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orthodontics and roentgenology
Dentistry (University of Perpetual Help System DALTA)
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1. The extension of the lining of the bony crypt that surrounds the tooth is called:
a. Periodontal space
b. Periodontal ligament
c. Lamina dura
d. Nutrient canals
e. None of the above
2. Normal height of the alveolar crest from the CEJ of the adjacent teeth is
a. 1.5mm
b. 2.5mm
c. 2.00mm
d. 3.00mm
e. None of the above
3. All this radiolucent line in the midline between the two portions of the pre-maxilla is
called:
a. Incisive foramen
b. Anterior nasal spine
c. Mental symphysis
d. Intermaxillary suture
e. None of the above
4. A radiopaque line extending bilaterally away from the anterior nasal spine is called:
a. Inferior border of the maxillary sinus
b. Inferior border of the nasal foramen
c. Zygomatic process
d. Nasal septum
e. None of the above
5. The two round or oval radiolucent areas above the spaces of the central incisors on the
floor of the nasal cavity:
a. Maxillary sinuses
b. Incisive foramen
c. Mental foramen
d. Superior foramina of the nasopalatine canal
e. None of the above
6. The zygomatic process
a. Appears as U-shaped radiolucent line on a radiograph
b. Is seen in the apical region of the first and second molars
c. Appears as an oblique line demarcating a region that appears to be covered by anveil
of slight radiopacity.
d. Is seen as a radiolucent line through the midline of the jaw.
e. None of the above.
7. Which statement is or are true regarding the cancellous bone found in the mandible?
a. The trabeculae are thicker than in the maxilla anteriorly
b. Trabecular plates are oriented more horizontally and fewer in the maxilla
c. Marrow spaces in the anterior area of the mandible are larger than in the maxilla
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d. Posteriorly, periradicular trabeculae and marrow spaces are larger than those in
the anterior of the mandible
e. None of the above
8. Which of the following can mimic a periapical radiolucent lesion on the dental
radiograph?
1. Apical foramen of tooth no closed in an immature tooth
2. Mental foramen
3. Nasopalatine foramen
4. Greater palatine foramen
a) all of the above
b) 1,2,4
c) 1,2,3
d) 3 and 4
e) 1 and 2
9. Which of the following is usually a sign of active eruption of a tooth?
a. Lamina dura forms a continuous line around the tooth root
b. The lamina dura is perforated by many small openings
c. There is widening of the periodontal ligament space
d. There is thickening of the lamina dura at the root apex region
e. None of the above
10. Which of the following affects the form of the alveolar crest?
a. Tooth inclination
b. State of eruption
c. The shape of the interproximal tooth surface
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
11. It is a line extending from the top of the ear canal to the bottom of the eye socket, and
is used to position the head when taking a panoramic radiograph
a. Sella-nasion line
b. Ala-tragus line
c. Occlusal plane
d. Frankfort line
12. Can demonstrate the frontal and ethmoid sinuses, the orbits, and the nasal cavity
except?
a. Postero-anterior projection
b. Lateral cephalometric projection
c. Submentovertex projection
d. Waters projections
e. Reveresetowne projection
13. The skull projection that is used to demonstrate soft tissue profile of the patient
a. Postero-anterior projection
b. Lateral cephalometric projection
c. Submentovertex projection
d. Waters projections
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e. Reverese towne projection
14. The skull projection that used to identify fractures of the condylar neck and ramus area
is the?
a. Postero-anterior projection
b. Lateral cephalometric projection
c. Submentovertex projection
d. Waters projections
e. Reverese towne projection
15. The part of the x-ray tube that contains the focal spots in the?
a. Anode
b. Cathode
c. Filament
d. Focusing cup
16. The part of the x-ray tube where x-rays are produced
a. Positively charged anode
b. Positively charged cathode
c. Negatively charged anode
d. Negatively charge cathode
17. The unit time used to measure x-ray exposure is:
a. Amperes
b. Milliamperes
c. Volts
d. Impulses
18. The functions of the milliamperage setting on the x-ray machine is to;
a. Controls quantity of the xrays produced
b. Controls heat of the tungsten filament
c. Controls quality of xrays produced
d. Both a and b
19. The characteristics of x-rays produced with a high voltage are:
a. More penetrating and of longer wavelength
b. More penetrating and of shorter wavelength
c. Less penetrating and of longer wavelength
d. Less penetrating and of shorter wavelength
20. The function of the kilovoltage setting on the x-ray machine is or are
a. Controls the quantity of x-rays produced
b. Controls the penetrating power of the x-ray beam
c. Controls the number of photons available
d. All of the above
21. The term used to describe the overall blackness or darkness of a film is:
a. Contrast
b. Density
c. Over exposure
d. Intensity
22. The exposure factor/s that affect/s contrast is or are
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a. Milliamperage
b. Kilovoltage
c. Exposure time
d. All of the above
23. The density and contrast of a film produced using high kilovoltage setting is
a. Increased density: low contrast
b. Increased density: high contrast
c. Decreased density: low contrast
d. Decreased density: high contrast
24. Which of the following results when a film is exposed with a high milliamperage
setting?
a. High contrast
b. Low contrast
c. Increased density
d. Decreased density
25. Which type of structure inhibits the passage of xray
a. Radiopaque
b. Magnified image
c. Radiolucent
d. Elongated image
26. Xray developer contains all of the following except
a. Developing agent
b. Antioxidant preservative
c. Accelerator
d. Retainer
27. X-ray fixer contains all of the following except:
a. Cleaning agent
b. Antioxidant preservative
c. Acidifier
d. Accelerator
e. Hardener
28. The positioning of the film in relation to the tooth when using the paralleling technique
is
a. The film is placed perpendicular to the tooth
b. The film is placed parallel to the tooth
c. The film is placed direct contact with the tooth
d. The film is placed on the occlusal surface of the tooth
29. The periapical film size used for a maxillary premolar exposure in the adult patient is
a. Size 1
b. Size 2
c. Size 3
d. Size 4
30. The benefit of using a long cone position indicating device (PID) versus a short cone PID
is
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a. Increased distortion occurs
b. Less magnification occurs
c. Decreased definition occurs
d. Less radiolucent occurs
31. The error that causes teeth to appear foreshortened on a radiograph is:
a. Excessive vertical angulation
b. Insufficient vertical angulation
c. Excessive horizontal angulation
d. Insufficient horizontal angulation
32. A likely cause of gagging during the radiographic exposure is:
a. Exposure of bitewing radiographs
b. The film is held by the patient
c. The film is moved across the soft palate
d. The film impinges the floor of the mouth
33. One use of occlusal radiograph is
a. Localize foreign bodies
b. Diagnose dental caries
c. Evaluate periodontal diseases
d. Excessive lesion of the mucosa
34. Which of the following positioning errors in likely the cause of the reverse occlusal
plane curve on a panoramic radiograph
a. Chin tilted too far upward
b. Chin tilted too far downward
c. Head turned slightly
35. The function of the intensifying screen is?
a. Reduce exposure time
b. Increase exposure time
c. Increased processing time
d. Clarify periapical structure
36. The film that includes the mental foramen
a. Mandibular premolar
b. Mandibular molar
c. Maxillary premolar
d. Maxillary molar
37. Which of the following affects the life of the developer?
a. Size of films processed
b. Number of films processed
c. Cleanliness of processing tanks
d. All of the above
38. Which of the following procedures a light radiograph image
a. Developing in a cool solution
b. Processing with exhausted chemicals
c. Accidental overexposure
d. A and B
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39. Which of the following procedure yellow or brown stains on the film?
a. Exhausted developing solution
b. Exhausted fixer solution
c. Insufficient washing
d. All of the above
40. A mandibular anatomic landmark is
a. Median palatal suture
b. Lingual fossa
c. Nasal fossa
d. None of the above
41. Which of the following is true concerning labial mounting?
a. Patient’s left is your left
b. Patient’s left is your right
c. Teeth are mounted in reverse anatomic order
d. The radiograph are viewed as if the operator was inside the patient’s mouth looking
out.
42. What is the primary factor controlling contrast?
a. Film speed
b. Source-film distance
c. KVP
d. Exposure time
43. The size of the x-ray tube focal spot influences radiograph
a. Density
b. Contrast
c. Definition
d. Distortion
44. Which of the following does not control magnification of the radiographed object
a. Focal spot film distance
b. Cathode size
c. Object film distance
d. Alignment of film, objects, and radiation
45. Adequate coverage of the area of interest in the radiographs depends on which of
these factors?
a. Proper alignment of film and the radiation, and the radiation beam to the area of
interest.
b. Proper selection of film years
c. Proper selection of film projection techniques
d. All of the above
46. All of the following are good ways to reduce exposure except
a. Using faster film, E speed is the fastet.
b. Using an 8 inch BID
c. Using the paralleling techinique
d. Using the higher kilovoltage settings
47. The cells that are most sensitive to x-radiation are:
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a. Nerve cells
b. Muscle cells
c. Small lymphocyte
d. Cardiac cells
48. The function of collimator is?
a. To restrict the size and shape of the x-ray beam
b. To remove the long wavelength from the beam
c. To remove low energy x-rays from the beam
d. To increase scatter radiation
49. Which of the following is used to make a collimator?
a. Aluminum
b. Copper
c. Lead
d. Tungsten
50. The exposure factor adjustment used to produce a beam with greater penetrating
power is to:
a. Increase milliamperage
b. Increase kilovoltage
c. Increase the time setting
d. Increased target film distance
51. At birth, the head of the baby, compared to the total body length is?
a. 39%
b. 12%
c. 50%
d. None of the above
52. An increase in tissue size as a result of
a. Cellular hypertrophy
b. Cellular hyperplasia
c. ……
d. A,b,and, c
e. None of the above
53. Neural tissues is nearly completed by
a. 3 or 4 years of age
b. 6 or 7 years of age
c. 18 or 19 years of age
d. 24 or 25 years of age
54. Lymphoid tissues reach their 100% adult size by
a. 7 years
b. 12 years
c. 25 years
d. 35 years
55. The cephalocaudal gradient growth concepts reflects that
a. Not all tissue systems of the body grow at the same rate
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b. There are more growth of the lower limbs than the head and face during the
postnatallife.
c. Patterns repeat in skeletal proportions changing over time
d. The structures further away from the brains tends to grow more and faster in life
than those in which are closer
e. Factors like malnutrition delay growth and may affect the brain and feet.
56. Factors affecting physical growth
a. Climate season
b. Birth order
c. Heredity
d. Exercise
e. All of the above
57. Bone is formed from osteoblasts present in mesenchymal tissue of except in
a. Cranial vault
b. Cranial base
c. Mandible
d. Maxilla
58. Bone develops from a cartilaginous precursor in
a. Endochondral ossification
b. Surface remodeling
c. Intramembranous ossification and sutural growth
d. Secondary displacement
59. The chin becomes more prominent with growth, especially in males following puberty,
due to?
a. Resorption above and on the chin point
b. Deposition above and on the chin point
c. Resorption above the chin point, deposition on the chin point
d. Deposition above the chin point, resorption on the chin point.
60. Bone growth from endochondral ossification except in:
a. Long bones
b. Mandibular condyle
c. Cranial base
d. Cranial vault
61. The expansion of the brain results in the tension across the cranial sutures which leads
to?
a. Endochondral ossification
b. Surface remodeling
c. Intramembranous ossification
d. Secondary displacement
62. Which statement on surface remodeling in the cranial vault is correct?
a. There is periosteal bone formation on the internal surface of the cranial vault and
bone resorption externally
b. There is periosteal bone formation on the internal surface of the cranial vault and
bone resorption externally
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c. There is periosteal bone formation on the internal surface of the cranial vault and
bone resorption externally
d. There is periosteal bone formation on the external surface of the cranial vault and
bone resorption internally.
63. The spheno-occipital synchandrosis is located
a. Anterior cranial fossa
b. Posterior cranial fossa
c. Anterior and posterior cranial fossa
d. Between anterior cranial fossa and the glenoid fossa
64. Which statement on vertical growth of the nasomaxillary complex is correct?
a. Downward displacement of the nasomaxillary complex is due to bone apposition on
the free borders of the alveolar process as the teeth erupt.
b. By the alternate process of bone deposition and remodeling resorption in the orbital
and nasal floors and palatine vault, the whole maxilla moves downward.
c. Remodeling growth of alveolar bone, due to the continued bone apposition on the
free borders of the alveolar process as the teeth erupts
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
65. The sutural growth theory claims that:
a. The cartilage is determinant of maxillary growth
b. As growth of surrounding soft tissues translates the maxilla upaward and backward.
New bone is added on both sides of the sutures.
c. The sutures of the maxilla are sites not centers of growth.
d. The buccal segments move downward and outward as the maxilla itself is moving
downward and forward.
66. The mandible appositional growth is active during the first year of life
a. Alveolar borders
b. Distal and superior surfaces of the ramus
c. Condyle
d. Lower border of the mandible
e. Anterior border of the mandible
67. Expanding V-growth pattern in mandible is demonstrated in its?
a. Transverse growth
b. Vertical growth
c. Condylar growth
d. Sagittal growth
e. Ramus growth
68. The process where the maxilla grows due to the growth of the cranial base is
a. Endochondral ossification
b. Surface remodeling
c. Intramembranous ossification and sutural growth
d. Secondary displacement
69. The intermaxillary process gives rise to the
a. Bridge and septum of the nose
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b. Lower lip
c. Philtrum of the upper lip
d. A and C
70. The theory on maxillary growth states that the soft tissue matrix is the actual governing
determinant of the skeletal growth process
a. Scott’s theory
b. Sutural growth theory
c. Functional matrix theory
d. Enlow’s theory
71. The spheno-occipital synchondrosis is located
a. Anterior cranial fossa
b. Posterior cranial fossa
c. Anterior and posterior cranial fossa
d. Between the anterior cranial fossa and the glenoid fossa
72. Excessive growth can lead an increased length of the cranial base, and this will lead to
a. Class 1 skeletal relationship
b. Class 2 skeletal relationship
c. Class 3 skeletal relationship
d. Normal skeletal relationship
73. The cleft lip is a result of non-fusion of:
a. Lateral and medial nasal processes
b. Maxillary and mandibular processes
c. Medial nasal and maxillary processes
d. Medial and nasal and mandibular processes
74. During the first year, the appositional growth in mandible in active in, except
a. Alveolar border
b. Condyle
c. Distal and superior surfaces of the ramus
d. Coronoid
75. Slowly progressive unilateral enlargement of the head and neck of the condyle causes
a. Cross bite malocclusion
b. Shift of chin towards the affected side
c. Facial asymmetry
d. None of the above
76. The floor of the anterior cranial fossa becomes a stable radiographic structure on which
sequestral cephalometric radiographs cam be taken to measure growth changes. At
what age will it be appropriate to use the floor of anterior cranial fossa as a reference
point for analysis?
a. 6
b. 9
c. 12
d. 15
77. The genetic disorder characterized by the premature fusion of certain skull bones are,
except?
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a. Apert’s syndrome
b. Pfeiffer’s syndrome
c. Crouzon’s syndrome
d. Reichert’s syndrome
78. Posterior 1/3 of the tongue is innervated by
a. Trigeminal nerve
b. Facial nerve
c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
d. Hypoglossal nerve
79. The first brancial arch is also called?
a. Reichert’s cartilage
b. Meckel’s cartilage
c. Thyroid cartilage
d. Cricoid cartilage
80. Which statement is correct?
a. The distal step can be observed when the maxillary plane of the molar is distal to the
mandibular plane
b. Terminal plane relationship between distal sirfaces of the maxillary and mandibular
first primary molars
c. Primate spaces are seen mesial to the maxillary cuspis and distal to the mandibular
cuspids
d. The tip of the maxillary canine is at the level of the space between the mandibular
larteral and canine
81. Size of the pds is determined by the
a. State of maturity of the infant by birth
b. Birth weight
c. Size of the developing primary teeth
d. Genetic factors
e. A and B only
f. All of the above
82. Normal sequence of eruption in the primary dentition is
a. ABCDE
b. ABCED
c. DABCE
d. ABDCE
e. None of the above
83. Leeway space in the maxilla provides____ of extra space per arch for this permanent
teeth
a. 0.9mm
b. 1.7mm
c. 1.8mm
d. 2.5mm
e. 3.4mm
84. Incisor liability for the lower arch is
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a. 3.6mm
b. 6mm
c. 7.5mm
d. 7.6mm-maxilla
e. 8.3mm
85. Which statement is true regarding the neonate mouth?
a. During mandibular function, movements of the jaw are mainly vertical, and not
lateral movement.
b. The mandible at birth is more anterior than the maxilla
c. At rest, there is a space in the anterior intermaxillary region. However, when the
firstmolar segments are in approximation, the anterior open bite disappears.
d. The upper gum pads is U shaped and rectangular.
86. Which statement is correct regarding the first transitional period in the mixed dentition
a. Exfoliation of primary molars and canines
b. Eruption of permanent incisors
c. Eruption of permanent canines and premolars
d. Eruption of permanent first molars
e. B and D
f. All of the above
87. Most common sequence of eruption in mandibular permanent canine and premolars is
a. 453
b. 345
c. 435
d. 543
e. 534
88. The reduction in mandibular arch circumference during the transitional and early
adolescent dentition is the result of, except;
a. The late mesial shift of the first permanent molars as the leeway space is
preerupted
b. The mesial drifting tendency of the posterior teeth throughout life
c. Slight amounts of interproximal wear of the teeth
d. Lingual positioning of the incisors as a result of the differential mandibulomaxillary
growth
e. The original tipped position of the canine
89. The maxillary arch perimeter is preserved, even though the permanent molars are
drifting mesially, because of the:
a. Marked difference in angulation of the permanent maxillary incisors, compared with
primary incisors
b. The permanent canines will occupy the primate space
c. The flush terminal plane relationship of the maxillary and mandibular second molars
90. An inherent disposition of most teeth to drift anteriorly even before they are in
occlusion is called;
a. Broadbent phenomenon
b. Leeway space
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c. Mesial drifting tendency
d. Anterior component of force
e. None of the above
91. The result of muscle forces acting through the intercuspation of the occlusal surfaces is
called:
a. Broadbent phenomenon
b. Leeway space
c. Mesial drifting tendency
d. Anterior component of force
e. None of the above
92. Mesial drifting is affected by except:
a. The presence or absence of adjacent teeth
b. Rate of resorption of the primary teeth
c. Early loss of primary teeth
d. Localized pathologic conditions
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
93. Most common teeth found in ectopy?
a. Maxillary first molar
b. Maxillary canine
c. Mandibular canine
d. Maxillary second molar
e. Premolar
f. Maxillary lateral incisor
94. It is measured from the distal surface of the E or mesial surface of 6 around the arch
over the contact points and the incisal edges in a smoothed curve to the distal surface
of the E or the surface of the opposite side
a. Arch length
b. Arch perimeter
c. Intercanine width
d. Intermolar width
e. Intermolar width
95. Which is not true regarding eruption of permanent teeth?
a. Teeth do not move occlusally until crown formation is completed
b. It takes 2-5 years for posterior teeth to reach the alveolar crest following corwn
completion.
c. It take 12-20 months to reach occlusion after reaching alveolar margin
d. Roots usually are completed when the tooth pierces into the gums
96. Inter arch malocclusion includes, except:
a. Abnormal inclination
b. Abnormal tooth displacement
c. Class 2 molar relationship
d. Spacing and crowding within the same arch
97. In the simon’s classification, the planes involve, are except:
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a. FH plane
b. Mandibular plane
c. Orbital plane
d. Midsagittal plane
e. Anterior facial plane
98. Basing on five characteristics alignment, profile, transverse relationships, class, and
overbite, the classification of occlusion used is:
a. Angle’s classification
b. Lischer’s modified angle classification
c. Ackermann-profitt classification
d. Dewey’s modified angle classification
e. Benett’s classification
99. Vertical plane malocclusion includes
a. Open bite
b. Deep bite
c. Cross bite
d. A and B only
e. All of the above
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