[NCERT Pg. 340] 10. Anatomically pars distalis and pars
(3) c and d (4) a and b
intermedia are together included in
2. Select the incorrect one w.r.t. cortisol (1) IP3 (2) Ca+2
[NCERT Pg. 333]
[NCERT Pg. 337] (3) cAMP (4) ATP
(1) Neurohypophysis
(1) Anti-inflammatory response 6. Select the iodine containing hormone
(2) Adenohypophysis
(2) Suppress RBC production [NCERT Pg. 334, 340]
(3) Posterior lobe of pituitary
(3) Suppress immune response (1) Cortisol (2) Thyroxine
(4) Anterior lobe of hypothalamus
(4) Anti-allergic hormone (3) Adrenaline (4) Glucagon
3. Hormones can be described by all the given 7. Which is not the exact function of insulin 11. Which of the given disorder is not related
features except [NCERT Pg. 331] hormone? [NCERT Pg. 337] with growth hormone? [NCERT Pg. 333]

(1) Non-nutrient chemicals (1) Promote synthesis of fat from glucose (1) Acromegaly (2) Dwarfism
(2) Produced in traces (2) Target tissues are liver and muscles (3) Gigantism (4) Graves’ disease
(3) Act as intercellular messenger (3) Increase glycogen content in liver and 12. How many of the following conditions given
(4) Always work by suppressing gene muscles can result in goitre? [NCERT Pg. 334, 335]
expression a. Hyposecretion of thyroxine
(4) Stimulate protein breakdown
4. Read the following features in a baby and b. Hypersecretion of thyroxine
8. Which of the following cannot be included in
choose the disorder in which they are well
the same chemical group? c. Excess iodine in blood
observed? [NCERT Pg. 335, 336]
a. Abnormal skin [NCERT Pg. 340] d. Less iodine in diet

b. Low intelligence quotient (1) Cortisol (1) One

c. Deaf-mutism (2) Estradiol (2) Two
d. Stunted growth (3) Progesterone (3) Three
e. Mental retardation (4) Epinephrine (4) Four

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NCERT Maps Chemical Coordination and Integration 73

13. Select the mismatch of hormone and its site (1) Progesterone (2) Estrogen d. Cholecystokinin (iv) Stimulates
of action [NCERT Pg. 332] (3) Prolactin (4) Cortisol (CCK) secretion of HCl
(1) Melanocyte stimulating – Skin cells 17. Which hormone is produced by pituitary (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
hormone
gland to regulate basal metabolic rate of a
(2) Adrenocorticotrophic – Adrenal child? [NCERT Pg. 332] (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
hormone cortex (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) TSH (2) GH
(3) Follicle stimulating – Ovary
(3) Thyroxine (4) Somatostatin (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
hormone
18. Which of the following hormone triggers 20. Choose the mismatch
(4) Gonadotrophin releasing – Gonads
ovulation and stimulates conversion of
hormone [NCERT Pg. 338-339]
ovarian follicles into corpus luteum?
14. Which of the following gland grow to the
maximum size uptil puberty and then [NCERT Pg. 338] (1) Progesterone – Maintenance of pregnancy
degenerates gradually? [NCERT Pg.335] (1) Progesterone (2) LH and development of
mammary glands
(1) Pituitary (2) Thyroid (3) TSH (4) Estrogen
(2) Erythropoietin – Secreted by bone marrow
(3) Thymus (4) Parathyroid 19. Match the columns and select the correct
option [NCERT Pg. 339] and stimulates
15. When blood glucose level drops below the
erythropoiesis
set point, the release of which hormone Column-I Column-II
promotes the release of glucose in blood? (3) Estrogen – Stimulates growth and
a. Gastrin (i) Inhibits gastric
[NCERT Pg. 337] activities of secondary sex
secretion
organs in female and
(1) Insulin (2) Somatostatin b. Gastric inhibitory (ii) Stimulates
development of growing
(3) Glucagon (4) Parathormone peptide (GIP) secretions of
ovarian follicles
pancreatic juice
16. Complete the analogy w.r.t. hormone
c. Secretin (iii) Stimulates (4) Growth factors – Secreted by non-endocrine
responsible for sexual behaviour.
secretion of water tissue and are essential for
Male : Androgens
and bicarbonate repair and regeneration of
Female : X [NCERT Pg. 339] from pancreas tissues

1. The neural and _____ system jointly 3. Bony cavity called _____ in a skull bone 5. Hormone responsible for anti-diuresis is
coordinate and regulate the physiological encloses pituitary gland. [NCERT Pg. 333] _____. [NCERT Pg. 334]
functions in the body. [NCERT Pg. 331] 4. _____ pair of parathyroid glands are present 6. A peptide hormone named _____ plays a
2. In humans, MSH is secreted by _____. on the back side of each lobe of thyroid major role in the differentiation of T-
[NCERT Pg. 333] gland [NCERT Pg. 335] lymphocytes. [NCERT Pg. 335]

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 74 Chemical Coordination and Integration NCERT Maps
7. _____ hormone regulates diurnal rhythm of 12. _____ hormones are rapidly secreted in 17. Diabetes mellitus is due to hypo-secretion of
our body. [NCERT Pg. 334] response to short term stress. ' A ' whereas diabetes insipidus is due
[NCERT Pg. 336] to hypo-secretion of 'B' hormone.
8. Underproduction of hormones of adrenal
cortex, results in alteration in carbohydrate 13. Endocrine gland present on either side of
[NCERT Pg. 334]
trachea is _____. [NCERT Pg. 334]
metabolism that leads to _____ disease 18. Catecholamines secreted by adrenal
14. Hyperglycemic hormone produced by
[NCERT Pg. 336] medulla are _____ and _____.
α-cells of islets of Langerhans is _____.
[NCERT Pg. 336]
9. _____ is the main mineralocorticoid in our [NCERT Pg. 337]
body. [NCERT Pg. 337] 19. Hormones regulate gene expression by
15. ANF is a X hormone produced by
interacting with the genome are _____ and
10. Middle layer of adrenal cortex is called Y which Z blood pressure. _____. [NCERT Pg. 340]
_____. [NCERT Pg. 337] 20. X and Y hormones are synthesized
[NCERT Pg. 339]
11. _____ hormone plays a major role in the 16. Vigorous contractions of uterus during child by hypothalamus and are transported
muscular growth and low pitch of voice in birth is due to _____ hormone. axonally to neurohypophysis.
males. [NCERT Pg. 338] [NCERT Pg. 334] [NCERT Pg. 333]

  

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NCERT Maps Answers 135

Class XI
Chapter-1A : Animal Kingdom: Non-Chordates
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 10. Cnidoblast, tentacles, body
1. (1) 2. (3) 1. All 11. Eight, ciliated comb plates, locomotion
3. (1) 4. (2) 2. Bilateral 12. Body surface
5. (2) 6. (3) 3. Ectoderm, endoderm, diploblastic 13. Plants, animals
7. (2) 8. (2) 4. Pseudocoelom 14. Muscular pharynx
9. (1) 10. (1) 5. Acoelomates 15. Longitudinal, circular, locomotion
11. (4) 12. (3) 6. Externally, internally repetition 16. Parapodia, swimming
13. (4) 14. (2) 7. Food gathering, respiratory exchange, 17. Chitinous exoskeleton
15. (1) 16. (2) removal of waste 18. Mantle, visceral hump
17. (4) 18. (2) 8. Ostia, Spongocoel, Osculum 19. Mouth, feeding, radula
19. (2) 20. (2) 9. Asexually, sexually 20. Radially, bilaterally

Chapter-1B : Animal Kingdom: Chordates

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 10. Head, trunk, Tail
1. (2) 2. (1) 1. Marine 11. Alimentary canal, urinary, reproductive
tracts
3. (4) 4. (1) 2. Urochordata,
12. Gills, lungs, skin
5. (4) 6. (1) Cephalochordata
13. Dry, cornified, epidermal, scutes
7. (1) 8. (4) 3. 6-15
14. Skin cast
9. (2) 10. (1) 4. Marine, fresh water
15. Oil gland, tail
11. (4) 12. (3) 5. Die, after metamorphosis 16. Feathers
13. (3) 14. (1) 6. Ventrally, terminal 17. Beak, wings
15. (1) 16. (2) 7. Teeth, backwardly 18. Hair
17. (1) 18. (1) 8. Torpedo, Trygon 19. Crop, gizzard
19. (3) 20. (3) 9. Cartilaginous 20. Supplement

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Chapter-2A : Structural Organization in Animals: Animal Tissues

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Cartilage
1. (4) 2. (1) 1. Function 12. Calcium salts, collagen fibres
3. (3) 4. (2) 2. Cilia
13. Lacunae
5. (1) 6. (2) 3. Goblet
14. Skeletal
7. (4) 8. (4) 4. Tight
15. Fluid
9. (2) 10. (2) 5. Gap
16. Myofibrils
11. (1) 12. (3) 6. Skin
17. Communication, intercalated discs
13. (2) 14. (4) 7. Fibroblasts
15. (1) 16. (4) 8. Macrophages 18. Cell junctions

17. (4) 18. (1) 9. Adipose tissue, skin 19. Neuroglia

19. (4) 20. (2) 10. Cartilage, bones, blood 20. Stimulation, inhibition

Chapter-2B : Structural Organization in Animals: Animal Morphology

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 9. Supra-oesophageal ganglion

1. (4) 2. (3) 1. ¼, 3, 0.6, 7.6 10. 2000, Mosaic, sensitivity, resolution

3. (2) 4. (2) 2. Six, right, neck 11. 9-10, 14-16

3. 7th sternum, 8th, 9th sterna 12. Paurometabolus, 13 times

5. (4) 6. (3)
13. Next to last, wing pads, adult,
7. (2) 8. (2) 4. Female gonopore, spermathecal pores,
collaterial glands. 14. Male gonopore, ventral
9. (4) 10. (1)
5. 9th, 10th terga, 9th sternum 15. Eight, common oviduct or vagina
11. (1) 12. (2)
6. Anus, male genital pore, gonapophysis 16. Vermicomposting
13. (3) 14. (1)
17. Typhlosole, absorption
7. Malpighian tubules, fat body, nephrocytes,
15. (1) 16. (4) 18. Aestivation, hibernation
uricose glands
17. (1) 18. (2) 19. 10-12, testes, Bidder’s canal
8. Glandular, ciliated, nitrogenous, uric acid,
19. (4) 20. (3) hindgut 20. 10 pairs

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Chapter-3 : Biomolecules
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. 36°
1. (3) 2. (2) 1. Carbon, Hydrogen 12. Non-equilibrium
3. (2) 4. (1) 2. Lipids
13. Uncatalysed
5. (2) 6. (2) 3. Water
14. Proteins, nucleic acids, ribozymes
7. (1) 8. (3) 4. Ecological
15. 6,00,000, every
9. (3) 10. (3) 5. Primary
16. Activation energy
11. (2) 12. (4) 6. Lower
17. Inactive, destroyed
13. (4) 14. (3) 7. Non-essential
15. (3) 16. (3) 8. N-acetyl glucosamine, exoskeleton 18. Competitive

17. (3) 18. (1) 9. Right 19. Apo-enzyme

19. (1) 20. (2) 10. Sugar-phosphate-sugar chain 20. Prosthetic, Haem

Chapter-4 : Digestion and Absorption

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Emulsification
1. (2) 2. (3) 1. Thecodont 12. Small intestine
3. (3) 4. (3) 2. Hepatic lobule 13. Pharynx
5. (3) 6. (3) 3. Enterokinase
14. Ileo-caecal valve
7. (3) 8. (2) 4. Enamel
15. Neural signals
9. (1) 10. (1) 5. X -acidic; Y -alkaline
16. Bile pigments
11. (3) 12. (2) 6. Mechanical and chemical
17. Marasmus
13. (3) 14. (2) 7. Sucrase, fructose, lactase, galactose

15. (3) 16. (4) 8. X = Three, Y = Outside, Z = Buccal cavity 18. Mucus

17. (2) 18. (3) 9. Glisson’s capsule 19. Fat globules coated by protein

19. (4) 20. (2) 10. Defaecation 20. Vomiting centre in medulla oblongata

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Chapter-5 : Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Reversible

1. (4) 2. (3) 1. Habitats, Level of organizations 12. Sigmoid

3. (4) 4. (3) 2. Elastic cartilaginous, epiglottis 13. 12-16
5. (3) 6. (1) 3. 5 thoracic
th
14. 8
7. (2) 8. (3) 4. Antero-posterior
15. Bicarbonates
9. (4) 10. (3) 5. Increase, lower
16. 4 ml
11. (2) 12. (3) 6. Spirometer
17. Medulla oblongata
13. (1) 14. (2) 7. 20-25 times

15. (4) 16. (3) 8. 45 mm Hg and 40 mmHg 18. CO2, H+ ions

17. (4) 18. (4) 9. FRC (Functional residual capacity) 19. Emphysema

19. (1) 20. (2) 10. Alveoli 20. Oxygen

Chapter-6 : Body Fluids and Circulation

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 10. Fats
1. (3) 2. (3) 1. Albumin 11. Dub
3. (2) 4. (2) 2. Serum 12. Stethoscope
5. (2) 6. (3) 3. Neutrophils 13. Coronary vessels
7. (2) 8. (4) 4. A, B, AB, O 14. Neural and hormonal
9. (1) 10. (3) 5. Anti-Rh antibodies 15. Right ventricle
11. (4) 12. (2) Delivery of the first child 16. 30%
13. (2) 14. (3) 6. Ca +2
17. T
15. (4) 16. (3) 7. 120 days 18. Stroke volume
17. (2) 18. (3) 8. Megakaryocytes 19. 140/90
19. (2) 20. (3) 9. Left ventricle 20. Cardiac

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Chapter-7 : Excretory Products and Their Elimination

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. PCT
1. (1) 2. (3) 1. Protonephridia /Flame cells 12. Micturition
3. (4) 4. (4) 2. 10-12 cm, 5-7 cm 13. Cellophane sheet/tubes of dialyser
5. (2) 6. (4) 3. Cooling effect on body surface
14. Relaxed
7. (2) 8. (2) 4. ADH/vasopressin
15. 300-1200 mOsm / L
9. (3) 10. (4) 5. Collecting duct
16. Haemodialysis
11. (2) 12. (3) 6. Urethra
17. Peritubular capillaries
13. (3) 14. (2) 7. Ascending limb of loop of Henle
15. (1) 16. (3) 8. NaCl and urea 18. ANF

17. (4) 18. (2) 9. Malpighian body/renal corpuscle 19. Four

19. (3) 20. (2) 10. 25-30 gm 20. Renin

Chapter-8 : Locomotion and Movement

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. 5 metacarpal
1. (1) 2. (3) 1. Scapula 12. Synovial
3. (1) 4. (4) 2. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
13. Myoglobin
5. (4) 6. (4) 3. Fascia
14. Chondroitin salts
7. (1) 8. (3) 4. Flagellar
15. Actin, ATP
9. (3) 10. (3) 5. A-band
16. Femur
11. (3) 12. (2) 6. Meromyosin
13. (1) 14. (4) 7. Dorsal, bicephalic 17. Cartilaginous

15. (2) 16. (3) 8. Myasthenia gravis 18. Glenoid

17. (2) 18. (4) 9. Sarcomere 19. Low Ca+2

19. (2) 20. (2) 10. Ventrally 20. Sternum

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Chapter-9A : Neural Control and Coordination

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Autonomic
1. (3) 2. (2) 1. Coordination 12. Grey
3. (2) 4. (1) 2. Electrical, chemical 13. Fear and rage
5. (1) 6. (2) 3. Brain
14. Medulla oblongata
7. (3) 8. (2) 4. Gustation (taste), olfactory (smell)
15. Schwann
9. (3) 10. (4) 5. Hypothalamus
16. Peripheral nervous system
11. (2) 12. (3) 6. Longitudinal
17. CNS (Forebrain)
13. (3) 14. (1) 7. Association
15. (1) 16. (2) 8. Hypothalamus 18. Dorsal

17. (3) 18. (3) 9. Midbrain, forebrain, hindbrain 19. Reflex action

19. (3) 20. (2) 10. Medulla oblongata 20. Cerebellum

Chapter-9B : Neural Control and Coordination

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. A – Connective tissues covered with skin

1. (4) 2. (3) 1. Balancing, hearing B – Mucus membrane

12. Iris
3. (3) 4. (2) 2. Photopic/daylight
13. A – Buds;
5. (3) 6. (4) 3. Aqueous chamber
B – Gustatory
7. (3) 8. (2) 4. Visual cortex 14. Malleus
9. (4) 10. (2) 5. X-Semicircular canals, Y-Otolith 15. Pharynx
11. (2) 12. (4) 6. Fovea 16. Epithelial

13. (4) 14. (3) 7. Cerebellum 17. Orbits

18. Middle layer/choroid
15. (2) 16. (2) 8. Taste buds
19. White light
17. (1) 18. (2) 9. Reissner’s membrane
20. X – Rods
19. (4) 20. (3) 10. Olfactory Y – Scotopic

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Chapter-10 : Chemical Coordination and Integration

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Androgen/testosterone
1. (4) 2. (2) 1. Endocrine 12. Epinephrine/Norepinephrine
3. (4) 4. (1) 2. Pars intermedia 13. Thyroid
5. (4) 6. (2) 3. Sella tursica 14. Glucagon
7. (4) 8. (4) 4. One 15. X – Peptide; Y – Atrial wall; Z – Decreases
9. (1) 10. (2) 5. Vasopressin/ADH 16. Oxytocin
11. (4) 12. (3) 6. Thymosin 17. A – Insulin
13. (4) 14. (3) 7. Melatonin B – ADH
15. (3) 16. (2) 8. Addison’s 18. Adrenaline and noradrenaline
17. (1) 18. (2) 9. Aldosterone 19. Steroid and iodothyronines
19. (2) 20. (2) 10. Zona fasciculata 20. X-oxytocin; Y-vasopressin

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 Reproduction in Organisms 1
Chapter
1 INTRODUCTION 3 TYPES OF ASEXUAL REPRODUCTION
Process in which an organism gives rise to offspring(s) a. Fission b. Fragmentation c. Budding
Growth similar to itself
m Process in which an m The body of the organism Types
Biological process ensuring continuity of species on Earth, individual forms 2 or more breaks into distinct
Reproduction generation after generation daughter individuals pieces/fragments and each
I. External budding
Birth

Organism’s habitat fragment grows into an

adult capable of producing m A small bulge (unequal
Mechanism depends on Diversity in structure
offsprings division) from the
Internal physiology parent body that
Not linked to size of organism m Example - Hydra
develops externally
Types and eventually
Organism Life span Environmental factors
Life cycle of Butterfly 1-2 weeks separates from the
an organism Crow 15 year Parameter I. Binary fission II. Multiple fission parent
m No individual is immortal
Tortoise 100-150 years m Example - Hydra
except single-celled organisms. m Operational conditions m Favourable m Favourable and
Parrot 140 years unfavourable
m Number of daughters m 2 m Multiple
2 TYPES OF REPRODUCTION m Spindle formation m Yes m No
Mouth
Parameters Asexual Sexual m Example m Amoeba m Amoeba

m Number of parents One (uniparental) One (Uniparental) - Taenia or

Mechanism
Two (Biparental) - Periplaneta
m Gamete formation Yes Yes
m Gamete fusion No Yes Withdrawal of
m Type of cell division Mitotic Meiotic and mitotic pseudopodia Bud
m Conditions for occurrence Mostly favourable Both favourable and unfavourable Nucleus
m Nature of offsprings Identical to parent Mostly non-identical offsprings
¯
Encystation II. Internal budding
m Examples Hydra, Planaria Pheretima
(3 layered cyst)
Advantages Simple process Contributes to evolution significantly through m Internal buds called
l l
¯ gemmules that are
genetic recombination Multiple fission aggregates of
l Rapid/faster l High adaptability ¯ archaeocytes
Elaborate protected by spicules.
Disadvantages l No contribution to l Complex Excystation
evolution as genetic Expensive ¯ m Example - Sponges
recombination/crossing Daughter cells Sporulation
over is absent
l Low adaptability l Slower process
4 PARTHENOGENESIS

m Clone: Morphologically and genetically similar individuals produced asexually. m Absence of gamete fusion/syngamy
m Cell division is in itself a mode of reproduction in unicellular organisms m Female gamete develops into new organism without fertilisation
e.g.: Amoeba, Paramecium. m Examples: Rotifers, honey bees, some lizards, birds (turkey). A gemmule

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 76 Reproduction in Organisms NCERT Maps

5 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION Types of gametes (Basis: Morphological and physiological difference)

m Remarkable fundamental similarity occur in process of sexual reproduction among different organisms
despite different structures for reproduction.
Heterogametes Homogametes/Isogametes
m Reproductive processes and associated behaviors are regulated by hormones and environmental factors.
m Different m Same
Events associated Gametogenesis
A. Pre-fertilisation events: Gamete transfer Types b. Gamete transfer: Enables bringing together
a. Gametogenesis: Formation of gametes Parameters Female Male of ♂ and ♀ gametes physically leading to
m Size Big Small fertilisation.
Meiocytes: Gamete forming diploid cells/gamete mother cells
Birth

m Gametes are haploid in nature i.e. receive only one

m Motility s r
Pre-reproductive

set of chromosomes at the end of meiosis m Chromosome Same Same

number Internal fertilisation External fertilisation
A haploid parent produces gametes by mitotic divisions
Phase

m
m Food storage r s l Fertilisation occurs inside l Fertilisation occurs in water
m A diploid parent produces haploid gametes by meiosis
m Number Less More ♀ reproductive tract
Name of Chromosome number Chromosome number l Mostly terrestrial organisms l Mostly aquatic organisms
Juvenile

organism in meiocyte (2n) in gamete (n) e.g. Reptiles, mammals e.g. Bony fishes and amphibians
Ovum
Humans 46 23 Disadvantages
House fly 12 6 m Limited number of progeny m Offsprings are extremely
Types of organisms Sperm
Rat 42 21 vulnerable to predators
Dog threatening their survival to
78 39 Bisexual Unisexual adulthood
Cat 38 19 (Hermaphrodite)
Puberty

Leech Cockroach m Great synchrony required between ♀ and ♂ during external fertilisation to
Fruit fly 8 4
Earthworm enhance chances of fertilisation.
Butterfly 380 190 Sponges
m Heterogametes are present in majority of sexually reproducing organisms.

B. Fertilisation ZYGOTE 6 BREEDING SEASON

Reproductive

Most vital event of sexual reproduction is fusion Basis: The time duration when mating occurs
Phase

Vital connecting link ensuring

of gametes called syngamy resulting in
continuity of species between
formation of diploid, single celled structure Parameters Continuous breeders Seasonal breeders
generations.
C. Post-fertilisation m Breeding time Throughout the year Specific breeding season
l Embryogenesis: Process of development of Location of development of zygote m Examples Primates, Hens Elephant, Birds in wild,
embryo from the zygote through mitotic cell (poultry birds in captivity) Horse, Cow, Goat
divisions help increase number of cells and
7 REPRODUCTIVE CYCLES IN PLACENTAL MAMMALS
cell differentiation helps in formation of
Post-reproductive

m Cyclical changes during reproduction

specialised tissues and organs
Oviparous animals Viviparous animals
m Outside the ♀ body m Inside the ♀ body
Phase

l End of reproductive phase is a m Protected by calcareous shell m Absent

parameter of senescence Parameters Oestrous cycle Menstrual cycle
m Lesser parental care m Greater parental care
Death

l Slowing of metabolism m Characteristic of Non-primate mammals Primates

l Ultimately leads to death The chances of survival of young ones is greater in viviparous m Examples Cows, deer, sheep, rats, Humans, apes, monkeys
organisms
dogs, tiger

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NCERT Maps Reproduction in Organisms 77

1. Each and every organism can live for only a 4. Cell division is in itself considered a mode of 9. Chromosome number in gamete of human
certain period of time. This is true for all reproduction in [NCERT Pg. 6] beings is 23. What is the chromosome
except [NCERT Pg. 3] (1) Vertebrates number in meiocytes of a rat?
(1) Psittacula (2) Paramecium (2) All organisms with cell wall [NCERT Pg. 13]

(3) Pavo (4) Pheretima (3) Unicellular organisms (1) 21 (2) 42

2. A vast number of plant and animal species (4) Multicellular organisms (3) 46 (4) 38
have existed on earth for several thousand 5. Generally, gametes in a sexually 10. The event not included in category of post-
years by virtue of [NCERT Pg. 3] reproducing organism are different in all fertilisation events is [NCERT Pg. 15]
given aspects excluding [NCERT Pg. 11]
(1) Life span (1) Cell differentiation
(1) Amount of cytoplasm
(2) Regeneration (2) Embryogenesis
(2) Motility
(3) Reproduction (3) Gamete formation
(3) Chromosome number
(4) Their sizes (4) Mitotic divisions in zygote
(4) Size
3. Read the statements given below. 11. Syngamy is not observed in life cycle of
6. How many organisms among following are
some animals such as [NCERT Pg.14]
a. The sizes of crow and parrot are not very hermaphrodites? [NCERT Pg. 7]
(1) Cockroach (2) Rotifers
different. Ascaris, Taenia, Pheretima, Amoeba,
Periplaneta, Paramecium (3) Earthworm (4) Humming bird
b. The life span of fruit fly is much longer
than that of a tortoise. 12. Among given options, the fertilized eggs are
(1) Zero (2) Two
covered by hard calcareous shell in possibly
c. No individual is immortal except
(3) Three (4) Four all except [NCERT Pg. 16]
multiple-celled organisms.
7. As compared to others, cyclical changes (1) Honey bee (2) Snakes
Select the correct option w.r.t. true and false. during reproduction/reproductive cycle are
dissimilar in [NCERT Pg. 9] (3) Lizards (4) Turkey
[NCERT Pg. 3]
(1) Monkeys (2) Deer 13. The offsprings resulting from sexual
a b c reproduction [NCERT Pg. 16]
(3) Rats (4) Tiger
(1) T T T (1) Are identical to their parent
8. Select the option that completes the analogy
(2) T F T House fly : 6 : : ______: 19 [NCERT Pg. 13] (2) Can be referred to as clones
(3) F T T (1) Fruit fly (2) Butterfly (3) Do not offer genetic variations
(4) T F F (3) Dog (4) Cat (4) Are a result of gamete fusion

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 78 Reproduction in Organisms NCERT Maps
14. Asexual reproduction differs from sexual 16. Select the mis-match. [NCERT Pg. 6] (3) Juvenile phase is followed by
reproduction as [NCERT Pg. 18] (1) Internal budding – Sponges morphological and physiological
(1) The latter is always biparental changes prior to active reproductive
(2) External budding – Hydra behaviour
(2) The former is simpler and rapid (3) Binary fission – Amoeba (4) The reproductive phase can never be of
(3) The former always requires gamete (4) Multiple fission – Paramecuim variable durations in different organisms
formation
17. The umbrella of continuous breeders does 19. Which among the following can be made to
(4) The latter is never seen in not include [NCERT Pg. 9] lay eggs throughout the year (nearly every
hermaphrodites day)? [NCERT Pg. 9]
(1) Birds in wild
15. Which is correct in context of multiple (1) Poultry birds (2) Lion
fission? [NCERT Pg. 6] (2) Humans
(3) Monkeys (3) Goat (4) Sheep
(1) Excystation precedes nuclear divisions
(4) Chimpanzees 20. Both binary fission and multiple fission are
(2) Encystation occurs upon arrival of observed in which organism depending on
favourable conditions 18. Read the given statements and select the
environmental conditions? [NCERT Pg. 6]
(3) Formation of pseudopodiospores occurs correct option. [NCERT Pg. 9]
(1) Paramecium
prior to arrival of unfavourable (1) An animal is mostly reproductively
conditions mature in the juvenile phase (2) Amoeba

(4) Every nuclear division is not followed by (2) Juvenile phase is of fixed duration in (3) Plasmodium
immediate cytoplasmic division different organisms (4) Pheretima

1. A haploid parent produces gametes by 4. Gamete formation occurs inside the body 7. The life spans of organisms are ______
______ division while humans produce even in case of animals exhibiting ______ necessarily correlated with their sizes.
gametes by ______ divisions. fertilisation. [NCERT Pg. 14] [NCERT Pg. 3]
[NCERT Pg. 11] 5. In many animals, the female gamete 8. The biological process ensuring continuity
of species generation after generation on
2. In majority of sexually reproducing undergoes development to form new earth is ______. [NCERT Pg. 5]
organisms, the gametes produced are of organisms without fertilisation by a
morphologically distinct types, hence called 9. The mortal organisms undergo cyclic events
phenomenon known as ______.
______ [NCERT Pg. 11] during their life including birth, ______ and
[NCERT Pg. 14] death. [NCERT Pg. 5]
3. While earthworms, sponges, tapeworm and
6. ______ represents the time period from birth 10. Method of asexual reproduction involving
leech are bisexual animals, cockroach is an
to the natural death of an organism. unequal division and formation of small out
example of ______ organism.
growth that initially remains attached to the
[NCERT Pg. 11] [NCERT Pg. 3] parent is ______. [NCERT Pg. 6]

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NCERT Maps Reproduction in Organisms 79

11. If possible, organisms shift to ______ 15. Component of endocrine system called 18. In ______ organisms, protection and proper
method of reproduction just before the onset ______ are responsible for transition from embryonic care increases chances of
of adverse conditions. [NCERT Pg. 8] juvenile to reproductive phase and later to survival of young ones. [NCERT Pg. 16]
12. Cyclical changes observed in reproductive post reproductive phase. [NCERT Pg. 10] 19. ______ is the vital link that ensures
tract of primates are collectively called
16. Gamete formation and gamete ______ are continuity of species between organisms of
______. [NCERT Pg. 9]
events that occur in pre-fertilisation phase of one generation and the next.
13. Many mammals, living in the natural wild
sexually reproducing organisms. [NCERT Pg. 15]
conditions exhibit cycles only during
favourable seasons in their reproductive [NCERT Pg. 10] 20. In comparison to animals exhibiting external
phase and are therefore called ______. fertilisation, there is considerable ______ in
17. To enhance chances of fertilisation in
[NCERT Pg. 10]
organisms undergoing mating in water, the number of eggs produced by animals
14. Changes in the ageing body such as slowing exhibiting internal fertilisation.
release of gametes must occur in greatly
of metabolism are indicative of ______ of
the reproductive phase. [NCERT Pg. 10] ______ manner. [NCERT Pg. 14] [NCERT Pg. 15]

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 Human Reproduction 2A
Chapter
1 INTRODUCTION
l Humans are sexually reproducing viviparous organisms l Primary sex organs – Site for gamete formation l Accessory ducts Facilitate transport of gametes
l Reproductive system is composed of l External genitalia – Involved in copulation l Accessory glands

2 THE MALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM 3 FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM Parts of Fallopian tube
Ureter Uterine fundus Last part of oviduct
m Location: Pelvic region m Location : Pelvic region Uterine cavity Isthmus Narrow lumen
Accessory glands Urinary bladder Joins the uterus
l Oviduct/fallopian tube

Accessory ducts
m Seminal plasma Seminal vesicle Vas deferens m 10-12 cm (length)

Accessory ducts
(1 pair)
Ampulla – Wider part
from these m Extend from ovary
contains fructose, Prostate gland Urethra Infundibulum – Funnel shaped
to uterus
calcium, enzymes (one) Epididymis Fimbriae – Finger like
l Uterus/womb
Ovary projections that
m Its secretions Bulbourethral Vasa efferentia m Inverted pear shaped
lubricate the penis gland (1 pair) m Attached to pelvic wall by
Cervix collect ovum after
Rete testis
m Vas deferens receives a duct ligaments Cervical canal Birth ovulation
from seminal vesicle and Testicular lobules l Vagina Vaginal canal canal
opens into the urethra as the Testis Glans penis
Ejaculatory duct Foreskin Uterine wall consists of three layers:
m
Urethral meatus
External genitalia of Male/Penis: 1. Endometrium – Lines lumen, glandular and undergoes cyclic changes during menstruation
2. Myometrium – Thick layer of smooth muscles that show strong contractions during delivery
Parts Features 3. Perimetrium – External thin membrane
Urethra Originates from the urinary bladder and extends through the penis External Genitalia of Female:
Special tissues Help in erection of penis to facilitate insemination
Parts Features
Glans penis Enlarged end of penis covered by loose fold of skin called foreskin
Mons pubis Cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hair
4 PRIMARY SEX ORGANS Labia majora Fleshy folds of tissue that extend down mons pubis and surround the vaginal opening
Labia minora Paired folds of tissue under the labia majora
Parameters Male Female
Organ Testis Ovary Clitoris Tiny finger like structure which lies at the upper junction of labia minora above the
Number 2 2 urethral opening
Shape Oval Almond Hymen l Membrane that partially covers the opening of vagina

Location Outside abdominal cavity Lower abdomen, one l Can be torn while - sudden jolt/fall, horse riding, cycling, insertion of vaginal tampon.

in a pouch called scrotum on each side l May or may not be torn during the first coitus so its presence or absence is not reliable
indicator of virginity or sexual experience.
Dimensions Length 4-5 cm, Width 2-3 cm Length 2 to 4 cm
Covering Dense connective tissue (outermost) Thin epithelium (outermost)
Functions Sperm formation, synthesise steroidal Ova formation, synthesise steroidal ovarian
testicular hormones like androgens hormones like estrogen and progesterone
m Scrotum helps in maintaining the temperature 2 to 2.5°C lower than
Compartments 250 testicular lobules Peripheral cortex and inner medulla zones in ovarian
body temperature, necessary for spermatogenesis.
l 1-3 coiled seminiferous tubules/lobule stroma have follicles in various developing stages
m Interstitial spaces outside seminiferous tubules contain
l Cells lining the seminiferous tubules Functions immunocompetent cells and Leydig cells
1. Male germ cells/spermatogonia Sperm formation m Ovary is connected to pelvic wall and uterus by ligaments.
2. Sertoli cells Provide nutrition to the germ cells

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Primary Tertiary follicle

5 GAMETOGENESIS Blood follicle showing antrum
vessels Graafian
Spermatogonium m Process of gamete formation follicle
Parameters Male Female
Sertoli cell l Term Spermatogenesis Oogenesis
Primary l Process begins At puberty During embryonic development
spermatocyte l Ploidy & chromosome
number per cell In Fetus Ovum
Secondary Corpus
2n = 46 Male germ cells/ Female mother cells/ (arrested at prophase I) luteum
spermatocyte Spermatogonia Mitosis & Oogonia Fig. : Sectional view of ovary
Spermatid differentiation
Follicles Characteristics
Spermatozoa 2n = 46 Primary spermatocytes Primary oocytes
Primary l Single layer of granulosa cells
Fig. : Sectional view of seminiferous tubules Periodic Birth
l More layers of granulosa cells and a
Meiosis I Puberty Secondary new theca layer
6 Semen st
1 polar body Secondary oocyte
n = 23 Secondary spermatocytes Tertiary l Completion of meiosis I
l Secretions of epididymis and vas deferens are
(Reduction division)
essential for maturation and motility of sperms l Fluid filled cavity antrum and theca
Meiosis II
l Male ejaculates about 200-300 million sperms layers are organised into external and
during a coitus. n = 23 Spermatids internal layers
l For normal fertility : Graafian/ l Secondary oocyte forms acellular
Spermiogenesis
mature zona pellucida around it
m 60% sperms must have normal shape and size
nd
m 40% of 60% sperms must show vigorous n = 23 Sperms 2 polar body Ovum Ovulation
motility Spermiation m No more oogonia are formed and added after
birth m During the embryonic development, a couple
Released from
7 HORMONAL REGULATION IN MALES *2n = diploid seminiferous m A large number of follicles degenerate from birth of million gamete mother cells (oogonia) are
Hypothalamus *n = haploid tubules to puberty so only 60,000-80,000 primary formed within each fetal ovary
secretes follicles are left in each ovary at puberty.
m Meiosis in oogenesis results in unequal sized
GnRH (significant amount)
cells and the secondary oocyte retains bulk of Sperm
targets Main parts
Anterior pituitary the nutrient rich cytoplasm of the primary oocyte
m Fate of polar body is not certain Acrosome - cap like
secretes structures filled with enzymes,
Spermiogenesis is Head
Gonadotropins help in fertilization
transformation of spermatids
to sperms and sperm head is 8 STRUCTURE OF GAMETES Nucleus (n) (elongated)
Seminiferous Neck
FSH e tubules Ou LH embedded in Sertoli cells Plasma membrane
id tsid Ovum
acts on Ins e Middle Mitochondria-provide energy
Sertoli Leydig/interstitial piece source for swimming/
cells cells movement of tail
Synthesise & release m The function of male sex Cells of the Facilitate sperm motility which
accessory ducts and Zona corona radiata is essential for fertilization
Some factors Androgens/Testicular
glands are maintained by pellucida Perivitelline Tail
hormones
the testicular hormones space
Stimulate
(androgens)
Spermiogenesis Spermatogenesis

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82 Human Reproduction NCERT Maps

9 HORMONAL REGULATION IN FEMALES AND MENSTRUAL CYCLE

m The cycle of events starting from one menstruation till the next one is termed menstrual cycle Menstrual Hygiene
m Characteristic of female primates Monkeys 1. Maintenance of hygiene and sanitation during menstruation is
Apes very important
m Cycle occurs if ovum remains unfertilized
Humans 2. Take bath and clean yourself regularly use sanitary
m Begins at puberty - menarche m Lack of cycle may be an indication of
Reproductive phase – Pregnancy, stress, poor health etc. napkins/home made pads
m Ceases at 50 years - menopause
m Average duration in humans = 28/29 days 3. Change sanitary pads after every 4-5 hrs.
4. Dispose of used sanitary napkins properly by wrapping it in
Menstrual Cycle
used paper.
l Changes in the ovary and the uterus are induced by changes in the levels of pituitary and ovarian hormones
5. After handling the napkin wash hands with soap
Phase Duration Hormones & Events in ovary Events in uterus

Hormone levels
their effects
LH surge

Pituitary
Menstrual 3-5 days Drastic decline in Corpus luteum l Breakdown of
progesterone degenerates endometrial FSH LH
lining and its
blood vessels
which forms
liquid that
Developing Regressing

Ovarian events
comes out Developing follicle Mature follicle corpus luteum corpus luteum
through vagina
constituting
menstrual flow
Reproductive cycle

Follicular Variable Gradual increase Primary follicle l Endometrium Ovulation

or in FSH and LH gradually matures regenerates

Hormone levels
Proliferative that stimulate to Graafian follicle Estrogen
through Estrogen peak

Ovarian
phase secretion of proliferation
estrogen from
follicles Progesterone
Ovulation th FSH and LH at Rupture of Graafian
14 day l Proliferation of

Uterine events
(Middle of peak, (LH surge) follicle and release endometrium
cycle) of only one ovum/ continues Menses
cycle
Luteal Fixed Secretion of Remnants of the l Endometrium is
or (14 days) progesterone Graafian follicle maintained Days
Secretory and estrogen transforms into l If ovum remains 1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15 17 19 21 23 25 27 29/1
corpus luteum unfertilized, Menstruation Follicular phase Luteal phase Next cycle
(Proliferative phase) (Secretory phase) begins
endometrium is
sloughed off,
l If ovum gets fertilized, endometrium is maintained by progesterone
marking a new necessary for implantation and other events of pregnancy.
cycle l During pregnancy all events of menstrual cycle stop

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NCERT Maps Human Reproduction 83

1. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. 5. Read the following statements and select 8. Which of the following hormone attains the
primary sex organ in males the incorrect option [NCERT Pg. 45] highest peak in the middle of menstrual
[NCERT Pg. 43] (1) Ovary is connected to the pelvic wall and cycle with a duration of 28/29 days?
uterus by ligaments [NCERT Pg. 51]
(1) They have immunocompetent cells in
their interstitium. (2) Fundus is thickest part of uterine tube (1) Estrogen
that follows directly into of oviduct
(2) They bear connection with abdomen (2) Progesterone
ampulla
(3) They are lined by meiotically dividing (3) FSH
(3) Edges of the infundibulum possess
sertoli cells and germ cells
fimbriae (4) LH
(4) They have Leydig cells that secrete
(4) Ampulla is the widest part of oviduct 9. Degeneration of which structure in ovary
androgens
6. Select the correct sequence of layers causes disintegration of the endometrium
2. Ejaculatory duct is formed by uniting with a around ovum from outer to inner side leading to menstruation? [NCERT Pg. 51]
duct from which gland? [NCERT Pg. 43]
(a) Zona pellucida (b) Corona radiata (1) Primary follicle
(1) Seminal vesicle
(c) Plasma membrane [NCERT Pg. 51] (2) Secondary follicle
(2) Prostate
(1) a → b → c (2) b → a → c (3) Graafian follicle
(3) Vas deferens and seminal vesicle
(3) a → c → b (4) c → a → b (4) Corpus luteum
(4) Bulbourethral
7. Following is a diagrammatic sectional view 10. Which layer in the wall of uterus undergoes
3. Maximum number of sperms formed by 16 of ovary. Select the incorrectly labelled part cyclical changes during menstrual cycle?
primary spermatocytes are [NCERT Pg. 49]
[NCERT Pg. 49] [NCERT Pg. 46]
(1) 16 (2) 32
(1) Perimetrium (2) Myometrium
(3) 64 (4) 8
(3) Endometrium (4) Mesometrium
4. Which of the following statement is
incorrect w.r.t. vasa deferentia? 11. Significantly large amounts of progesterone
is produced by which of the following in
[NCERT Pg. 43]
ovary? [NCERT Pg. 51]
(1) Arises from the base of epididymis
(1) Primary follicle
(2) They are two in number
(2) Mature follicle
(3) They store sperms temporarily
(1) Primary follicle (2) Tertiary follicle (3) Corpus luteum
(4) They carry sperms from rete testis to
epididymis (3) Graafian follicle (4) Corpus luteum (4) Graafian follicle

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 84 Human Reproduction NCERT Maps
12. Secretions of which structures are essential 15. How many of the following features are 18. How many of the given developing stages
for maturation and motility of sperms? common for both male and female gametes during gametogenesis are haploid?
[NCERT Pg. 48] in humans? [NCERT Pg. 48] [NCERT Pg. 49]
a. Epididymis a. Presence of Locomotory structure Spermatozoa, Secondary oocyte,
b. Vas deferens b. Number of chromosome Spermatid, Oogonia, Primary
spermatocyte
c. Seminal vesicle c. Arrangement of mitochondria
d. Bulbourethral gland (1) 2 (2) 3
d. Similar size and shape
(1) a, b only (3) 1 (4) 4
(1) a, c
19. Study the given diagram w.r.t menstrual
(2) b, c only (2) b, c cycle and select the correct statement
(3) a, d only regarding it [NCERT Pg. 50]
(3) c, d
(4) a, b, c
(4) b
13. How many follicles are present in each
16. Termination of oogenesis is indicated by the
ovary at the time of puberty?
formation of [NCERT Pg. 52]
[NCERT Pg. 48]
(1) First polar body
(1) 1.5-2 lakh (1) A – Endometrium regenerates
(2) Secondary polar body
(2) 60,000-80,000 through proliferation
(3) Secondary oocyte
(3) 30,000-40,000 (2) B – Broken endometrium
(4) Theca layer comes out through vagina.
(4) 1,20,000-1,60,000
17. Select the incorrect option with legends to (3) C – Graafian follicle enlarges
14. Which of the following statements are
oogenesis in human female? by the end of this phase
correct w.r.t. hymen? [NCERT Pg. 46]
[NCERT Pg. 49] (4) D – Secretions of endometrial
(a) Is often torn during first intercourse
(1) Meiosis I in oogonia starts in the fetal life glands is very high
(b) Partially covers vaginal opening
(2) Tertiary follicle is characterized by 20. Complete the analogy w.r.t. menstrual cycle
(c) It forms a part of external genitalia
presence of a distinct antrum LH surge : Ovulation
(1) a, b only
(3) In meiosis II, first polar body divides to Progesterone peak : ______
(2) b, c only form two polar bodies of equal size [NCERT Pg. 50]
(3) a, c only (4) First meiotic division completes prior to (1) After ovulation (2) Before ovulation
(4) a, b, c ovulation (3) During ovulation (4) Bleeding phase
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NCERT Maps Human Reproduction 85

1. In humans each testis has about _______ 7. Leydig cells present in the interstitial spaces 14. Each ovary is approximately _______ cm in
compartments called _______. outside seminiferous tubules are also called length and the oviduct is about _______
_______. [NCERT Pg. 43] cm long. [NCERT Pg. 44,45]
[NCERT Pg. 43]
8. Male urethra is a common passage for 15. _______ and _______ together form the
2. For normal fertility in humans at least _______ and _______ in humans. birth canal. [NCERT Pg. 46]
_______ % of sperms must have normal
[NCERT Pg. 43]
shape and size. [NCERT Pg. 48] 16. Optimum temperature necessary for
9. When primary follicle gets surrounded by spermatogenesis is _______.
3. Loose fold of skin around glans penis is
more layers of granulosa cells and a new
called _______. [NCERT Pg. 44] theca, it is called _______. [NCERT Pg. 48] [NCERT Pg. 43]
4. Semen contains seminal plasma secreted 10. Zona pellucida is formed by secretions of 17. Corpus luteum exist in _______ phase of
by male _______ glands and cells called _______. [NCERT Pg. 49] menstrual cycle. [NCERT Pg. 51]
_______. 18. Cessation of menstrual cycle is termed as
11. _______ follicle is characterized by a fluid
[NCERT Pg. 48] filled cavity, antrum. [NCERT Pg. 48] _______. [NCERT Pg. 51]
5. Functions of male accessory ducts and 12. About _______ million sperms are 19. The first menstruation begins at _______
glands are maintained by _______. ejaculated during a coitus by a human male. and is called _______. [NCERT Pg. 49]
[NCERT Pg. 48] [NCERT Pg. 48] 20. _______ are fleshy folds of tissue that
13. Two zones of ovarian stroma are outer extend from mons pubis and surrounds the
6. _______ number of sperms are formed from
_______ and inner _______. vaginal opening in female external genitalia.
four spermatids by process known as
spermiogenesis. [NCERT Pg. 49] [NCERT Pg. 44] [NCERT Pg. 46]

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 Human Reproduction 2B
Chapter

1 INTRODUCTION 3 CHANGES IN GAMETES DURING FERTILIZATION 5 DEVELOPMENT OF THE ZYGOTE

l Sequence of reproductive Secretions of Acrosome part of sperm
events oocuring in humans l Every sexually reproducing organism, including human beings begin
allow life as a single cell i.e., the zygote.
include:
Gametogenesis Entry of sperm into cytoplasm Sperm l The process of development of embryo from zygote is called
¯ of oocyte through zona pellucida Cells of the embryogenesis.
Insemination and plasma membrane Corona radiata
¯
l During embryogenesis, zygote undergo cell divisions and cell
Zona pellucida
Fertilization differentiation
Perivitelline space
¯ l Changes in zona pellucida l Cleavage starts as zygote moves through isthmus to the uterus
Implantation prevent entry of additional sperms
¯
Fig. : Ovum surrounded l Daughters formed after cleavage are called Blastomeres
and ensures that only one by few sperms
Gestation sperm can fertilise an ovum
¯
Parturition/Birth
Inducing completion of Meiosis II of secondary oocyte
Form l Cytoplasmically unequal 2nd 1- cell 2 cells 4 cells 8-16 cells
2 PATH FOLLOWED BY GAMETES meiotic division Zygote Morula
IN FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE TRACT nd
2 Polar body (n) Ovum/ootid (n) Sperm (n) C

l During coitus, semen is released from male

D
(1) (1) E
B

reproductive tract by the penis into the female Nuclei fuse F

reproductive tract i.e., the vagina by process G

termed Insemination (Released in Zygote

H
Perivitelline space) (2n) Trophoblast – Outer layer of blastomeres
Sperms Oocyte
Released in vagina Released in body cavity m Characteristics : attaches to endometrium
swim l Vital link that ensures continuity of species Inner cell mass – Inner group of cells
through captured by between organism of one generation and the next. attached to trophoblast ® Differentiates
l Sex of a child is decided at this stage into embryo with three germ layers
Cervix Fimbriae Blastocyst
enters 4 SEX OF A BABY IS DETERMINED BY THE FATHER Implants in uterus
After attachment, uterine cells
Uterus Infundibulum Parameters Female Male The inner cell mass divide rapidly and cover the
Reach Chromosome pattern contains certain cells
XX XY blastocyst.
Ampulla (site of fertilisation) Gametes formed X called stem cells Embedding of blastocyst in
X X Y
which have the endometrium is called
potency to give rise to Implantation
Fusion of gametes/syngamy/Fertilization all the tissues and
(vital event of sexual reproduction) Leads to
Fusion of gametes XX XX XY XY organs.
Pregnancy
l Fertilization can only occur if the ovum Female Male
and sperms are transported l 50% male gametes carry X chromosome and 50% carry m Germ layers
simultaneously to the ampullary region. Y chromosome l Outer – Ectoderm
This is the reason why not all copulations l Zygote would carry either XX or XY depending on l Middle – Mesoderm
These together give rise to all
leads to fertilization and pregnancy whether the sperm carrying X or Y fertilizes the ovum l Inner – Endoderm
tissues/organ in adults.

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NCERT Maps Human Reproduction 87

6 CHANGES AFTER IMPLANTATION 7 GESTATION PERIOD

Embryo/Foetus Mother l Average duration of pregnancy in l Dog ~ 63 days l Elephant ~ 18-22 months
Finger like projections appear Uterine tissue l Cat ~ 63 days l Human ~ 9 months
on the trophoblast called chorionic villi
Major events during gestation period in humans:
Interdigitate to form
(Structural and functional Trimester Month Week Event
unit between
m Functions: Placenta embryo/foetus I 4 Heart is formed, sign of growing foetus noticed by listening to the heart
and mother) sounds through stethoscope
l Supply of O2 and nutrients to the embryo
1st
l Removal of CO2 and excretory/waste materials produced by the II 8 Foetus develops limbs and digits
embryo III (end) 12 Most of major organ systems are formed including external genital organs
l Acts as endocrine tissue :
– hCG/human chorionic gonadotropin Produced only during V 20 First movement of foetus, Appearance of hair on head
2nd
– hPL/human placental lactogen pregnancy VI (end) 24 Body is covered with fine hair, Eyelids separate, Eyelashes are formed
– Relaxin (Also secreted by ovary in later phase of pregnancy) 3rd IX (end) 36 Foetus is fully developed and is ready for delivery
– Estrogens Increase several folds during
– Progestogens pregnancy, essential for supporting:
8 PARTURITION
– Cortisol l Foetal growth m Placenta is connected to the
embryo through an umbilical l Defined as delivery of the foetus (Child birth)
– Prolactin l Metabolic changes in mother
cord which helps in the l Signals for parturition originate from Fully developed foetus
– Thyroxine l Maintenance of pregnancy Placental villi
transport of substances to Placenta
and from the embryo Lead to Cavity of
9 MAMMARY GLANDS AND LACTATION uterus
Mild uterine contractions
l Functional mammary gland is characteristic of all female mammals Yolk sac
called Umbilical cord
l Paired structures (Breasts) that contain variable amount of fat and
Glandular tissue This is positive Foetal ejection reflex with its Embryo
divided into feedback vessels
triggers release of
(15-20) Mammary lobes loop
Oxytocin from posterior pituitary of mother
contain Fat
Causes
Mammary alveolus/ Plug of mucus
cluster of cells Strong uterine contractions in cervix
(secrete and store milk) *Oxytocin is The human foetus within
in their lumen Rib leading to the uterus
Areola synthesized by
opens into Nipple Muscles its source gland Expulsion of baby through
m Child birth is induced by a complex
between ribs hypothalamus birth canal (Parturition)
Mammary tubules neuroendocrine mechanism involving
but released
join to form followed by cortisol, estrogens and oxytocin.
from posterior
m Doctors inject oxytocin to induce delivery.
Mammary duct Pectoralis pituitary. Expulsion of placenta
major muscle
Many join to form
Undergo differentiation during pregnancy
Mammary ampulla l Mammary glands
Secrete milk after child birth that helps mother in feeding new born by process called lactation.
connected to Fig.: Sectional view l Milk produced during initial few days of lactation is called colostrum which contains several antibodies,
Lactiferous duct of Mammary gland absolutely essential to develop resistance for the new born babies.
(Through which milk is sucked out) l Breast feeding during the initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing up a healthy baby

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 88 Human Reproduction NCERT Maps

1. Read the following statements and select 4. In mammals, embryo proper is formed from 7. In the figure shown below, which labelled
the correct option [NCERT Pg. 53] structure has not been correctly identified?
Statement A : All copulations do not lead to (1) Trophoblast [NCERT Pg. 53]
fertilization and pregnancy. (2) Inner cell mass
Statement B : Fertilization is possible only (3) Chorionic villi
if ovum and sperms are transported
(4) Polar body
simultaneously to the ampullary region.
[NCERT Pg. 51] 5. Implantation usually occurs at

(1) A is true and B is incorrect statement [NCERT Pg. 53]

(1) Morula stage
(2) Both A and B statements are correct
(2) Zygote stage
(3) Only B statement is correct
(3) Blastocyst stage (1) A-Placental villi (2) B-umbilical cord
(4) Both A and B are incorrect
(4) First cleavage stage (3) C-Yolk sac (4) D-Cervical plug
2. Which of the following event triggers the
formation of ootid? [NCERT Pg. 52] 6. During pregnancy hormones like thyroxine, 8. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is
estrogen, progesterone etc., increase induced by [NCERT Pg. 54]
(1) Entry of sperm in fallopian tube
several folds in the maternal blood. Which of
(1) Release of oxytocin from fetal pituitary
(2) Binding of sperm to zona pellucida the following features justify this increase?
[NCERT Pg. 53] (2) Signals from fully developed foetus and
(3) Changes in the plasma membrane of
placenta
sperm a. Support fetal growth
(4) Entry of sperm into cytoplasm of b. Support metabolic changes in the (3) Release of oxytocin from
secondary oocyte mother adenohypophysis

3. Which region of blastocyst contains stem c. Essential for maintenance of pregnancy (4) Pressure exerted by water bag on
cells that have potency to give rise to all the uterine wall
d. To promote menstrual cycle on regular
tissues and organs? [NCERT Pg. 54] basis during pregnancy 9. Which of the following hormone, do the
(1) Trophoblast doctors inject to induce delivery?
(1) a, b only
(2) Blastocoel (2) b, c only [NCERT Pg. 54]

(3) Inner cell mass (3) a, d only (1) Estrogen (2) Progesterone

(4) Zona pellucida (4) a, b, c (3) Prolactin (4) Oxytocin

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NCERT Maps Human Reproduction 89

10. Breast feeding during initial period of infant 14. Foetal movement starts usually from 17. Which of the following hormone is secreted
growth is recommended by doctors for by placenta only? [NCERT Pg. 53]
[NCERT Pg. 54]
bringing up a healthy baby because it (1) Oxytocin
contains [NCERT Pg. 54] (1) II month of pregnancy
(2) Estrogen
(1) High amount of iron (2) III month of pregnancy

(3) IV month of pregnancy (3) Progesterone

(2) Low amount of cholesterol
(4) V month of pregnancy (4) hCG
(3) Almost all vitamins
(4) Several antibodies 15. Which of the following event takes place 18. In humans, the placental villi are derived
earliest by the end of first month of from [NCERT Pg. 53]
11. Milk is secreted by the alveoli present in the
mammary lobes and it reach upto nipple embryonic development? [NCERT Pg. 54] (1) Yolk sac (2) Chorion
through following regions. Arrange these (1) Major organs are formed (3) Endometrium (4) Water bag
regions in a correct order [NCERT Pg. 46]
(2) Foetus develops limbs and digits 19. Foetal ejection reflex triggers the release of
a. Lactiferous duct b. Mammary duct [NCERT Pg. 54]
(3) Embryo’s heart is formed
c. Ampulla d. Mammary tubule (1) Oxytocin from foetal pituitary
(4) Movement of foetus is observed
(1) b → c → d → a (2) d → b → c → a (2) Oxytocin from placenta
16. Select the correct option w.r.t. given
(3) b → d → c → a (4) a → b → d → c statements [NCERT Pg. 53] (3) Oxytocin from maternal pituitary
12. Which regions of glandular tissue in Statement A: After implantation, blastocyst (4) hPL from placenta
mammary glands store milk? gets embedded in the endometrium of
20. Which of the following event is the last one
[NCERT Pg. 47] uterus
to be observed during gestation period in a
(1) Mammary tubule (2) Mammary alveoli Statement B: Uterine cells divide rapidly normal pregnancy? [NCERT Pg. 54]
(3) Lactiferous duct (4) Mammary duct and cover the blastocyst once it gets
(1) Eyelids separate and eyelashes are
attached to the uterine wall
13. Parturition is the process of giving birth to a formed
baby. It is controlled by [NCERT Pg. 54] (1) Both A and B statements are correct
(2) Listening to the heart sound of foetus
(1) Neural mechanism only (2) Only B is the correct statement through stethoscope
(2) Endocrine mechanism only (3) Both A and B statements are incorrect (3) Secretion of oxytocin from mammary
(3) Physical mechanism only glands
(4) A is correct and B is an incorrect
(4) Neuro-endocrine mechanism statement (4) Vigorous contractions of uterus

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 90 Human Reproduction NCERT Maps

1. The process of fusion of a sperm with an 8. In humans during coitus, male ejaculates 15. The process of child birth is called _______.
ovum is called _______. [NCERT Pg. 51] about _______ sperms in the vagina of [NCERT Pg. 54]
females. [NCERT Pg. 48]
2. After implantation, finger like projections 16. The milk produced in early few days after
9. In foetus, most of the major organ systems
appear on the trophoblast called ______. are formed by the end of _______. delivery is called _______. [NCERT Pg. 54]
[NCERT Pg. 53] [NCERT Pg. 54] 17. Placenta is connected to the embryo
3. First cell of a new generation is termed 10. Gestation period in humans averages through _______. [NCERT Pg. 53]
_______. [NCERT Pg. 52] around _______. [NCERT Pg. 54]
18. Structural and functional unit formed
4. Secretions of _______ help the sperm entry 11. _______ and _______ hormones have between developing foetus and maternal
lactogenic properties. [NCERT Pg. 53]
into the cytoplasm of ovum through zona body is called _______. [NCERT Pg. 53]
pellucida. [NCERT Pg. 51] 12. _______ and _______ hormones are
produced by both placenta as well as ovary. 19. Number of lobes found in each mammary
5. Morula is _______ blastomere stage in [NCERT Pg. 53] gland of human female are _______.
humans. [NCERT Pg. 53]
13. Sex of a baby is decided at the time of [NCERT Pg. 47]
6. Early repeated mitotic divisions in the zygote _______ formation. [NCERT Pg. 52]
20. Out of the three germ layers, X is formed
are called _______. [NCERT Pg. 52] 14. Oxytocin acts on uterine muscles and
causes stronger contractions, which in turn after formation of Y and Z layers.
7. All the three germ layers of embryo are
stimulates further secretion of _______
formed from _______. [NCERT Pg. 54] hormone. [NCERT Pg. 54] [NCERT Pg. 54]

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 Reproductive Health 3
Chapter
1 INTRODUCTION 2 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH : PROBLEMS AND STRATEGIES
m Definition
m India was amongst first countries in the world to initiate action plans to attain reproductive health such as family
According to WHO, reproductive health means a total well
planning programmes (FPP) in 1951
being in all aspects of reproduction i.e. physical, emotional,
social and behavioral.
Helping adolescents by providing Importance of Creating awareness about
3 POPULATION STABILISATION information about reproductive organs, breast feeding care of pregnant mother, post-
m According to 2011 census, our population growth rate was hygienic sexual practices and STls natal care of mother and child
less than 2 percent i.e 20/1000/year
Year World Population Indian Population
Discouraging children from believing in
1900 2 billion 350 million
Awareness regarding social evils such myths and having misconceptions
2000 6 billion 1 billion as sex-abuse and sex related crimes about sex-related aspects.
Tasks performed
2011 7.2 billion 1.2 billion
by ‘Reproductive
m Reasons For Increase In Population Size: Importance of equal and Child Health Role of NGOs, audio-visual and
Decline in death rate care (RCH) print media in creating awareness
= opportunities for and child
programmes’ regarding sex related aspects
= Rapid decline in maternal mortality rate (MMR)
= Decrease in infant mortality rate (IMR)
= Increase in number of people in reproducible age Educating people about birth Benefits of massive child
control options immunisation
= Increase in health facilities
m Measures Taken By Government To Check Population Growth
Rate:
= Motivate smaller families by using various contraceptive Benefits of families Introduction of sex
with small size education in schools
methods with slogans“Hum do Hamare do”,
advertisements and posters
= Urban couples adopting : “One child norm”
= Statutory raising of marriageable age: 5 NATURAL/TRADITIONAL METHODS 6 ARTIFICIAL METHODS
v Female to 18 years v Male to 21 years m Principle of avoiding physical meeting of the egg and sperms The various methods of contraception
= Incentives given to couples with small families
m Chances of failure are high are enlisted below:
4 BIRTH CONTROL/CONTRACEPTION I. Barrier methods
m Features of an ideal contraceptive: m Method Mode of Action (MoA)
II. Spermicidal jellies
= User-friendly = Periodic abstinence : Couples abstain from coitus from day 10 to 17
= Easily available of the menstrual cycle i.e. fertile period III. IUDs
= Effective
= Withdrawal method/ : Insemination is avoided as the male partner IV. Oral pills
= Reversible
= No/least side-effects Coitus interruptus withdraws his penis from the vagina just prior to V. Injections and implants
= No interference with libido or act of coitus ejaculation
VI. Emergency contraceptives
m There are two principle methods of birth control: = Lactational amenorrhea : Absense of menstruation upto 6 months during
= Natural methods VII. Surgical methods
period of intense lactation following parturition
= Artificial methods

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 92 Reproductive Health NCERT Maps

7 ARTIFICIAL METHODS IV. Oral Contraceptive Pills (OCP) or tablets VII. Surgical/Sterilisation methods

(I). Barrier methods m Poor reversibility but highly effective

= Prevent ovum and sperm from physically meeting Parameter Non-steroidal Steroidal m Mode of action
= Self inserted and offer privacy to user
Blocks gamete transport
= Example or SAHELI Progestogens (Prg)
(a) Condoms & its types Types
alone
Made up of rubber and thin latex composition or combination of Prg
and Estrogens (Est)
Parameter Males Females = Mode of action Interferes with Inhibit ovulation and Tubectomy Vasectomy
= Region covered = Penis = Vagina and cervix implantation implantation; also = In females = In males
alter the quality of = Cut and tie fallopian = Cut and tie vas
= Provides protection = Yes = Yes
cervical mucus to retard tubes deferens
from STIs entry of sperms
= Incision in abdomen or = Small incision on
= Dosage ‘Once a week’ pill Pills have to be taken daily
through vagina the scrotum
Male condom for a period of 21 days
Female condom
starting preferably within
(Nirodh) 8 MEDICAL TERMINATION OF
first 5 days of menstrual
PREGNANCY(MTP)/INDUCED ABORTION
(b) Diaphragms, cervical caps, vaults cycle
= Rubber barriers that cover the cervix during coitus = Effectiveness High contraceptive Pills are very effective with m MTP : Intentional or voluntary termination of
= Reusable value with very few lesser side effects and pregnancy before full term
= Do not protect from STls side effects well accepted by females m MTP was legalised in India in 1971
= Used by females only m When can MTP be performed?
Saheli was developed at CDRI, Lucknow,
(II). Spermicidal jellies, foams and creams = Unwanted pregnancy due to rape, failure of
Uttar Pradesh
= Kill the sperms by creating acidic pH contraception, casual unprotected intercourse
= Used along with barrier methods to increase their efficiency V. Implants
= If continuation of pregnancy could harm the
(III). Intra-uterine devices (IUDs) = Placed under skin mother or foetus or both
= Inserted by doctors or expert nurses in uterus
= Effective periods are much longer = Permission of how many medical
= IUDs are one of the most widely accepted method of contraception in
India. = Composition: Progestogens alone/Combination of practitioners is needed for MTP depending
Types Progestogens and Estrogens on duration of gestation?
= Mode of Action (MoA)
v Inhibit ovulation and implantation 1 2
= Non medicated IUDs = Medicated IUDs
= Example: “Lippe’s loop” v Alter the quality of cervical mucus m less than/upto 12 m More than 12 but
to retard entry of sperms weeks less than 24 weeks
= Injections usually share similar MoA and composition m Intention behind MTP amendment act 2017,
Parameter Hormone releasing IUDs Copper coated IUDs
as implants
= Examples Progestasert, LNG-20 Cu7, Multiload 375 (GoI)
= Mode of Action v Make the uterus unsuitable v Increase phagocytosis of VI. Emergency contraceptives
= Reducing the incidence of illegal abortion
for implantation and cervix sperms within uterus
= Decrease consequent maternal mortality and
hostile to the sperms. v Cu ions suppress sperm
motility and fertilising Types Characteristics morbidity
capacity of sperms = Progestogens alone = Effective with 72 hrs of coitus = MTPs are safe upto 12 weeks but riskier in 2
nd
= Combination of Prg = Used to prevent conception
+ Est resulting from rape or trimester yet both are legal
unprotected intercourse = Amniocentesis and MTPs have been misused
CuT = IUDs in context of female foeticide

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NCERT Maps Reproductive Health 93

9 AMNIOCENTESIS 11 INFERTILITY
m Analyse foetal cells and dissolved substances from m Infertile couple: Unable to produce children inspite of 2 years of unprotected sexual co-habitation
amniotic fluids m Reasons for infertility:
m Technique used to check for genetic disorders such
as Down’s syndrome, hemophilia, sickle-cell = Physical = Congenital m Infertility as a problem could be with either the male or female partner.
anemia etc. = Diseases = Immunological m In India, female is blamed often than male for the couple being childless
m Statutory ban on this technique in India to = Psychological
prevent female foeticide.
Help For Infertile Couples Comes In The Form of
ASSISTED REPRODUCTIVE TECHNOLOGIES (ART)
10 SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED INFECTIONS
(STIs)
m Alternately named: Venereal diseases (VD) or m Other details of ART involved :
Parameter in-vitro fertilisation in-vivo fertilisation
reproductive tract infections (RTls) = Site of = Outside the body in simulated = In the female = ICSI : Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection
m High vulnerability/risk group: 15-24 years fertilisation conditions in laboratory reproductive tract v Sperm injected directly into the egg
= Can female = Yes = No = Artificial Insemination (AI):
m Mode of transmission (MoT): Sexual intercouse
produce ova? v Semen introduced in vagina or uterus
= Embryo transfer = Yes = No v Low sperm count or inability of male to
Category Disease
= Example of = ZIFT, IUT, ICSI = GIFT, Al, IUl inseminate female
Bacterial Gonorrhea, Syphilis, Chlamydiasis
techniques v IUI : Intra uterine insemination
Protozoan Trichomoniasis
Viral Genital herpes, Hepatitis-B, Genital = GIFT : Gamete intra fallopian transfer
Site of Embryo Transfer (ET)
warts, AIDS v Female can provide conditions for
based on number of blastomeres
fertilisation and further development
m Bacterial and protozoan diseases are completely
curable if detected early and treated properly
Parameter Upto 8 blastomeres More than 8 blastomeres
m Other MoT for hepatitis-B virus and HIV = Location in fallopian tube in uterus
infection include:
= Technique = ZIFT: Zygote Intra = IUT: Intra uterine transfer Test tube baby programme involves techiques
= Sharing of injection needles, surgical fallopian transfer with in-vitro fertilisation
instruments with infected persons
= Transfusion of blood m Symptoms and Complications of STIs
= From infected mother to foetus
Early detection Late detection m Preventive measures to avoid STIs :
Complications
Symptoms = Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple

partners
Itching, fluid discharge, Pelvic inflammatory diseases (PIDs),
= Always try to use condoms during coitus
slight pain, swellings abortions, still births, ectopic pregnancies,
in the genital region infertility, cancer of reproductive tract

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 94 Reproductive Health NCERT Maps

1. “Reproductive health means total well being Choose the correct option 8. Mode of action of oral pills in contraceptive
in all aspects of reproduction i.e, physical, [NCERT Pg. 58] context does not include their ability to
behavioural and social”. Which [NCERT Pg. 61]
(1) Only statement I is true
agency/organisation is responsible for (1) Promote sperm motility and enhance
ratifying this on global scale? (2) Only statement II is true
fertilization ability
[NCERT Pg. 57] (3) Both statement I and II are wrong (2) Alter quality of cervical mucus
(1) NDRl (2) CDRl (4) Both statement I and II are true (3) Inhibit ovulation
(3) WHO (4) IARl 5. Saheli, a new contraceptive drug was (4) Impair implantation
developed at CDRI. This research institute
2. In which year were the ‘family planning 9. Which of the following is a copper based
is located in [NCERT Pg. 58]
programmes’ initiated in our country? IUD that can last for longest time amongst
(1) Andhra Pradesh them?
[NCERT Pg. 57]
(2) Madhya Pradesh [NCERT Pg. 60]
(1) 1981 (2) 1961
(3) Uttar Pradesh (1) Multiload 375 (2) Cu 7
(3) 1983 (4) 1951
(4) Arunachal Pradesh (3) LNG-20 (4) CuT
3. Among following, detection of which defect
6. Which method is used by females that works 10. Surgical intervention technique that blocks
is not possible using the technique
on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum gamete transport in females is called
amniocentesis? [NCERT Pg. 58]
and sperm meeting and involves use of latex [NCERT Pg. 61]
(1) Down’s syndrome sheath? [NCERT Pg. 60]
(1) Hysterectomy (2) Tubectomy
(2) Cleft palate (1) Lactational amenorrhea
(3) Vasectomy (4) Mastectomy
(3) Neural tube defects (2) Copper-T
11. Induced abortion [NCERT Pg. 62]
(4) Klinefelter’s abnormality (3) Periodic abstinence (1) Refers to intentional or voluntary
4. Read the given statements (4) Femidoms termination of pregnancy before full term

I. Amniocentesis is a foetal sex 7. Select the odd one w.r.t. reusability (2) Has a significant role in decreasing the
determination test based on study of [NCERT Pg. 60] population as it is aimed at lowering
chromosomal pattern from cells population growth
(1) Diaphragms
extracted from amniotic fluid (3) Was legalized in India in 2001
(2) Nirodh
II. There is a statutory ban on this (4) Considered illegal if performed for
(3) Vaults
technique w.r.t. sex determination in female foetus in first trimester under
India (4) Cervical caps medical supervision

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NCERT Maps Reproductive Health 95

12. Choose the option that completes the 16. Select the incorrect match 18. Select the incorrect statement
analogy correctly amongst given STls. [NCERT Pg. 60] [NCERT Pg. 64]
Gonorrhea : Bacterial : : Trichomoniasis : (1) Abortions can happen spontaneously
Column-A Column-B
______ [NCERT Pg. 63] too
(1) Viral (1) Coitus – Natural method of
(2) Infertility is defined as the ability to
interruptus conception
(2) Bacterial produce an inviable offspring and is
(2) Lactational – Absence of always due to defects in male partner
(3) Fungal amenorrhea menstruation
(3) Creating awareness about sex related
(4) Protozoan aspects is an effective method to
(3) Condoms – Protect the user
13. How many among following can be from STls improve reproductive health of the
transmitted by sharing of needles? people
(4) Spermicidal – Increase
[NCERT Pg. 63] (4) Continued intense lactation could help
jellies contraceptive
efficiency of barrier as a natural method of contraception
Syphilis, Genital herpes, chlamydiasis, methods upto maximum six months from
hepatitis-B, genital warts, HIV parturition
17. Read the given statements
19. Choose the odd one w.r.t. contraceptive
(1) One [NCERT Pg. 66] methods [NCERT Pg. 59]
(2) Three a. All sexually transmitted infections are (1) MTP (2) Withdrawal
completely curable
(3) Two method
b. Sterilisation methods of contraception
(4) Five reduce gametogenesis. (3) Implants (4) IUDs

14. In which of the following techniques does c. Increase in IMR could attribute to 20. Medical termination of pregnancy can be
fusion of gametes occurs inside female’s increase is population size in India in the performed in all given cases except
reproductive tract? [NCERT Pg. 64] last decade [NCERT Pg. 62]
Select the correct option
(1) GIFT (2) ZIFT (1) Pregnancy can be fatal to foetus and
a b c mother as she met with an accident
(3) ICSI (4) IUT
(2) Unwanted pregnancy resulting from
15. In-vitro fertilization to help overcome (1) T T T
rape
infertility is possible in case of
(2) F F F (3) Conception due to failure of the
[NCERT Pg. 64]
contraceptive
(3) T F T
(1) GIFT (2) IUI
(4) Pregnancy has reached middle of third
(3) AI (4) ICSI (4) F T F trimester

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 96 Reproductive Health NCERT Maps

1. Couples are termed infertile when they are probable reason for increase in population 14. ________ IUD makes the uterus unsuitable
unable to produce children inspite of______ size in India . [NCERT Pg. 59] for implantation and the cervix hostile to the
sexual co-habitation. [NCERT Pg. 63] 8. To promote small family size, Indian sperms. [NCERT Pg. 60]

2. Government of India legalized MTP in government has raised the statutory 15. Pills have to be taken daily for a period of
_____ with some strict conditions to avoid its marriage age of the females to _______ ____ days starting preferably within first five
mis-use. [NCERT Pg. 62] years and that of males to_____ years. days of menstrual cycle. [NCERT Pg. 61]
[NCERT Pg. 59] 16. Administration of progestogens or IUDs
3. Human immunodeficiency virus can be
transmitted by sharing surgical instruments 9. During periodic abstinence, a couple within _____ hours coitus are effective
with infected persons,_____ of blood, or refrains from coitus from day _____ of the contraceptives. [NCERT Pg. 61]
from infected mother to foetus. menstrual cycle when ovulation could be 17. In tubectomy, small part of the fallopian tube
expected in a female with 28 day cycle. is removed or tied up through a small
[NCERT Pg. 63]
[NCERT Pg. 59] incision in the _____ or through____.
4. Persons belonging to age group_____
10. An ideal contraceptive should be user [NCERT Pg. 62]
years are highly vulnerable to STIs.
friendly, _____ available, effective and 18. Early symptoms of sexually transmitted
[NCERT Pg. 63]
reversible. [NCERT Pg. 59] infections include ____, fluid discharge,
5. If pregnancy has crossed 12 week stage but
11. _____ is a method in which the male partner slight pain and swelling in genital region.
is still in second trimester, MTP can be
withdraws his penis from the vagina just [NCERT Pg. 63]
performed with consent of _____ medical
prior to ejaculation. [NCERT Pg. 60] 19. GIFT is used by females who cannot
practitioners. [NCERT Pg. 62]
12. Chances of conception are relatively _____ produce an ova but can provide suitable
6. The world population which was
when exercising natural methods of environment for ____ and further foetal
around_____ million in 1900 rocketed to
contraception as compared to use to development. [NCERT Pg. 64]
about_____ billion by 2000.
implants. [NCERT Pg. 61] 20. In artificial insemination, the semen
[NCERT Pg. 59]
13. Diaphragms and vaults act by collected from either_____ or ______ is
7. A rapid decline in death rate, _____ and preventing/blocking the entry of sperms artificially introduced into the vagina or into
______ as well as increase in number of through _____ in a female. [NCERT Pg. 60] the uterus. [NCERT Pg. 64]
people in reproducible age group are
  

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 Evolution 4
Chapter
1 EVOLUTION 3 THEORIES FOR ORIGIN OF LIFE
m Evolutionary biology is the study of history of life forms on earth
m The origin of life is considered a unique event in the history of universe
m Stellar distances are measured in light years
m Big bang explosion (Singular huge explosion) Theory Proponents Connotations
Resulted in
leading to Special Conventional religious l All living organisms that we see today were
Parameters Origin of Universe Origin of Earth
l 4.5 billion years ago creation literature created as such
Time scale l 20 billion years ago l Diversity was always the same since creation and
l Occurred in solar
Feature l Comprises cluster of galaxies
system of Milkyway will be the same in future also
(stars, clouds of gas, dust) l Earth is 4000 years old
galaxy
Events after expansion of universe:
Cosmozoic/ Early Greek thinkers, l Life came from outerspace
l Temperature declined l H2 + He formed l Gases condensed
Panspermia Astronomers l Units of life called spores were transferred to
l Galaxies of present day formed
different planets including earth
Hypothesis for Origin of life on early earth:
l No atmosphere existed on early earth. Spontaneous – l Life came out from decaying and rotting matter
l Water vapours, methane, carbon dioxide and ammonia released from
generation like straw, mud. etc.
molten mass covered the surface. Louis Pasteur air
l Disapproved by Louis Pasteur
U.V rays
l H 2O H2 + O2 l NH3 + O CO2 + H2O + other contents
2 Theory of Killed l Life comes only from pre-existing life
CH4 yeast
l H2O vapour falls as rain to fill all the depressions and form oceans.
Biogenesis Pre-sterilised flasks l He showed that in pre-sterlised flasks, life
l Ozone layer was formed did not come from “killed yeast”
No life life

2 ORIGIN OF LIFE Oparin-Haldane Oparin - Russia, l Formation of life was preceded by chemical
m Life appeared 500 million years after the formation of earth, i.e, almost 4 hypothesis or Haldane - England evolution i.e., formation of diverse organic
billion years ago. Chemical molecules from inorganic constituents.
Probably originated 3 billion years ago Evolution Spark
l First form of life could have come from pre-existing
discharge non-living organic molecules (e.g. RNA, proteins,
m First non-cellular Would have possibly originated from giant Simulate lightening
molecules (RNA, protein, polysaccharides, etc.) (energy source) etc.)
forms of life 800°C l This hypothesis was proved by Miller’s experiment,
Vacuum
These capsules reproduced their Simulate
1953, S.L. Miller (American scientist)
molecules perhaps. reducing
atmosphere Closed l In similar experiments others observed, formation
flask
Possibly originated 2 million years ago of sugars, nitrogen bases, pigments and fats.
m First cellular forms of life
Arose in water environment (aquatic) l Analysis of meteorite content also revealed
similar compounds indicating that similar
m This version of Biogenesis i.e., the first form of life arose slowly Amino acids processes are occuring elsewhere in space.
through evolutionary forces from non-living molecules is accepted by
Fig.: Diagrammatic representation of Miller’s experiment
majority.

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 98 Evolution NCERT Maps

4 EVIDENCES OF EVOLUTION

1. Palaeontological evidences (Evidences from fossils) 3. Morphological and anatomical evidences

l Fossils are remains of hard parts of life forms found Parameters Homologous organs Analogous organs

in rocks. Common ancestory ü ×

l Age of fossils is determined by radioactive-dating Anatomical structures Similar but developed along different directions due Not similar but resulted in selection of
to adaptations to different needs. similar adaptive features in different
method. groups of organisms, thus, evolving for
the same function.
l Fossils of different life forms in different
sedimentary layers indicates the geological Function performed Different Similar

period in which they existed (epochs, periods, Type of evolution Divergent Convergent
eras)
l Rocks form sediments and a cross-section of earth's Examples l Placental Australian
crust indicates the arrangement of sediments one mammals marsupials
l Thorn of
over the other during the long history of earth. Bougainvillea
and tendril of
l Different-aged rock sediments contain fossils of Cucurbita
Anteater
different life-forms who probably died during the Numbat (anteater)

formation of the particular sediment. Some of them

appear similar to modern organisms. They
Lemur
Spotted cuscus
represent extinct organisms (e.g., Dinosaurs).
2. Embryological evidences l Forelimbs of
vertebrates
Tasmanian tiger
l Proposed by Ernst Heckel Bobcat
cat
l Based upon the observations of certain features
l Wings of butterfly and birds
during embryonic stage common to all vertebrates l Eyes of octopus and mammals
that are absent in adults e.g., embryos of all l Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins
l Sweet potato (root modification)
vertebrates develop a row of vestigial gill slits
l Vertebrate hearts, Vertebrate brains and potato (stem modification)
functional only fish and not found in another adult
vertebrates.
l It was disproved by Karl Ernst von Baer. He noted
l Molecular homology
that embryos never pass through the adult stages of Similarities in proteins and genes performing a given function among diverse organisms indicates common ancestry.
other animals. These biochemical similarities point to the same shared ancestry as structural similarities among diverse organisms.

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NCERT Maps Evolution 99

5 ADAPTIVE RADIATION Theories for the evolution of life forms: l Those characteristics which enable some to
m The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical Lamarck’s theory of evolution survive better in natural conditions (climate,
area starting from a point and literally radiating to other areas of l Given by French naturalist Lamarck food, physical factors etc.) would outbreed
geography (habitats) Examples others that are less-endowed to survive
Use and disuse of organs
l Main postulates : under such natural conditions.
Inheritance of acquired characters The fitness, according to Darwin, refers
Darwin’s finches Australian marsupials l

l Small black birds l Example: Long neck in Giraffes is attributed to ultimately and only to reproductive
Tasmanian fitness.
l Evolved from seed eating stretching the neck while foraging leaves on tall trees
Sugar glider wolf l Adaptive ability is inherited and has a
birds in Galapagos Island Tiger cat Darwin’s theory of natural selection
Marsupial mole genetic basis
l Altered beaks arose, enabling Darwin visited Galapagos island, Ship - H.M.S Beagle
Marsupial Banded
l l Fitness is the end result of the ability to
them to become insectivorous Koala radiation anteater l Observations by Charles Darwin: adapt and get selected by nature.
and vegetarian finches. Bandicoot Marsupial (i) Existing living forms share similarities to varying l Branching descent and natural selection
Wombat Kangaroo rat
degrees not only among themselves but also with are the two key concepts of Darwinian theory
Fig.: Adaptive radiation of life forms that existed millions of years ago. of evolution.
Fig.: Variety of beaks of finches that marsupials of Australia
Darwin found in Galapagos Island (ii) The geological history of earth correlates with the l Habitat fragmentation and genetic drift
m When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to have occurred in biological history of earth. may accentuate variations leading to
l Influence of the work of Thomas Malthus on speciation.
an isolated geographical area (representing different habitats), one can
Darwinism: l Weaknesses of Darwinism :
call this convergent evolution.
(i) Population can grow exponentially (i) Unable to explain the origin of variations
Examples
(ii) Limited resources (ii) Could not explain speciation
Placental mammals Australian marsupials (iii) Nature keeps control/check on population size
(iii) Ignored work done by Mendel.
Mole Marsupial mole which are, hence, nearly stable
Mutation theory
Anteater Numbat (banded anteater) Darwin’s postulates: l Given by Hugo de Vries in first decade of
Mouse Marsupial mouse l According to Darwin, variations are small and th
20 century
directional and evolution for Darwin was gradual
Lemur Spotted cuscus l Worked on evening primrose
process.
l New species originate as a result of
Flying squirrel Flying phalanger (Sugar glider) l Darwin asserted that in a population exist variations,
mutations which are single step (saltation)
Bobcat Tasmanian tiger cat which are heritable and which make resource
large, random and directionless
utilisation better for few will enable only those to
Wolf Tasmanian wolf variations arising suddenly in a population
reproduce and leave more progeny.

6 BIOLOGICAL EVOLUTION l Alfred Wallace, a naturalist who worked in Malay Archipelago had also come to similar conclusions as
l Metabolic capabilities of different cellular forms of life under the Charles Darwin around the same time.
influence of natural selection contributed to biological evolution. l When we describe story of this world we describe evolution as a process. W hen we describe the
story of life on earth, we treat evolution as a consequence of a process called natural selection.
l Rate of appearance of new forms is linked to the life cycle or the life
l Evolution is not a directed process in the sense of determinism. It is a stochastic process based on
span. e.g., Microbes have the ability to multiply and become millions within chance events in nature and chance mutations in the organisms.
hours whereas fish or fowl would take millions of years as life span of these l Artificial selection : By intensive breeding programme, man has created breeds that differ from other
animals are in years. breeds (e.g., dogs)

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100 Evolution NCERT Maps

7 EXAMPLES OF EVOLUTION BY ANTHROPOGENIC ACTION 9 HARDY-WEINBERG PRINCIPLE

1. Antibiotic resistant microbes 2. Herbicides resistant varieties l Allele frequencies in a population are stable and is constant from generation to
3. Pesticides resistant varieties generation. This is called genetic equilibrium.
4. The case of Industrial melanism : Classical example of natural selection among l The gene pool (total genes and their alleles in a population) remains a constant.
variants in moth population observed in England. l Sum total of all the allelic frequencies is 1 and is represented as :
Parameters Before industrialisation (1850s) After industrialisation (1920s) p + q = 1 [p = Frequency of recessive allele (a); q = Frequency of dominant allele (A)]
2 2 2 2
Figure p + q + 2pq = 1 [p = Frequency of homozygous dominant (AA); q = Frequency of
homozygous recessive (aa); 2pq = Frequency of heterozygotes (Aa)]
l When frequency measured, differs from expected values, the difference indicates the
Tree trunks White, covered by lichens Became dark due to deposition extent of evolutionary change or disturbance in genetic equilibrium.
of soot and smoke
l Factors affecting Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium :
White moths More Less
1. Gene migration : When migration of a section of population to another place or population
Melanised moths Less More occurs, gene frequencies change in the original as well as in the new population.
Predators feed on Melanised moths White winged moths
l When gene migration occurs multiple
l Lichens do not grow in polluted area (pollution indicator) times, it is called gene flow.
l Emigration (–) l Immigration (+)
l Agent of natural selection : Predator/birds
l Some genes/alleles lost l New genes/ alleles added
l Moths that were able to camouflage themselves (i.e., hide in the background) survived
but no variant is completely wiped out 2. Genetic recombination: Variations due to recombination during gametogenesis
3. Mutation: Microbial experiments show that pre-existing advantageous mutations
when selected will result in observation of new phenotypes. Over few generations, this
8 A BRIEF ACCOUNT OF EVOLUTION
Land reptiles were dinosaurs which would result in speciation.
Form of life Appeared around disappeared 65 mya Climatic change 4. Genetic drift: Change in gene frequencies in a small population by chance.
st
1 non cellular form 3 bya Probable reason Evolved in birds Sometimes the change in allele frequency is so different in the new sample of population
st Some land reptiles went back to water that they become a different species. The original drifted population becomes founders
1 cellular forms 2000 mya
to evolve fish like reptiles eg. and effect is called founders effect.
Invertebrates 350 mya Ichthyosaurus (200 mya)
5. Natural selection : A process is which heritable variations enabling better survival are
Sea weeds and few plants 320 mya Modern day descendants of reptiles e.g., enabled to reproduce and leave greater number of progeny.
Turtles, Tortoises, Crocodiles
Possibly Possibly Types
m Lobed fin fish
evolved
Amphibians
evolved
Reptiles Mammals (Arose from
(Coelocanth) into Frogs, into l Lay thick shelled ancestral extinct reptiles) Disruptive selection
l Primarily salamanders eggs which do not l Viviparous i.e., protect young Stabilising selection Directional selection
l More individuals acquire l More individuals acquire l More individuals acquire
aquatic l Aquatic and dry up in sun ones inside mothers body peripheral character value to
mean character value value other than the mean
l 1938, fish caught in land l More intelligent in sensing both ends at the distribution
character value
South Africa was earlier and avoiding danger. curve
Number of individuals

thought to be extinct Peak gets

with phenotype

higher Peak shifts in Two peaks form

l A Likely Reason for Restricted Distribution of Pouched Mammals in Australia and narrower one direction
Due to continental drift, when South America joined North America, these animals were overridden by
North American fauna. Due to the same continental drift pouched mammals of Australia survived because
of lack of competition from any other mammal.
l The first mammals were like shrews. l Whales, dolphins, seals and sea cows are aquatic mammals.

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NCERT Maps Evolution 101

10 A BRIEF ACCOUNT OF EVOLUTION OF PLANTS 11 A BRIEF ACCOUNT OF EVOLUTION HISTORY OF VERTEBRATES

Birds
Lizards Tuataras
Turtles Snakes Crocodiles
Mammals

Quaternary

Tertiary

Dinosaurs
(extinct)
Cretaceous

Jurassic

Therapsids
(extinct)
Triassic

Fig. : A sketch of the evolution Thecodonts

of plant forms through (extinct)
geological periods Permian

Derivatives : Sauropsids Pelycosaurs

l Different types of plants evolved in different periods of time: Palaeozoic, Mesozoic Synapsids
(extinct)
and Coenozoic Carboniferous
l Chlorophyte ancestors : Bryophytes : : Tracheophyte ancestors : Lycopods
l Psilophytons were common ancestors for Progymnosperms, Ferns,
Ginkgos, Conifers, Gnetales, Sphenopsids Fig.: Representative evolutionary history of
Early reptiles vertebrates through geological periods
l Origin of monocotyledons is more recent than that of dioctyledons (extinct)
Derivatives :
l Giant ferns (pteridophytes) were present (200 mya) but they all fell to form coal l Turtles, Lizards, Snakes and Tuatara arose from common ancestor sauropsids
deposits slowly.
l Thecodont ancestors gave way to existing crocodiles and birds and extinct dinosaurs.
Tyrannosaurus
12 A FAMILY TREE OF DINOSAURS l Story of origin of mammals : Extinct reptiles ® Synapsids ® Pelycosaurs ® Therapsids ® Mammals

Triceratops Derivatives :
Pteranodon l Triceratops – three horned dinosaur with bony frill around back of its head. l Pteranodon were possibly flying reptiles
l Archaeopteryx is a transitional fossil between non avian
Crocodilian Stegosaurus – Large triangular bony plates along the back and spiked tail
dinosaurs and birds
Archaeopteryx
Tyrannosaurus rex – 20 feet in height, had huge fearsome dagger-like teeth l Brachiosaurus and Tyrannosaurus arose separately, mostly
Brachiosaurus Brachiosaurus – Long giraffe like neck, long forelimbs likely, from a common ancestor.
Stegosaurus
Fig.: A family tree of dinosaurs and their living modern day counterpart organisms like crocodiles and birds

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102 Evolution NCERT Maps

13 ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF MAN

m Among the stories of evolution of individual species, the story of evolution of modern man is most interesting and appears to parallel l The skull of baby chimpanzee is more like
evolution of human brain and language. adult human skull than adult chimpanzee skull

Human ancestors Years back Cranial capacity Specific features

Dryopithecus – more ape-like
Hairy and walked like
15 mya
Ramapithecus more man-like Gorillas and Chimpanzees

l Few fossils of man-like bones have been discovered in Ethiopia

and Tanzania.
Australopithecus 2 mya – l 3-4 mya, man-like primates walked in East African grasslands.
l They were probably not taller than 4 feet but walked upright.
l Evidence shows they hunted with stone weapons but essentially
ate fruit.

– 650 cc - 800 cc l First human-like being, the hominid

Homo habilis
l Probably did not eat meat

1.5 mya 900 cc l Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 Fig.: A comparison of the skulls of adult modern human
Homo erectus
being, baby chimpanzee and adult chimpanzee.
l Probably ate meat
l Pre historic cave art-18,000 years ago. One
1,00,000-40,000 1400 cc l Lived in near East and Central Asia
Neanderthal man such cave paintings by pre-historic humans
years back l Used hides to protect their body and buried their dead
can be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in
Homo sapiens 75,000-10,000 l Arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh.
– into distinct races l Agriculture came around 10,000 years
years ago (ice age)
back and human settlements started.

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NCERT Maps Evolution 103

1. Which theory states that life came out of 5. The novelty and brilliant insight of Darwin different needs, this is A evolution
decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud, was [NCERT Pg. 135] and these structures are . Choose
B
etc.? [NCERT Pg. 127] (a) Nature selects those individuals which
(1) Spontaneous generation theory have variations, which are heritable and the option which correctly fill the blanks.
which make resource utilization better [NCERT Pg. 130]
(2) Theory of Biogenesis
for few A B
(3) Oparin and Haldane hypothesis
(b) Nature selects those individuals which (1) Convergent Homologous
(4) Special Creation theory
have variations, which enable only those (2) Divergent Analogous
2. Read the following statements and choose
the correct option. [NCERT Pg. 127] to reproduce and leave more progeny (3) Divergent Homologous
Statement A : Formation of life was (c) Evolution is due to large, directionless (4) Convergent Analogous
preceded by chemical evolution. variations 9. Select the option indicating analogous
Statement B : First forms of life could have (d) New species arise due to inheritance of structures. [NCERT Pg. 130, 131]
come from pre-existing non-living organic acquired characters (1) Sweet potato and potato
molecules. How many of the above statements are (2) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of
(1) Only statement A is incorrect true? Cucurbita
(2) Only statement B is incorrect (1) One (2) Two (3) Vertebrate hearts
(3) Both A and B statements are incorrect (3) Three (4) Four (4) Forelimbs of whale, cheetah, bat and
(4) Both A and B statements are correct 6. Evolution of life forms had occurred due to man
use and disuse of organs, this theory was 10. Embryological support for evolution
3. Spark discharge in Miller’s experiment
given by [NCERT Pg. 134, 135] proposed by Ernst Haeckel was disapproved
simulated [NCERT Pg. 127, 128]
(1) French naturalist Lamarck by [NCERT Pg. 129]
(1) Reducing atmosphere
(2) Hugo de Vries (1) Karl Ernst von Baer
(2) UV radiations
(3) Charles Darwin (2) Karl Landsteiner
(3) Low temperature
(4) Alfred Wallace (3) Karl Fischer
(4) Lightening
7. Choose the option that represents artificial (4) Karl Pearson
4. Which of the following was not the
selection by anthropogenic action. 11. Select the option which shows embryological
connotation of special creation theory?
[NCERT Pg. 131] evidence of evolution.
[NCERT Pg. 128]
(1) Herbicide resistant varieties [NCERT Pg. 130 and 131]
(1) All living organisms that we see today
were created as such (2) Industrial melanism (1) Fossils in different sedimentary layers
(2) Diversity was always the same since (3) Antibiotic resistant microbes (2) Vestigial gill slits in embryos of all
creation (4) Breeds of dogs created by man vertebrates
(3) Earth is 4000 million years old 8. When the same structure develops along (3) Forelimbs of mammals
(4) Diversity will remain same in future different directions due to adaptation to (4) Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins

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 104 Evolution NCERT Maps
12. Which of the following is an incorrect 15. If frequency of a dominant allele, in a 18. Given below are cranial capacities and
statement? [NCERT Pg. 128, 129 and 134] population which is in genetic equilibrium, is features of ancestors of modern man.
(1) Populations have built in variation in 0.6, then calculate frequency of Choose the option which is not correctly
characteristics heterozygotes in that population. describing the cranial capacity and features
(2) Existing living forms share similarities to [NCERT Pg. 136, 137] of the respective fossil mentioned.
varying degrees not only among (1) 0.4 (2) 0.24 [NCERT Pg. 140, 141]
themselves but also with the life forms (3) 0.48 (4) 0.36 A B C
that existed millions of years ago
16. Match the following columns and choose the
(3) Adaptive ability is not inherited (1) Homo habilis 650-800 cc Probably did not
correct option. [NCERT Pg. 137-140] eat meat
(4) Fitness is the end result of the ability to
Column-I Column-II
adapt and get selected by nature (2) Homo erectus 900 cc Fossils
(a) Dinosaurs (i) Tyrannosaurus rex discovered in
13. When more individuals acquire peripheral
suddenly 1891
character value at both ends of the disappeared
distribution curve, this type of natural (3) Java man 900 cc Existed around
selection is called [NCERT Pg. 137] (b) Fish like (ii) 65 mya 1.5 mya
reptile
(1) Stabilising selection
(c) Biggest (iii) Ichthyosaurs (4) Neanderthal 1400 cc Lived in near
(2) Directional selection man east and central
dinosaur
(3) Disruptive selection Africa between
(d) Coelacanth (iv) 350 mya 1,00,000-10,000
(4) Progressive selection fish years back
14. Select the option which correctly represents
the distribution curve for industrial melanism. (1) a–(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv) 19. Cave paintings by pre-historic humans can
[NCERT Pg. 136] (2) a–(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii) be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in
(3) a–(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv) [NCERT Pg. 141]
(1) (2) (4) a–(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii) (1) Andhra Pradesh
17. Select the correct sequence w.r.t. evolution. (2) Madhya Pradesh
[NCERT Pg. 138, 139]
(3) Uttar Pradesh
(1) Chlorophyte ancestors → Rhynia-type
(3) (4) (4) Himachal Pradesh
plants → Seed ferns →
Progymnosperms 20. Which of the following is not an example of
adaptive radiation? [NCERT Pg. 133, 134]
y axis – Number of individuals with phenotype (2) Progymnosperms → Seed ferns →
Cycads → Angiosperms (1) Tasmanian wolf and tiger cat in Australia
x axis – character
(3) Sauropsids → Thecodonts → (2) Placental mole and placental mouse in
____ Distribution curve of original Australia
population Therapsids → Mammals
(3) Darwin’s finches in Galapagos island
……. Distribution curve after natural (4) Psilophyton → Progymnosperms →
selection Seed ferns → Angiosperms (4) Lemur and spotted cuscus in Australia

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NCERT Maps Evolution 105

1. Stellar distances are measured in ______. 9. The fitness, according to Darwin, refers 16. Before industrialization in England i.e.,
[NCERT Pg. 126] ultimately and only to ______ fitness. in______, ______ moths were more while
2. ______ is the study of history of life forms [NCERT Pg. 129] after industrialization i.e., in ______, ______
on earth. [NCERT Pg. 126] 10. Alfred Wallace, a naturalist who worked in moths were more than white winged moths.
______ had also come to ______ ______ is completely wiped out.
3. In ______, S.L. Miller, an ______ scientist,
conclusions as that of Darwin around the
created electric discharge in a closed flask [NCERT Pg. 131 and 132]
______ time. [NCERT Pg. 129]
containing ______, ______, ______, and
17. The process of evolution of different species
______ at ______ °C. [NCERT Pg. 127] 11. ______ and ______ are the two key
concepts of Darwinian theory of Evolution. in a given geographical area starting from a
4. The first non-cellular forms of life could have point and literally radiating to other areas of
originated ______ back. They would have [NCERT Pg. 134]
geography is called ______.
been giant molecules like ______, ______, 12. The rate of appearance of new forms is
______ etc. These capsules reproduced linked to the ______ or ______. [NCERT Pg. 133]
their molecules perhaps. [NCERT Pg. 127] [NCERT Pg. 134] 18. When more than one adaptive radiation
5. The first cellular form of life did not possibly 13. Darwinian variations are ______ and appeared to have occurred in an isolated
originate till about ______ million years ago. ______ [NCERT Pg. 135] geographical area (representing different
14. Five factors are known to affect Hardy habitats), one can call this ______.
[NCERT Pg. 128]
Weinberg equilibrium. These are ______, [NCERT Pg. 134]
6. Miller in his experiment, observed formation
______, ______, ______, and ______.
of ______. [NCERT Pg. 127] 19. Sum total of all the allelic frequencies is
[NCERT Pg. 137]
7. Evolution for Darwin was ______ while ______ [NCERT Pg. 136]
15. Evolution is a ______ process based on
Hugo de Vries believed ______ caused 20. When more individuals acquire value other
chance ______ in nature and chance
speciation. [NCERT Pg. 135]
______ in the organisms. Evolution is not a than the mean character value, this type of
8. Single step large mutation is called ______. directed process in the sense of natural selection is called ______ selection.
[NCERT Pg. 135] determinism. [NCERT Pg. 132] [NCERT Pg. 137]

  

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 Human Health and Disease 5A
Chapter

1 HEALTH 3 CLASSIFICATION OF DISEASES ON THE BASIS OF TRANSMISSION

m As per 'Good humor' hypothesis arrived at by reflective Mode of transmission Bacterial Viral Protozoan Helminthic
thought and asserted by Hippocrates along with Indian Air (droplet/aerosol) or Pneumonia, diphtheria Common cold, – –
Ayurveda System, object borne (pens, knobs etc.) Smallpox
Health is a state of body and mind where there was a
balance of certain 'humors' e.g., persons with black bile Direct contact Tetanus Smallpox – –
belonged to hot personality and had fevers. Contaminated food and water Typhoid, dysentery Polio Amoebiasis Ascariasis
m William Harvey (discovered blood circulation Insect vector/vector borne Plague Chikungunya, Malaria Filariasis
experimentally) disproved this 'good humor' hypothesis of Dengue
health by demonstrating normal body temperature in
persons with black bile using thermometer. Body fluids Syphilis AIDS Trichomoniasis –
View of biologists in later years: m Vector: Transmits disease from one organism to another e.g. female Aedes mosquito is the vector for dengue and
m Mind influences our immune system through neural and chikungunya, while, Anopheles spreads malaria.
endocrine systems, and that our immune system maintains
our health i.e., state of complete physical, mental and social 4 MEASURES FOR PREVENTING SPREAD OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES
and psychological well being.
m Health is not simply 'absence of disease' or 'physical fitness'. Parameters Measures
Personal Hygiene m Keeping the body clean
l Factors affecting health: m Consumption of clean drinking water, food, vegetables, fruits etc.
Mental state, genetic disorders, infections and life style Public Hygiene m Proper disposal of waste and excreta
(habits, rest and exercise)
Productivity, longevity m Periodic cleaning and disinfection of water reservoirs, pools, cesspools and tanks.
Increase
l Healthy Bring economic prosperity m Decontamination of drinking water
conditions Decrease Infant and maternal mortality
Avoid close contact m Contact with infected persons and belongings should be avoided.
Control vectors m Avoid stagnation of water in and around residential areas.
2 DISEASE
m It is state of the body when functioning of one or more and their breeding m Regular cleaning of house old coolers
organ/systems is adversely affected, characterized by places m Use of mosquito nets
various signs and symptoms.
m Introducing larvicidal fishes like Gambusia in ponds that feed on mosquito larvae
Types of diseases
m Spraying of insecticides in ditches, drainage areas and swamps
m Doors and windows should be provided with wire mesh.
Parameters Non-infectious Infectious
l Transmission from û ü
one person to another
m Balanced diet, yoga and regular exercise, personal hygiene, awareness about diseases and vaccination are very
l Example Cancer AIDS important to maintain good health.
m Pathogens: are disease causing organisms m Use of vaccines and immunisation programmes have enabled us to completely eradicate a deadly disease like
l Most parasites are pathogens living in (or on) the host smallpox. Large number of infectious diseases like polio, diphtheria, pneumonia and tetanus have been
multiply and interfere with normal vital activities resulting in controlled to a large extent by the use of vaccines.
morphological and functional damage. m Biotechnology is at the verge of making available newer and safer vaccines.
l Gut pathogens can survive harsh pH & digestive enzymes. m Discovery of antibiotics and various drugs have enabled us to effectively treat infections

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NCERT Maps Human Health and Disease 107

5
BACTERIAL DISEASES 6 PROTOZOAN DISEASES
Disease Pathogen Organ affected Common symptoms Disease Pathogen Area affected Symptoms
m Typhoid Salmonella Small intestine m Sustained high fever (39-40ºC) l Amoebiasis Entamoeba Large l Constipation
typhi and other organs m Stomach pain m Weakness /Amoebic histolytica Intestine l Abdominal pain
by migrating m Constipation m Headache dysentery l Cramps
Diagnostic test: through blood m Loss of appetite l Stool with excess mucous and blood clots
Widal test m In severe cases, intestinal l Malaria Plasmodium RBCs l Chills
perforation and death may occur. l P. vivax l High fever recurring every 3-4 days
m Pneumonia Streptococcus Alveoli of lungs m Problem in respiration due to fluid l P. malariae l If not treated, can prove to be fatal
pneumoniae, filled alveoli l P. falciparum
Haemophilus m Fever, chills, cough, headache
influenzae m In severe cases, lips m House flies act as mechanical carrier for amoebiasis
and finger nails turn gray m P. falciparum causes malignant malaria (Most serious form)
to bluish LIFE CYCLE OF PLASMODIUM Female Anopheles
When the infected mosquito bites another
m Acts as both host and vector
human, sporozoites (infective stage for
humans) are injected with the bite
Typhoid Mary (Mary Mallon), a cook by profession was a typhoid carrier who spread typhoid through
Mature infective stages
the food she prepared. (sporozoites) escape
from gut and migrate to
VIRAL DISEASES the mosquito salivary
Disease Pathogen Organ affected Symptoms glands

m Common Rhino virus Nose and m Nasal congestion and discharge

cold respiratory m Sore throat
passage m Hoarseness, cough
m Headache, tiredness Sporozoites
Parasite (sporozoites)
Salivary reach the liver through
glands
Common cold does not infect lungs and its symptoms usually lasts for 3-7 days blood

HELMINTHIC DISEASES Mosquito

Host
Disease Pathogen Organ/structure Symptoms Fertilization and
development take
affected place in the
m Ascariasis Ascaris Intestine m Internal bleeding, fever, mosquito's gut The parasite reproduces
asexually in liver cells,
(Roundworm) muscular pain, anemia, bursting the cell and
blockage of intestinal passage Human releasing into the blood
Host
Elephantiasis Wuchereria Lymphatic m Chronic inflammation of organs in
/Filariasis bancrofti/ vessels which they live for many years
Female mosquito
W. malayi resulting in gross deformities takes up Gametocytes
(Filarial worm) e.g., limbs, genital organs etc. gametocytes with
blood meal Female
FUNGAL DISEASE
Disease Pathogen Body parts affected Symptoms Male Parasites reproduce
asexually in red blood cells,
m Ringworm Microsporum, Skin, nails, m Dry, scaly lesions bursting the red blood cells
and causing cycles of fever
Trichophyton, scalp m Intense itching Sexual stage-gametocytes(infective stage for and other symptoms.
Epidermo- female Anopheles) develop in red blood cells Released parasites infect new
red blood cells
phyton
Fig: Stages in the life cycle of Plasmodium

m Heat and moisture makes the fungi thrive in skin folds such as in groin and between toes Rupturing of RBCs releases the toxic substance, haemozoin
m Acquired from soil or belongings of infected individuals such as towels, combs, clothes etc. responsible for symptoms of disease

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108 Human Health and Disease NCERT Maps

7 AIDS/ACQUIRED IMMUNO DEFICIENCY SYNDROME 8 CANCER

st
m 1 reported - 1981, Killed – Approximately 25 million people in last 25 years m A dreaded non-infectious disease; major cause of death all across the globe.
m It is deficiency of immune system, acquired during the lifetime of an individual Parameters Normal cells Cancerous cells/Neoplastic cells
m Syndrome means ‘group of symptoms’
Cell growth and differentiation Highly controlled and regulated Uncontrolled & non-regulated
m Non congenital, fatal infectious disease
m Causative agent – HIV / Human Immuno deficiency virus Contact inhibition Present, virtue of which contact Lost, so these cells keep on dividing
Enveloped virus enclosing RNA genome with other cells inhibits their and form mass of cells called
growth Tumor/Neoplasm
m Life cycle Mode of Transmission High Risk Individuals
Sexual contact Multiple sexual partners Types of Tumor
Entry of virus in body Placenta Mother to foetus Parameters Benign Malignant tumor/cancer
Blood transfusion Repeated blood transfusion, Location Confined to original place Grow rapidly and spread to other parts
Infected needles Drug addicts (intravenous)
Entry into body cells (Macrophages, helper T-cells) Damage Little damage Invade and damage other cells starving normal
cells by competing for vital nutrients.
Viral protein coat
with RNA core Plasma membrane Metastasis No Yes, Cells sloughed from such tumors reach
Animal cell
distant sites through blood and start new tumor
Viral RNA is introduced into cell called Metastasis (Most feared property).
Cytoplasm
Cause: Normal cell Cancerous cell
Viral DNA is produced by
Neoplastic transformation
Viral DNA incorporates
Proto/cellular oncogene (c-onc) Oncogene
reverse transcriptase causative agents called carcinogens
hence, named Retrovirus into host genome
l Ionising radiations-X-rays, g - rays l Non-ionising radiations-UV rays l Physical agents
l Chemical agents-in tobacco smoke l Biological agents-Oncogenic viruses (carry viral oncogenes)
New viral RNA is
produced by the m Diagnosis/Detection: Early detection allows the disease to be treated successfully in many cases.
infected cell Technique Basis Detect
Biopsy Histopathological studies Changes in tissue
New viruses Blood and bone marrow test Cell counts Leukemias
are produced
Radiography X-rays Internal organ cancers
Computed tomography (CT) X-rays Internal organ cancers (3D image)
Nucleus DNA
Magnetic resonance Strong magnetic fields and Accurately detect pathological
New viruses can infect other cells Imaging (MRI) non-ionising radiations and physiological changes in
Fig: Replication of retrovirus living tissue
Molecular techniques Identification of genes responsible
Sequence of events: for susceptibility to certain cancers
l Infected cells, (Macrophages) can survive while viruses are being replicated Antibodies based Against cancer specific antigens Certain cancers
and released hence called HIV factory
l HIV enters into macrophages and T-helper cells (TH) simultaneously m Tumor cells have ability to avoid detection and destruction by immune system.
l There is progressive decrease in number of helper T-cells. m Approaches for treatment:
l Initial symptoms: Bouts of fever, diarrhoea, weight loss l Surgery l Immunotherapy: a-Interferons (Biological
l Later the immuno-deficient patient is prone to infections especially l Radiotherapy: Tumor cells irradiated lethally response modifiers) activate immune
Mycobacterium, viruses, fungi, Toxoplasma etc. l Chemotherapy: Side effects like hair loss, anemia system and helps in destroying the tumor.

Prevention
There is always a time-lag between infection and appearance of AIDS m Different agencies like NGOs, NACO, WHO m Making blood banks safe from HIV
symptoms. This may vary from a few months to many years (usually 5-10 years) started number of programmes to m Use of only disposable needles and syringes in
Diagnostic Test Treatment educate/make people aware of AIDS (Don't public and private hospitals and clinics
m ELISA (Enzyme Linked m Anti-retroviral drugs, can only prolong die of ignorance) and some of the measures m Free distribution of condoms, advocating safe sex
Immuno Sorbent Assay) life but cannot prevent death preventing spreading of HIV infection. m Controlling drug abuse

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NCERT Maps Human Health and Disease 109

1. Who among the following is responsible for 5. Select the correct match w.r.t disease listed 9. A patient complaining of ache in the
disproving the ‘good humor’ hypothesis of in column I with corresponding causative abdomen visited the doctor. The doctor
health? [NCERT Pg. 145] agent in column II [NCERT Pg.147] following observed signs
(1) Hippocrates (2) Charles Darwin Column-I Column-II I. Internal bleeding
(3) William Harvey (4) Stanley Miller (1) Typhoid E.coli II. Fever
2. Health is badly affected by all except (2) Malaria Male Anopheles III. Muscular pain
[NCERT Pg. 145] (3) Common cold Rhinovirus IV. Anemia
(1) Genetic disorders (4) Filariasis Male Culex V. Blockage of intestinal passage
(2) Infections 6. Choose the odd one w.r.t bacterial diseases The patient is most likely suffering from
(3) Quality and quantity of food and water [NCERT Pg. 147] [NCERT Pg.149]
we take
(1) Dysentery (1) Filariasis
(4) Maintaining life style with exercise and
sufficient rest (2) Plague (2) Amoebic dysentery
3. Read the given statements (3) Typhoid (3) Ringworm
Statement-I : Health was considered as a (4) Malignant malaria (4) Ascariasis
state of body and mind where there was a 7. Infective stage of Plasmodium for humans 10. Mosquitoes are not involved in the spread of
balance of certain ‘humors’. resides in which region in the vector? disease caused by [NCERT Pg.150]
Statement-II : Both neural system and [NCERT Pg.147] (1) Entamoeba histolytica
endocrine system help in maintaining our (1) Midgut (2) Chikungunya virus
health by influencing immune system
(2) Salivary glands (3) Wuchereria malayi
Select the correct option.
(3) Liver (hepatocytes) (4) Dengue virus
[NCERT Pg. 145]
(4) Erythrocytes 11. Widal test is used to confirm that a person
(1) Only statement I is correct
8. In the box given below, how many diseases has typhoid fever. This disease shares its
(2) Only statement II is correct
are caused by protozoans? mode of transmission with
(3) Both statements are correct
Malaria, Pneumonia, Common cold, Amoebic [NCERT Pg.147]
(4) Neither statement I nor II is correct.
dysentery, Ascariasis, Elephantiasis
(1) Ascariasis
4. Among following, one of the most dreaded
non-infectious disease is [NCERT Pg. 146] [NCERT Pg. 148] (2) Filariasis
(1) Common cold (2) AIDS (1) Zero (2) One (3) Chikungunya
(3) Cancer (4) Malaria (3) Two (4) Three (4) Pneumonia
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 110 Human Health and Disease NCERT Maps
12. Select the mismatch w.r.t mode of 15. Choose the parasite of large intestine of (3) When people are healthy, they are more
transmission [NCERT Pg.149] humans whose mechanical carrier are efficient at work
houseflies [NCERT Pg.148] (4) Health can be defined as a state of
(1) Dengue and Aedes mosquito
chikungunya (1) E. histolytica complete physical, mental and social
well being
(2) E. coli
(2) Microsporum and Acquired from bite
18. Cases of people suffering from acquired
Epidermophyton of Culex mosquito (3) W. bancrofti
immunodeficiency syndrome were first
(4) P. falciparum reported in [NCERT Pg.154]
(3) Common cold Droplet infection
and diphtheria 16. Choose the incorrect statement (1) 1983

(4) Ascariasis and Faeco-oral route [NCERT Pg. 150] (2) 1981
amoebiasis (1) Spread of chikungunya cannot be (3) 1951
controlled by introduction of Gambusia (4) 1971
13. Gametocytes are formed in which of the
in local water bodies
following during the life cycle of 19. Drastic decline in number of which cells is a
Plasmodium? [NCERT Pg.148] (2) Lymphatic vessels are blocked by major cause of AIDS? [NCERT Pg.156]
infection of Wuchereria
(1) Erythrocytes of human blood (1) Cytotoxic T cells
(2) Salivary glands of mosquito (3) Vaccines have enabled us to control the
(2) Helper T cells
spread of polio, diphtheria and
(3) Hepatocytes of humans (3) Thrombocytes
pneumonia to a large extent.
(4) Haemocytes of Anopheles (4) B cells
(4) Gametes formed in the life cycle of
14. Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various Plasmodium fuse in mosquitoes gut 20. Method/technique utilizing X-rays to
parts of body such as skin, nails and scalp generate three dimensional image of the
indicate infection by all except 17. Select the incorrect statement among
internal organs of an object is
following. [NCERT Pg.146]
NCERT Pg.149] [NCERT Pg.157]
(1) Healthy conditions decrease longevity of
(1) Microsporum (1) MRI
people and reduce maternal and infant
(2) Trichophyton (2) ELISA
mortality
(3) Roundworms (3) Computed tomography
(2) Health does not simply imply ‘absence
(4) Epidermophyton of disease’ (4) Biopsy

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NCERT Maps Human Health and Disease 111

1. Normal cells show a property of ______ by 7. An organisation that helps to spread 15. Maintaining public hygiene is essential to
virtue of which contact with other cells awareness about AIDS and spreads the prevent spread of diseases transmitted
message ‘don’t die of ignorance’ is______. through _____ such as typhoid, amoebiasis
inhibits their uncontrolled growth.
[NCERT Pg.156] and ascariasis. [NCERT Pg. 149]
[NCERT Pg.157]
8. A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS 16. Chronic inflammation of the lymphatic
2. ______ is the property by which cells is ______. [NCERT Pg.156] vessels of the lower limbs and also genital
sloughed from primary tumors reach distant
9. Immunodeficient person can suffer from organs is seen in disease ______.
sites. [NCERT Pg.157] infections of Mycobacterium, viruses, fungi
[NCERT Pg. 149]
3. Chemical carcinogens present in tobacco and even protozoans like ______.
smoke have been identified as a major [NCERT Pg.156] 17. In a person infected by sporozoites of
cause of ______ cancer. [NCERT Pg.157] Plasmodium, the rupture of RBCs is
10. Deficiency of immune system, acquired
associated with release of a toxic substance
4. ______ genes identified in normal cells during the lifetime of an individual indicates
that AIDS is not a ______ disease. ______ responsible for chills and recurring
which when activated under certain fever. [NCERT Pg. 147]
conditions could lead to oncogenic [NCERT Pg.154]
18. Most parasites can be considered ______
transformation of cells. [NCERT Pg.157] 11. HIV/AIDS is not spread by mere touch or
physical contact, it spreads only through as they cause harm to the host by living in
5. In ______, a piece of suspected tissue cut or on them. [NCERT Pg. 146]
______. [NCERT Pg. 155]
into thin sections is stained and examined
12. HIV is a retrovirus as it transcribes through 19. As a result of infection with H.influenzae, the
by under microscope by a pathologist.
process of ______. [NCERT Pg.156] alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe
[NCERT Pg.157] problems in respiration if a person is
13. High risk of HIV infection is observed in case
6. In cancer, the patients are given substances of drug addicts who take drugs ______. suffering from ______. [NCERT Pg. 147]
called biological response modifiers such as [NCERT Pg.155] 20. The use of vaccines and immunization
______ which activates their immune programmes have enabled us to completely
14. HIV is a retrovirus whose ______ genome is
system and helps in destroying the tumor. protected by envelop of proteins. eradicate a deadly disease like ______.
[NCERT Pg.158] [NCERT Pg. 154] [NCERT Pg. 150]

  

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 Human Health and Disease 5B
Chapter

1 IMMUNITY 2 INNATE IMMUNITY

m The ability of the host to fight the disease causing organisms, m This immunity is accomplished by providing different types of barriers to the entry of the foreign agents.
conferred by the immune system is called Immunity
Types of Barrier Structures involved/Barrier Basic function
Types
Physical m Skin m Prevent entry of microbes
Parameters Innate Acquired m Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the m Trap microbes entering our body
respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital tracts
Observed from Time of birth After birth
Physiological m Saliva in the mouth m Acid in stomach m Prevent microbial growth
Exposure to infection Not required Required
m Tears from eyes
Defence Non specific Specific
Cellular m Neutrophils/PMNL m Monocytes m Macrophages m Phagocytose microbes
Memory record û ü
m Natural killer cells (type of lymphocytes) m Destroy microbes
Cytokine m Interferons m Produced by virus infected cells that protect
Memory based immunity evolved in higher vertebrates non-infected cells from further infection

3 ACQUIRED IMMUNITY IMMUNE RESPONSE

m The human immune system consists of lymphoid organs, tissues, cells and soluble molecules like antibodies.
This response is carried out by two special types of lymphocytes present in our blood i.e., B and T-lymphocytes. m Type Primary Secondary/Anamnestic
m Exposure to First time Subsequent times
m Origin and/or maturation of
Primary lymphoid Thymus Bone marrow lymphocytes pathogens
organs m lymphocytes become m Intensity Low High
Matured lymphocytes antigen sensitive Based on
migrate m Provide micro-environments
T-cells B-cells for development and memory of first encounter
Lymph
nodes maturation of lymphocytes These responses are carried out by B and T lymphocytes.
Secondary lymphoid Spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils,
organs appendix, MALT, Peyer's patches m Provide sites for interaction
of lymphocytes with antigen Antigen binding site Antigen binding site m Each antibody has 4
N
which proliferate to become s
s
s peptide chains (H2L2)
s

Help effector cells. s s l2 long heavy chains

s
T-cells mediated B-cells produce
s
s s s
s

Thymus response antibodies/Army of s

s
s s
l2 short light chains
s s
s s
s-s
proteins in blood Light chain s-s m Called immunoglobulins (Ig)
s s
s s m Types – IgA, IgM, IgE, IgG
Heavy chain
s s
Lymphatic s s
vessels m Cell-mediated immune m Humoral immune response/Antibody C C
response/CMI mediated immune response
Fig: Structure of an antibody molecule

m T-lymphocytes are responsible for graft rejection. Tissue and blood group matching are essential before undertaking any graft/transplant and even after this patient has to take
immunosuppressants throughout life.
m If the pathogens succeed in gaining entry to our body, specific antibodies and T-cells serve to kill these pathogens.

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NCERT Maps Human Health and Disease 113

4 LYMPHOID STRUCTURES/ORGANS 5 VACCINATION AND IMMUNISATION

Structure Typical Types of immunity
Bone marrow m Main lymphoid organ where all blood cells are produced
including lymphocytes.
Thymus m Lobed organ located near the heart and beneath the Active Passive
breastbone. Quite large at the time of birth, keeps Antibodies Produced within the host body Ready-made/preformed antibodies
reducing in size with age and by the time puberty is are directly given
attained it is reduced to a very small size.
Time taken for full/ Longer Shorter
Spleen m Large bean shaped organ, mainly contains lymphocytes
effective response
and phagocytes
l Acts as a filter of the blood by trapping blood borne
micro-organisms
Memory cells ü û
l Large reservoir of erythrocytes. Examples m Natural Antibody production
infection in host m Mother Placenta Foetus
Lymph nodes m Small solid structures located at different points along the
Vaccination Colostrum
lymphatic system m Serve to trap the microbes/antigens m m Mother Infant
which happen to get into the lymph and tissue fluid. Deliberate injection of living/ (IgA)
Antigens trapped in the lymph nodes are responsible for dead microbes/proteins
the activation of lymphocytes present there and cause
Immunisation
the immune response.
(Principle : Property of 'Memory' of immun system)
MALT m Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue is located within the
lining of major tracts like respiratory, digestive and
urinogenital tracts
m Constitutes about 50% of lymphoid tissue in human body. Active Passive
Preparation of antigenic proteins of Direct preformed antibodies/antitoxin is
pathogen/inactivated /weakened pathogen injected such as antitoxin against snake
6 ALLERGIES introduced into body bites
Exaggerated response of immune system to certain antigens present in the
environment.
Allergens – Substances to which exaggerated immune response is m The antibodies produced in the host body against antigens would neutralize the pathogenic agents
produced e.g. pollens, mites in dust, animal dander, etc. during actual infection.
Antibodies – IgE type m The vaccines also generate memory B-cells and memory T-cells that recognise the pathogen
Symptoms – Sneezing, watery eyes, running nose, difficulty in breathing quickly on subsequent exposure and overwhelm the invaders with a massive production of antibodies.
Chemical – Histamine and serotonin from mast cells m Recombinant DNA technology has allowed the large scale production of antigenic polypeptides of
released pathogen in bacteria/yeast, hence greater availability for immunisation.
Diagnosis – Patient is exposed to or injected with very small doses of e.g., hepatitis B vaccine produced from yeast.
possible allergens, and reactions studied.
Treatment – Anti-histamine antihistamine, adrenaline and steroids
7 AUTOIMMUNITY
quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy
m Memory based acquired immunity evolved in higher vertebrates can distinguish foreign molecules as well
as foreign organisms (pathogens) from self-cells.
Effects of modern-day life style
l Protected environment provided early in life has resulted in If lost this ability
lowering of immunity and person is more sensitive to allergens Results – Self destruction/body attack self cells
l More and more children in metro cities of India suffer from allergies Reason – Genetic/unknown
and asthma due to more sensitivity to the environment Example – Rheumatoid arthritis

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114 Human Health and Disease NCERT Maps

8 DRUG ABUSE 9 DRUGS AND SPORTSPERSON

m Chemical when taken for a purpose other than medicinal use or in amounts/ frequency impairs one's physical, physiological or Why to use?
psychological functions and constitutes drug abuse.
m Increase muscle strength & bulk
m Source - Majorly from flowering plants and some from fungi.
m Promote aggressiveness
m Commonly abused drugs are:
m Enhance athletic performance
Drug Receptors Source Intake Examples Action and anything specific
Commonly abused drugs
Opioids CNS, GIT Latex of poppy plant, Snorting, injection m Morphine m Effective sedative and pain killer
Papaver somniferum m Useful in patients undergone m Narcotic analgesics
HO surgery
m Diuretics
m Heroin/Smack m Depressant and slows down
(Diacetylmorphine) body functions m Anabolic steroids
O
m Odourless, white, bitter m Certain hormones
H N crystalline compound Common side effects
CH3
HO
m Increased aggressiveness
Opium poppy Chemical structure of
Morphine m Mood swings
Cannabinoids Principally Inflorescence, flower Inhalation, oral m Charas m Effects on cardiovascular m Depression
in brain tops, leaves and resin ingestion m Hashish system of the body
of cannabis plant, m Ganja m These days cannabinoids are m Stunted growth because of premature closure
Cannabis sativa m Marijuana formating also being abused of growth centres of long bones
by some sportspersons Severe facial and body acne
OH m

Typical side effects

Male
O m Breast enlargement
H
m Decreased sperm production
Leaves of Cannabis sativa Skeletal structure of cannabinoid molecule m Reduction in size of testicles
m Acne, premature baldness, enlargement of
Stimulants CNS Coca plant Snorting m Cocaine/coka m Interferes with transport of
prostate gland
Erythroxylum coca alkaloid neurotransmitter dopamine
(Native of South m Commonly called m Potent stimulating action on m Potential for liver and kidney dysfunction
America) (coke/crack) CNS, producing sense of
Female
euphoria and increased energy
m Excessive dosage causes m Masculinisation (features like males)
hallucinations m Abnormal menstrual cycles
Hallucinogens Atropa belladona, m Have been used for hundreds of m Enlargement of clitoris
Datura years in folk-medicine, religious
ceremonies and rituals all over m Excessive hair growth on face & body
the globe. m Deepening of voice
Other drugs Synthetic Barbiturates, m Help patients cope with mental
Benzodiazepines, illness like depression
Amphetamines insomnia. m These side effects may be permanent
Flowering branch
with prolonged use.
of Datura

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NCERT Maps Human Health and Disease 115

10 TABACCO/SMOKING-PAVES THE WAY TO HARD DRUGS 12 ADDICTION AND DEPENDENCE

m Intake m Smoked Addiction
m Chewed
m Because of perceived benefits, drugs are frequently used repeatedly that leads to psychological
m Snuff attachment to certain effects like euphoria and temporary feeling of well being
m Chemical substance m Nicotine, an alkaloid Dependence
m Action of nicotine m Stimulates adrenal gland to release adrenaline
It is the tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic and unpleasant "withdrawal syndrome" if regular
and non-adrenaline into blood circulation. dose of drugs/alcohol is abruptly discontinues.
Effects
Addiction drive people to take drug even when its use become self-destructive
m Respiratory system m Increases carbon monoxide (CO) in blood and
reduces concentration of haembound oxygen, m With repeated use of drug, tolerance level of receptors increases
causes oxygen deficiency in the body m Receptors respond only to higher doses of drugs leading to greater intake.
m Circulatory system m Increase heart rate and blood pressure. Effects of drug/alcohol abuse
m Common diseases m Bronchitis
m Reckless behaviour. m Vandalism m Violence m Depression m Fatigue m Drop in academic performance
m Emphysema
m Warning signs:
m Coronary heart disease

m Gastric ulcer l Unexplained absence from school/college l Poor personal hygiene, withdrawal, isolation
m Risk of cancers m Oral cavity l Aggressive and rebellious behaviour l Loss of interest in hobbies
m Throat l Change in sleeping and eating habits l Fluctuations in weight and appetite
m Lungs l Deteriorating relationships with family and friends
m Urinary bladder
m High doses lead to coma and death due to respiratory failure, heart failure or cerebral hemorrhage
m Tobacco has been used by humans for more than 400 years m Chronic use of drugs/alcohol damage nervous system and liver (cirrhosis)
m Packets of cigarettes, warns against smoking and says how it is
injurious to health. m Use of drugs during pregnancy adversely affect foetus.
Some far-reaching implications
11 ADOLESCENCE AND DRUG/ALCOHOL ABUSE m Abuser may turn to stealing
m Adolescence means both "a period" and "a process" during which a child m Addict becomes the cause of mental and financial distress to entire family and friends
mature in terms of his/her attitudes and beliefs for effective participation in Withdrawl syndrome
society.
If drug is abruptly discontinued, symptoms include:
m Adolescence is a bridge linking childhood and adulthood.
m It’s a period between 12-18 years of age, a vulnerable phase of mental m Anxiety m Nausea m Shakiness m Sweating
and psychological development of an individual. m In severe cases, can be life threatening, person needs a medical supervision.
m It is accompanied by several biological and behavioural changes. Prevention and control
m Curiosity, need for adventure and excitement, and experimentation, "Prevention is better than cure"
motivate youngsters towards drug and alcohol use.
m Avoid undue peer pressure on child related to sudies, sports or other activities
m First use may be out of curiosity but later used to escape from stress,
pressures to excel in academics, perception that it is cool. m Education and counselling: Channelise energy of child into healthy pursuits like sports, yoga, reading,
m Television, movies, newspapers, internet, promote this perception. music, etc.
m Unstable or unsupportive family structures and peer pressure also promote m Sort out problems by seeking help from parents and peers.
drug and alcohol abuse. m Looking for danger signs :Alert parents, teachers and close friends need to look for and identify the
danger signs of substance (drug/alcohol) abuse and appropriate measures would then be required to
diagnose the malady and underlying cause.
m Proper remedial steps or treatment should be taken by seeking professional and medical help in the form
Use of durgs even once can be "fore-runner to addiction" and pull the of highly qualified psychologists, psychiatrists and de-addiction and rehabilitation programmes. This will
user into a vicious circle leading to their regular use/abuse. totally relieve the individual from these evils.

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 116 Human Health and Disease NCERT Maps

1. Which of the following organ act as filter of 4. Antitoxin is [NCERT Pg. 152] 8. Which of the following is the common
blood by trapping blood borne micro- (1) Detoxified toxin feature shared by benzodiazepines and
organisms? [NCERT Pg. 154] barbiturates? [NCERT Pg. 159]
(2) Strong toxin
(1) Bone marrow (1) Stimulants
(3) Preformed antibodies
(2) Medicine for insomnia
(2) Liver (4) Neutralised toxin
(3) Snorted
(3) Spleen 5. Recombinant DNA technology has allowed
(4) Pain relievers
the production of hepatitis-B vaccine. Which
(4) Thymus host is used for this preparation? 9. Match drugs in column I with their source in
column II and choose the correct answer
2. Read the following statements and choose [NCERT Pg. 152]
the correct option [NCERT Pg. 153] [NCERT Pg. 159]
(1) E.coli
Statement-A : Allergy is due to the release (2) Yeast Column-I Column-II
of chemicals like histamine and serotonin (3) Drosophila I. Cocaine a. Cannabis sativa
from the mast cells. (4) Mycoplasma II. Charas b. Papaver
somniferum
Statement-B : The use of drugs like 6. In case of snake bite, the patient is given an
antihistamine, adrenaline and steroids, antivenom injection. This is a case of III. Morphine c. Erythroxylum
quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy. [NCERT Pg. 152] I II III
(1) Active immunisation (1) c a b
(1) Both statement A and B are incorrect
(2) Passive immunisation (2) c b a
(2) Both statement A and B are correct
(3) Innate immunity (3) b a c
(3) Only statement A is correct (4) Natural immunisation (4) a b c
(4) Only statement B is correct 7. Secondary immune response is not 10. Which of the following drug is very effective
[NCERT Pg. 151] sedative and painkiller and is very useful in
3. Cellular barriers of innate immunity include
patients who have undergone surgery?
all, except [NCERT Pg. 151] (1) Rapid in action
[NCERT Pg. 159]
(1) Neutrophils (2) Long lasting
(1) Hashish
(3) Seems to occur at subsequent exposure
(2) Monocytes
of host to the same antigen (2) Morphine
(3) NK cells (3) Amphetamine
(4) Known for acquiring long time to
(4) Interferons establish immunity (4) Barbiturate

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NCERT Maps Human Health and Disease 117

11. Which of the given functions is not directly 15. Primary exposure to antigenic proteins of (1) Enlargement of breast
performed by T-lymphocytes? the pathogen may result in the production of (2) Facial acne
[NCERT Pg. 151] all except [NCERT Pg. 151]
(3) Premature baldness
(1) Antibody formation (1) Antibodies
(4) Overproduction of sperms
(2) Graft rejection (2) B-memory cells
19. How many of the drugs in a box belong to
(3) Kill virus-infected cells (3) T-memory cells
the structure given below? [NCERT 158]
(4) Keeping memory record of first (4) Acid in stomach
encounter
16. Select the ‘X’ to complete the analogy
12. Which of the following is not true for
acquired immunity? [NCERT Pg. 151]  Immature lymphocytes: Differentiate
into antigen specific lymphocytes in
(1) Specific in nature
primary lymphoid organs.
(2) Found in vertebrates
 Mature lymphocytes: Undergo proliferation
(3) Characterised by memory
and differentiation in ‘X’
(4) Involve all nucleated leukocytes Hashish, Marijuana,
[NCERT Pg. 154] Morphine, Charas
13. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
interferon [NCERT Pg. 151] (1) Primary lymphoid organ
(1) One
(1) They are proteins (2) Secondary lymphoid organ
(2) Two
(2) They are classified as cytokines (3) Bone marrow
(3) Three
(3) Secreted by non-virus infected cells to (4) Thymus
protect themselves (4) Four
17. Highest density of opioid receptors in our
(4) Secreted by virus infected cells to body exist in [NCERT Pg. 158] 20. Select the incorrect statement
protect the non-infected cells from viral [NCERT Pg. 154]
infection (1) CNS and GIT
(2) GIT and cardio vascular system (1) MALT constitute ~ 50% of lymphoid
14. Physiological barrier that prevent microbial
growth exclude [NCERT Pg. 150] tissue in human body
(3) GIT only
(1) Acid in stomach (4) Cardio vascular and respiratory system (2) Spleen is a large reservoir of

(2) Saliva in mouth erythrocytes

18. Body builders usually abuse steroids to
(3) Mucus coating of the epithelium lining enhance their performance but it also results (3) Lymph nodes trap antibodies and are
the urinogenital tract in following adverse effects except responsible for activation of antigens
(4) Tears in eyes [NCERT Pg. 162] (4) Thymus keeps reducing in size with age

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 118 Human Health and Disease NCERT Maps

1. Lymph nodes and Peyer’s patches are 9. The principle of immunisation or vaccination 15. With repeated use of drugs, the tolerance
______ lymphoid organs. [NCERT Pg. 154 is based on the property of ______ of the level of the receptors present in our body
immune system. [NCERT Pg. 152] _______. [NCERT Pg. 161]
2. Interferons make _______ barrier.

[NCERT Pg. 151] 10. Feeding the newborn with yellowish fluid, 16. Smoking X carbon monoxide content in
colostrum secreted by mother during initial blood and Y concentration of
3. Antibody exist in colostrum is_____.
days of lactation is an example of ______
haembound oxygen. [NCERT Pg. 160]
[NCERT Pg. 152] immunity. [NCERT Pg. 152]
17. Nicotine stimulates _______ gland to
4. Total number of peptide chains involved in 11. _______ is a bridge linking childhood and
antibody are _______. [NCERT Pg. 151] release _______ into blood circulation.
adulthood. [NCERT Pg. 160]
5. T-lymphocytes mediate ________ type of [NCERT Pg. 160]
12. The most vulnerable phase of mental and
immunity. [NCERT Pg. 151] 18. Atropa and Datura plants show ________
psychological development of an individual
6. In response to pathogens, B lymphocytes is ______. [NCERT Pg. 160] properties. [NCERT Pg. 159]
produce army of proteins called ______. 19. Antigen binding sites of antibody are present
13. Before undertaking any graft/transplant,
[NCERT Pg. 151] ______ and _______ matching are on ______ terminal of peptide chains.

7. Subsequent encounter with the same essential and even after this patient has to [NCERT Pg. 151]
pathogen elicits a highly intensified ______ take ______ drugs throughout life
20. The substances to which there is
immune response. [NCERT Pg. 151] [NCERT Pg. 152] exaggerated response of the immune
8. Rheumatoid arthritis is _______ disease. 14. _______ is chemically a diacetylated system are called _______.

[NCERT Pg. 153] morphine. [NCERT Pg. 158] [NCERT Pg. 153]

  

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 Strategies for Enhancement in 6
Food Production Chapter
1 ANIMAL HUSBANDRY 3 MANAGEMENT OF FARM AND FARM ANIMALS
Definition: m A professional approach to boost our food production. m Practices involved
m Agricultural practice of breeding and raising livestock Some of the management procedures employed in animal farm Stringent cleanliness of
l Effective housing
useful to humans. Dairy farm l Adequate water
m Some of the products and the animals involved are :
system are Management : Cattle Handlers
Poultry farm l Maintain disease free
Useful products Source conditions Regular inspection by
1. Dairy farm management/Dairying: l Cattle diet (fodder)
Milk Cows, buffaloes, Goats Management of animals for milk and its veterinary doctor
Jersey
Eggs Poultry birds: Chicken, products for human consumption e.g., Quality ­ (oil cake rich)
Ducks, Turkey, Geese cows, buffaloes Aimed at Quantity balanced
Meat Cattle, Sheep, Pigs Increasing yield Increased mechanisation in dairy farming particularly
Wool Sheep Depends on milking, storage and transport of milk, reduces chances
Silk Silk worms Improving quality
Quality of breed of direct contact of the produce with the handler
of milk
Honey Bees
m More than 70% population of livestock is in India and High yielding potential Resistance to 4 BEE-KEEPING (Apiculture)
under given climatic diseases to
China but contribution to world’s farm produce is 25% led m It is the maintenance of hives of honeybees for the production of
that result in problem ¯ conditions
honey
m Productivity per unit is low 2. Poultry farm management m Age old, high income yield cottage industry and is not labour intensive
Insufficient food supply due to ever increasing Eggs m Most common bee in India : Apis indica
m m Involves use of birds for food
population size. Meat Products obtained
l Birds : Fowl, chicken, Advantages
Solution ¯ ducks, turkey, geese a. Increases product yield from honey bee
Improvement in conventional practices of animal Leghorn
m m Practices involved: b. Enhances crop yield
breeding by applying biological principles. l Selection of disease free and suitable breeds Bees wax Honey
m Application of newer technologies to Animal Husbandry Proper and safe farm conditions Salient points for
l l Preparation of l Food: High nutritive
Poultry farming successful bee keeping
Extension of l Proper feed and water cosmetics and value
Animal husbandry (i) Knowledge of the nature polishes l Used in Indigenous
Fisheries l Maintaining proper health care and hygiene
and habits of bees medicine
(ii) Selection of suitable
2 FISHERIES Rearing, Fish, Disease Bird flu location for keeping the Bees are effective pollinators
to Catching, of Molluscs (shell-fish), Cause H5N1 virus beehives
m Industry devoted Processing Crustaceans Symptoms Areas for practice
Respiratory difficulty, fever, (iii) Catching and hiving of
& Selling (prawns, crabs), swarms (group of bees)
Aquatic animals malaise
(iv) Management of beehives Pastures Fruit
m Aquaculture: m Pisciculture: People at risk l Poultry farmers exposed to during different seasons Crop orchards
for shrubs
Enhancement in aquatic yield Increase in total fish yield infected birds. (v) Handling and collection of fields
including plants and animals l People who eats under honey and beeswax Sunflower
Products from fishery cooked eggs/poultry Brassica
Apple
Food : lobster, prawn, fish, edible oyster Pear

To meet the increasing demand on fisheries, different techniques Keeping beehives in crop fields during flowering
Fresh water (FW) Marine (M)
have been employed that led to Blue revolution period increases pollination efficiency and yield
Catla, Rohu, Common carp Hilsa, Sardines, Mackerel, Pomfrets

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120 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production NCERT Maps

5 ANIMAL BREEDING 7 SELECTIVE BREEDING OR HYBRIDISATION

m Breed : A group of animals related by descent and similar in most Types of selective breeding
1. Outcrossing
characters like general appearance, features, size, configuration etc.
Mating of animals within the same
m Aims of animal breeding: Inbreeding Outbreeding breed but having no common
m Mating of more closely m Mating between male ancestors upto 4-6 generations
l Increase the product yield (Quantity ­)
related individuals and female of same ¯ Advantage
l Improving desirable qualities in produce and cattle
within the same breed breed (no recent m A single out cross helps
High yielding variety for 4-6 generations common ancestor) or increase productivity of
Disease resistant m Inbreeding increases different breeds or animals below average
High reproductive rate homozygosity and is different species ­ growth rate in beef cattle
Longer productivity span useful to evolve ­ milk production
purelines 2. Cross breeding
6 CONTROLLED BREEDING EXPERIMENTS 3. Interspecific hybridisation
m Mating between superior male of
Advantage m Male and female of two
one breed and superior female of
m Increases the another breed different related species
Artificial Insemination Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer productivity of m This method allows combination
(AI) (MOET) are mated
population as superior of superior qualities of two
Identify elite bull Identify superior cow ¯ Advantage
genes are different breeds on a commercial
¯
¯ Inject with FSH-like hormone accumulated and scale. m Progeny may combine
Extract semen ¯ harmful recessive ¯ Advantage desirable features of both the
Either used immediately or Super ovulation (6-8 ova/cycle) genes are eliminated m Stable new breeds superior to parents and may be of
Cryopreservation (cold storage) ¯
AI or natural insemination existing breeds can be
Disadvantages considerable economic value
¯ ¯ developed
Inject into reproductive tract of Non surgical extraction of embryo m Inbreeding m Example: A new breed of sheep m Example:
superior cow ¯ depression (ID) due
/Male /Female /Male /Female
Gestation in surrogate cow to continued close
Advantages Merino ram × Bikaneri ewe Donkey × Horse (Mare)
inbreeding
Fertility
m Greater chances of fertilisation m Increase herd size and
reduces Hisardale Mule (Sterile)
Productivity
m Economically relevant as all quality in less time m Location : Punjab
sperms can be used since semen m Genetic mother available for
from 1 bull can fertilise more than another round of super Inbreeding depression can be overcome by out
1 cow, if needed ovulation crossing i.e., method to restore fertility and yield
m Helps to overcome several
problems of normal mating
Disadvantages
m MOET is demonstrated on mammals such as cattle, mares, sheep, rabbits
m Superior cow : High yield of milk/lactation Have been bred successfully to
m The sucess rate of crossing m Not applicable to fishes and
m Superior bull : Lean meat with less lipid increase herd size in a shot time
mature m and is fairly low birds

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NCERT Maps Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 121

1. Percentage of world livestock population in 6. Select the improved breed of chicken from 12. Hormone used to induce follicular
India and China is estimated to be options below. [NCERT Pg. 167] maturation during MOET is
[NCERT Pg. 165] (1) Jersey (2) Leghorn [NCERT Pg. 168]
(1) 7% (2) 25% (3) Geese (4) Turkey (1) LH - like (2) FSH like
(3) 70% (4) 17% 7. Category of domesticated birds used for (3) Estrogen like (4) GH like
food or for their eggs generally exclude 13. Select the incorrect match
2. Embryo transfer technology to enhance food
[NCERT Pg. 166]
production is applicable to all except [NCERT Pg. 165]
(1) Turkey (2) Geese
[NCERT Pg. 169] (1) Apis indica – Beeswax
(3) Duck (4) Peacock
(1) Sheep (2) Buffalo (2) Rearing shell fish – Pisciculture
8. The best method for overcoming reduced
(3) Rabbit (4) Katla (3) Bird flu virus – H5N1
productivity due to close inbreeding is
3. Choose the odd one w.r.t. habitat [NCERT Pg. 168] (4) Inbreeding – increase
[NCERT Pg. 169] (1) Inbreeding depression homozygosity
(2) Out-crossing 14. ‘Blue revolution’ is associated with increase
(1) Hilsa (2) Catla
in production of [NCERT Pg. 170]
(3) Rohu (4) Common carp (3) Cross-breeding
(1) Milk
4. Keeping beehives in crop fields during (4) Interspecific hybridisation
(2) Wheat
flowering period increases pollination 9. ‘Mule’ is a resultant of which category of out-
breeding? [NCERT Pg. 170] (3) Eggs
efficiency for many crops. This is not true for
(1) Cross-breeding (4) Aquatic products from animals
[NCERT Pg. 169]
(2) Interspecific hybridisation 15. Homozygous purelines of peas were
(1) Banana (2) Sunflower developed by Mendel. Technique involved in
(3) Out-crossing
(3) Brassica (4) Pear doing so is [NCERT Pg. 167]
(4) Inbreeding depression
5. Read the given statements (1) Out-breeding (2) Inbreeding
10. Among following, technique used to develop
I: Contribution to the world’s farm produce (3) Out-crossing (4) Cross-breeding
Hisardale is [NCERT Pg. 168]
from India and China is 25 percent despite 16. State or city where Hisardale was developed
(1) Interspecific hybridisation
very high livestock population is [NCERT Pg. 168]
(2) Inbreeding
II: Low productivity per unit explains (1) Punjab (2) Karnal
(3) Cross-breeding
statement I (3) Haryana (4) Lucknow
(4) Out-crossing
Choose the correct answer 17. Apiculture can help to increase all except
11. Which of the following are crossed to obtain
[NCERT Pg. 166] [NCERT Pg. 169]
‘Mule’? [NCERT Pg. 168]
(1) Only statement I is correct (1) Mare and donkey (1) Honey yield
(2) Both statement I and II are true (2) Stallion and donkey (2) Crop yield
(3) Only statement II is correct (3) Male sheep and female horse (3) Fertility of soil
(4) Both statement I and II are false (4) Female sheep and male donkey (4) Constituent used in indigenous medicine

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 122 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production NCERT Maps
18. Which of the following is an improved variety 19. MOET does not involve [NCERT Pg. 169] 20. Select the mis-match w.r.t. useful products
of sheep? [NCERT Pg. 168] [NCERT Pg. 169]
(1) Superovulation
(1) Jersey (1) Aquaculture – Rearing fish and prawns
(2) Artificial insemination
(2) Mule (2) Meat – Turkey
(3) Hisardale (3) Use of FSH-like hormone (3) Honey – A. indica
(4) Mackerel (4) Gestation in biological mother (4) Eggs – Pomfret

1. ______ is the agricultural practice of 7. Hisardale is a new breed developed by 14. ______ is the management of animals for
breeding and raising livestock. crossing Bikaneri ewes and Merino ______. milk and its products for human
[NCERT Pg. 168] consumption. [NCERT Pg. 166]
[NCERT Pg. 165]
8. ______ aims at increasing the yield of 15. Mechanisation of processes in dairy farming
2. Fisheries include rearing, catching, selling
animals and improving desirable qualities of has ______ chances of direct contact of the
of freshwater fishes such as ______ along produce with the handler. [NCERT Pg. 166]
the produce. [NCERT Pg. 167]
with crustaceans e.g., crabs.
16. Mating of more closely related individuals
9. Avian flu virus is commonly called ______
[NCERT Pg. 165] within the same breed for 4-6 generations is
virus. [NCERT Pg. 167]
3. Beekeeping also called ______ is the called ______. [NCERT Pg. 167]
10. The countries contributing to 70% of world’s 17. Continued inbreeding results in inbreeding
maintenance of hives of honey bees for
livestock population are ______ and _____. depression, reducing both productivity and
production of honey. [NCERT Pg. 169]
[NCERT Pg. 165] ________. [NCERT Pg. 167]
4. _________ is a controlled method of herd
11. Improved breed of cattle and chicken are 18. In ______, male and female animals of two
improvement in short time.
______ and leghorn. different related species are mated.
[NCERT Pg. 168] [NCERT Pg. 168]
[NCERT Pg. 167]
5. In MOET, production of 6-8 eggs per cycle 19. Practice of mating of animals within the
12. ______ is a group of animals related by
by a cow instead of one is known as ______. same breed but having no common
descent and similar in most characters like
ancestors on either side of their pedigree
[NCERT Pg. 168] general appearance, features etc.
upto 4-6 generations is ______.
6. During MOET, fertilized eggs at ______ [NCERT Pg. 167] [NCERT Pg. 168]
cells stage are non surgically recovered 13. A superior females in case of cattle, is a cow 20. Superior males of one breed are mated with
from the biological mother. or buffalo that produces more milk per superior females of another breed in method
[NCERT Pg. 169] ______. [NCERT Pg. 167] called _____. [NCERT Pg. 168]

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 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes 7
Chapter

1 INTRODUCTION 2 PRINCIPLES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY/CORE TECHNIQUES INVOLVED

IN MODERN BIOTECHNOLOGY
m Biotechnology deals with techniques of using live organisms or enzymes from
organisms to produce products and processes useful to humans.
Parameters Genetic engineering Bioprocess engineering
m Definition m Techniques to alter the chemistry of m Maintenance of sterile ambience in
genetic material to introduce these chemical engineering processes to
Parameters Traditional biotechnology Modern biotechnology into host organisms, and thus change enable growth of only the desired
m Organisms involved m Microbes m Genetically modified the phenotype of host organism microbe/eukaryotic cell in large
organisms quantities
m Production m Small scale m Large scale m Include m Creation of rDNA m Manufacture of biotechnological
m Examples/Technique m Curd, bread or wine m In vitro fertilisation m Gene cloning products like antibiotics, vaccines,
include making leading to a ‘test -tube’ m Gene transfer enzymes, etc.
baby
The ability to multiply copies of antibiotic resistanse gene in E.coli was called cloning of antibiotic
EFB (European Federation of Biotechnology) m Synthesising a g e n e resistance gene in E.coli.
m ‘The integration of natural science and and using it
organisms, cells, parts thereof, and molecular m D e v e l o p i n g a D N A
analogues for products and services’. vaccine 4 THREE BASIC STEPS IN GENETICALLY MODIFYING ORGANISMS
m It encompasses both traditional view and m Correcting a defective (1) Identification of DNA with desirable genes (2) Introduction of the identified DNA into the host
modern molecular biotechnology. gene (3) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny

3 ADVANTAGES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY OVER OTHER TECHNIQUES 5 KEY TOOLS OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

Methods Advantage Disadvantage (1) Enzymes (2) Vectors (3) Competent host cells Nucleases
I. Asexual reproduction Preserves genetic No variations Enzymes - Most commonly used enzymes in genetic engineering are DNA polymerase
information
Ligases
II. Sexual reproduction Provides opportunities for Some of which may be Nucleases - Catalyse the cleavage of nucleic acids.
Types
variations and formulation harmful to the organism as
of unique combinations of well as the population
genetic setup Exonucleases Endonucleases
Palindromic sequence
III. Traditional Used in plant and animal Very often lead to inclusion Remove nucleotides Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA reads same on the two
hybridisation breeding. and multiplication of from the ends of the DNA i.e. at recognition/palindromic sequence
strands (from 5¢ ® 3¢ and
undesirable genes along 3¢ ® 5¢ direction) when
with desirable genes. m In the year 1963, the two enzymes responsible for restricting the orientation of reading is
growth of bacteriophage in Escherichia coli were isolated kept same
IV. Genetic engineering Allows us to isolate and
—
introduce only one or a set
of desirable genes without
introducing undesirable Methylase Restriction endonuclease / Molecular scissors
genes into target organism. Add methyl groups to bacterial DNA Cut the DNA of bacteriophage

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124 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes NCERT Maps

6 ENZYMES
m Restriction endonuclease I II III IV m Ligase
Eco RI
More than 900 restriction enzymes have been isolated l When source DNA and vector DNA are cut by the same restriction enzyme the
Genus Species Strain Order of
from over 230 strains of bacteria (prokaryotic cell) each Escherichia coli RY13 isolation resultant DNA fragments have the same kind of ‘sticky-ends’. Sticky ends are named
of which recognise different recognition sequences.
so because they form hydrogen bonds with their complementary cut counterparts and
l Nomenclature/Naming of enzyme :
this stickiness facilitates the action of the enzyme DNA ligase.
l Functions by: Vector DNA Foreign DNA
Sticky end

· ‘Inspecting’ the length of DNA sequence

· Binds to the “specific recognition sequence”
Sticky end
m First restriction endonuclease - Hind II : Isolated and characterised five years
later, recognises sequence of 6 bp.
· Cuts the two strands of ds DNA at specific points in Ligase
their sugar-phosphate backbones a n d l e a v e s m First recombinant DNA was prepared by Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer, 1972 :
single stranded portions at the ends. l Antibiotic resistant gene Introduced
Recombinant plasmid Escherichia
· These overhanging stretches and called s t i c k y l Plasmid of Salmonella into
Recombinant DNA coli
typhimurium
ends. Steps in formation of rDNA

7 CLONING VECTORS

m Vectors are vehicles for delivering foreign DNA into recipient cells. m Transformation: Procedure through which piece of foreign DNA is introduced in a host
m Vectors used at present are engineered in such a way that they help easy linking of bacterium.
l Insertional inactivation: Insertion of GOI within antibiotic resistance gene/selectable marker
foreign DNA and selection of recombinants from non recombinants
results in inactivation/formation of the coded product.
Features of cloning vectors: R
l Hypothesis: Insertion of GOI at Bam HI site in tet .
(1) Origin of Replication (ori): l If transformation fails – Non transformants are obtained in antibiotic lacking agar medium but
m Sequence from where replication starts they don’t grow on antibiotic rich medium.
l If transformation successful – Transformants obtained are of two types:
m Responsible for controlling copy number of the linked DNA
m Those vectors are preferred which support high copy number m All transformants are not
recombinants but all Non Recombinants Recombinants
(2) Selectable Marker: Insertional
recombinants are EcoR I Cla I Hind III
inactivation
m Helps in selection of transformants transformants. Pvu I
Pst I BamH I
Normally, the genes encoding resistance to antibiotics such as ampicillin, Ligate
m m One antibiotic resistant gene helps amp
R
tet
R R R
Foreign amp tet
chloramphenicol, tetracycline or kanamycin, etc., are considered useful in selecting the transformants E.coli cloning pBR322 Sal I DNA at
selectable markers for E.coli whereas the other antibiotic vector pBR322
ori
Bam HI
rop site
m The normal E.coli cells do not carry resistance against any of these resistant gene helps in selection of
antibiotics recombinants
Pvu II
m rop ® codes for the proteins Gene of interest cloned û ü
(3) Cloning Sites/Restriction Sites
involved in the replication of the Resistance to ampicillin ü ü
m Single recognition site for a restriction enzyme within the vector is a plasmid Resistance to tetracycline ü û
preferable feature. [due to inactivation]
m Presence of more than one recognition sites within the vector will generate m Plasmids as vectors:
several fragments, which will complicate the gene cloning l Extra chromosomal, circular, double stranded DNA.

m The ligation of alien DNA/gene of interest (GOI) is carried out at a restriction site l Replicate independent of the control of chromosomal DNA (autonomously).
present in one of the antibiotic resistant genes. l They may have 1 or 2 copies per cell or even15 - 100 copies per cell.

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NCERT Maps Biotechnology: Principles and Processes 125

9 OTHER CLONING VECTORS 10 METHODS OF TRANSFORMATION I. Isolation of the Genetic Material (DNA)
m In majority of organisms, DNA is the genetic material
Selection of recombinants due to inactivation of antibiotic I. Micro - injection
m Since DNA is enclosed within the membranes, we
resistant gene as in pBR322 is a cumbersome procedure l Recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of
because it requires simultaneous plating of two plates have to break the cell open to release DNA along with
an animal cell.
having different antibiotics. other macromolecules Bacteria ® Lysozyme
II. Biolistic/Gene gun Fungi ® Chitinase
To overcome the disadvantage of pBR322, alternative Plant cell ® Cellulase
l Plant cells are bombarded with high velocity micro- m In order to get DNA in
selectable markers (lac Z) acting as reporter enzyme have particles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA. pure form (free from other macromolecules), it is
been developed which differentiate recombinants from non-
III. Heat shock method treated with different enzymes like RNase, protease
recombinants on the basis of their ability to produce colour in
IV. “Disarmed pathogen” vector etc.
the presence of chromogenic substrate.
m lac Z gene coding for b-galactosidase acts as selectable Chilled ethanol
11 COMPETENT HOST FOR TRANSFORMATION WITH Pure ® Centrifuge to precipitate DNA
marker in the plasmid DNA

Process
RECOMBINANT DNA
m Experiment: Insert foreign DNA at lac Z gene +
m DNA is hydrophilic, so it can not pass through cell membranes
transformation in E.coli Spooling
Chromogenic substrate m In order to force cell to take up alien DNA/rDNA, it must first be
made ‘competent’ by treating with ice cold calcium chloride.
m Entry of rDNA in host cell is due to transient pores created by II. Fragmentation by restriction endonucleases
+2 III. Separation and isolation of DNA fragments
Fails Succeeds heat shock (42°C) and not due to Ca ions.
m Gel electrophoresis
m Divalent cations increases the efficiency with which DNA
l Separation of negatively charged DNA molecules
Blue coloured colonies White coloured colonies enters the bacterium through pores in its cell wall.
under an electric field through a medium/matrix.
l Most commonly used matrix for DNA separation is
Non-recombinants Recombinants 12 PROCESS OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

m Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens Isolation of DNA Natural polymer, obtained from sea weeds
Agarose
l Agrobacterium tumefaciens, a pathogen of several ¯ Separate DNA fragments through seiving effect
dicot plants is able to deliver a piece of DNA known Fragmentation of DNA by restriction endonucleases Separation on the basis of size
Wells filled with (Smaller the DNA fragment farther it moves)
as ‘T-DNA’ to transform normal plant cells into a DNA fragments DNA
¯ Largest bands
tumor and direct the tumor cells to produce the Smallest
Isolation of desired DNA fragment (electrophoresis) – electrode/ + electrode/

4
chemicals required by the pathogen. cathode anode

3
¯

2
l Disarmed tumour inducing (Ti) plasmid is used

1
which is no more pathogenic to the plants but is still Amplification of gene of interest (PCR)
able to use the mechanism to deliver the genes of ¯ Stained Exposed
with to
our interest into varieties of plants. Gel Ethidium U.V rays

Appears
Ligation of the DNA fragment into a vector
m Bacteriophages Bromide
¯
l High copy number than plasmid Process
Transferring the alien DNA/recombinant DNA into the host Elution Removal of DNA Bright orange
m Retroviruses bands
¯ fragment from gel
l Retroviruses in animals have the ability to transform
normal cells into cancerous cells Culturing the host cells in a medium at large scale (Bioreactors)
l Disarmed retroviruses are used to deliver ¯ m Purified DNA fragments are generally amplified (PCR)
desirable genes into animal cells Extraction and purification of the desired product before constructing rDNA by joining with cloning vector.

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126 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes NCERT Maps

IV. PCR - Polymerase Chain Reaction VII. Culturing of recombinant host cells (Biosynthetic stage) l Bioreactors: Vessels in
m In vitro amplification of DNA (gene of interest) m The cells harbouring cloned genes of interest may be grown in which raw materials are
Laboratory/ Bioreactors biologically converted into
Reaction mixture Work/Function specific products using
Parameters Laboratory Bioreactors microbial plant, animal
Nucleotides Formation of DNA chain human cells and provide
Culture Small volume Large volumes (100 - 1000 lts) optimal growth conditions
Primers 2 sets of chemically synthesised
Maintaining optimal conditions Not possible ü (temperature, pH,
oligonucleotides, complementary to the substrate, salts, vitamins,
regions of DNA Growth rate of cell Never optimal Optimum oxygen)
Taq polymerase Thermostable DNA polymerase, isolated Production Small scale Large scale
from bacterium, Thermus aquaticus, Cylindrical or with curved base Facilitate mixing of reactor contents
remains active during high temperature
m Commonly used Bioreactors Stirrer Facilitate even mixing and oxygen
induced denaturation of dsDNA. It extends availability throughout the bioreactor
are stirred type having Agitator system
the primers i.e. meant for chain elongation.
Oxygen delivery system
Genome DNA Template DNA for gene of interest
pH control system
m Sequence of events Foam control system
Region to be amplified Sampling ports To withdraw small volumes of culture
5¢ 3¢ periodically
ds DNA Steps m Types of stirred tanks
3¢ 5¢ ¯
Heat Denaturation
In Open Culture System/
5¢ 3¢
3¢ 5¢ Simple stirred tank Sparged stirred tank Continuous Culture System
Primers Annealing l Used medium is drained out
5¢ 3¢
3¢ 5¢ Increased from one side while fresh
DNA polymerase
surface medium is added from the other
Motor area for to maintain the cells in their
(Taq polymerase) Acid/Base oxygen Gas
+ deoxynucleotides for pH Foam transfer physiologically most active
5¢ 3¢ entrainment
control braker log/exponential phase.
3¢ 5¢ Extension Flat bladed l Larger biomass ® Higher yields
Stream for
5¢ 3¢ impeller
sterilisation of desired protein.
3¢ 5¢ Culture
broth Bubbles/
30 cycles/Process repeated ‘n’ times dramatically
increase the
oxygen
Amplified Sterile Air
transfer area
(~1 billion times)

VIII. Downstream processing

m The amplified fragment if desired can now be used to ligate
with a vector for further cloning. m Separation and purification of the desired product/recombinant protein from heterologous host (non native
V. Ligation of the DNA fragment into a vector by DNA ligase host).

¯ m Product has to be formulated with suitable preservatives.

VI. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell m Strict quality control testing is done for each product
l Transformed host cells are selected with the help of m The downstream processing and quality control testing vary from product to product.
selectable marker genes. IX. Product is subjected for marketing as a finished product

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NCERT Maps Biotechnology: Principles and Processes 127

1. The definition given by EFB for (3) Introducing both desirable and 8. Choose the odd one w.r.t. ends produced
biotechnology is [NCERT Pg. 193] undesirable genes by Eco RI [NCERT Pg. 197]
(1) Techniques of using live organisms only (4) Being easy to perform (1) Sticky ends
(2) Techniques of using enzymes only to 5. First recombinant DNA was made by linking
(2) Single stranded portion on each strand
produce products and processes useful A with a B of C . Choose the
of DNA
to humans option which correctly fill the blanks A, B
and C. [NCERT Pg. 194] (3) Overhanging stretches on each strand
(3) The integration of natural science and
organisms, cells, parts there of and of DNA
A B C
molecular analogues for product and (4) Blunt ends
(1) Antibiotic Plasmid Salmonella
services resistant typhimurium 9. Restriction endonucleases cut which
(4) Techniques which include only gene bonds? [NCERT Pg. 196]
synthesising a gene and using it (2) Antibiotic Plasmid Escherichia
(1) Hydrogen bonds
2. The core technique of biotechnology which resistant coli
involves maintenance of sterile ambience is gene (2) Phosphodiester bonds
[NCERT Pg. 194] (3) Antibiotic Chromosomal Salmonella (3) Ionic bonds
(1) Genetic engineering sensitive DNA typhimurium
(4) Disulphide bonds
gene
(2) Bioprocess engineering
(4) Antibiotic Chromosomal Escherichia 10. The separated DNA fragments can be
(3) Developing a DNA vaccine visualised only after staining the DNA with
sensitive DNA coli
(4) Correcting a defective gene gene A and followed by exposure to B .
3. ______ gene codes for the proteins required 6. Restriction endonuclease and methylase Choose the option which correctly fill the
for the replication of plasmid were isolated from E.coli in the year blanks A and B respectively.
[NCERT Pg. 199] [NCERT Pg. 195]
[NCERT Pg. 198]
(1) ori (2) rop (1) 1972 (2) 1963
A B
(3) ampR (4) tetR (3) 1997 (4) 1990
(1) Ethidium bromide UV radiations
4. Genetic engineering is better over traditional 7. In Eco RI, the letter R is derived from
hybridization in [NCERT Pg. 194] [NCERT Pg. 195, 196] (2) Bromophenol blue UV radiations

(1) Introducing desirable genes only (1) Genus (2) Species (3) Ethidium bromide Visible light
(2) Introducing undesirable genes (3) Strain RY 13 (4) Strain Rd (4) Methylene blue Visible light

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 128 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes NCERT Maps
11. The separated bands of DNA are cut out 14. Which vector is suitable to deliver desirable (1) Ca+2 (2) Na+
from the agarose gel and extracted from the genes into dicot plants? [NCERT Pg. 200] (3) K+ (4) Cl–
gel piece. This step is known as
(1) pBR322 18. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t.
[NCERT Pg. 198]
(2) Disarmed Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium PCR? [NCERT Pg. 202, 203]
(1) Precipitation (2) Elution
(1) In vitro amplification of DNA
(3) Spooling (4) Fragmentation (3) Disarmed retrovirus
(2) Single set of RNA primers
12. If we ligate foreign DNA at Bam HI site of (4) Bacteriophage
pBR322, then the resultant recombinants (3) Primers are chemically synthesized
15. Complete the analogy w.r.t. DNA isolation
will show [NCERT Pg. 199] oligonucleotides
Bacteria : Lysozyme :: Fungus : ______
(a) Resistance to ampicillin (4) Thermostable DNA polymerase is used
[NCERT Pg. 201]
(b) Sensitivity to tetracycline 19. Select the correct sequence for the steps
(1) Cellulase (2) Chitinase involved in PCR [NCERT Pg. 202]
(c) Resistance to tetracycline
(3) Amylase (4) DNAse (1) Denaturation → Annealing → Extension
(d) Sensitivity to ampicillin
(1) a and b (2) a and c 16. All of the following are methods of direct (2) Annealing → Denaturation → Extension
(3) b and d (4) c and d gene transfer except [NCERT Pg. 201]
(3) Denaturation → Extension → Annealing
13. Recombinant host cells in which foreign (1) Micro-injection (4) Extension → Annealing → Denaturation
DNA is present in the coding sequence of (2) Biolistics 20. What is not present in the simple stirred-
enzyme β-galactosidase will produce
(3) Gene gun tank bioreactor? [NCERT Pg. 204]
[NCERT Pg. 200]
(4) Disarmed pathogen (1) Foam breaker
(1) Blue coloured colonies
(2) White coloured colonies 17. To make the host cells competent, they are (2) Temperature control system

(3) Pink coloured colonies treated with specified concentration of (3) Sampling port

(4) No colonies [NCERT Pg. 200] (4) Sparger

1. EFB stands for ______. [NCERT Pg. 193] 3. ______ sequence is responsible for 5. The cutting of DNA at specific locations
initiating replication in plasmid.
2. The two core techniques that enabled birth became possible with the discovery of
[NCERT Pg. 194]
of modern biotechnology are ______
4. First recombinant DNA was made by ______ enzymes, which are also called
engineering and ______ engineering. ______ and ______ in the year ______.
______. [NCERT Pg. 194, 195]
[NCERT Pg. 193, 194] [NCERT Pg. 194]
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NCERT Maps Biotechnology: Principles and Processes 129

6. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with 10. DNA fragments are ______ charged 16. ______ cells are bombarded with high
the plasmid vector became possible with the molecules that move towards ______ during velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten
enzyme ______. [NCERT Pg. 195] gel electrophoresis. [NCERT Pg. 198] coated with DNA in a method known as
11. DNA fragments separate according to their ______ or ______. [NCERT Pg. 201]
7. The first restriction endonuclease is ______.
______ through ______ effect provided by
Its recognition sequence is ______ long. 17. Since DNA is a ______ molecule, it cannot
the agarose gel. The ______ the fragment
[NCERT Pg. 195] pass through cell membranes.
size, the farther it moves. [NCERT Pg. 198]
8. First letter in the name of restriction 12. ______ sequence controls the copy number [NCERT Pg. 200]

endonuclease come from ______ and the of the linked DNA. [NCERT Pg. 199] 18. If any protein encoding gene is expressed in
second two letters come from the ______ of 13. Agrobacterium tumefaciens, a pathogen of a heterologous host, it is called a ______
the prokaryotic cell from which they were several ______ plants is able to deliver an [NCERT Pg. 203]
alien DNA through its ______ plasmid.
isolated. [NCERT Pg. 195] 19. Taq polymerase, a ______ DNA
[NCERT Pg. 200]
9. Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA polymerase, is isolated from ______.
14. Disarmed ______ are now commonly used
a little away from the centre of the [NCERT Pg. 203]
to deliver desirable genes into animal cells.
palindrome sites, but between the ______ 20. Separation and purification of desired
[NCERT Pg. 200]
on the opposite strands. This leaves single product in genetic engineering are included
15. In a method known as ______, recombinant
stranded portions on each strand called in ______ processing.
DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of
______. [NCERT Pg. 197] an animal cell. [NCERT Pg. 201] [NCERT Pg. 204, 205]

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Biotechnology and Its Applications 8
Chapter

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NCERT Maps Biotechnology and Its Applications 131

Sequence of events : 7 MOLECULAR DIAGNOSIS METHODS 9 ETHICAL ISSUES

Artificially synthesised m Genetic modification of organisms (GMO)
Parameters Conventional Modern can have unpredictable results when such
DNA sequence DNA sequence Early detection Not possible Possible organisms are introduced into the ecosystem.
for A-chain for B-chain Examples Serum and urine RDT, PCR, ELISA
analysis m Genetic manipulation of living organisms by
¯ ¯
Plasmid Plasmid PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) : humans has to regulated for moral and
l Basis : Nucleic acid amplification
¯ ¯ biological significance.
l Advantage : Detection of very low concentration of a bacteria or
E.coli E.coli m GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval
virus
¯ ¯
l Uses : Detection of HIV infection, mutations in genes in cancer Committee) : Makes decisions regarding the
Chain A Chain B
patients, genetic disorders
validity of GM research and the safety of
ELISA (Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay) :
Produced separately, l Basis: Antigen - antibody interaction
introducing GMO for public services
extracted and combined l Uses : Detect the presence of antigens or antibodies synthesized m Developing countries are rich in biodiversity
by creating disulphide against pathogens
bonds and traditional knowledge related to bio-
Autoradiography
l Probe : Radioactive ssDNA or ssRNA that hybridises with resources
Human insulin complementary DNA Biopiracy : Refers to the use of bio-resources
Insulin is a peptide hormone and can be degraded by l Probe will not hybridise with mutated gene, hence mutated gene by multinational companies and other
proteases in our gut will not appear on the photographic film due to lack of organisations without proper authorisation
complementarity.
from the countries and people concerned
6 GENE THERAPY 8 TRANSGENIC ANIMALS without compensatory payment.
m Insertion of genes into an individual’s cells to treat diseases by m Possess manipulated DNA and express foreign gene
Controversies regarding patents and
(i) Replacing a defective mutant allele with a functional one m Transgenic rats, rabbits, pigs, sheep, cows and fish have
been produced biopiracy :
(ii) Gene targeting which involves gene amplification.
m 95% of transgenic animals are mice. (i) Basmatic rice :
m First clinical gene therapy was conducted in 1990 in a 4 year old girl to Uses of Transgenic Animals
treat adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency. ADA enzyme is crucial m To study how genes are regulated and how they affect the
l 2,00,000 varieties of rice in India. 27
for immune system to function normal functions of body, e.g. study of insulin - like growth documented varieties of Basmati rice
factors in India
Treatment for ADA Deficiency m Transgenic models exist for study of diseases like cancer,
cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and Alzheimer’s l In 1997, an American company got
(1) Enzyme replacement therapy m Biological products patent rights on Basmatic rice through
l Functional ADA is l a-1 antitrypsin - To treat emphysema.
Not completely curative the US patent and Trademark office.
given by injection l Similar attempts are made for treatment of PKU

(2) Bone marrow transplantation in children (Phenylketonuria) and cystic fibrosis.

l First transgenic cow : Rosie developed in 1997 Basmati rice × Semi-dwarf variety of
(3) Gene therapy - Could be a permanent cure if bone marrow
producing human protein enriched milk (2.4 grams per rice
transplantion is done at early embryonic stages.
litre)
l The milk contained alpha-lactalbumin : More
l Steps in gene therapy
balanced product for human babies than natural cow New variety of Basmati rice
Lymphocytes of patient ADA cDNA
milk (ii) Turmeric
m Vaccine Safety
(iii) Neem
Retrovirus mediated transformation l Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of
polio vaccine to replace the use of monkeys. The Indian Parliament has recently
Genetically engineered lymphocytes (not immortal)
m Chemical safety testing cleared the second amendment of the
¯ l Transgenic animals are made more sensitive to toxic
Infused in patient Indian Patents Bill.
substances to obtain results in less time.

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 132 Biotechnology and Its Applications NCERT Maps

1. GM plants have been useful in many ways 5. The proteins encoded by which gene (1) Disarmed Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium
except [NCERT Pg. 208] controls corn borer? [NCERT Pg. 209] (2) Meloidogyne incognita
(1) More tolerant to abiotic stresses (1) cry I Ac (3) Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) Pest-resistant crops (2) cry II Ab (4) Retrovirus
(3) Bio-pesticide plants (3) cry I Ab 10. Eli Lilly, an American company prepared two
(4) Reduced efficiency of mineral usage (4) Sry DNA sequences corresponding to A and B
2. Choose the odd one w.r.t. Bt toxin chains of human insulin and introduced them
6. How many applications given in the box
[NCERT Pg. 208] through a plasmid into [NCERT Pg. 211]
below are application of biotechnology?
(1) Insecticidal protein (1) Entamoeba coli
Energy production, Waste treatment,
(2) Exists as protein crystals (2) Escherichia coli
Bioremediation, Diagnostics
(3) Exists as inactive protoxins (3) Salmonella typhimurium
[NCERT Pg. 209] (4) Haemophilus influenzae
(4) Produced continuously during growth
period (1) Four (2) Three 11. Select the treatment method which could be
3. Bt toxin kills certain insects such as tobacco (3) Two (4) One a permanent cure for ADA deficiency in
bud worm, army worm etc. These insects 7. Select the pest resistant plant among the humans [NCERT Pg. 211]
belong to which order? [NCERT Pg. 208] following [NCERT Pg. 209] (1) Enzyme replacement therapy
(1) Coleoptera (2) Lepidoptera (1) Golden rice (2) Infusion of genetically engineered
(3) Diptera (4) Hymenoptera (2) Flavr Savr tomato lymphocytes having functional ADA
4. Read the following statements and choose cDNA
(3) Transgenic tobacco
the correct option. (3) Bone marrow transplantation after
(4) Transgenic Brassica napus 10 years of age
Statement A : Bt toxin gets activated in
8. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. (4) Introducing ADA gene into cells at early
alkaline pH of insect gut, which solubilises
the protein crystals. RNAi? [NCERT Pg. 209] embryonic stages
Statement B : Activated toxin binds to the (1) Present in all eukaryotic organisms 12. Which vector was used in the first successful
surface of midgut epithelial cells. (2) Method of cellular defense clinical gene therapy in humans?
[NCERT Pg. 208] (3) Prevent transcription of the gene [NCERT Pg. 211]
(1) Only statement A is correct (4) Involves silencing of specific mRNA (1) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(2) Only statement B is correct 9. Nematode-specific genes were introduced (2) Retrovirus
(3) Both A and B statements are correct into the tobacco plant by using (3) pBR322
(4) Both A and B statements are incorrect [NCERT Pg. 209] (4) Bacteriophage

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NCERT Maps Biotechnology and Its Applications 133

13. Early detection of disease is not possible by (1) Four 19. Select the mismatch. [NCERT Pg. 214]
performing [NCERT Pg. 212] (2) Three (1) Rosie cow – 1997
(1) RDT (2) Urine analysis (3) Two
(3) PCR (4) ELISA (2) Patent on Basmati rice – 1997
(4) One
14. Which of the following is not correct w.r.t. by an American
17. Select the incorrect match.
PCR? [NCERT Pg. 212] company
[NCERT Pg. 213]
(1) Routinely used to detect HIV in (3) Human insulin – 1987
suspected AIDS patients (1) α-1 antitrypsin – Treatment of
production by Eli Lilly,
(2) Used to detect mutations in genes emphysema
an American company
(3) Used to detect genetic disorders (2) α-lactalbumin – Transgenic cow
(4) First clinical gene – 1990
(4) Antigen-antibody interaction based test Rosie
therapy
15. Probe is [NCERT Pg. 212] (3) Safety of polio – Transgenic mice
(1) Radioactive dsDNA vaccine 20. Use of bio-resources by multinational
(2) Radioactive dsRNA companies and other organisations without
(4) Chemical – Transgenic
proper authorization from the countries and
(3) Radioactive ssDNA or ssRNA safety testing animals are made
people concerned without compensatory
(4) Non-radioactive dsDNA less sensitive to
toxic substances payment is known as [NCERT Pg. 214]
16. Transgenic models exist for how many
human diseases given in the box below? (1) Biopiracy
18. How many approximate varieties of rice are
Cancer, Cystic fibrosis, Rheumatoid present in India? [NCERT Pg. 214] (2) Biopatents
arthritis, Alzheimer’s (1) 27 (2) 30 (3) Bioethics
[NCERT Pg. 213] (3) 12 (4) 2,00,000 (4) Bio-resources

1. Green revolution succeeded in _______ the 3. Plants, bacteria, fungi and animals whose 6. Bt toxin gene has been introduced in many
food supply but that was _______ to feed genes have been altered by manipulation plants, in effect created a bio-pesticide.
the growing human population. are called _______ [NCERT Pg. 208] Examples are _______, _______, _______,
_______, _______ and _______ etc.
[NCERT Pg. 208] 4. Genetic modification has been used to [NCERT Pg. 208]
2. Green revolution was partly due to the use create _______ plants to supply alternative
resources to industries. [NCERT Pg. 208] 7. The proteins encoded by the genes
of _______ and mainly due to the use of _______ and _______ control the cotton
_______ practices and use of _______. 5. Bt toxin is produced by a _______ called bollworms, that of _______ controls corn
[NCERT Pg. 208] _______ [NCERT Pg. 208] borer. [NCERT Pg. 209]
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 134 Biotechnology and Its Applications NCERT Maps
8. A nematode _______ infects the roots of 12. Insulin consists of _______ chains, chain A 17. ELISA is based on the principle of _______
tobacco plants. [NCERT Pg. 209] and chain B, that are linked by _______ and _______ interaction. [NCERT Pg. 212]
[NCERT Pg. 211]
9. The source of dsRNA could be from an 18. _______ of transgenic animals are mice.
infection by _______ having RNA genomes 13. _______ peptide is not present in the
Transgenic mice are being used to test the
mature insulin.
or mobile genetic elements called _______ safety of the _______ vaccine. If successful
[NCERT Pg. 211]
that replicate via an RNA intermediate. and found to be reliable, they could replace
[NCERT Pg. 209] 14. The first clinical gene therapy was given in
_______ to a _______ old girl with _______ the use of monkeys to test the safety of the
10. Nematode could not survive in a transgenic deficiency. [NCERT Pg. 211] _______ vaccine. [NCERT Pg. 213]
tobacco plant expressing _______. 15. ADA deficiency is caused due to the 19. GEAC stands for _______.
_______ of the gene for adenosine
[NCERT Pg. 210]
deaminase. [NCERT Pg. 211] [NCERT Pg. 213]
11. _______ recombinant therapeutics have 16. A noval strategy adopted to prevent
been approved for human use the world 20. The Indian Parliament has recently cleared
infestation of nematode in tobacco plant
over. In India, _______ of these are was based on the process of _______. the _______ amendment of the Indian
presently being marketed. [NCERT Pg. 210] [NCERT Pg. 212] Patents Bill. [NCERT Pg. 214]

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 142 Answers NCERT Maps

Class XII
Chapter-1 : Reproduction in Organisms
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Sexual
1. (2) 2. (3) 1. Mitotic, Meiotic 12. Menstrual cycle
3. (4) 4. (3) 2. Heterogametes 13. Seasonal breeders
5. (3) 6. (2) 3. Unisexual
14. End
7. (1) 8. (4) 4. External
15. Hormones
9. (2) 10. (3) 5. Parthenogenesis
16. Transfer
11. (2) 12. (1) 6. Life span
17. Synchronised
13. (4) 14. (2) 7. Not
18. Viviparous
15. (4) 16. (4) 8. Reproduction
17. (1) 18. (3) 9. Growth 19. Zygote

19. (1) 20. (2) 10. Budding 20. Reduction

Chapter-2A : Human Reproduction

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Tertiary
1. (3) 2. (1) 1. 250, testicular lobules 12. 200-300
3. (3) 4. (4) 2. 60 13. Cortex and medulla
5. (2) 6. (2) 3. Foreskin
14. 2-4; 10-12
7. (3) 8. (4) 4. Accessory, sperms
15. Cervical canal, vagina
9. (4) 10. (3) 5. Androgens/testicular hormones
16. 2-2.5°C less than normal body temperature
11. (3) 12. (4) 6. 4
17. Luteal
13. (2) 14. (4) 7. Interstitial cells
15. (4) 16. (2) 8. Urine and semen 18. Menopause
17. (3) 18. (2) 9. Secondary follicle 19. Puberty, menarche
19. (4) 20. (1) 10. Secondary oocyte 20. Labia majora

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NCERT Maps Answers 143

Chapter-2B : Human Reproduction

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Prolactin, hPL
1. (2) 2. (4) 1. Fertilization 12. Estrogen, progesterone
3. (3) 4. (2) 2. Chorionic villi 13. Zygote
5. (3) 6. (4) 3. Zygote 14. Oxytocin
7. (3) 8. (2) 4. Acrosome
15. Parturition
9. (4) 10. (4) 5. 8-16
16. Colostrum
11. (2) 12. (2) 6. Cleavage
17. Umbilical cord
13. (4) 14. (4) 7. Inner cell mass
18. Placenta
15. (3) 16. (1) 8. 200-300 million
17. (4) 18. (2) 9. First trimester 19. 15-20

19. (3) 20. (4) 10. 9 months 20. X-mesoderm, Y-ectoderm, Z-endoderm

Chapter-3 : Reproductive Health

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Coitus interruptus
1. (3) 2. (4) 1. Unprotected 12. Higher
3. (2) 4. (4) 2. 1971 13. Cervix
5. (3) 6. (4) 3. Transfusion
14. LNG-20
7. (2) 8. (1) 4. 15-24 years
15. 21
9. (1) 10. (2) 5. 2
16. 72
11. (1) 12. (4) 6. 2000, 6
17. Abdomen, vagina
13. (2) 14. (1) 7. MMR, IMR
15. (4) 16. (1) 8. 18, 21 18. Itching

17. (2) 18. (2) 9. 10 to 17 19. Fertilisation

19. (1) 20. (4) 10. Easily 20. Husband, healthy donor

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 144 Answers NCERT Maps

Chapter-4 : Evolution
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Branching descent, natural selection

1. (1) 2. (4) 1. Light years 12. Life cycle or life span

3. (4) 4. (3) 2. Evolutionary biology 13. Small, directional

3. 1953, American, CH4, H2, NH3, water
5. (2) 6. (1) 14. Gene migration, genetic drift, mutation,
vapours, 800
genetic recombination, natural selection
7. (4) 8. (3) 4. 3 billion years, RNA, protein,
polysaccharides 15. Stochastic, events, mutation
9. (1) 10. (1)
5. 2000 16. 1850s, white winged, 1920s, dark-winged,
11. (2) 12. (3) No variant
6. Amino acids
13. (3) 14. (1) 17. Adaptive radiation
7. Gradual, mutations
15. (3) 16. (1) 8. Saltation 18. Convergent evolution
17. (4) 18. (4) 9. Reproductive 19. 1
19. (2) 20. (4) 10. Malay Archipelago, similar, same 20. Directional

Chapter-5A : Human Health and Disease

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Body fluids
1. (3) 2. (4) 1. Contact inhibition 12. Reverse transcription
3. (3) 4. (3) 2. Metastasis 13. Intravenously
5. (3) 6. (4) 3. Lung
14. RNA
7. (2) 8. (3) 4. Cellular/proto-oncogenes
15. Food and water
9. (4) 10. (1) 5. Biopsy
16. Elephantiasis/Filariasis
11. (1) 12. (2) 6. α - Interferon
17. Haemozoin
13. (1) 14. (3) 7. NACO
15. (1) 16. (1) 8. ELISA 18. Pathogens

17. (1) 18. (2) 9. Toxoplasma 19. Pneumonia

19. (2) 20. (3) 10. Congenital 20. Smallpox

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NCERT Maps Answers 145

Chapter-5B : Human Health and Disease

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Adolescence
1. (3) 2. (2) 1. Secondary 12. Adolescence
3. (4) 4. (3) 2. Cytokine 13. Tissue, Blood group,
5. (2) 6. (2) 3. IgA immunosuppressant
7. (4) 8. (2) 4. Four 14. Smack
9. (1) 10. (2) 5. Cell mediated 15. Increase
11. (1) 12. (4) 6. Antibodies 16. X-Increases, Y-decreases
13. (3) 14. (3) 7. Anamnestic/secondary 17. Adrenal, Adrenaline
15. (4) 16. (2) 8. Autoimmune 18. Hallucinogenic
17. (1) 18. (4) 9. Memory 19. N
19. (1) 20. (3) 10. Passive 20. Allergens

Chapter-6 : Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Jersey

1. (3) 2. (4) 1. Animal husbandry 12. Breed

3. (1) 4. (1) 2. Rohu 13. Lactation
5. (2) 6. (2) 3. Apiculture
14. Dairying
7. (4) 8. (2) 4. MOET
15. Reduced
9. (2) 10. (3) 5. Superovulation
16. Inbreeding
11. (1) 12. (2) 6. 8-32
17. Fertility
13. (2) 14. (4) 7. Rams
15. (2) 16. (1) 8. Animal breeding 18. Interspecific hybridization

17. (3) 18. (3) 9. H5N1 19. Out-crossing

19. (4) 20. (4) 10. China and India 20. Cross-breeding

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 146 Answers NCERT Maps

Chapter-7 : Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. size, sieving, smaller
1. (3) 2. (2) 1. European federation of biotechnology 12. ori
3. (2) 4. (1) 2. Genetic, bioprocess 13. Dicot, Tumour inducing (Ti)
5. (1) 6. (2) 3. Origin of replication
14. Retroviruses
7. (3) 8. (4) 4. Stanley Cohen, Herbert Boyer, 1972
15. Micro-injection
9. (2) 10. (1) 5. Restriction, ‘molecular-scissors’
16. Plant, Biolistics, Gene gun
11. (2) 12. (1) 6. DNA ligase
17. hydrophilic
13. (2) 14. (2) 7. Hind II, 6 bp
18. Recombinant protein
15. (2) 16. (4) 8. genus, species
17. (1) 18. (2) 9. Same two bases, sticky ends 19. Thermostable, Thermus aquaticus

19. (1) 20. (4) 10. Negatively, Anode 20. Downstream

Chapter-8 : Biotechnology and Its Applications

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 10. Specific interfering RNA
1. (4) 2. (4) 1. Tripling, not enough 11. 30, 12
3. (2) 4. (3) 2. Improved crop varieties, better 12. Two short polypeptide, disulphide bridges
5. (3) 6. (1) management, agrochemicals
13. C
7. (3) 8. (3) 3. Genetically modified organism (GMO)
14. 1990, 4-year, adenosine deaminase (ADA)
9. (1) 10. (2) 4. Tailor-made / transgenic
15. Deletion
11. (4) 12. (2) 5. Bacterium, Bacillus thuringiensis
16. RNAi
13. (2) 14. (4) 6. Bt cotton, Bt corn, rice, tomato, potato,
soyabean 17. Antigen, antibody
15. (3) 16. (1)
7. cry I Ac, cry II Ab, cry IAb 18. 95%, Polio
17. (4) 18. (4)
8. Meloidogyne incognita 19. Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
19. (3) 20. (1)
9. Viruses, transposons 20. Second

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