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hi S R I G A Y A T R I E D U C A T I O N A L I N S T I T U T I O N S - AP & TS

SRIGAYATRI EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS

INDIA

Time: 3 Hours
NEET TOT GT-4 Max. Marks: 720 M

PHYSICS
xy 2
1. An experiment measures quantities x, y, z and then t is calculated from the data as t  .
z3
If percentage errors in x, y and z are respectively 1 0 0 , 3 0 0 , 2 0 0 , then percentage error in t is
1) 10 0 0 2) 4 0 0 3) 7 0 0 4) 13 0 0
2. A particle is dropped from height H. At a point its kinetic energy is x times of its potential
energy. Find the speed of the particle at that point ( Reference of P.E is ground)
1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2
1/ 2  2 g  x  1 H   2 gH   2 gxH 
1)  2gxH  2)   3)   4)  
 x    x  1    x  1 
3. A man moves on his motor bike with 54 Km/h and then takes a U-turn and continues to move
with same velocity. The time of U-turn is 10 S. Find the magnitude of average acceleration
during U-turn
1) 0 2) 3ms 2 3) 1.5 2ms 2 J 4) none
1
4. A body of 2 kg has an intial Speed 5ms . A force acts on it for some time in the direction of
motion. The force time graph is shown in figure. The final speed of the body is

1) 9.25ms 1 2) 5ms 1 3) 14.3ms 1 4) 4.25ms 1

5. From the Circular disc of radius 4R two small disc of radius R are cut off. The Centre of mass
of the new structure will be

R R R R 3R ˆ ˆ
1) i
5
j
5
2) i  j
5 5
3)
14
i j  
4) none
6. Two Radioactive substances X and Y emit  and  particles respectively. Their disintegration
constants are in the ratio 2 : 3. To have equal rate of disintegration of getting emission of
 and  particles., the ratio of number of atoms of X to that of Y at any time instant is
1) 2 : 3 2) 3 : 2 3) e : 1 4) (e  1) : 1
7. A uniform rope of mass m and length L is hanged freely from stationary ceiling. If the cross
sectional area of rope is A and Young’s modulus Y, then net elongation in the rope due to its
own weight

mgL mgL mgL mgL

1) 2) 3) 4)
AY 2 AY 3 AY 4 AY

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8. Beads A and B each of mass m are connected by a light in extensible cord. They are
constrained (restricted) to move on a frictionless vertical plane as shown. The beads
are released from rest at the position shown. The tension in the cord just after the release is

mg
1) 2mg 2) mg 3) 4) 2 mg
2
9. A uniform thin bar of mass 6 m and length 12 L is bent to make a regular hexagon. Its
moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of mass and perpendicular to the
plane of the hexagon is
12 2
1) 20mL2 2) 6mL2 3) mL 4) 30mL2
5
10. The force 7i  3 j  5k acts on a particle whose Position Vector is iˆ  ˆj  kˆ . What is the torque
ˆ ˆ ˆ
For the given force about the origin?

1) 2iˆ  12 ˆj  10kˆ 2) 2iˆ  10 ˆj  12kˆ 3) 2iˆ  10 ˆj  10kˆ 4) 10iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ

11. What will be time period of the displaced body of mass m?

m 3m 3m 3m
1) 2 2) 2 3) 2 4) 
2k k 2k k
12. For a Satellite escape Velocity is 11 km/s. If the Satellite is launched at an angle of 600 with the
vertical, then escape velocity will be
1) 11km / s 2) 5.5 3km / s 3) 11/ 3km / s 4) 5.5km / s
13. A shell of mass M and radius R has a point mass m placed at a distance ‘r’ from its centre.
The gravitational potential energy U  r  verses ' r ' will be

1) 2)

3) 4)
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14. Weight of a body is measured by a beam balance. Using standard brass weights. If the air
buoyancy is neglected fractional error arises in the measurement is ( given density of brass,
air and the object are 8gm / cc, 0.0012gm / cc and3.4gm / cc respectively)
1) 2 101 2) 2 102 3) 2 103 4) 2 104
15. Two identical long solid cylinders are used to conduct heat from temp T1 to T2. Originally the
cylinders are connected in series and the rate of heat transfer is H. If the cylinders are
connected in parallel then the rate of heat transfer would be
H
1) 2) 2H 3) 4H 4) 8H
4
16. The radiation emitted by a star A is 10000 times that of the sun. If the surface temperatures of
the sun and star A are 6000 k and 2000 k respectively, the ratio of the radii of the star A and
the sun is
1) 300 : 1 2) 600 : 1 3) 900 : 1 4)1200 : 1
0 o
17. One kilogram of ice at 0 C is mixed with one kilogram of water at 80 C . The final
temperature of the mixture is
(take specific heat of water = 4200Jkg 1k 1 ) (latent heat of ice = 336 kJ/kg)
1) 400 c 2) 600 c 3) 00 c 4) 500 c
2 C 3
18. In an adiabatic process where in pressure is increased by 0 0 if p  , then the volume
3 Cv 2
decreases by about
4 2 9
1) 0 0 2) 0 0 3) 4 0 0 4) 0 0
9 3 4
0
19. An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at a temperature of 13 c . The co-efficient of performance
of the engine is 5. The temperature of the air (to which heat is rejected) will be
1) 325o c 2) 325k 3) 39o c 4) 320o c
20. Four molecules of a gas have speeds 1, 2, 3 and 4 kms-1 respectively. The value of rms speed of
the molecules is (in kms-1)
15 15
1) 2) 2 15 3) 4) none
2 2
21. A glass tube 1.5 m long and open at both ends, is immersed vertically in a water tank
completely. A tuning fork of 660Hz is vibrated and kept at the upper end of the tube and the
tube is gradually raised out of water. The total number of resonances heard before the tube
comes out of water , taking velocity of sound in air 330 m/sec is
1) 12 2) 6 3) 8 4) 4

22. A table is revolving on its axis at 5 revolutions per second. A sound of frequency 1000Hz is
fixed on the table at 70 cm from the axis. The minimum frequency heard by a listener
standing at a distance from the table will be (speed of sound = 352 m/s)
1) 1000 Hz 2) 1066 Hz 3) 941 Hz 4) 352 Hz
1
23. Two Convex lenses of powers 4D and 6D are separated by a distance of m . The power of the
6
optical system so formed is

1) -6 D 2) +6 D 3) 10 D 4) 2 D

24. In a compound microscope , the focal lengths of two lenses are 1.5 cm and 6.25 cm an object is
placed at 2 cm from objective and the final image is formed at 25 cm from eye lens. The
distance between the two lenses is
1) 6.00 cm 2) 7.75 cm 3) 9.25 cm 4) 11.00 cm

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25. The minimum deviation produced by a hollow prism filled with a certain liquid is found to be
300. The light ray is also found to be refracted at angle of 300. The refractive index of the
liquid is
3 3
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4)
2 2
26. If a transparent medium of refractive index   1.5 and thickness t  2.5 105 m is inserted
in
front of one of the slits of Young’s Double slit experiment, how much will be the shift in the
interference pattern. The distance between the slits is 0.5 mm and that between slits and
screen is 100 cm.
1) 5 cm 2) 2.5 cm 3) 0.25 cm 4) 0.1 cm

27. Conditions of diffraction is ( a= size of the object / aperture ,   wave length of light)
a a a
1)  1 2)  1 3)  1 4) none of these
  
28. An infinite number of charges , each of charge 1c are placed on the x-axis with co-ordinates
x=1,2,4,8,….  . If a charge of 1C is kept at the origin, then what is the net force acting on 1C
charge
1) 9000 N 2) 12000 N 3) 24000 N 4) 36000 N
29. A parallel plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance C is filled with three
different di-electric materials having di-electric constants k1 , k 2 and k3 as shown. If a single
di-electric material is to be used to have the same capacitance C in this capacitor, then its
di-electric constant k is given by

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 kk
1)    2)   3) k  1 2  2k3 4) k  k1  k2  2k3
k k1 k2 2k3 k k1  k 2 2k3 k1  k 2
30. In the figure a potential of +1200 V is given to point A and point B is earthed, What is the
potential at the point P?

1) 100 V 2) 200 V 3) 400 V 4) 600 V

31. The equivalent resistance between the points P and Q in the network given here is equal to

3
(given r = )
2
1 3
1)  2) 1 3)  4) 2
2 2

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32. A Voltmeter having a resistance of 998 ohm is connected to a cell of emf 2 volt and internal
resistance 2 ohms. The error in the measurement of emf will be

1) 4 10 1 volt 2) 2 10 3 volt 3) 4 10 3 volt 4) 2 10 1 volt

33. What should be the value of resistance R in the circuit shown in figure so that the electric
bulb consumes the rated power?

1) 4.5 2) 6 3) 12 4) none

34. Two wires AO and OC carry equal currents i as shown in figure. One end of both the wire
extends to infinity. Angle AOC is  . The magnitude of magnetic field at a point P on the
bisector of these two wires at a distance r from point O is

 
 1  cos 
 i   i   i 2  i 
1) o cot   2) o cot   3) o  4) o  
2 r 2 4 r 2 2 r sin  4 r  2 
2
35. A long straight metal rod has a very long hole of radius ‘a’ drilled parallel to the rod axis as
shown in figure. If the rod carries a current I, find the magnetic field on axis of hole. Given c
is the centre of the hole and OC = c

 0ic  0ic 0i  b 2  a 2  0 ic

1) 2) 3) 4)
 b2  a 2  2  b 2  a 2  2c 2b 2

36. The   1 / T  graph for an alloy of paramagnetic nature is shown in figure. The Curie
Constant is, then

1) 57 k 2) 2.8 103 k 3) 570 k 4) 17.5 103 k

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37. An air core solenoid has 1000 turns and is one meter long. Its cross-sectional area is 10 cm2.
Its self-inductance is
1) 0.1256 mH 2) 12.56 mH 3) 1.256 mH 4) 125.6 mH
38. A Virtual Current of its 4A and 50 Hz flows in an AC circuit containing a coil. The power
consumed in the coil is 240 W. If the Virtual Voltage across the coil is 100 Vits inductance will
be
1 1 1 1
1) H 2) H 3) H 4) H
3 5 7 9

39. The power factor of a good choke coil is

1) Nearly zero 2) Exactly zero 3) Nearly one 4) Exactly one
40. In an electromagnetic wave, the average energy density associated with magnetic field is
Li02 B2 0 B 2 0
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 0 2 2B 2

41. According to Einstein`s Photoelectric equation, the graph between the kinetic energy of
photoelectrons ejected and the frequency of incident radiation is

1) 2)

3) 4)
42. The log   log E graph between the energy E of an electron and its de-Brogile wavelength
 will be

1) 2) 3) 4)

43. Oribital acceleration of electron is

n2h2 n 2 h2 4n 2 h 2 4n 2 h 2
1) 2 2 3 2) 3) 4)
4 m r 2n 2 r 3 2 m 2 r 3 42 m 2 r 3

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44. The circuit shown in following figure contains two diode D1 and D2 each with a forward
resistance of 50 ohm and with infinite backward resistance. If the battery voltage is 6 V, the
current through the 100 ohm resistance (in amperes) is

1) zero 2) 0.020 3) 0.03 4) 0.036

45. Figure gives a system of logic gates. From the study of truth table it can be found that to
produce a high out put (1) at R, we must have

1) x  0; y  1 2) x  1; y  1 3) x  1; y  0 4) x  0; y  0

CHEMISTRY
46. The strength of bond formed by overlapping of atomic orbitals is in order
1) s  s  s  p  p  p 2) s  s  p  p  s  p
3) s  p  s  s  p  p 4) p  p  s  s  s  p
3 3 2
47. The molecule which possess both sp and sp d hybridisation is
1) solid PCl5 2) gaseous PCl5 3) PCl4 4) PCl6
48. Which of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation energy of
O2 , O2 , O2 and O22  ?
1) O2  O2  O2  O22 2) O2  O2  O2  O22 
3) O2  O2  O2  O22  4) O2  O2  O2  O22 
49. Ethers are more volatile than alcohols having same molecular formula. This is due to
1) Intermolecular H-bonding in ethers 2) Intermolecular H-bonding in alcohols
3) Dipolar character of ethers 4) Resonance structure in alcohols
50. A co-ordination complex compound of cobalt has the molecular formulae containing five
ammonia molecules, one nitro group and two chlorine atoms for one cobalt atom. One mole of
this compound produces three mole ions in an aqueous solution and on reacting with excess of
AgNO3, AgCl precipitate. The ionic formula for thiscomplex would be
1) Co  NH 3 5  NO2   Cl2 2) Co  NH 3 5 Cl  Cl  NO2  
3) Co  NH 3 4  NO2  Cl2  Cl 4) Co  NH 3 5   NO2  2 Cl2 
51. Amongst TiF62 , CoF63Cu2Cl2 and NiCl42 (atomic number Ti=22,Co=27,Cu=29,Ni=28). The
colourless species are
1) CoF63 andNiCl42  2) TiF62 andCoF63
3) Cu2 Cl2 andNiCl42  4) TiF62  andCu2Cl2

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44. The circuit shown in following figure contains two diode D1 and D2 each with a forward
resistance of 50 ohm and with infinite backward resistance. If the battery voltage is 6 V, the
current through the 100 ohm resistance (in amperes) is

1) zero 2) 0.020 3) 0.03 4) 0.036

45. Figure gives a system of logic gates. From the study of truth table it can be found that to
produce a high out put (1) at R, we must have

1) x  0; y  1 2) x  1; y  1 3) x  1; y  0 4) x  0; y  0

CHEMISTRY
46. The strength of bond formed by overlapping of atomic orbitals is in order
1) s  s  s  p  p  p 2) s  s  p  p  s  p
3) s  p  s  s  p  p 4) p  p  s  s  s  p
3 3 2
47. The molecule which possess both sp and sp d hybridisation is
1) solid PCl5 2) gaseous PCl5 3) PCl4 4) PCl6
48. Which of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation energy of
O2 , O2 , O2 and O22  ?
1) O2  O2  O2  O22 2) O2  O2  O2  O22 
3) O2  O2  O2  O22  4) O2  O2  O2  O22 
49. Ethers are more volatile than alcohols having same molecular formula. This is due to
1) Intermolecular H-bonding in ethers 2) Intermolecular H-bonding in alcohols
3) Dipolar character of ethers 4) Resonance structure in alcohols
50. A co-ordination complex compound of cobalt has the molecular formulae containing five
ammonia molecules, one nitro group and two chlorine atoms for one cobalt atom. One mole of
this compound produces three mole ions in an aqueous solution and on reacting with excess of
AgNO3, AgCl precipitate. The ionic formula for thiscomplex would be
1) Co  NH 3 5  NO2   Cl2 2) Co  NH 3 5 Cl  Cl  NO2  
3) Co  NH 3 4  NO2  Cl2  Cl 4) Co  NH 3 5   NO2  2 Cl2 
51. Amongst TiF62 , CoF63Cu2Cl2 and NiCl42 (atomic number Ti=22,Co=27,Cu=29,Ni=28). The
colourless species are
1) CoF63 andNiCl42  2) TiF62 andCoF63
3) Cu2 Cl2 andNiCl42  4) TiF62  andCu2Cl2

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52. A sample of water containing some dissolved table sugar and common salt is passed through
organic ion exchange resins. The resulting water will be
1) tasteless 2) Sweet 3) Salty 4) none of these
53. The function of fluorspar in the electrolytic reduction of alumina dissolved in fused cryolite
( Na3 AIF6 ) is
1) as a catalyst
2) to lower the fusion temperature of the Alumina
3) to decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon at the anode
4) to decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon at the cathode
54. Which of the following metals behave different than that of others when react with very dilute
Nitric acid?
1) Iron 2) Copper 3) Zinc 4) Tin
55. A green coloured solution of some salt changes its colour to light pink on passing ozone
through it. Which of the following species represent pink and green colour respectively?
1) Mn 2  andMnO2 2) MnO42  andMnO4 3) MnO4 andMnO42  4) Cu  andCu 2
56. When chlorine reacts with cold and dilute solution of sodium hydroxide, the products
obtained are
1) Cl   ClO  2) Cl   ClO2 3) Cl   ClO3 4) Cl   ClO4
57. Match the shape to the formula. Which pairing is incorrect?
1) XeO3 = trigonal planar 2) XeO2 F2  see  saw
 
3)  XeF3   T shape 4)  XeF5   distorted pentagonal bipyramidal
58. The elements which occupy the peaks of ionization energy curve are
1) Na, K , Rb, Cs 2) Na, Mg , Cl , I 3) Cl , Br , I , F 4) He, Ne, Ar, Kr
59. When sodium metal is dissolved in liquid ammonia, blue colour solution is formed. The blue
colour is due to
1) Solvated Na+ ions 2) Solvated electrons
3) Solavated NH 2 ions 4) Solvated protons
60. An organic compound A  C4 H 9Cl  on reaction with Na/diethyl ether gives a hydrocarbon,
which on monochlorination gives only one chloro derivative. A is
1) t-butyl chloride 2) s- butyl chloride
3) Iso butyl chloride 4) n- butyl chloride
61. The product (Y) of the following sequence of the reactions would be
Me OH
(i) CHCl3/NaOH/heat Br2/Fe Br3
+ X Y
(ii) H3O

1) 2)

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3) 4)
62. End product of the following sequence of reaction is

O
O

1) Yellow ppt of CHI3 , COOH 2) Yellow ppt of CHI3 , CHO

O
COOH

COOH
3) Yellow ppt of CHI3 , 4) Yellow ppt of CHI3 ,

63. Which one of the following reacts with HCN and Tollens reagent, but is not oxidised by
Fehling`s solution?
1) Methanal 2) Ethanal 3) Benzaldehyde 4) Acetone
64. The correct order of basicity of amines in water is
1)  CH 3  2 NH   CH 3 3 N  CH 3 NH 2 2) CH 3 NH 2   CH 3 3 NH   CH 3 3 N
3)  CH 3 3 N   CH 3  2 NH  CH 3 NH 2 4)  CH 3 3 N  CH 3 NH 2   CH 3 2 NH
65. Epimers are pair of diastereoisomeric compounds. D-glucose and D-mannose are epimers
which differ in configuration at position
1) C5 2) C2 3) C4 4) C3
Ka Ka
66. The p 1 and p 2 of an amino acid are 2.3 and 9.7 respectively. The isoelectric point of the
amino acid is
1) 6.0 2) 3.7 3) 12.0 4) 7.4
67. Lung diseases are four times more in urban areas than in rural areas. This is due to the
presence of
1) CO2 2) N 2 3) CFC 4) SO2
68. Streptomycin,a well-known antibiotic, is a derivative of
1) peptides 2) carbohydrates 3) purines 4) Terpenes
H 2 / Pd  BaSO4 C  2 / H 2O
69. CH  CH  Quinoline
 A   B ‘B’ is
1) C2 H 4C 2 2) C2 H 5C  3) CHC  3 4) C   CH 2  CH 2  OH
Conc . HI anhydrousHI
70. B  mix  
2 moles
  CH 3 3 C  O  CH 3 1mole
 A  mix 
1) A and B are identical mixture of CH 3 I and  CH 3 3 C  OH
2) A and B are identical mixture of CH 3OHand  CH 3 3 C  I
3) A is a mixture of CH 3 Iand  CH 3 3 C  OH B is a mixture of CH 3OHand  CH 3 3 C  I
4) none of these

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71. Which one of the following species is most stable
1) p  O2 N  C6 H 4  CH 2 2) p  CH 3O  C6 H 4  CH 2
3) p  Cl  C6 H 4  CH 2 4) C6 H 5  CH 2
72. Copper matte is a molten mixture of
1) Cu2O  Little FeS 2) Cu2 S  Little FeO
3) Cu2O  Little FeO 4) Cu2 S  Little FeS
73. The correct IUPAC name of the compound is
OH

1) 3  1  Methylethenyl   4  hydroxypen tan  2  one

2) 3  1  Hydroxyethyl   4  methylpent  4  en  2  one
3) 3  1  Hydroxymethyl   4  methylenepen tan  2  one
4) 3  1  Oxoethyl   4  methylpent  4  en  2  ol
74. Which of the compounds with molecular formula C5 H10 yields acetone as one of the product
on ozonolysis?
1) 3-methyl-1-butene 2) cyclopentane 3) 2-methyl-1-butene 4) 2-methyl-2-butene
75. The maximum number of stereoisomers possible for 2-hydroxy-2-methyl butanoic acid is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
76. Which one of the following is used to make ‘non-stick’ cookware?
1) PVC 2) Polystyrene
3) Polyethylene terephthalate 4) Polytetrafluoroethylene

77. The speed of a photon is one-hundredth of the speed of light in vacuum. What is the
de Brogile wavelength? Assume that one mole of photons has a mass equal to one gram
[h=6.626 x 10-27 erg .sec]
1) 3.3110 3 A0 2) 1.33 103 A0 3) 3.13 102 A0 4) 1.3110 2 A0
1
78. Two gaseous equilibria SO2 g   O2 g   SO3 g  and 2SO3 g   2SO2 g   O2 g  have equilibrium
2
constants K1 and K2 respectively at 298 K. which of the following relationships between K1
and K2 is correct?
1 1
1) K1  K 2 2) K 2  K12 3) K 2  2 4) K 2 
K1 K1
79. The rate constant of the reaction
2 H 2O2 (aq)  2 H 2O (l )  O2 ( g ) is 3 x 10-3 min-1
At what concentration of H2O2, the rate of the reaction will be 2 x 10-4 Ms-1?
1) 6.67 x 10-2 (M) 2) 2 (M) 3) 4 (M) 4) 0.08 (M)
80. For the non-stoichiometric reaction, 2A+BC+D, the following kinetic data were obtained in
three separate experiments, all at 298 K

The rate law for the formation of C is

dc dc 2 dc 2 dc
1)  k  A B  2)  k  A  B  3)  k  A B  4)  k  A
dt dt dt dt
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81. The standard reduction potential for Cu 2 / Cu is +0.34 V. The reduction potential at pH = 14
 Cu is  K sp Cu  OH  2   1.0  1020 
for Cu 2  2e  
1) - 0.25 V 2) + 0.25 V 3) -0.34 V 4) +0.34 V
82. The behavior of a real gas is usually depicted by plotting compressibility factor Z versus P at
a constant temperature. At high temperature and high pressure,Z is usually more than one.
This fact can be explained by vander Waals equation when
1) the constant ‘a’ is negligible and not ‘b’ 2) the constant ‘b’ is negligible and not ‘a’
3) both constants ‘a’ and ‘b’ are negligible 4) both the constants ‘a’ and ‘b’ are not negligible
83. The pKa of a weak acid (HA) is 4.5 . The pOH of an aqueous buffered solution of HA in which
50 0 0 of the acid is ionized is
1) 4.5 2) 2.5 3) 9.5 4) 7.0
84. An element crystallizes in fcc lattice having edge length 350 pm. Maximum radius of the atom
which can be placed in the interstitial site without distorting the structure is
1) 58.55 pm 2) 117 pm 3) 51.23 pm 4) 83 pm

85. The tetrahedral voids formed by ccp arrangement of Cl ions in rock salt structure are
1) occupied by Na+ ions 2) occupied by Cl  ions
3) occupied by either Na+ or Cl  ions 4) vacant

86. Following data has been given for CO2 for the concentration in H2O

Temperature Henrys constant Pressure

273K 600atm 0.30 atm
333K 3400atm P2

If solution of CO2 in H2O is heated from 273 to 333 k, pressure(p2) needed to keep CO2 in
the solution is
1) 0.108 atm 2) 1.7 atm 3) 0.212 atm 4) 0.468 atm
o
87. A solution of urea (molar mass 60) boils at 100.18 C at atmospheric pressure. If Kf and Kb for
water are 1.86 and 0.512 K molality-1 respectively, the above solution will freeze at
1) -6.54oC 2) 6.54oC 3) -0.654oC 4) 0.654oC
88. Which of the following is contributed towards the extra stability of lyophilic colloids?
1) Hydration 2) charge 3) colour 4) Tyndall effect
89. If 900 J/g of heat is exchanged at boiling point of water, then what is the increase in entropy
1) 43.4 J/mol 2) 87.2 J/mol 3) 900 J/mol 4) zero
90. Smelting of iron ore takes place through this reaction
2 Fe2 O3  s   3C  s   4 Fe  s   3CO2  g 
H of of Fe2 O3 and CO2 are -8242 kJ/mol and -393.7 kJ/mol
The reaction is
1) Endothermic 2) Exothermic 3) H  0 4) none of these
BIOLOGY
91. Organisms that fix nitrogen in aquatic habitats are
1) Brown algae 2) Green algae 3) Cyanobacteria 4) All of these
92. Which of one following events do not take place during normal inspiration in human?
1) Upward and outward movement of ribs and sternum
2) Contraction of phrenic muscles
3) Increased intra pulmonary pressure
4) Decreased intra pulmonary pressure
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81. The standard reduction potential for Cu 2 / Cu is +0.34 V. The reduction potential at pH = 14
 Cu is  K sp Cu  OH  2   1.0  1020 
for Cu 2  2e  
1) - 0.25 V 2) + 0.25 V 3) -0.34 V 4) +0.34 V
82. The behavior of a real gas is usually depicted by plotting compressibility factor Z versus P at
a constant temperature. At high temperature and high pressure,Z is usually more than one.
This fact can be explained by vander Waals equation when
1) the constant ‘a’ is negligible and not ‘b’ 2) the constant ‘b’ is negligible and not ‘a’
3) both constants ‘a’ and ‘b’ are negligible 4) both the constants ‘a’ and ‘b’ are not negligible
83. The pKa of a weak acid (HA) is 4.5 . The pOH of an aqueous buffered solution of HA in which
50 0 0 of the acid is ionized is
1) 4.5 2) 2.5 3) 9.5 4) 7.0
84. An element crystallizes in fcc lattice having edge length 350 pm. Maximum radius of the atom
which can be placed in the interstitial site without distorting the structure is
1) 58.55 pm 2) 117 pm 3) 51.23 pm 4) 83 pm

85. The tetrahedral voids formed by ccp arrangement of Cl ions in rock salt structure are
1) occupied by Na+ ions 2) occupied by Cl  ions
3) occupied by either Na+ or Cl  ions 4) vacant

86. Following data has been given for CO2 for the concentration in H2O

Temperature Henrys constant Pressure

273K 600atm 0.30 atm
333K 3400atm P2

If solution of CO2 in H2O is heated from 273 to 333 k, pressure(p2) needed to keep CO2 in
the solution is
1) 0.108 atm 2) 1.7 atm 3) 0.212 atm 4) 0.468 atm
o
87. A solution of urea (molar mass 60) boils at 100.18 C at atmospheric pressure. If Kf and Kb for
water are 1.86 and 0.512 K molality-1 respectively, the above solution will freeze at
1) -6.54oC 2) 6.54oC 3) -0.654oC 4) 0.654oC
88. Which of the following is contributed towards the extra stability of lyophilic colloids?
1) Hydration 2) charge 3) colour 4) Tyndall effect
89. If 900 J/g of heat is exchanged at boiling point of water, then what is the increase in entropy
1) 43.4 J/mol 2) 87.2 J/mol 3) 900 J/mol 4) zero
90. Smelting of iron ore takes place through this reaction
2 Fe2 O3  s   3C  s   4 Fe  s   3CO2  g 
H of of Fe2 O3 and CO2 are -8242 kJ/mol and -393.7 kJ/mol
The reaction is
1) Endothermic 2) Exothermic 3) H  0 4) none of these
BIOLOGY
91. Organisms that fix nitrogen in aquatic habitats are
1) Brown algae 2) Green algae 3) Cyanobacteria 4) All of these
92. Which of one following events do not take place during normal inspiration in human?
1) Upward and outward movement of ribs and sternum
2) Contraction of phrenic muscles
3) Increased intra pulmonary pressure
4) Decreased intra pulmonary pressure
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93. The number of NADH molecules per glucose molecules taken electrons to the ETS is
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 10
94. Incorrect statement from the following regarding conducting part of human respiratory
system is
1) Transports the atmospheric air to alveoli
2) Clears the air from foreign particles
3) Humidifies and also brings the air to body temperature
4) Initial bronchioles are not supported by C- shaped cartilaginous rings

95. Identify the correct order of below pictures

a) b) c) d) e)
1) Fucus, Porphyra,Dictyota, Laminaria,Polysiphonia
2) Polysiphonia, Fucus, Laminaria, Porphyra, Dictyota
3) Laminaria, Polysiphonia, Fucus, Dictyota, Porphyra
4) Porphyra, Fucus, Laminaria, Dictyota, Polysiphonia
96. Chronic respiratory disorder that reduces the respiratory surface is
1) Asthma 2) Bronchitis 3) Emphysima 4) Pneumonia
97. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for
1) Addition of preservatives to the product
2) Purification of product
3) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
4) Availability of oxygen throughout the process
98. Statement – I :- Atria and ventricles never contract together
Statement- II :- Myocardium of atria and ventricles is separated by fibrous skeleton
1) Both S –I and S –II are correct 2) S- I is incorrect and S- II are correct
3) If S- I is correct but S- II is incorrect 4) If both the S- I and S- II are incorrect
99. Which cross yields red,white and pink flowers variety of dog flower
1) RR x Rr 2) Rr x RR 3) Rr x Rr 4) Rr x rr
100. Which of the following activity is not related to stomach in adults?
I. Digestion of carbohydrates II. Formation of chyme
III. Formation of chyle IV. Presence of Rennin in the gastric juice
1) I, II only 2) I, III only 3) I, III, IV 4) I, II, III
101. At the metaphase plate during metaphase II of meiosis there are
1) Bivalents 2) Single chromosomes
3) Unpaired duplicated chromosomes 4) Always 23 chromosomes
102. Match the following and find out the correct combination
Column – I Column- II
A. Duodenum I. Outer layer of GIT
B. Stomach II. Hepatic lobule
C. Serosa III. C. Shaped
D. Glisson’s capsule IV. J. Shaped
A B C D A B C D
1) I II III IV 2) III IV I II
3) III IV II I 4) IV III I II
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103. Match the following
Choose the correct pair.
Plant Type of Parasite Haustorial Connection
I. Viscum Partial with only xylem of host stem
II. Santalum Partial with phloem of the host root
III. Orabanche Complete with xylem and phloem of host root
IV. Cuscuta Complete with xylem and phloem of host root

1) only II & III 2) only I &III 3) only I & IV 4) onlyIII & IV

104. How many of the following statements are not correct regarding bile salts?
A. Emulsification of lipids
B. activation of lipases
C. Synthesized in the gall bladder
D. Activation of amylases
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
105. Which one of the following pairs are wrongly matched
I) Water hyacinth— runner
II) Penicillium --- conidia
III) Bryophyllum --- sucker
IV) Agave --- bulbils

1) only II & III 2) only I & III 3) only I & IV 4)only III & IV
106. Which of the following matches correctly?
1) Factor II – Hageman Factor 2) Factor III – Prothrombin
3) Factor VIII – Antihaemophilic factor 4) Factor XII – Thromboplastin
107. List-I List-II
A. Hydrilla I. Astrosclereids
B. Eichhornia II. Spongy respiratory roots
C. Nymphaea III. Poorly developed roots
D. Jussiaea IV. Runner
V. Spongy stem
The correct match is
A B C D
1) II IV I III
2) III IV I II
3) V II III IV
4) III V I II
108. Congestion of the lungs is one of the main symptoms in
1) Myocardeal infarction 2) Cardiac arrest
3) Hypotension 4) Heart failure
109. Black (stem) rust of wheat is caused by
1) Alternaria solani 2) Ustilago nuda 3) Puccinia graminis 4) Xanthomonas oryzae
110. High threshold substances of renal fluid are absorbed
1) Passively by PCT 2) Actively by PCT 3) Passively by DCT 4) Actively by DCT
111. One of the important evolutionary features of alternation of generation from thallophyta to
Spermatophyta is:
1) Gradual elaboration of gametophyte
2) Gradual elaboration of sporophyte
3) Gradual reduction of gametophyte and sporophyte
4) Gradual reduction of sporophyte and elaboration of gametophyte

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112. Which of the following nitrogenous waste plays a role in osmotic gradient of medullary fluid?
1) Ammonia 2) Urea 3) Uric acid 4) All the above
113. Which of the following plant hormones stimulates the synthesis of alpha amylase ?
1) ABA 2) IAA 3) Ethylene 4) GA3
114. The organ of corti is a structure located on the: -
1) Reissner’s membrane 2) Basilar membrane
3) Tectorial membrane 4) Scala vestibuli
115. Choose the correct statements
1) The separated DNA fragments can be visualized only after staining DNA with Ethidium
bromide.
2) Retrovirus in animals have the ability to transform normal cell into cancerous cell.
3) Plasmids that carry genes to provide resistance to antibiotics are R- plasmids.
4) cDNA- mRNA hybrids are made by using reverse transcriptase
1) only 1&2 2) only 2&3 3) only 1, 2 &4 4) 1,2,3&4
116. Large area of cerebral cortex which neither sensory nor motor is
1) Broca’s area 2) Wernike’s area 3) Association area 4) Somaesthetic area
117. An organism with two copies of the same allele is
1) Heterologous for the allele 2) Homologous for the trait
3) Heterozygous for the trait 4) Homologous for the allele
118. Arthritis is inflammation in
1) Bones 2) Muscles 3) Joints 4) Cartilages
119. Endomembrane system includes
1) ER, Golgi body , Chloroplast 2) ER, Lysosomes,Mitochondria
3) Golgi body, Vacuole, Nucleosome 4) ER, Golgi body, Lysosomes and Vacuole
120. In the center of A is an elastic fibre called B. The thin filaments are firmly attached to the C.
Find out A, B,C respectively.
1) I band, Z line, Z line 2) A band, Z line, M line
3) a band, M line, Z line 4) I band, M line, Z line
121. Select the correct statement from the following
1) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria on animal waste.
2) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found in rumen of cattle.
3) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas is pure methane
4) Activated sludge-sediment in settlement tanks of sewage treatment plant is a rich source of
aerobic bacteria
122. Hyposecretion of thyroxine in adults can lead to
1) Grave’s disease 2) Tetany 3) Cretinism 4) Myxoedema
123. In the cross RrTt x rrtt
1) 25% will be tall with round seeds 2)All the offsprings will be tall with round seeds
3) 50% will be tall with round seeds 4)75%will be tall with round seeds
124. Choose the incorrect statement
a) all mammals are monocondylic
b) all cyclostomes do not posses jaws and paired fins
c) all reptiles have three chambered heart
d) all pisces do not have gills covered by operculum
1) a and b 2) b and c 3) a and c 4) c and d
125. Which of the following RNA has the highest molecular weight ?
1) t RNA 2) m RNA
3) r RNA 4) All RNAs have the same molecular weight

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126. One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both mouth as
well as anus is
1) Octopus 2) Asterias 3) Ascidia 4) Fasciola
127. Endosperm may completely be consumed by the developing embryo before in maturation in
1) Coconut 2) Datura
3) Pea & Groundnut 4) Castor, Pea and Groundnut
128. Which of the following statements about all the four of spongilla, leech,dolphin and penguin
is correct?
1) Penguin is homeothermic while the remaining are poikilothermic
2) All leeches is a fresh water form while the remaining marine
3) Spongilla has special collared cells called Choanocytes not found in the remaining three
4) All are bilaterally symmetrical
129. If 30% of an organism’s DNA is thymine, then
1) 20% is guanine 2) 30% is adenine
3) Both 1 & 2 are correct 4)70% is purine
130. Find out the incorrect statement from the following
1) Epithelia consists of three types of cell junction i.e tight junctions, adhering junction gap junction
2) In all the connective tissues the cells secrete collagen or elastic fibres except blood
3) Most of the cartilages in vertebrate embryos are replaced by bones in adults
4) Neuroglia make up less than one half the volume of neural tissue in our body
131. Substrate level phosphorylation takes place in
1)Electron transport system and transition reaction
2)Krebs cycle and transition reaction
3)Glycolysis and Krebs cycle
4) Glycolysis and ETS
132. Bronchioles and fallopian tubes are lined by
1) Stratified keratinized squamous epithelium
2) Stratified non keratinized squamous epithelium
3) Simple squamous epithelium
4) Ciliated epithelium
133. Hydrophyte with ribbon shaped leaves shows which type of contrivance for cross pollination
among the following ?
1) Dichogamy 2) Dicliny 3) Herkogamy 4) Diheterostyly
134. The basal podomere present in the leg of cockroach is
1) Cardo 2) Coxa 3) Tarsus 4) Scape
135. Which of the following combinations are correct for wheat ?
1) Genus: Triticum, Family: Anacardiaceae, Order: Poales, Class: Monocotyledonae
2) Genus: Triticum, Family: Poaceae, Order: Poales, Class: Dicotyledonae
3) Genus: Triticum, Family: Poaceae, Order: Sapindales, Class: Monocotyledonae
4) Genus: Triticum, Family: Poaceae, Order: Poales, Class: Monocotyledonae
136. Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if
1) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to of the fallopian tube
2 ) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic junction of the
cervix
3) the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hours of release of ovum in the uterus
4) the sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube

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137. Which of the following diagram represents a molecule of simple lipid ?

1) 2)

3) 4)
138. Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below
column-I column-II
I. Fertilization a. Isthmus of oviduct
II. Cleavage b. Later part of oviduct
III. Morula c. Cervix
IV. Blastocyst d. Ampulla of oviduct
V. Parturtion e. Uterine wall
1) I-d,II-a,III-b,IV-c,V-e 2) I-b,II-a,III-d,IV-c,V-e
3) I-b,II-a,III-e,IV-d,V-c 4) I-d,II-a,III-b,IV-e,V-c
139. In a type of apomixes known as adventives embryony, embryos develop directly from the
1) Nucellus or integuments 2) Synergids or antipodals in an embryosac
3) Accessory embryosacs in the ovule 4) Zygote
140. The family planning programmers to attain total reproductive health were initiated in the
year
1) 1971 2) 1951 3) 1981 4) 1941
141. C4 acid , formed in the metophycel of C4 plants leaf during photosynthesis is .
1) OOA Malic acid 2) Pyruvic acid 3) Succinic acid 4) Fumeric acid
142. The transfer of zygote or early embryos upto 8 blastomeres into fallopian tube is
1) GIFT 2) IUT 3) ZIFT 4) ICSI
143. If a Nerium plant consists of 33 leaves on its stem ( three leaves at each node) how many nodes
and internodes are presents respectively
1) 10, 11 2) 11, 10 3) 11, 11 4) 33, 32
144. If a colourblind man marries a woman who is homozygous for normal colour vision, the
probability of their son being colour blind is
1) 0 2) 0.5 3) 0.75 4) 1
145. The basis for the preparation of Chromosomal maps
1) Dominant and recessive characters 2) Mutations
3) Homozygosity 4) Linkage & Recombinations
146. Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct conclusion
which can be drawn for the character

1) the female parent is heterozygous

2) The parents could not have had a normal daughter for this character
3) The trait understudy could not be colour blindness
4) The male parent is homozygous dominant

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147. Consider the following statements.
A) All enzymes require an additiona chemical component called cofactor or co enzyme for
their catalytic function
B) The CO factor for RUBISCO is Mg 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct.
1) A only 2) B only 3) Both A and B 4) Neither A nor B
148. Sugar glider doen’t show adaptive radiation with
1) Kangaroo 2) Tiger cat 3) Flying squirrel 4) Both 1 and 2
149. S –I :- Selective markers in plasmids are used to identify recombination from non-recombinants.
S-II : -In genetic engineering, the antibioties are used as selectable markers.
1) S-I & S-II are correct 2) S –I & S-II are incorrect
3) S-I is correct ,S-II is incorrect 4) S-I is correct , S-II is correct
150. Which of the following was not explained by Darwin?
1) Arrival of the fittest 2) Survival of the fittest
3) Struggle for existence 4) Over reproduction
151. What feature in prokaryotes substitutes for the spindle action in eukaryotes ?
1) Looped DNA 2) Elongation of plasma membrane
3) Centrioles with asters 4) Fission instead of cytokinesis
152. Mark the Incorrect combination regarding origin of various stages of human evolution
1) Dryopithecus – 15 mya 2) Home erectus – in 1891
3) Homo sapiens – 75000 ya 4) Australopithecus – 2 mya
153. Myxotrophic nutrition occurs in
1) Paramecium 2) Euglena 3) Plasmodium 4) Amoeba
154. Which of the following sets of disease is caused by bacteria?
1) Tuberculosis and Tetanus 2) Typhoid and typhus fever
3) Herpes and Influenza 4) kala azar and small pox
155. Bacteria that get their energy by fermentation and from whom oxygen is lethal are called
1) Obligate aerobes 2) Obligate anaerobes
3) Facultative anaerobes 4) Facultative aerobes
156. Match the following
Column – I Column- II
A. Benign tumor I. Metastasis
B. Contact inhibition II. Non- invading
C. Malignant tumor III. Normal cells
A B C
1) III I II
2) II III I
3) I II III
4) II I III
157. Identify the set which has all organisms. Used in biological control of pests.
1) Triochoderma, Nucleo polyhedrovirus, Bacillus thuringiesis , ladybind
2) Dragon fly, Bacillus thuringiensis, ladybird ,Aphids
3) Lady bird , Penicillium , Baculoviruses , Aspergillus
4) Trichoderma , Aspergillus, Bacillus thuringiensis , Nucleopolyhedrovirus
158. Hisardale is developed by a cross between
1) Jack and Mare 2) Stallion and Jennet
3) Sahiwal and Nageri 4) Bikaneri ewe & Marino ram
159. Select the mismatch.
1) Cycas –Dioecious 2) Salvinia –Heterosporus
3) Equisetum –Homosporous 4) Pinus –Dioecious
160. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regards to MOET
1) It has been demonstrated for cow, sheep, mare buffaloes etc
2) It is used to increase herd size in short time
3) The fertilized eggs are recovered non surgically and transferred to genetic mother
4) In this method a cow is administered hormones with FSH like activity

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161. Which of the following should not be associated with electron transport system ?
1) Movement of protons into the thylakoid space
2) Absorption of solar energy
3) Cytochromes 4) Formation of ATP
162. Human insulin is being commercially produced from a transgenic species of
1) Escherischia coli 2) Micobacterium tuberculosis
3) Rhizobium 4) Aspergillus niger
163. Which one is correct about Atlas 66 ?
1) It has high protein content
2) It has been used as a donor for improving cultivated wheat
3) Both 1 and 2 4) None
164. Sabin vaccine is
1) IPV 2) MMR 3) BCG 4) OPV
165. The Polymerase Chain Reaction
1) Quickly amplifies the small samples of DNA
2) Is involved in the production of transgenic organisms
3) Is used to make literally billions of copies in only a few hours
4) Starts with one gene sized piece of RNA
1) only 1,2 and 3 are correct 2) only 1 and 2 are correct
3) only 2 and 4 are correct 4) only 1 and 3 are correct
166. Some species regulate but only over a limited range of environmental conditions are example
of
1) Regulation 2) Conformers 3) Partial regulators 4) Partial conformers
167. Read the following four statements and select the right option having both correct statements
I) Z scheme of light reaction takes place in presence of PSI only
II) Only PSI is functional in cyclic photophosphorylation
III) Cyclic photophosphorylation results in synthesis of ATP and NADPH
IV Stroma lamellae lack PSII as well as NADP reductase
1) only II & IV 2) only I & II 3) only II & III 4) onlyIII & IV
168. Standing crop is measured as the
1) Mass of living organisms in a unit area 2) Number of organisms in a unit area
3) Energy of organism in a unit area 4) Both 1 & 2
169. Find out the False statements from the following.
I. Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals, vitamins and proteins called a
biofortification.
II. The antibiotic Penicillin was discovered by Waksman.
III. Germplasm collection is the entire collection having all the diverse alleles for all genes in
a given crop.
IV. The fungi which caused diseases in insects are known as insecticidal fungi.
V. Heterotrophic bacteria helpful to human in making curd from milk.
VI. Another name for ectomycorrhizal fungi is vesicular arbuscular mycorrhizal fungus.
VII. Free living anaerobic nitrogen fix ing bacteria is Rhizobium.
1) III VI IV VII 2) II IV VI VII
3) I II III IV 4) III V VI VII
170. For many taxonomic groups, species inventories are more complete in
1) Tropical region 2) Temperate region 3) Arctic region 4) Antarctic region
171. Casparian strips affect
1) Minerals but not water movement
2) Water and minerals movement into vascular cylinder
3) Water but not minerals movement
4) Neither the flow of water nor the flow of minerals into plant

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S R I G A Y A T R I E D U C A T I O N A L I N S T I T U T I O N S - AP & TS
172. Large ecosystem is called
1) Biome 2) Ecotone 3) Community 4) Ecosphere
173. Which statements are correct?
a. Degenracy of code is related to third member of codon
b . Single codon, codes for more than one amino acid
c. In codon, first two bases are more specific
d. In codons, third base is wobble e. Code is universal
1) a, b, c, d, e 2) Only a, b, d 3) Only a, c, d 4) Only a, c, d, e
174. An example of sexual deceit is
1) Barnacle & Whale 2) Clown fish & Sea anaemone
3) Hermit crab & Sea anaemone 4) Bees & Orchid flowers
175. Vascular bundels in monocotyledons are considered closed because.
1) There are no vessels with perforations 2) Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem
3) A Bundle sheath surrounds each bundle 4) Cambium is absent
176. The correct unit of productivity is
1) Cal m2 2) J m2 3)  Kcal m 2  yr 1 4) g m 2
177. Slipping of chiasmata towards the ends of bivalent is called
1)Terminalisation 2) Diakinesis 3) Interkinesis 4) Heteropycnosis
178. The graph shows two types of population growth curves. A is exponential and B is logistic.

Which one of the following growth model considered as more realistic one?
1) A 2) B 3) Both A & B 4) none of the above
179. Identify the parts correctly in the picture

A B C D
1) Endosperm plumule Radicle pericarp
2) Radicle pericarp Endosperm plumule
3) plumule Radicle pericarp Endosperm
4) pericarp Endosperm plumule Radicle
180. The Indian rhinoceros is a natural inhabitant of which one of the Indian states
1) Uttarakhand 2) Uttar pradesh 3) Himachal pradesh 4) Assam

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S R I G A Y A T R I E D U C A T I O N A L I N S T I T U T I O N S - AP & TS

SRIGAYATRI EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS

INDIA

Time: 3 Hours
NEET TOT GT-4 Max. Marks: 720 M
KEY
PHYSICS

1) 4 2) 4 3) 2 4) 3 5) 3 6) 2 7) 2 8) 3 9) 1 10) 1
11) 3 12) 1 13) 3 14) 4 15) 3 16) 3 17) 3 18) 1 19) 3 20) 1
21) 2 22) 3 23) 2 24) 4 25) 1 26) 2 27) 1 28) 2 29) 2 30) 3
31) 2 32) 3 33) 2 34) 3 35) 2 36) 1 37) 3 38) 2 39) 1 40) 2
41) 4 42) 3 43) 1 44) 2 45) 3

CHEMISTRY

46) 1 47) 1 48) 1 49) 2 50) 1 51) 4 52) 2 53) 2 54) 2 55) 3
56) 1 57) 1 58) 4 59) 2 60) 1 61) 2 62) 3 63) 3 64) 1 65) 2
66) 1 67) 4 68) 2 69) 4 70) 3 71) 2 72) 4 73) 2 74) 4 75) 2
76) 4 77) 2 78) 3 79) 3 80) 4 81) 1 82) 1 83) 3 84) 3 85) 4
86) 2 87) 3 88) 1 89) 1 90) 1

BIOLOGY

91) 3 92) 3 93) 4 94) 4 95) 3 96) 3 97) 4 98) 1 99) 3 100) 3
101) 3 102) 2 103) 2 104) 3 105) 2 106) 3 107) 4 108) 4 109) 3 110) 2
111) 2 112) 2 113) 4 114) 2 115) 4 116) 3 117) 2 118) 3 119) 4 120) 1
121) 4 122) 4 123) 1 124) 3 125) 2 126) 4 127) 3 128) 3 129) 3 130) 4
131) 3 132) 4 133) 2 134) 2 135) 4 136) 1 137) 1 138) 4 139) 1 140) 2
141) 1 142) 3 143) 2 144) 1 145) 4 146) 1 147) 2 148) 3 149) 1 150) 1
151) 2 152) 2 153) 2 154) 1 155) 2 156) 2 157) 1 158) 4 159) 4 160) 3
161) 2 162) 1 163) 3 164) 4 165) 4 166) 3 167) 1 168) 4 169) 2 170) 2
171) 2 172) 1 173) 4 174) 4 175) 4 176) 3 177) 1 178) 2 179) 1 180) 4

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