Theme-1

Building Materials & Concrete Technology

1) Granite is an example of
A. aqueous rocks B. sedimentary rocks
C. metamorphic rocks D. igneous rocks ✓( Av‡Mœq)
2) The strength and durability of concrete depends upon
A.size of aggregates B. grading of aggregates
C. moisture contents of aggregates D.all of these ✓
3) The breaking up of cohesion in a mass of concrete is called
A.workability B. bleeding
C. segregation✓ D.creep
4) The workability of concrete is defined as the
ease with which it can be mixed, transported and
A. B. breaking up of cohesion in a mass of concrete
placed in position in a homogeneous state✓
separation of water or water-cement mixture from
C. D.none of the ab
the freshly mixed concrete
5) The continuous strain, which the concrete undergoes due to application of external loads, is called
A.workability B. bleeding
C. segregation D.creep✓
6) The type of lime used in lime concrete is
A.fat lime B. poor lime
C. slaked lime D.hydraulic lime✓
7) The lime concrete has
A.less✓ B.more
C. same
8) Ferro-concrete is another name given to
A.plain cement concrete B. reinforced cement concrete✓
C. prestressed cement concrete D.none of these
9) The cement concrete in which high compressive stresses are artificially induced before its actual use, is
called
A.plain cement concrete B. reinforced cement concrete
C. prestressed cement concrete✓ D.lime concrete
10) For heat and sound insulation purposes, we shall use
A.vacuum concrete B. air-entrained concrete
C. saw dust concrete D.both (b) and (c) ✓
11) The removal of excess air after placing concrete helps in increasing the strength of concrete by
A.15 to 20%✓ B. 20 to 30%
C. 30 to 50% D.50 to 70%
12) The cement concrete prepared by mixing aluminium in it, is called
A.air-entrained concrete B. cellular concrete
C. aerated concrete D.any one of the above✓
13) The sound absorption coefficient of light weight concrete is nearly
A.twice✓ B. three times
C. four times D.six times
14) Laterite is chemically classified as
A.caleareous rock B. argillaceous rock✓
C. sillcious rock D.metamorphic rock
15) Which of the following is an example of agrillaceous rock?
A.Kaolin B. Slate
C. Laterite D.all of these✓
16) Which of the following is an example of silicious rock?
A.Granite B. Gneiss
C. Quartzite D.all of these✓
 Theme-2
17) Marble is an example of
A.aqueous rock B. metamorphic rock✓
C. sedimentary rock D.igneous rock
18) Granite is mainly composed of
A.quartz and mica B. felspar and mica
C. quartz and felspar D.quartz, felspar and mica✓
19) Sandstone consists of
A.quartz and lime B. quartz and silica
C. quartz, lime and silica✓ D.silica, lime and alumina
20) The compressive strength of granite is
A.50 to 70 MN/m2 B. 70 to 130 MN/m2✓
C. 130 to 170 MN/m2 D.170 to 200 MN/m2
21) A good building stone is one which does not absorb more than
A.5%✓ B. 10%
C. 15% D.25%
22) Which of the following statement is wrong?
A.The concrete can not be pumped. B. The concrete should have maximum creep.
The concrete structures can be put to use
C. D.all of the above✓
immediately ater their construction.
23) The material used as an ingredient of concrete is usually
A.cement B. aggregate
C. water D.all of these✓
24) A suitable admixture added at the time of preparing the concrete mix, makes the concrete.
A.water proof B. acid proof
C. highly strong D.all of these✓
25) The function of aggregates in concrete is to serve as
A.binding material B. filler✓
C. catalyst D.all of these
26) Calcareous material used in the manufacture of cement consists of
A.lime stone B. chalk
C. shells D.all of these✓
27) In the manufacture of cement, the dry or wet mixture of calcareous and argillaceous materials is burnt
at a temperature between
A.900? to 1000?C B. 1000?C to 1200?C
C. 1200?C to 1500?C D.1500?C to 1600?C✓
28) Argillaceous materials contain
A.calcium B.Lime C.alumina✓
29) The proportion of lime, silica, alumina and iron oxide in a good Portland cement should be
A.63 : 22 : 6 : 3✓ B. 62 : 22 : 3 : 6
C. 22 : 63 : 6 : 3 D.22 : 63 : 3 : 6
30) The gypsum is added to the cement for
A.providing high strength to the cement B. controlling the initial setting time of cement✓
C. lowering the clinkering temperature of cement D.all of the above
31) Lime when added in excess quantity
A.makes the cement unsound B. cuses the cement to expand and disintegrate
C. lowers the clinkering temperature of cement D.both (a) and (b) ✓
32) In order to provide colour, hardness and strength to the cement, the ingredient used is
A.lime B. silica
C. alumina D.iron oxide✓
33) After the final grinding, the cement is sieved through IS sieve number
A.9✓ B.12 C.24 D.48
34) Efflorescence in cement is caused due to the excess of
A.silica B.lime C.lime D.iron oxide
 Theme-3
35) Tricalcium silicate develops strength in ceme t for first 7 days.
A.Yes✓ B.No
36) Which of the following statement is correct?
The high early strength is obtained by addin The dicalcium silicate provides good ultimate
A. B.
tricalcium silicate in cement. strength to cement.
The tetra calcium alumino ferrite has poor
C. D.all of the above✓
cementing value.
37) Rapid hardening cement is used
where form work is to be removed as early as
A.where high early strength is desired B.
possible
C. for constructing road pavements D.all of the above✓
38) The cement, widely used in retaining walls, is
A.rapid hardening cement B. low heat cement✓
C. sulphate resisting cement D.ordinary Portland cement
ow heat cement contains more lime than ordinary Portland cement.
A.True B.False ✓
39) Which of the following cements is expected to have the highest compressive strength after 3 days.
A.ordinary Portland cement B. rapid hardening cement
C. high alumina cement✓ D.sulphate resisting cement
40) For a structure subjected to the action of sea water, the cement used is
A.rapid hardening cement B. low heat cement
C. high alumina cement✓ D.sulphate resisting cement
41) The strength of concrete using air entraining cement gets reduced by
A.5 to 10% B.10 to 15%✓ C.15 to 20% D.20 to 25%
42) "Colocrete" is the commercial term for
A.high alumina cement B. coloured cement✓
C. low heat cement D.rapid hardening cement
43) Pezzolana is essentially a silicious material containing clay upto
A.20% B.40% C.60% D.80%✓
44) The degree of grinding of cement is called
A.fineness✓ B. soundness
C. impact value D.bulking
45) The fineness of cement is measured in terms of
A.percentage weight retained on IS sieve number 9 B. surface area in cm2 per gram of the cement
C. either (a) or (b) ✓ D.none of these
46) Too much finencess of cement
A.results cracks in concrete B. generates greater heat
C. develops early strength D.both (a) and (b) ✓
47) The setting time of cement is the governing factor for
A.mixing of concrete B. placing of concrete
C. compaction of concrete D.all of these✓
48) According to IS : 269 - 1976, the requirement of an ordinary Portland cement is that
the residue does not exceed 10% when sieved its expansion is not more than 10 mm for
A. B.
through IS sieve No. 9 unaerated cement
C. its initial setting time is not less than 30 minutes D.all of the above✓
49) The compressive strength of an ordinary Portland cement (1 : 3 cement mortar cube) after 7 days test
should not be less than
A.11 N/mm2 B. 17.5 N/mm2✓
C. 22 N/mm2 D.27.5 N/mm2
50) Vicat's apparatus is used to perform
A.fineness test B.soundness test C.soundness test D.soundness test
51) The knowledge of a standard consistency of a cement paste is essential to perform
A.setting time test B. soundness test
C. compressive strength test D.all of these✓
 Theme-4
52) In Vicat's apparatus, the diameter of Vicat plunger is
A.5 mm B. 10 mm✓
C. 15 mm D.20 mm
53) The percentage of water for making a cement paste of normal consistency varies from
A.15 to 25% B. 25 to 35%✓
C. 35 to 50% D.50 to 60%
54) To perform the initial setting time test, the water is added to the cement at the rate of
A.0.72 P B. 0.78 P
C. 0.85 P✓ D.0.95 P
55) Le-chatelier apparatus is used to perform
A.fineness test B. soundness test✓
C. consistency test D.compressive strength test
56) To perform the soundness test, the water is added to the cement at the rate of 0.72 P by weight of
cement, where P is the percentage of water required for normal consistency paste.
A.Correct✓ B.Incorrect
57) Initial setting time of ordinary Portland cement is
A.15 min B. 30 min✓
C. 60 min D.10 h
58) According to Indian standard specifications for the compressive strength test of cement, the cement and
standard sand mortar in the ratio of
A.1 ; 1 B. 1 ; 2
C. 1 ; 3✓ D.1 ; 4
59) During field test, the cement is said to be pure and of good quality when
a handful of cement, thrown into a bucket of water,
A.the colour of cement is uniformly greenish grey B.
floats
C. hand is thrusted into a bag of cement, it feels cool D.all of the above✓
60) The inert mineral material used for the manufacture of mortars and concretes is
A.cement B. water
C. aggregate✓ D.admixture
61) According to IS : 383 - 1970, a good a aggregate for concrete construction should be
A.chemically inert B. sufficiently strong
C. sufficiently hard and durable D.all of these✓
62) For reinforced concrete, the aggregate used is
A.sand B. gravel
C. crushed rock D.all of these✓
63) The material having particle size varying from 0.002 to 0.06 mm is termed as
A.silt✓ B. clay
C. sand D.none of these
64) An aggregate is said to be
A.coarse B.fine
C. cyclopean✓
65) The aggregate which pass through 75 mm IS sieve and entirely retain on 4.75 mm IS sieve is known as
A.cyclopean aggregate B. coarse aggregate✓
C. fin aggregate D.all-in-aggregate
66) The maximum particle size of coarse aggregate is
A.45 mm B.65 C.55 D.75mm✓
67) The maximum particle size of fine aggregate is
A. .5 mm B. 4.75 mm✓
C. 5.85 mm D.6.5 mm
68) The aggregate which pass through 4.75 mm IS sieve and entirely retain on 75 micron IS sieve is called
A.cyclopean aggregate B. coarse aggregate
C. fine aggregate✓ D.all-in-aggregate
69) The minimum particle size of coarse aggregate is
A.2.5 mm 4.75 mm✓ C.5.85 mm D..6.5
 Theme-5
70) The minimum particle size of fine aggregate is
A.0.0075 mm B. 0.075 mm✓
C. 0.75 mm D.0.95 mm
71) The value of bulk density of the aggregate depends upon
A.size distribution of aggregate B. shape of aggregate
C. specific gravity of aggregate D.all of these✓
72) The sum of percentages of all deleterious materials in the aggregate shall not exceed
A.5%✓ B. 10%
C. 15% D.20%
73) The resistance of an aggregate to compressive forces is known as
A.crushing value✓ B. impact value
C. abrasion value D.none of these
74) The resistance of an aggregate to wear is known as
A.shear value B. crushing value
C. abrasion value✓ D.impact value
75) The resistance of an aggregate to the effect of hydration of cement and weather is called
A.crushing value B. impact value
C. abrasion value D.soundness✓
76) Bulking of sand is
A.compacting of sand B. segregating sand of particular size
increase in volume of sand due to presence of
C. D.none of the above
moisture upto certain extent✓
77) With the moisture content of 5 to 10% by weight, the bulking of sand is increased by
A.20% B. 30%
C. 40% D.50%✓
78) The value of finencess modulus for fine sand may range between
A.1.1 to 1.3 B. 1.3 to 1.6
C. 1.6 to 2.2 D.2.2 to 2.6✓
79) If the fineness modulus of sand is 3, then the sand is graded as
A.very fine sand B. fine sand
C. medium sand D.coarse sand✓
80) If sea water is used for preparing concrete mix, it
A.reduces strength B. corrodes steel reinforcement
C. causes efflorescence D.all of these✓
81) The rule of water cement ratio was established by
A.Duff Abram✓ B. Plowm n
C. W. Simms D.Dr. Karl Terzaghi
Hydration of cement is due to the chemical action of water with
A.dicalcium silicate B. tricalcium silicate
C. tricalcium aluminate D.all of these✓
82) The development of first 28 days strength is on account of the hydration of
A.dicalcium silicate B. tricalcium silicate✓
C. tricalcium aluminate D.tetra calcium alumino ferrite
83) For the improvement of workability of concrete, the shape of aggregate recommended is
A.irregular B. angular
C. round✓ D.flaky
84) The use of air-entraining agents in concrete
A.increases workability of concrete B. decreases bleeding
C. decreases strength D.all of these✓
85) The workability of concrete is expressed by
A.water-cement ratio B. slump value
C. compaction factor D.both (a) and (b) ✓
86) The workability of concrete can be improved by adding
A.hydrated lime B.flyash C.calcium chloride D.all of these✓
 Theme-6
87) The steel mould used for slump test is in the form of a
A.cube B. cylinder
C. frustrum of a cone✓ D.none of these
88) The top diameter, bottom diameter and height of the mould used for slump test are respectively
A.100 mm, 200 mm, 300 mm✓ B. 200 mm 100 mm, 300 mm
C. 200 mm, 300 mm, 100 mm D.100 mm, 300 mm, 200 mm
89) For high degree of workability, the slump value should vary between
A.0 to 25 mm B. 25 to 50 mm
C. 50 to 80 mm D.80 to 100 mm✓
90) A fine-grained granite
A.offers higher resistance to weathering B. can be easily polished and worked
C. is used for exterior facing of buildings D.all of these✓
91) A limestone containing about 30% of alumina and silica is called
A.granular limestone B. compact limestone
C. magnesium limestone D.kankar✓
92) The compressive strength of sandstone is
A.40 MN/m2 B. 55 MN/m2
C. 65 MN/m2✓ D.80 MN/m2
93) The specific gravity of sandstone is
A.1.1 to 1.8 B. 1.8 to 2.65
C. 2.65 to 2.95✓ D.2.95 to 3.4
94) The quarrying of stone by the method of wedging is successfully carried out in
A.sandstones B. limestones
C. marbles D.all of these✓
95) The dressing of stone is done
A.immediately after quarrying✓ B. after seasoning
C. after three months of quarrying D.just before building
96) The crushing strength of a stone depends upon its
A.texture B. specific gravity
C. workability D.both (a) and (b) ✓
97) For the construction of retaining walls, a
A.soft B.hard C.heavy✓
98) For high degree of workability, the compaction factor is
A.0.65 B.0.65 C0.85 D.0.95✓
99) Workability of concrete mix having very low water-cement ratio should e obtained by
A.flexural strength test B. slump test
C. compaction factor test✓ D.Anyone t ese
100) The slump test of concrete is used to mesure its
A.consistency✓ B. mobility
C. homogeneity D.all of these
101) If the slump of concrete mix is 70 mm, its workability is considered to be
A.very low B.low C.medium✓ D.high
102) A compaction factor of 0.88 indictes that the workability of concrete mix is
A.very low B.low C.medium✓ D.high
103) More water should not be added in the concrete mix, as to increase
A.strength B. durability
C. water-cement ratio✓ D.all of these
104) The main object of proportioning concrete is to obtain
A.required strength and workability B. desired durability
C. water tightness D.all of these✓
105) The concrete mix of grade M 25 means that the compressive strength of 15 cm cubes at 28 days
after mixing is
A.15 N/mm2 B. 20 N/mm2
C. 25 N/mm2✓ D.30 N/mm2
 Theme-7
106) The ratio of different ingredients (cement, sand and aggregate) in concrete mix of grade M 20 is
A.1 ; 1 : 2 B. 1 ; 1.5 : 3✓
C. 1 ; 2 : 4 D.1 ; 3 : 6
107) In preliminary test, the concrete is placed in the mould in
A.two B. three✓
C. four D.five
108) The preliminary test should be repeated if the difference of compressive strength of three test
specimens ex eeds
A.0.5 N / mm2 B. 1 N / mm2
C. 1.5 N / mm2✓ D.2 N / mm2
109) The mass concrete in pier and abutments, the grade of concrete mix used, is
A.1 ; 1 : 2 B. 1 ; 1.5 : 3
C. 1 ; 2 : 4 D.1 ; 3 : 6✓
110) For highly loaded columns, the concrete mix used is of proportion
A.1 ; 1 : 2✓ B. 1 ; 1.5 : 3
C. 1 ; 2 : 4 D.1 ; 3 : 6
111) If the proportions of different ingredients (cement, sand and aggregate) are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 4,
then the grade of concrete is
A.M 10 B. M 15✓
C. M 20 D.M 25
112) If 30% excess water is added, the strength of concrete is reduced by
A.30% B. 40%
C. 50%✓ D.60%
113) The number of bags of cement required per cubic metre of 1 ; 2 ; 4 concrete will be approximately
A.2 to 3 B. 3 to 4
C. 4 to 5 D.5 to 6✓
114) The measuring 50 litres of aggregate, the inner dimensions of a farma should be
A.25 cm x 25 cm x 40 cm B. 29 cm x 29 cm x 48 cm
C. 30 cm x 30 cm x 50 cm D.31 cm x 31 cm x 52 cm✓
115) The process of mixing, transporting, placing and compacting the cement concrete should not take
more than
A.30 minutes✓ B. 60 minutes
C. 90 minutes D.120 minutes
116) For concreting of tunnel lining, the concrete is transported by
A.pumps✓ B. pans
C. wheel barrows D.containers
117) The concrete can be lifted by pumps through a maximum vertical distance of
A.10 m B. 20 m
C. 30 m D.50 m✓
118) The attrition test on stones is performed
for assessing the resistance of stone to the sun,
A.to determine the crushing strength of the stone B.
rain, wind etc.
for ascertain the stability of the stone when for determining the rate of wear of stone due to
C. D.
exposed to acid fumes grinding action under traffic✓
119) A first class brick should not absorb water more than
A.10% B.15% C.20% D.25%
120) A first class brick should have a minimum crushing strength of
A.7 MN/m2 B. 10.5 MN/m2✓
C. 12.5 MN/m2 D.14 MN/m2
121) The percentage of alumina in a good brick clay should vary from
A.20 to 30%✓ B. 30 to 40%
C. 40 to 50% D.50 to 60%
122) The percentage of silica in a good brick clay should vary from
A.20 to 30% B.30 to 40% C.40 to 50% D.50 to 60%✓
 Theme-8
123) Excess o silica in the clay
A.makes the brick brittle and weak✓ B. makes the brick crack and wrap on drying
changes the colour of the br ck from red to improves impermeability and durability of the
C. D.
yellow brick
124) Efflorescence is caused if
A.the alkaline salt is present in the bricks B. the clay used for making bricks contain pyrite
the water used for pugging the clay contains
C. D.all of the above✓
gypsum
125) The good clay for making bricks is
A.unweathered clay B. weathered clay✓
C. silted soil D.black cotton soil
126) The bricks after moulding should be dried in
A.open air B. sun for 3 to 8 days
C. air for 3 to 8 days but not in sun✓ D.hot air for 3 days
127) The frog of a brick is normally made on its
A.longer face B. shorter face
C. bottom face D.top face✓
The average out-turn of first class bricks in clamp burning is about
A.50% B. 60%✓
C. 70% D.80%
128) The average out-turn of first class bricks in kiln burning is
A.50 to 60% B. 60 to 70%
C. 70 to 80% D.80 to 90%✓
129) The burning of bricks in kilns is complete within
A.12 B.24✓ C.48 D.96
130) The bricks should be burnt at temperature from
A.300?C to 500?C B. 500?C to 700?C
C. 700?C to 1000?C D.1000?C to 1200?C✓
The compressive strength of second elass bricks should bot be less than
A.7.5 MN/m2✓ B. 9 MN/m2
C. 10.5 MN/m2 D.12 MN/m2
Jhama bricks are
A.131) well burnt having smooth and even surface B. slightly over burnt having rough surface
C. under burnt and can be easily broken D.over burnt with irregular shape✓
132) The compressive strength of perforated bricks should not be less than
A.4 MN/m2 B. 5 MN/m2
C. 6 MN/m2 D.7 MN/m2✓
133) The compressive strength of paving bricks should not be less than
A.20 MN/m2 B. 30 MN/m2
C. 40 MN/m2✓ D.50 MN/m2
134) For one cubic metre of brick masonry, the number of bricks required are
A.400 B.450 C.500 D.500
135) The dolomite bricks are
A.ordinary bricks B. acid refractory bricks
C. basic refractory bricks✓ D.neutral refractory bricks
136) Quick lime is a
A.carbonate of lime B. oxide of calcium
product left immediately after the calcination of
C. D.lime quickly treated with water
pure limestone✓
137) The fuel generally used for burning limestone is
A.coal B. charcoal
C. firewood D.any one of these✓
138) The commonly used lime in white washing is
A.quick lime B.fat lime✓ C.lean lime D.ydraulic lime
 Theme-9
139) The lime mortar is made from
A.quick lime B. fat lime
C. lean lime D.hydraulic lime✓
140) Quick lime on reaction with water gives
A.hydraulic lime B. slaked lime✓
C. hydrated lime D.poor lime
141) The main constituent of a Portland cement is
A.lime✓ B. alumina
C. iron oxide D.alkalies
142) The silica in Portland cement should be
A.10 to 20% B. 20 to 25%✓
C. 25 to 40% D.40 to 60%
143) The clinker is formed at a temperature of
A.500?C B. 1000?C
C. 1200?C D.1500?C✓
144) The amount of gypsum, usually, added in the manufacture of cement is
A.0.1 to 0.5% B. 0.5 to 1%
C. 1 to 3%✓ D.3 to 5%
145) The cementing property in cement is mainly due to
A.lime✓ B. silica
C. iron oxide D.alumina
146) The setting and hardening of cement paste is mainly due to the hydration and hydrolysis of
A.tri-calcium silicate B. di-calcium silicate
C. tri-calcium aluminate D.all of these✓
147) The compound responsible for the initial setting of cement, is
A.tri-calcium aluminate B. tetra-calcium alumino ferrite
C. both (a) and (b) ✓ D.none of these
148) The ultimate strength of cement is provided by
A.silica B. di-calcium silicate✓
C. tri-calcium silicate D.tri-calcium aluminate
149) A good quality cement should have higher percentage of
A.silica B. free lime
C. di-calcium silicate D.tri-calcium silicate✓
150) The rapid hardening Portland cement has a
A.lower heat of hydration B.higher heat of hydration
C. lower shrinkage coefficient✓
151) The initial setting of cement is caused due to
A.di-calcium silicate B. tri-calcium silicate
C. tri-calcium aluminate✓ D.tri-calcium alumino ferrite
152) The hapd hardening Portland cement is obtained by
A.grinding the clinker to a high degree of fineness✓ B. adding calcium sulphate to the mixture
C. adding gypsum after grinding D.burning the mixture at a lower temperature
The fineness of cement is tested by
A.air-permeability method✓ B. Le-chatelier method
C. Vicat's apparatus D.all of these
153) Vicat's apparatus is used to determine the
A.initial setting time of cement B. final setting time of cement
C. normal consistency of cement D.all of these✓
154) The expansion of cement should not exceed
A.5 mm B.10 mm✓ C.15 mm D.20 mm
155) The normal consistency of Portland cement is about
A.10% B.15% C.20% .25%✓
The initial setting time of rapid hardening cement should not be less than
A.30 min B.1 hours C.4 hours D.8 hours
 Theme-10
156) The final setting time of ordinary cement should not be more than
A.2 hours B. 4 hours
C. 8 hours D.10 hours✓
157) The addition of pozzolana to Portland cement causes
A.less heat of hydration B. increase in shrinkage
C. decrease in permeability D.all of these✓
158) The rate of hydration and hydrolysis of cement depends upon its
A.soundness B. fineness ✓
C. setting time D.tensile strength
159) The percentage of the residue left after sieving good Portland cement in 90 micron sieve should not exceed
A.5% B. 10%✓
C. 20% D.30%
160) The expansion in Portland cement can be tested by
A.fineness test B. soundness test✓
C. setting time test D.normal consistency test
161) The specific surface (in cm2/g) of a good Portland cement should not be less than
A.500 B. 100
C. 2250✓ D.3200
162) The expansion of Portland cement is caused by
A.free lime B. magnesia
C. silica D.both (a) and (c) ✓
163) The compressive strength of a good Portland cement and standard sand mortar after 3 days of
curing should not be less than
A.7 MN/m2 B. 11.5 MN/m2✓
C. 17.5 MN/m2 D.21 MN/m2
164) The sand is mixed with lime mortar to
A.reduce cost B. reduce setting time
C. improve strength D.prevent shrinkage and cracking✓
165) For R.C.C. construction, the maximum size of coarse aggregate is limited to
A.10 mm B. 15 mm
C. 20 mm D.25 mm✓
166) The workability of cement concrete can be improved by
A.increasing the quantity of cement✓ B. increasing the proportion of coarse aggregate
C. increasing the quantity of sand D.all of the above
167) The durability of concrete is proportional to
A.sand content B. water-cement ratio
C. cement-aggregate ratio✓ D.aggregate-water ratio
168) The maximum water-cement ratio for durable concrete is
A.0.2 B. 0.4
C. 0.6 D.0.8✓
169) The durability of cement concrete is usually improved by
A.increasing the quantity of coarse sand B. increasing the quantity of cement✓
C. decreasing the water-cement ratio D.decreasing the proportion of fine aggregate
170) The strength of cement concrete increases with
A.increase in the size of aggregate B. increase in the temperature of water of curing
C. increase in the size of aggreregate D.all of the above✓
171) The shrinkage of ordinary concrete is about
A.0.1 to 0.3 mm/m B. 0.3 to 0.6 mm/m✓
C. 0.6 to 1.2 mm/m D.1.2 to 2.1 mm/m
172) The slump test of concrete is used to measure its
A.consistency✓ B. tensile and compressive strength
C. impact value D.homogeneity
173) The time required for air seasoning of soft wood is
A.15 to 30 days B.30 to 60 days C.60 to 90 days✓ D.90 to 120 days
 Theme-11
174) The time required for seasoning of timber in kilm seasoning is
A.2 to 5 days B. 5 to 10 days
C. 10 to 20 days✓ D.20 to 40 days
175) The timber whose thickness is less than 5 cm and the width exceeds 12 cm, is called a
A.board✓ B. plank
C. batten D.log
176) The thickness of five-ply sheet varies from
A.3 to 6 mm B. 6 to 9 mm✓
C. 9 to 16 mm D.16 to 20 mm
177) The thickness of lamin boards vary from
A.5 to 12 mm B. 12 to 15 mm
C. 12 to 25 mm✓ D.25 to 30 mm
178) The wood generally used for railway sleepers is
A.mango B. kail✓
C. babul D.deodar
179) The pigment in paints is mixed to give desired
A.smoothness B. colour✓
C. appearance D.durability
180) The liquid part of the paint is called
A.pigment B. vehicle✓
C. solvent D.drier
181) The liquid medium used in enamel paints is
A.thinner B. alcohol
C. turpentine D.varnish✓
182) The commonly base used in a paint is
A.iron oxide B. zinc oxide
C. titanium white D.any one of these✓
183) The thinner used for oil paints is
A.water B. turpentine✓
C. carbon tetrachloride D.any one of these
184) The commonly used extender in a paint is
A.barium sulphate B. gypsum
C. alcohol D.any one of these✓
185) The drier in an oil paint should not be more than
A.5% B. 10%✓
C. 15% D.20%
The best primer used for structural steel work is
A.white lead B. red lead✓
C. zinc oxide D.iron oxide
186) The vehicle used in bronze paints is usually
A.linseed oil B. naptha
C. water D.nitro-cellulose lacquer✓
187) The base material for distemper is
A.chalk✓ B.lime C.clay D.lime putty
188) Distemper is used on
A.brick walls B. concrete surfaces
C. plastered surfaces exposed to weather D.plastered surfaces not exposed to weathe✓
189) Sprit varnish consists of
A.spirit and wax B. spirit and shellac✓
C. turpentine, spirit and wax D.turpentine, spirit and shellac
190) Which of the following paint is highly resistant to fire?
A.Cement paint B. Asbestos paint✓
C. Aluminium paint D.enamel paint
 Theme-12
GB Aa¨v‡qi cÖ‡qvRbxq †bvU
 Theme-13
GB Aa¨v‡qi cÖ‡qvRbxq †bvU
 Theme-14
Strength of Materials
1) One kg force is equal to
A.7.8 N B. 8.9 N
C. 9.8 N✔ D.12 N
2) Concurrent forces are those forces whose lines of action
A.lie on the same line B. meet at one point✔
C. meet on the same plane D.none of these
3) A couple produces
A.translatory motion B. rotational motion✔
C. combined translatory and rotational motion D.none of the above
4) The centre of gravity of an equilateral tr angle with each side a, is
A.?3 a/2 B. 2?3 a
C. a/2 ?3✔ D.3?2 a
5) The centre of gravity of a semi-circle lies at a istance of
A.3r/8 B. 4r/3? ✔
C. 8r / 3 D.3r / 4?
6) The centre of gravity of a right c rcular solid cone is at a distance of
A.h / 2 B. h / 3
C. h / 4✔ D.h / 6
7) The centr of gravity of a quadrant of a circle lies along its central radius (r) at a distance of
A.0.5 r B. 0.6 r✔
C. 0.7 r D.0.8 r
8) The centre of gravity a T-section 100 mm x 150 mm x 50 mm from its bottom is
A.50 mm B. 75 mm
C. 87.5 mm✔ D.125 mm
9) Moment of inertia is the
A.second moment of force B. second moment of area
C. second moment of mass D.all of these✔
10) The unit of moment of inertia of an area is
A.kg-m2 B. kg-m-s2
C. kg/m2 D.m4✔
11) Mass moment of inertia of a thin rod about its one end is
A.same as B. twice
C. thrice D.four times✔
12) The moment of inertia of a square of side (a) about an axis through its centre of gravity is
A.a4/4 B. a4/8
C. a4/12✔ D.a4/36
13) The moment of inertia of a rectangular section 3cm wide and 4cm deep about X-X axis is
A. 9 cm4 B.9 cm4 C.16 cm4✔ D.0 cm4
14) The moment of inertia of a square of side about its diagonal is
A.a2 / 8 B. a3 / 12
C. a4 / 12✔ D.a4 / 16
15) Moment of inertia of a circular section about its diameter (d) is
A.?d3 / 16 B. ?d3 / 32
C. ?d4 / 32 D.?d4 / 64✔
16) Moment of inertia of a circular section about an axis perpendicular to the section is
A.?d3 / 16 B. ?d3 / 32
C. ?d4 / 32✔ D.?d4 / 64
17) Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b) and height (h) about an axis passing through its
C.G. and parallel to the base, is
A.bh3 / 4 B. bh3 / 8
C. bh3 / 12 D.bh3 / 36✔
 Theme-15
18) Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b) and height (h) about an axis through its base, is
A.bh3 / 4 B. bh3 / 8
C. bh3 / 12✔ D.bh3 / 36
19) The static friction
bears a constant ratio to the normal reaction is independent of the area of contact, between the
A. B.
between the two surfaces two surfaces
always acts in a direction, opposite to that in which
C. D.all of the above✔
the body tends to move
20) The minimum force required to slide a body of weight W on a rough horizontal plane is
A.W sin ? B. W cos ?
C. W tan ? ✔ D.none of these
21) Coefficient of friction depends upon
A.area of contact only B. nature of surface only✔
C. both (a) and (b) D.none of these
22) The unit of work in S.I. units is
A.newton B.erg C.kg-m D.joule✔
23) One joule is equal to
A.0.1 N - m B. 1 N - m✔
C. 10 N - m D.100 N - m
24) Joule is the unit of
A.force B. work✔
C. power D.energy
25) The unit of power in S.I. units is
A.horsepower B. joule
C. watt✔ D.kg-m
26) One watt is equal to
A.0.1 joule / s B. 1 joule / s✔
C. 10 joules / s D.100 joules / s
27)The unit of energy in S.I. units is
A.dyne B.watt C.kg – m D.joule✔
28)The modulus of elasticity for mild steel is approximately equal to
A.10 kN/mm2 B. 80 kN/mm2
C. 100 kN/mm2 D.210 kN/mm2✔
29)The unit of force in S.I. system of units of
A.dyne B. kilogram
C. newton✔ D.watt
30)Young's modulus may be defined as the ratio of
A.linear stress to lateral strain B. lateral strain to linear strain
C. linear stress to linear strain✔ D.shear stress to shear strain
31)Modulus of rigidity may be defined as the ratio of
A.linear stress to lateral strain B. lateral strain to linear strain
C. linear stress to linear strain D.shear stress to shear strain✔
32)The deformation of a bar under its own weight is
A.equal to B. half✔
C. double D.quadruple
33)The elongation of a conical bar under its own weight is
A.equal to B.half C.one-third✔ D.two-third
36) Strain rosetters are used tc
A.measure shear strain B. measure linear strain✔
C. measure volumetric strain D.relieve strain
37)Modular ratio of the two materials is the ratio of
A.linear stress to linear strain B. shear stress to shear strain
C. their modulus of elasticities✔ D.their modulus of rigidities
 Theme-16
38)The Poisson's ratio for steel varies from
A.0.23 to 0.27✔ B. 0.25 to 0.33
C. 0.31 to 0.34 D.0.32 to 0.42
39)The Poisson's ratio for cast iron varies from
A.0.23 to 0.27 B. 0.25 to 0.33✔
C. 0.31 to 0.34 D.0.32 to 0.42
40)The ratio of change in volume to the original volume is called
A.linear strain B. lateral strain
C. volumetric strain✔ D.Poisson's ratio
41)The ratio of bulk modulus to Young's modulus for a Poisson's ratio of 0.25 will be
A.1 ?3 B.2 ? 3✔ C.1 D.3 ? 2
41)Within elastic limit, shear stress is
A.equal to B. less than
C. directly proportional to✔ D.inversely proportional to
42)Shear modulus is the ratio of
A.linear stress to linear strain B. linear stress to lateral strain
C. volumetric strain to linear strain D.shear stress to shear strain✔
42)Principle plane is a plane on which the shear stress is
A.zero✔ B.minimum
C. maximum
43)A body is subjected to two normal stresses 20 kN / m2 (tensile) and 10 kN / m2 (compressive) acting
perpendicular to each other. The maximum shear stress is
A.5 kN / m2 B.10 kN / m2 C.15 kN / m2✔ D.20 kN / m2
44)The maximum shear stress is
A.equal to B. one-fourth
C. one-half✔ D.twice
45)A beam extending beyond the supports is called
A.simply supported beam B. fixed beam
C. overhanging beam✔ D.cantilever beam
45)A beam encastered at both the ends is called
A.simply supported beam B. fixed beam✔
C. cantilever beam D.continuous beam
46) A beam supported on more than two supports is called
A.simply supported beam B. fixed beam
C. overhanging beam D.continuous beam✔
46)A cantilever beam is one which is
A.fixed at both ends B. fixed at one end and free at the other end✔
C. supported at its ends D.supported on more than two supports
47)A continuous beam is one which is
A.fixed at both ends B. fixed at one end and free at the other end
C. supported on more than two supports✔ D.extending beyond the supports
48)The bending moment on a section is maximum where shear force is
A.minimum B. maximum
C. changing sign✔ D.zero
49)When a load on the free end of a cantilever beam is increased, failure will occur
A.at the free end B. at the fixed end✔
C. in the middle of the beam D.at a distance 21 / 3 from free end
50)When a cantilever beam is loaded with concentrated loads, the bending moment diagram will be a
A.horizontal straight line B. vertical straight line
C. inclined straight line✔ D.parabolic curve
51)The shear force of a cantilever beam of length l carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per unit
length is
A.zero✔ B.wl / 4 C.wl / 2 D.wl
 Theme-17
52)The shear force of a cantilever beam of length / carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per unit
length is
A.zero B. wl / 4
C. wl / 2 D.wl✔
53)The shear force diagram of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a uniformly distributed load of w
per unit length will be
A.a right angled triangle✔ B. an issoscles triabgle
C. an equilateral triangle D.a rectangle
54)The bending moment of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per
unit length is
A.zero✔ B. wl / 4
C. wl / 2 D.wl
55)The shear force and bending moment zre zero at the free end of a cantilever beam, if it carries a
A.point load at the free end B. point load at the middle of its length
C. uniformly distributed load over the whole length✔ D.none of the above
56)The bending moment of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per
unit length is
A.wl / 4 B. wl / 2
C. wl D.wl2 / 2✔
57)The shear force in the centre of a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per
unit length, is
A.zero✔ B. wl2 / 2
C. wl2 / 4 D.wl2 / 8
58)The bending moment in the centre of a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of
w per unit length is
A.zero B. wl2 / 2
C. wl2 / 4 D.wl2 / 8✔
59)The shear force at the ends of a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per
unit length is
A.zero at its both ends B. wl at one end and - wl at the other end
C. wl / 2 at one end and - wl / 2 at the other end✔ D.wl2 / 2 at one end and - wl2 / 2 at the other end
60)The shear force diagram for a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per unit
length, consists of
A.one right angled triangle B. two right angled triangles✔
C. one equilateral triangle D.two equilateral triangles
61)The bending moment diagram for a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of w
per unit length, will be
A.a horizontal line B. a vertical line
C. an inclined line D.a parabolic curve✔
62)The shear force at the centre of a simply supported beam with a gradually varying load from zero at both
ends to w per metre at the centre, is
A.zero✔ B. wl / 4
C. wl / 2 D.wl2 / 2
63)The point of contraflexure is a point where
A.shear force changes sign B. bending moment changes sign✔
C. shear force is maximum D.bending moment is maximum
64)When shear force at a point is zero, then bending moment is
A.zero B. minimum
C. maximum✔ D.infinity
65)In a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load w per unit length, the po
nt of contraflexure
A.lies in the centre of the beam B.ies at the ends of the beam
C.depends upon the length of beam D.does not exist✔
 Theme-18
66)When there is a sudden increase or decrease in shear force diagram between any two points, it indicates
that there is a
A.point load at the two points✔ B. no loading between the two points
C. uniformly distributed load between the two points D.uniformly varying load between the two points
67)When the shear force diagram is a parabolic curve between two points, it indicates that there is a
A.point load at the two points B. no loading between the two points
C. uniformly distributed load between the two points D.uniformly varying load between the two points✔
68)Which of the following statement is correct?
A continuous beam has only two supports at the A uniformly distributed load spreads uniformly
A. B.
ends over the whole length of a beam. ✔
The maximum bending moment of a simply
The bending moment is maximum where whear
C. D.supported beam of length l with a central point
force is maximum.
load W is W l/8.
69)In a beam where shear force changes sign, the bending moment will be
A.zero B. minimum
C. maximum✔ D.infinity
70)The point of contraflexure occurs in
A.cantilever beams B. simply supported beams
C. overhanging beams✔ D.fixed beams
71)In a simple bending of beams, the stress in the beam varies
A.linearly✔ B. parabolically
C. hyperbolically D.elliptically
72)When a beam is subjected to a bending moment, the strain in a layer is
A.equal to B. directly proportional to✔
C. inversely proportional to D.independent of
73)A section of beam is said to be in pure bending, if it is subjected to
A.constant bending moment and constant shear force B. constant shear force and zero bending moment
C. constant bending moment and zero shear force✔ D.none of the above
74)When a beam is subjected to bending moment, the stress at any point is
A.equal to B. directly proportional to✔
C. inversely proportional to D.independent of
75)The neutral axis of the cross-section a beam is that axis at which the bending stress is
A.zero✔ B. minimum
C. maximum D.infinity
76)The section nodulus (Z) of a beam is given by
A.I / y✔ B. I.y
C. y / I D.M / I
77)The section modulus of a rectangular section about an axis through its C.G., is
A.b / 2 B.d / 2 C.bd2 / 2 D.bd2 / 2
78)The section modulus of a circular section about an axis through its C.G., is
A.?d2 / 4 B. ?d2 / 16
C. ?d3 / 16 D.?d3 / 32✔
79)When a cantilever beam is loaded at its free end, the maximum compressive stress shall develop at
A.bottom fibre✔ B. top fibre
C. neutral axis D.centre of gravity
80)A beam of uniform strength may be obtained by
A.keeping the width uniform and varying the depth B. keeping the depth uniform and varying the width
C. varying the width and depth both D.any one of the above✔
81)A beam of uniform strength has
A.same cross-section throughout the beam B. same bending stress at every section✔
C. same bending moment at every section D.same shear stress at every section
82)The bending stress in a beam is
A.equal to B.less than C.more than D.more than
 Theme-19
84)At the neutral axis of a beam
A.the layers are subjected to maximum bending stress B. the layers are subjected to minimum bending stress
C. the layers are subjected to compression D.the layers do not undergo any strain✔
85)The neutral axis of a beam is subjected to
A.zero✔ B. maximum tensile
C. minimum tensile D.maximum compressive
86)In a beam subjected to pure bending, the intensity of stress in any fibre is
A.equal to B. less than
C. more than D.directly proportional to✔
87)When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum tensile stress is developed on the
A.top layer✔ B. bottom layer
C. neutral axis D.every cross-section
88)At the neutral axis of a beam, the shear stress is
A.zero B.minimum C.maximum✔ D.infinity
89)The maximum shear stress developed in a beam of rectangular section is
A.equal to B. 4 / 3 time
C. 1.5 times✔ D.twice
90)A beam of triangular section is placed with its base horizontal. The maximum shear stress occurs at
A.apex of the triangle B. mid of the height✔
C. centre of gravity of the triangle D.base of the triangle
91)A beam of T-section is subjected to a shear force of F. The maximum shear force will occur at the
A.top of the section B. bottom of the section
C. neutral axis of the section✔ D.junction of web and flange
92)A rectangular beam of length l supported at its two ends carries a central point load W. The maximum
deflection occurs
A.at the ends B. at l / 3 from both ends✔
C. at the centre D.none of these
The maximum deflection of a fixed beam carrying a central point load lies at
A.fixed ends B. centre of beam✔
C. l / 3 from fixed ends D.none of these
93)The product of Young's modulus (E) and moment of inertia (I) is known as
A.modulus of rigidity B. bulk modulus
C. flexural rigidity✔ D.torsional rigidity
95)When a shaft is subjected to a twisting moment, every cross-section of the shaft will be under
A.tensile stress B. compressive stress
C. shear stress✔ D.bending stress
96)The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under torsion is
A.zero✔ B.minimum C.maximum D.infinity
97)The shear stress at the outermost fibres of a circular shaft under torsion is
A.zero B. minimum
C. maximum✔ D.infinity
98)In spring balances, the spring is used
A.to apply forces B. to measure forces✔
C. to absorb shocks D.to store strain energy
99)A spring used to absorb shocks and vibrations is
A.conical spring B. torsion spring
C. leaf spring✔ D.disc spring
100)The load required to produce a unit deflection in a spring is called
A.flexural rigidity B. torsional rigidity
C. spring stiffness✔ D.Young's modulus
101) A leaf spring is supported at the
A.ends and loaded at the centre B. centre and loaded at the ends✔
C. ends and loaded anywhere D.centre and loaded anywhere
 Theme-20
102)For a 25 mm hole drilled in plates, the diameter of rivet shank should be
A.23 mm✔ B. 24.5 mm
C. 25 mm D.26 mm
103)A lap joint is always in
A.single✔ B.double
105)If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 50%, then ratio of rivet hole diameter to the pitch of rivets
is
A.0.2 B. 0.3
C. 0.5✔ D.0.6
Transverse fillet welds are designed for
A.tensile strength✔ B. compressive strength
C. shear strength D.bending strength
Lame's theory is associated with
A.thin cylindrical shells B. thick cylindrical shells✔
C. direct and bending stresses D.none of these
106)The limit of eccentricity for no tensile condition for a column of circular section of diameter
A.d / 4 B.d / 8✔ C.d / 12 D.d / 16
107)Compression members always tend to buckle in the direction of the
A.axis of load B. perpendicular to the axis of load
C. minimum cross section D.least radius of gyration✔
108)The direct stress induced in a long column is
A.same B. more
C. less D.negligible✔
109)A column that fails due to direct strss, is called
A.short column✔ B. long column
C. weak column D.medium column
110)According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load for a column of length (l) fixed at both ends is
A.equal to B. two times
C. four times✔ D.eight times
111)In the Euler's formula, the value of C for a column with one end fixed and the other end free, is
A.1 ? 2 B.1 C.2 D.4
112)A column of length (l) with both ends fixed may be cons dered as equivalent to a column of length
A.l / 8 B. l / 4
C. l / 2 D.l✔
113)A colum of length (l) with both ends fixed may be considered as equivalent to a column of length
A.l / 8 B. l / 4✔
C. l / 2 D.l
115)The columns whose slenderness ratio is less than 80, are known as
A.short column✔ B. long column
C. weak column D.medium column
116)A column with maximum equivalent length has
A.both ends hinged B. both ends fixed
C. one end fixed and the other end hinged D.one end fixed and the other end free✔
117)Euler's formula holds good only for
A.short column B. long column✔
C. both short and long columns D.weak columns
118)A column is said to be a short column, when
A.its length is very small B. its cross-sectional area is small
the ratio of its length to the least radius of gyration the ratio of its length to the least radius of gyration
C. D.
is less than 80. ✔ is more than 80.
120)The Rankine's constant for a mild steel column with both ends hinged is
A.1 / 750 B. 1 / 1600
C. 1 ? 7500✔ D.1 ? 9000
 Theme-21
121)The Rankine's formula holds good for
A.short column B. long columns
C. both short and long columns✔ D.weak columns
122)In case of eccentrically loaded struts
A.solid section B. hollow section
C. composite section✔ D.reinforced section
123)A masonry dam may fail du to
A.tension in the masonry of the dam and its base B. overturning of the dam
C. crushing of masonry at the base of the dam D.any one of the above✔
124)A reinforced cement concrete beam is considered to be made of
A.homogeneous material B. hetrogeneous material✔
C. composite material D.isotropic material
125)The steel bars in a reinforced cement concrete beam are embedded
A.in the centre B. near the bottom✔
C. near the top D.at any position
126)The tensile test is carried on
A.ductile✔ B. brittle
C. malleable D.plastic
127)The compression test is carried on
A.ductile B. brittle✔
C. malleable D.plastic
128)The compressive strength of brittle materials is
A.equal to B.less than
C. greater than✔
128)A tensile test is performed on a mild steel round bar. Its diameter after fracture will
A.remain same B. increase
C. decrease✔ D.depend upon rate of loading
129)Factor of safety is defined as the ratio of
A.ultimate stress to working stress✔ B. working stress to ultimate stress
C. breaking stress to ultimate stress D.ultimate stress to breaking stress
GB Aa¨v‡qi cÖ‡qvRbxq †bvU
 Theme-22
GB Aa¨v‡qi cÖ‡qvRbxq †bvU
 Theme-23

1) Residual soils are

A.sands B. silts
C. clays D.all of these ✓
2) Cohesionless soils are
A.Sands ✓ B. clays
C. silts D.silts and clays
3) The maximum size of grains of silts is about
A.0.06 mm ✓ B.0.2 mm C.0.5 mm D.1 mm
4) Silt is a
A.material deposited by a glacier B. soil composed of two different soils
C. fine grained soil with little or no plasticity✓ D.clay with a high percentage of the clay mineral
5) Black cotton soil
A.is inorganic in nature B. contains large percentage of clay mineral
C. exhibits high compressibility D.all of these ✓
6) Black cotton soils are
A.Expensive ✓ B.residual
7) A fine grained soil
A.has low permeability B. has high compressibility
C. may or may not be plastic D.all of these ✓
8) Consolidation and compressibility of soil
is a measure of the ability of soil to allow the water is a measure of the ability of soil to bear stresses
A. B.
to pass through its pores without failure
deals with changes in volume of pores in a soil
C. D.any one of the above
under load✓
9) The minimum size of grains of silts is about
A.0.0002 mm✓ B. 0.002 mm
C. 0.02 mm D.0.2 mm
10) The property of a soil which is of great importance in finding settlement of structures, is
A.permeability B. sher strength
C. Consolidation ✓ D.compressibility
11) and is almost non-compressible.
A.Correct✓ B.Incorrect
12) The maximum size of the particles of clay is about
A.0.0002 mm B. 0.002 mm✓
C. 0.02 mm D.0.2 mm
13) If the pores of a soil are completely full of air only, the soil is said to be
A.wet soil B. dry soil✓
C. fully saturated soil D.partially saturated soil
14) The moist soil is
A.fully B.Partially ✓
15) The ratio of the unit weight of soil solids to that of water is called
A.void ratio B. porosity
C. specific gravity✓ D.degree of saturation
16) The unit weight of a soil at zero air voids depends upon
A.unit weight of water B. water content
C. specific gravity D.all of these✓
17) The relation between the air content (ac) and the degree of saturation (s) is
A.ac = s B. ac = 1 – s ✓
C. ac = 1 + s D.ac = 1/s
18) The degree of saturation for fully saturated soil is
A.0.25 B.0.5 C.0.75 D.1✓
 Theme-24
19) The void ratio for saturated soil is equal to the
A.sum B. difference
C. product✓ D.ratio
20) The ratio of the volume of air voids to the volume of voids, is called
A.void ratio B. air content✓
C. degree of saturation D.porosity
21) The difference between maximum void ratio and minimum void ratio of a sand sample is 0.30. If the
relative density of this sample is 66.6% at a void ratio of 0.40, then the void ratio of this sample at its
loosest state will be
A.0.4 B. 0.6✓
C. 0.7 D.0.75
22) The dry density of a soil is 1.5 g/cm3. If the saturation water content is 50%, then its saturated density
and submerged density will respectively be
A.1.5 g / cm3 and 1.0 g / cm3 B. 2.0 g / cm3 and 1 g / cm3
C. 2.25 g / cm3 and 1.25 g / cm3✓ D.2.50 g / cm3 and 1.50 g / cm3
23) A soil sample is having a specific gravity of 2.60 and a void ratio of 0.78. The water content in
percentage required to fully saturate the soil at that void ratio will be
A.10 B. 30✓
C. 50 D.70
24) The specific gravity of a soil is the ratio of unit weight of soil solids to that of water at a temperature of
A.4? C B. 17?C
C. 27?C✓ D.36?C
25) A dry soil sample weighing 100 g has volume of 60 ml and specific gravity 2.5. Its void ratio is
A.0.4 B. 0.5✓
C. 0.6 D.0.8
26) For a given soil mass, the void ratio is 0.60, water content is 18% and specific gravity of the soil
particles is 2.6. The degree of saturation of the soil is
A.30% B. 50%
C. 78%✓ D.82.50%
27) The water content is the ratio of weight of water to the weight of solids.
A.Yes✓ B.No
28) The void ratio of a soil is defined as the ratio of the
volume of water to the volume of voids in the soil
A.weight of water to the weight of solids B.
mass
C. total volume of voids to the volume of soil solids✓D.total volume of voids to the total volume of soil
29) The water content ratio of a soil is defined as the ratio of the
volume of water to the volume of voids in the soil
A.weight of water to the weight of solids✓ B.
mass
C. total volume of voids to the volume of soil solids D.total volume of voids to the total volume of soil
30) The degree of saturation for the moist soil is about
A.0% B. 1 to 25%
C. 25 to 50% D.50 to 75%✓
31) The approximate void ratio in sandy soils is
A.0.2 B. 0.6✓
C. 0.8 D.1.2
32) When the soil particles are less than 0.002 mm, the force of gravity on each particle is
A.Less B.More C.negligible✓
33) Which of the following clay mineral gives maximum swelling?
A.Kalonite B. Montmorillonite✓
C. Illite D.all of these
34) Gravel and sand is a
A.cohesive coarse grained soil B. cohesive fine grained soil
C. non-cohesive coarse grained soil✓ D.non-cohesive fine grained soil
 Theme-25
The spec fic gravity of sandy soils is
A.1.2 B. 1.8
C. 2.2 D.2.7✓
35) Bulk density of a soil is def ned as the ratio of
A.total mass of soil to the total volume of soil✓ B. weight of water to the weight of solids
C. unit weight of s lids to the unit weight of water D.weight of solid grains to the volume of solids
36) The unit weight of soil mass is expressed in
A.kg / m2 B. kg / m3
C. N / m2 D.N / m3✓
37) The dry density of a soil is same as the unit weight of solids.
A.True B.False ✓
38) Submerged soils are
A.partially B.fully✓
39) If the volume of voids is equal to the volume of soil solids, then the values of porosity and void ratio
are respectively
A.0 and 0.5 B. 0 and 1
C. 0.5 and 1✓ D.1 and 0.5
40) The water content of soils can be accurately determined by
A.sand bath method B. calcium carbide method
C. over drying method✓ D.Pycnometer method
41) The specific gravity of soil solids is determined by
A.Pycnometer method✓ B. hydrometer analysis
C. sieve analysis D.all of these
42) Stoke's law is used to determine the
A.specific gravity of soil solids B. density of soil suspension
grain size distribution of those soils whose grain
C. D.all of the above
size is finer than 0.075 mm✓
43) Hydrometer analysis is used to determine the density of soil suspension.
A.Agree✓ B.Disagree
44) When the hydrometer analysis is performed, it requires correction for
A. temperature only B. meniscus only
C. dispersing agent only D.all of these✓
45) According to Stoke's law, the velocity at which grains settle out of suspension, all other factors being
equal, is dependent upon
A.shape of the grain B. weight of the grain
C. size of the grain D.all of these✓
46) The smallest sieve size according to Indian standards is
A.0.0045 mm B. 0.045 mm✓
C. 0.45 mm D.0.154 mm
47) Sieving is not practicable for grain sizes smaller than about
A.0.075 mm✓ B. 0.095 mm
C. 0.15 mm D.0.2 mm
48) The particle size range is measured by
A.effective size B. curvature coefficient
C. uniformity coefficient✓ D.none of these
49) A soil having particles of nearly the same size s known as
A.uniform soil✓ B. poor soil
C. well graded soil D.coarse soil
50) A soil having uniformity co-efficient more than 10, is called
A.uniform soil B.poor soil C.poor soil D.coarse soil
51) Stoke's law is applicable to particles upto
A.0.0002 mm✓ B. 0.002 mm
C. 0.02 mm D.0.2 mm
 Theme-26
52) Sieve analysis is done if all particles to not pass through square opening of 0.075 mm.
A.Correct✓ B.Incorrect
53) The ratio of the unconfined compressive strength of undisturbed soil to the unconfined compressive
strength of soil in a remoulded state, is called
A.sensitivity✓ B. thixotropy
C. relative density D.bulk density
54) The unconfined compressive strength of a very soft clay is
A.10 to 25 kN/m2✓ B. 25 to 150 kN/m2
C. 150 to 400 kN/m2 D.Above 400 kN/m2
55) The unconfined compre sive strength of a very hard clay is
A.10 to 25 kN/m2 B. 25 to 150 kN/m2
C. 150 to 400 kN/m2 D.Above 400 kN/m2✓
56) The sensitivity of a normal clay is about
A.2 to 4✓ B. 4 to 8
C. 8 to 15 D.15 to 2
57) The maximum water content of a saturated soil at which a reduction in its moisture does not cause a
decrease in volume of the soil, is called
A.liquid limit B. plastic limit
C. elastic limit D.shrinkage limit✓
58) When water content in a soil is reduced beyond the shrinkage limit, the soil will be in a
A.solid state✓ B. liquid state
C. s mi-solid state D.plastic state
59) The water content in a soil at which just shear strength develops is called
A.liquid limit✓ B. p astic limit
C. elastic limit D.shrinkage limit
60) The plastic limit of a soil is defined as the
amount of water content which makes the soil to
A.limit of water that makes the soil to flow B.
go into the liquid state
amount of water content which makes the soil to minimum amount of water content which makes
C. D.
go into the solid state from the liquid state the soil to be rolled into 3 mm diameter threads✓
61) When the consistency index is zero, then the soil is at its
A.elastic limit B. plastic limit
C. liquid limit✓ D.semi-solid state
62) A soil is in a semi-solid state, if the consistency index is
A.zero B. one
C. more than unity✓ D.none of these
64)A soil with consistency equal to one is at its
A.liquid B.plastic✓
65)Toughness index is the ratio of
A.flow index and plasticity index B. plasticity index and flow index✓
C. liquidity index and flow index D.flow index and liquidity index
66)A sample of soil has liquid limit 45%, pla tic limit 25%, shrinkage limit 17% and natural moisture
content 30%. The consistency index of the soil is
A.15?20✓ B. 13?20
C. 8?20 D.5?20
67)The shear strength of a soil in the plastic limit is
A.higher✓ B.lower
68)The liquid limit exists in
A.sandy soils B. gravel soils
C. silty soils D.clays✓
69)The plastic limit exists in
A.sandy soils B. gravel soils
C. silty soils D.clays✓
 Theme-27
70)The liquid limit minus plastic limit is termed as
A.flow index B. plasticity index✓
C. shrinkage index D.liquidity index
71)When the plastic limit is equal to or greater than the liquid limit, then the plasticity index is
A.negative B. zero✓
C. one D.more than one
72)The shrinkage index is equal to
A.liquid limit + plastic limit B. plastic limit - liquid limit
C. liquid limit - shrinkage limit✓ D.shrinkage limit - liuid limit
73)The flow index in soils indicates the
A.ratio of liquid limit to plastic limit B. variatio of liquid limit
C. variation of plastic limit D.shear strength variation with water content✓
74)The clays which exhibit high activity
A.contain montmorillonite B. have high plasticity index
C. both (a) and (b) ✓ D.none of these
75)The activity of clay is defined as the ratio of
A.liquid limit to plastic limit B. liquidity index to plasticity index
C. plasticity index to clay fraction✓ D.plasticity index to shrinkage index
76)The ratio of the liquid limit minus the natural content of a soil to its plasticity index, is known as
A.toughness index B. liquidity index
C. flow index D.relative consistency✓
77)Which of the following is highly permeable?
A.Gravel✓ B. Sand mixture
C. Coarse sand D.Clay
78)Which of the following is practically impermeable?
A.Gravel B. Sand mixture
C. Coarse sand D.Clay✓
79)A sample of clay and a sample of sand have the same specific gravity and void ratio. Their pemeabilities
will differ because
A.their porosities will be different B. their densities will be different
C. their degrees of saturation will be different D.the size ranges of their voids will be different✓
80)The property of the soil mass which permits the seepage of water through its interconnecting voids, is
called
A.capillarity B. permeability✓
C. porosity D.none of these
81)When applying Darcy's law to soils, it assumed that the
A.soil is incompressible B. soil is homogeneous and isotropic
C. flow conditions are laminar D.all of these✓
82)The value of permeability
A.depends upon✓ B.does not depend upon
73)Which of the following have an influence on the value of permeability?
A.Grain size B. Void ratio
C. Degree of saturation D.all of these✓
84)If the direction of flow of war is parallel to the planes of stratification, then the permeability is
A.2 to 10 B.2 to 15 C.2 to 20 D.2 to 30✓
85)The permeability of a given soil is
A.directly proportional to the average grain size B. inversely proportional to the average grain size
directly proportional to the square of the average inversely proportional to the square of the average
C. D.
grain size✓ grain size
86)The coefficient of permeability
A.decreases B.increases✓
87)The coefficient of permeability of slit is
A.same as B.less than✓ C.more than
 Theme-28
88)The flow net in the seepage of water through a soil medium is a network of
A.flow lines B. equi-potential lines
C. flow lines and equi-potential lines✓ D.water particles and their movement in the soil
89)A flow net is used to determine the
A.seepage flow B. seepage pressure
C. exit gradient D.all of these✓
90)Which of the following statement is correct?
The flow line are perpendicular to equipotenti l No two flow lines or equipotential lines start from
A. B.
lines. the s me point.
C. No two flow lines cross each other D.all of the above✓
91)The direction of seepage is always
A.parallel B.perpendicular✓
91)The critical gradient of the seepage of water
A.directly proportional to void ratio B. increases with the decrease in void ratio✓
in reases with the decrease in specific gravity of
C. inversely proportional to specific gravity D.
soil
92)The critical gradient of the seepage of water
A.increases✓ B.decreases
C. does not change
93)The seepage force in soils is
A.p oportional to head loss B. proportional to exit gradient
C. perpendicular to the equi-potential lines D.all of these✓
94)The critical gradient for all soils is normally
A.0.5 B.1✓ C.1.5 D.2.5
95)The effective stress on the soil is due to the
A.external load acting on the soil B. weight of the soil particles
C. weight of water present in soil pores D.both (a) and (b) ✓
96)The neutral stress on the soil is due to the
A.external load acting on the soil B. weight of the soil particles
C. weight of water present in soil pores✓ D.both (a) and (b)
97)The consolidation of a soil is defined as the
process of compression by gradual reduction of process which gives gradual decrease of water
A. B.
pore space under st ady load content at constant load
change in volume of soil due to expulsion of pure
C. D.any one of the above✓
water under an applied load
98)The coefficient of consolidation is measured in
A.cm2/g B. cm2/s✓
C. g / cm2 / s D.cm2 / g / s
99)The coefficient of consolidation is used for evaluating
A.stress in the soil B. total settlement
C. over consolidation ratio D.time rate of settlement✓
100)The ratio of settlement at any time (t) to the final settlement is known as
A.compression index B. coefficient of consolidation
C. degree of consolidation✓ D.none of these
101)The coefficient of consolidation of a soil is affected by
A.compressibility B. permeability
C. both (a) and (b) ✓ D.none of these
102)The coefficient of volume compressibility
A.increases B.decreases✓ C.does not change
103)The ulti ate settlement of a soil
A.is directly proportional to the compression index B. decreases with an increase in the initial void ratio
is directly proportional to the depth of the
C. D.all of the above✓
compressible soil mass
 Theme-29
104)The strength of a soil is usually identified by
A.direct tensile stress B. direct compressive stress
C. ultimate shear stress✓ D.effective stress
105)The angle of internal friction
A.varies with the density of sand B. depends upon the amount of interlocking
C. depends upon the particle shape and roughness D.all of the above✓
106)The angle of internal friction of round grained loose sand is about
A.5? to 25? ✓ B. 25? to 30?
C. 30? to 35? D.32? to 37?
107)The angle of internal friction of round grained dense sand is about
A.5? to 25? B. 25? to 30?
C. 30? to 35? D.32? to 37? ✓
The frictio al resistance offered by sand is
A.sliding friction B. rolling friction
C. resistance due to interlocking D.all of these✓
108)The earth pressure at rest is calculated by using
A.Euler's theory B. Rankine's theory
C. bending theory D.theory of elasticity✓
109)The coefficient of earth pressure at rest for stiff clay is about
A.0.4 B. 0.5
C. 0.6 D.0.8✓
110)If the coefficient of passive earth pressure is 1/3, then the coefficient of active earth pressure is
A.1?3 B. 1
C. 3?2✓ D.3
111)The coefficient of active earth pressure for a loose sand having an angle of internal friction o 30?, is
A.1?2 B. 1?3✓
C. 1 D.3
1121)For a sandy soil, the angle of internal friction is 30?. If the major principal stress is 50 kN m2 at
failure, the corresponding minor principal stress will be
A.12.2 kN/m2 B. 16.66 kN/m2✓
C. 20.8 kN/m2 D.27.2 kN/m2
113)The bearing capacity of a soil depends upon
A.grain size of the soil B. size of the footing
C. shape of the footing D.all of these✓
114)The bearing capacity of a soil
A.increases✓ B.decreases
C. does not change
115)The coefficient of passive earth ressure
A.increases✓ B.decreases
C. does not change
116)The unit bearing capacity of footing in sand
A.decreases with depth of footing B. decreses with width of footing
C. increases with depth of footing✓ D.increase with width of footing
117)According to I.S. code, the total settlement of isolated footings for cohesive soil should be
A.30mm B. 40mm✓
C. 500mm D.65mm
118)The settlement of a footing in sand depends upon the
A.stress deformation characteristics of sand B. relative density of the sand
C. width of the footing D.all of these✓
119)According to Terzaghi's equation, the bearing capacity of strip footing resting on cohesive soil (c = 10
kN/m2) per unit depth and unit width (assume Nc as 5.7) is
A.47 kN/m2 B. 57 kN/m2✓
C. 67 kN/m2 D.77 kN/m2
 Theme-30
120)In case of footings in sand, if the soil pressure distribution is triangular, the maximum soil pressure is
A.equal to B. double✓
C. three times D.four times
121)Which of the following statement is corre t?
The settlement of a flexible footing on
The settlement of a rigid footing on cohesionless
A.choesionless soil is less in the centre that at the B.
soil is uniform throughout.
edges.
The settlement of a flexible footing on cohesive
C. D.all of the above✓
soil is more in the centre than at the edges.
122)The contact pressure of flexible footing on no-choesive soils is
A.more in the centre than at the edges✓ B. less in the centre than at the edges
C. uniform throughout D.none of these
123)The high density of the soil placed in a fill is desired in order to
A.increase its shear resistance B. reduce future settlements
C. reduce percolation through the fill D.all of these✓
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 Theme-31
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 Theme-32
Railway and Highway (Transportation Engineering 1&2)
1) The Central Road Organisation (C.R.O.) was set up in
A.1930✓ B. 1934
C. 1948 D.1956
2) The Motor Vehicle Act was enacted in
A.1930 B. 1934
C. 1939✓ D.1948
3) The camber, for the drainage of surface water, was first introduced by
A.Telford B. Tresaguet✓
C. Sully D.Macadam
4) The top of the ground on which the foundation of road rests, is called
A.sub-grade✓ B. oling
C. base D.wearing layer
5) The super structure of a road is called
A.wearing layer B. wearing course
C. road surfacing D.any one of these✓
6) The road surfacing should be
A.impervious B. durable
C. stable D.all of these✓
7) On kankar road, the camber generally provided is
A.1 in 24 to 1 in 30✓ B. 1 in 30 to 1 in 48
C. 1 in 48 to 1 in 60 D.1 in 60 to 1 in 80
8) The camber recommended for water bound macadam roads in
A.1 in 24 to 1 in 30 B. 1 in 30 to 1 in 48✓
C. 1 in 48 to 1 in 60 D.1 in 60 to 1 in 80
9) The camber of road should be approximately equal to
A.one-half✓ B. two times
C. three times D.four times
10) The gradient of a road depends upon the
A.nature of traffic B. nature of ground
C. rainfall of the locality D.all of these✓
11) The value of maximum gradient for hill roads is
A.1 in 5 B. 1 in 10
C. 1 in 15✓ D.1 in 20
12) Which of the following is not a transition curve?
A.Compound curve✓ B. cubic spiral
C. Cubic parabola D.True spiral
13) Alignment of a road is finally decided on the basis of
A.selection of route B. field survey✓
C. trace cut D.none of these
14) The maximum super-elevation on hill roads should not exceed
A.7% B. 8%
C. 9% D.10%✓
15) The height of the parapet wall is usually kept as
A.25 cm B. 50 cm
C. 75 cm✓ D.100 cm
16) A water bound macadam road is an example of
A.rigid pavement✓ B. semi-rigid pavement
C. flexible pavement D.none of these
17) The structure of a road is composed of
A.sub-grade B. sub-base
C. base D.all of these✓
 Theme-33
18) In CBR test, the value of CBR is calculated at
A.2.5 mm penetration only B. 5 mm penetration only
C. both 2.5 and 5 mm penetration✓ D.none of these
19) The value of group index of a soil varies from
A.0 to 10 B. 0 to 20✓
C. 20 to 30 D.30 to 40
20) The minimum thickness of the base of a flexible pavement is kept as
A.5 cm B. 10 cm✓
C. 15 cm D.20 cm
21) The main advantage of concrete pavements is that
A.it offers less resistance to traffic B. it is not slippery when clean
C. it has low maintenance cost D.all of these✓
The main advantage of concrete pavements is that
A.it offers less resistance to traffic B. it is not slippery when clean
C. it has low maintenance cost D.all of these✓
The main disadvantage of concrete roads is that
A.the initial cost is high B. it requires skilled personnel for construction
C. it requires cautious handling of the material D.all of the above✓
The depth of relinforcement, below the surface of pavement, is kept as
A.25 mm B.50 mm✓
C. 75 mm
The major function of reinforcement, in concrete pavements, is
A.to strengthen the slab B. to hold together the cracks
C. to control the development of cracks✓ D.all of these
The joints, parallel to the centre-line of the road, are called
A.longitudinal joints✓ B. transverse joints
C. expansion joints D.all of these
The longitudinal joints are provided when the width of road is more than
A.3 m B. 4 m✓
C. 5.5 m D.6.75 m
The longitudinal joints may be
A.tongue and groove type B. butt type
C. weakened plane type D.all of these✓
The transverse joint may be a
A.expansion joint B. contraction joint
C. warping joint D.all of these✓
The maximum spacing of contraction joints in unreinforced concrete slabs for a slab thickness of 20 cm is
A.4.5 m✓ B. 10 m
C. 15 m D.20 m
The dowel bars are used in rigid pavements for
A.resisting tensile stresses B. resisting bending stress
C. resisting shear stresses D.transferring load from one portion to another✓
The roads connecting capital cities of states is called
A.national highway B. express way
C. state highway✓ D.capital highw
A road connecting two towns is called a
A.country road✓ B. urban road
C. highway D.none of these
The portion of a road surface, which is used by vehicular traffic, is known as
A.carriage-way✓ B. shoulder
C. express way D.all of these
George Stephenson succeeded in running the first train of the world in
A.1825 B.1835 C.1825 D.1853
 Theme-34
The broad gauge is
A.0.6096 m B. 0.762 m
C. 1.00 m D.1.676 m✓
For main cities and routes of maximum intensities, the type of gauge adopted is
A.broad gauge✓ B. metre gauge
C. narrow gauge D.all of these
For undeveloped areas, the type of gauge adopted is
A.broad gauge B. metre gauge
C. narrow gauge D.all of these✓
The resistance of the train is due to
A.speed B. gradient
C. curves D.all of these✓
The width of top portion of a flat - footed rail, is
A.66.67 mm✓ B. 69.80 mm
C. 73.25 mm D.75.87 mm
For broad gauge main lines with maximum traffic loads, the rail section provided should have
A.29.77 to 37.25 kg/m B. 44.7 to 56.8 kg/m✓
C. 49.8 to 52.3 kg/m D.49.8 to 56.8 kg/m
The largest dimension of a rail section is
A.head width B. foot width
C. height✓ D.all of these
The rail section is designated by its
A. total length B. total weight
C. cross - sectional area D. weight per metre length✓
The rail section is divided on the basis of
A.type of rails B. spacing of sleepers
C. gauge of the track✓ D.speed of trains
Charles Vignole invented
A.double headed B.bull headed C.flat footed✓
The fillet in a rail section is provided o
A.increase the vertical stiffness B. increase the lateral strength
C. reduce wear D.avoid stress concentration✓
The choice of gauge depends upon
A.volume and nature of traffic B. speed of train
C. physical features of the country D.all of these✓
A standard rail point should
A.be as strong as the other portion of the track B. have just enough rail gap between two ails
have the same elasticity as the other portion of the
C. D.all of the above✓
track
In U.S.A., rails used are
A.20 m B. 30 m✓ C.40 m D.50 m
The joint generally not used on Indian railway is
A.supported joint B. suspended joint
C. base joint D.bridge joint✓
In supported rail joint, both the ends of adjoining rails are supported on a
A.single sleeper✓ B. single fish plate
C. double sleeper D.none of these
Between two rails, a gap of
A.1.5 mm to 3 mm✓ B. 3 mm to 6 mm
C. 6 mm to 9 mm D.9 mm to 12 mm
A welded rail joint is generally
A.supported on a sleeper B. suspended✓
C. supported on a metal plate D.none of these
 Theme-35
The coning of wheels is made to prevent the
A.lateral movement of the axle B. lateral movement of the wheels
C. damage of the inside edges of rails D.all of these✓
In coning of wheels, the wheels are given a slope of
A.1 in 20✓ B. 1 in 25
C. 1 in 30 D.1 in 40
Creep is the
A.longitudinal✓ B.lateal
C. vertical
The gauge should be
A.6 mm✓ B. 12 mm
C. 20 mm D.30 mm
The longitudinal movement of the rails in a track is technically known as
A.buckling B. hogging
C. creeping✓ D.none of these
The flow of rail metal due to abnormally heavy loads is called
A.hogging B. buckling
C. wear of rails✓ D.creeping
Which of the following sleeper provide best elasticity of track?
A.Wooden sleeper✓ B. Cast iron sleeper
C. Steel sleeper D.R.C.C.sleeper
Minimum packing space provided between two sleepers is
A.250 to 300 mm B. 300 to 350 mm✓
C. 350 mm to 400 mm D.400 to 450 mm
The standard size of wooden sleepers on metre gauge railway track is
A.1.52 m x 15 cm x 10 cm B. 1.83 m x 20 cm x 11 cm✓
C. 2.74 m x 25 cm x 13 cm D.any one of these
The standard size of wooden sleepers on broad gauge railway track is
A.1.52 m x 15 cm x 10 cm B. 1.83 m x 20 cm x 11 cm
C. 2.74 m x 25 cm x 13 cm✓ D.any one of these
The best wood for sleepes is
A.sal B.deodar C.teak✓ D.chir
The composite sleeper index is the index of
A.strength and hardness✓ B. strength and toughness
C. ardness and wear resistance D.toughness and wear resistance
The minimum composite sleeper index for wooden sleepers used over bridge girders, is
A.1352 B. 1455✓
C. 1555 D.1652
The minimum composite sleeper index for wooden sleepers used over cross-overs, is
A.1352✓ B. 1455
C. 1555 D.1652
The main disadvantage of steel sleepers is
A.that they get rusted very quickly B. that their lugs sometimes get cracked
C. that their lugs sometimes get broken D.all of these✓
Which of the following is a cast iron sleeper?
A.pot sleepers B. box sleepers
C. plate sleepers D.all of these✓
The total effective area of the pot sleepers is
A.0.26 m2 B. 0.36 m2
C. 0.46 m2✓ D.0.56 m2
The total effective area of the pot sleepers is equal to the effective bearing area of a
A.steel sleeper B. wooden sleeper✓
C. R.C.C. sleeper D.all of these
 Theme-36
Plate sleepers consist of a plate of dimensions
A.454 mm x 254 mm B. 551 mm x 254 mm
C. 851 mm x 254 mm✓ D.951 mm x 254 mm
The 254 mm side of a plate sleeper is
A.intersecting the rail B. parallel to the rail✓
C. connected with the rail D.none of these
To increase the strength of plate sleepers, the
A.bearing plates B.stiffeners✓
C. anchors
The mass of a cast iron sleeper is
A.56 kg B. 78.4 kg
C. 113.4 kg✓ D.121.8 kg
The main disadvantage of cast iron sleeper is
A.that they are liable to crack B. that they are liable to break
C. that they are liable to get rusted D.both (a) and (b) ✓
The number of sleepers used per rail length on the track is known as
A.sleeper strength B. sleeper density✓
C. sleeper ratio D.all of these
The ballast material generally used on Indian railways consist of
A.broken stone B. gravel
C. moorum D.all of these✓
To provide maximum stability to the track, graded stones from
A.20 to 50 mm✓ B. 50 to 75 mm
C. 75 to 100 mm D.100 to 125 mm
The quantity of stone ballast required per metre tangent length for broad gauge is
A.0.767 m3 B. 1.11 m3✓
C. 1.51 m3 D.2.11 m3
The quantity of stone ballast required per metre tangent length for metre gauge is
A.0.767 m3✓ B. 1.11 m3
C. 1.51 m3 D.2.11 m3
The minimum depth of ballast for broad gauge tracks on Indian railways is
A.200 mm B. 250 mm✓
C. 300 mm D.350 mm
The standard width of ballast for broad gauge track on Indian railways, is
A.2.3 m B. 2.9 m
C. 3.35 m✓ D.5.53 m
The standard width of ballast for metre gauge track on Indian railways, is
A.2.3 m✓ B. 2.9 m
C. 3.35 m D.5.53 m
To hold the adjoining ends of rails in correct horizontal and vertical planes, the rail fastenings used are
A.fish plates✓ B. spikes
C. anchors D.bearing plates
The length of each fish plate is
A.317.5 mm B.457.2 mm✓ C.514.3 mm D.623.4 mm
Fish bolts are made of
A.cast iron B. low carbon steel
C. high carbon steel✓ D.stainless steel
Rail chairs are used to fix
A.flat footed rails B. bull headed rails
C. double headed rails✓ D.none of these
The rail chairs are generally made of
A.cast iron✓ B. low carbon ste l
C. high carbon steel D.stainless steel
 Theme-37
The mass of a rail chair is about
A.10 kg B. 15.6 kg
C. 22 kg✓ D.30 kg
The bearing plates are used to fix
A.flat footed✓ B.bull headed
C. double eaded
The spike commonly used to fix the rails on wooden sleepers is
A.dog spike B. round spike
C. screw spike D.all of these✓
The overall depth of a dog spike is
A.120.6 mm✓ B. 159.5 mm
C. 175.9 mm D.180.6 mm
The spike used for fixing chairs of bull headed rail to wooden sleepers is
A.dog spike B. round spike✓
C. elastic spike D.all of these
The dog spikes are used for fixing rail to the
A.wooden sleepers✓ B. concrete sleepers
C. steel sleepers D.CST - 9 sleepers
The number of dog spikes normally used per rail seat on curved track is
A.one on either side B. one inside and two outside✓
C. one outside and two inside D.two on either side
The The screw spikes used for fixing the rails to wooden sleepers
A.are not popular on Indian railways B. do not spoil the sleeper
C. have more lateral rigidity than dog spikes D.all of the above✓
Creeping of rails can be checked by using
A.chairs B. bearing plates
C. anchors✓ D.spikes
According to Indian Railways Board, the minimum distance between the centre to centre of two tracks for
broad gauge is
A.4.725 m✓ B. 6.1 m
C. 7.49 m D.10.82 m
In the cross - sections of railway tracks, side slope in embankments is kept as
A.1 ; 1 B. 1 ; 5
C. 2 ; 1✓ D.3 ; 1
For station yards, Indian railways have recommended a gradient of
A.1 in 100 B. 1 in 200 to 1 in 250
C. 1 in 500 D.1 in 1000✓
The maximum limit of superelevation prescribed by Indian railways on broad gauge is
A.76.2 mm B. 83.2 mm
C. 101.6 mm D.165.1 mm✓
Superelevation on curves is provided by means of
A.cant-board B. straight edge
C. spirit level D.all of these✓
The height of the platform above the rail surface for narrow gauge tracks should be
A.229 to 406 mm✓ B. 305 to 406 mm
C. 762 to 838 mm D.838 to 982 mm
The length of platform for broad gauge should not be less than
A.100 m B.200 m C.300 mm✓ D.400 m
The height of the platform above the rail surface for broad gauge tracks should be
A.229 to 406 mm B. 305 to 406 mm
C. 762 to 838 mm✓ D.838 to 982 mm
The width of platform, under no circumstances, should be less than
A.2 m B.4 m✓ C.6 m D.8 m
 Theme-38
The pl tform should be provided
A.1.219 m B. 1.346 m
C. 1.676 m✓ D.1.854 m
The minimum valu of flangeway clearance is
A.60 mm✓ B. 80 mm
C. 100 mm D.120 mm
Stock rails are fitted
A.near tongue rails B. near check rails
C. against tongue rails✓ D.against check rails
The main device used for interlocking is
A.point lock B. treadle bar
C. detector D.all of these✓
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 Theme-39
GB Aa¨v‡qi cÖ‡qvRbxq †bvU
 Theme-40

The mass per unit volume of a liquid at a standard temperature and pressure is called
A.specific weight B. mass density✓
C. specific gravity D.none of these
The weight per unit volume of a liquid at a standard temperature and pressure is called
A.specific weight✓ B. mass density
C. specific gravity D.none of these
The specific weight of water in S.I. units is taken as
A.9.81 kN/m3 B. 9.81 x 103 N/m3
C. 9.81 x 10-6 N/mm3 D.any of these✓
The ratio of specific weight of a liquid to the specific weight of pure water at a standard temperature is
called
A.density of liquid B. specific gravity of liquid✓
C. compressibility of liquid D.surface tension of liquid
The specific gravity of water is taken as
A.0.001 B. 0.01
C. 0.1 D.1✓
The mass of 2.5 m3 of a certain liquid is 2 tonnes. Its mass density is
A.200 kg / m3 B. 400 kg / m3
C. 600 kg / m3 D.800 kg / m3✓
The specific gravity of an oil whose specific weight is 7.85 kN / m3, is
A.0.8✓ B. 1
C. 1.2 D.1.6
The force per unit length is the unit of
A.surface tension✓ B. compressibility
C. capillarity D.viscosity
The variation in the volume of a liquid with the variation of pressure is called its
A.surface tension B. compressibility✓
C. capillarity D.viscosity
The mercuty does not wet the glass. This is due to the property of the liquid known as
A.cohesion B. adhesion
C. viscosity D.surface tension ✓
With an increase in size of tube, the rise or depression of liquid in the tube due to surface tension will
A.decrease B. increase
C. remain unchanged D.depend upon the characteristics of liquid✓
The unit of surface tension is
A.N / m✓ B. N / m2
C. N / m3 D.N - m
Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of
A.surface tension of water✓ B. compressibility of water
C. capillarity of water D.viscosity of water
The pressure at a point 4 m below the free surface of water is
A.19.24 kPa B. 29.24 kPa
C. 39.24 kPa✓ D.49.24 kPa
The height of a water column equivalent to a pressure of 0.15 MPa is
A.15.3 m✓ B. 25.3 m
C. 35.3 m D.45.3 m
The pressure measured with the help of a pressure gauge is called
A.atmospheric pressure B. gauge pressure✓
C. absolute pressure D.mean pressure
The atmospheric pressure at sea level is
A.103 kN / m3 B.10.3 m of water C.760 mm of mercury D.all of the above✓
 Theme-41
The absolute pressure is equal to
A.gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure✓ B. gauge pressure - atmospheric pressure
C. atmospheric p essure - gauge pressure D.gauge pressure - vacuum pressure
The pressure less than atmospheric pressure is known as
A.suction pressure B. vacuum pressure
C. negative gauge pressure D.all of these✓
The pressure of a liquid measured with the help of a piezometer tube is
A.vacuum pressure B. gauge pressure✓
C. absolute pressure D.atmospheric pressure
The pressure measured with the help of a piezometer tube is in
A.N / mm2 B. N / m2
C. head of liquid✓ D.all of these
A piezometer tube is used only for measuring
A.low pressure B. high pressure
C. moderate pressure✓ D.vacuum pressure
The liquid used in manometers should have
A.low density B. high density
C. low surface tension D.high surface tension✓
A manometer is used to measure
A.atmospheric pressure B. pressure in pipes and channels✓
difference of pressures between two points in a
C. pressure in venturimeter D.
pipe
A manometer is used to measure
A.low pressure B. moderate pressure
C. high pressure✓ D.atomospheric pressure
The point at which the resultant pressure on an immersed surface acts, is known as
A.centre of gravity B. centre of depth
C. centre of pressure✓ D.centre of immersed surface
A water tank contains 1.3 m deep water. The pressure exerted by the water per metre length of the tank is
A.2.89 kM B. 8.29 kN✓
C. 9.28 kN D.28.9 kN
When a vertical wall is subjected to pressures due to liquid on both sides, the resultant pressure is the
A.sum B. difference✓
C. arithmatic mean D.geometric mean
The stability of a dam is checked for
A.tension at the base B. overturning of the wall or dam
C. sliding of the wall or dam D.all of these✓
The force of buoyancy is always
A.equal to✓ B.less than
C. more than
The centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced is called
A.centre of pressure B. centre of buoyancy✓
C. metacentre D.none of these
The buoyancy depends upon the
A.weight of the liquid displaced✓ B. pressure with which the liquid is displaced
C. viscosity of the liquid D.compressibility of the liquid
The metacentric height of a ship is 0.6 m and the radius of gyration is 4 m. The time of rolling of a ship is
A.4.1s B. 5.2s
C. 10.4s✓ D.14.1s
One litre of water occupies a volume of
A.100 cm3 B.250 cm3 C.500 cm3 D.1000 cm3✓
One cubic metre of water weighs
A.100 Liters B.500 Liters C.250Liters D.1000 Liters✓
 Theme-42
A flow in hich the quantity of liquid flowing per second is constant, is called
A.steady ✓ B. stream line
C. turbulent D.unsteady
A flow in which the quantity of liquid flowing per second is not constant, is called
A.streamline flow B. turbulent flow
C. steady flow D.unsteady flow✓
According to equation of continuity,
A.w1a1 = w2a2 B. w1v1 = w2v2
C. a1v1 = a2v2✓ D.a1/v1 = a2/v2
A flow through a long pipe at constant rate is called
A.steady uniform flow✓ B. steady non-uniform flow
C. unsteady uniform flow D.unsteady non-uniform flow
A flow through an expanding tube at constant rate is called
A.steady uniform flow B. steady non-uniform flow✓
C. unsteady uniform flow D.unsteady non-uniform flow
A flow whose streamline is represented by a curve, is called
A.one-dimensional flow B. two-dimensional flow✓
C. three-dimensional flow D.four-dimensional flow
A flow whose streamline is represented by a straight line, is called
A.one ✓ B.Two C. Three D.Four
In one dimensional flow, the flow
A.is steady and uniform B. takes place in straight line✓
C. takes place in curve D.takes place in one direction
The total head of a liquid particle in motion is equal to
A.pressure head + kinetic head + potential head✓ B. pressure head - (kinetic head + potential head)
C. potential head - (pressure head + kinetic head) D.kinetic head - (pressure he d + potential head)
The Bernoulli's equation is based on the assumption that
the velocity of flow is uniform across any cross-
A.there is no loss of energy of the liquid flowing B.
section of the pipe
C. no force except gravity acts on the fluid D.all of the above✓
. Bernoulli's equation is applied to
A.venturimeter B. orifice meter
C. pitot tube D.all of these✓
Barometer is used to measure
A.velocity of liquid B. atmospheric pressure✓
C. pressure in pipes and channels D.difference of pressure between two points in a pipe
Venturimeter is used to
A.measure the velocity of a flowing liquid B. measure the pressure of a flowing liquid
measure the discharge of liquid flowing in a pipe measure the pressure difference of liquid flowing
C. D.
✓ between two points in a pipe line
The length of the divergent cone in a venturimeter is
A.equal to B. double
C. three to four times✓ D.five to six times
In order to measure the flow with a venturimeter, it is installed in
A.horizontal line B. inclined line with flow upwards
C. inclined line with flow downwards D.any direction and in any location✓
A pitot tube is used to measure the
A.velocity of flow at the required point in a pipe B. pressure difference between two points in a pipe
C. total pressure of liquid flowing in a a pipe D.discharge through a pipe✓
A jet of water discharging from a 40 mm diameter orifice has a diameter of 32 mm at its vena contracta.
The coefficient f contraction is
A.0.46 B. 0.64✓
C. 0.78 D.0.87
 Theme-43
Coefficient of velocity is defined a the ratio of
actual velocity of jet at vena contracta to the
A. B. area of jet at vena contracta to the area of orifice
theoretical velocity✓
actual discharge through an orifice to the
C. D.none of the above
theoretical discharge
An average value of coefficient of velocity is
A.0.62 B. 0.76
C. 0.84 D.0.97✓
An orifice is said to be large, if
A.the size of orifice is large B. the velocity of flow is large
the available head of liquid is more than 5 times the available head of liquid is les than 5 times the
C. D.
the height of orifice height of orifice✓
A pipe of length more than double the diameter of orifice fitted externally or internally to the orifice is
called a
A.notch B. weir
C. mouthpiece✓ D.nozzle
In a short cylindrical external mouthpiece, the vena contracta occurs at a distance
A.equal to B. one-fourth✓
C. one-third D.one-half
The coefficient of discharge for an external mouthpiece depends upon
A.velocity of liquid B. pressure of liquid
C. area of outhpiece D.length of mouthpiece✓
The coefficient of discharge for an external mouthpiece is
A.0.375 B. 0.5
C. 0.707 D.0.855✓
An internal mouthpiece is said to be running free if the length of the mouthpiece is
A.less than twice B. more than twice
C. less than three times✓ D.more than three times
The discharge through a convergent mouthpiece is
A.equal to B. one-half
C. three fourth D.double✓
A notch is used to measure
A.pressure B. Disagree✓
C. velocity D.volume
If the coefficient of discharge is 0.6, then the discharge over a right angled notch is
A.0.417 H5/2 B. 1.417 H5/2✓
C. 4.171 H5/2 D.7.141 H5/2
The discharge over a rectangular notch is
A.inversely proportional to H3/2 B. directly proportional to H3/2✓
C. inversely proportional to H5/2 D.directly proportional to H5/2
The discharge over a triangular notch is
A.inversely proportional to H3/2 B. directly proportional to H3/2
C. inversely proportional to H5/2 D.directly proportional to H5/2✓
An error of 1% in measureing head over the crest of the notch (H) will produce an error of
A.1% B.1.50%✓ C.2% D.2.5%
An error of 1% in measuring head over the apex of the notch (H) will produce an error of
A.1% B. 1.50%
C. 2% D.2.50%✓
A structure used to dam up a stream or river over which the water flows is called
A.orifice B. notch
C. weir✓ D.dam
The sheet of water flowing over a notch or a weir is known as
A.sill or crest B.nappe or vein✓ C.orifice D.none of these
 Theme-44
To to of the weir over wh ch the water flows in known as
A.sill or crest✓ B. nappe or vein
C. oriffice D.none of thes
When the corfficient of discharge (Cd) is 0.623, then the general equation for discharge over a rectangular
weir is
A.1.84 (L-0.1 nH) H3/2✓ B. 1.84 (L-nH) H2
C. 1.84 (L-0.1 nH) H5/2 D.1.84 (L-nH) H3
The Cippoletti weir is a
A.rectangular B. triangular
C. trapezoidal✓ D.circular
The Francis formula for the discharge over Cippoletti weir is
A.1.84 LH1/2 B. 1.84 LH
C. 1.84 LH3/2✓ D.1.84 LH5/2
The maximum discharge over a broad crested eir is
A.0.384 Cd x L x H1/2 B. 0.384 Cd x L x H3/2
C. 1.71 Cd x L x H1/2 D.1.71 Cd x L x H3/2✓
A weir, generally, used as a spillway of a dam is
A.narrow crested weir B. broad crested weir
C. Ogee weir✓ D.submerged weir
In a free nappe,
A.the pressure below the nappe is atmospheric✓ B. the pressure below the nappe is negative
C. the pressure above the nappe is atmospheric D.the pre sure above the nappe is negative
In a depressed nappe
A.the pressure below the nappe is atmospheric B. the pressure below the nappe is negative✓
C. the pressure above the nappe is atmospheric D.the pressure above the nappe is negative
The frictional resistance of a pipe varies approximately with
A.pressure B. velocity
C. square of velocity✓ D.cube of velocity
The hydraulic mean depth or the hyd aulic radius is the ratio of
A.area of flow and wetted perimeter✓ B. w tted perimeter and diameter of pipe
C. velocity of flow and a ea of flow D.none of these
The hydraulic mean depth for a circular pipe of diameter (d) is
A.d / 6 B. d / 4✓
C. d / 2 D.d
The total energy line lies over the hydraulic gradient line by an amount equal to the
A.pressure head B. velocity head✓
C. pressure head + velocity head D.pressure head - velocity head
The hydraulic gradient line lies over the centre line f the pipe by an amount equal to the
A.pressure head✓ B. velocity head
C. pressure head + velocity head D.pressure head - velocity head
The total energy line lies over the centre line of the pipe by an amount equal to
A.pressure head B. velocity head
C. pressure head + velocity head✓ D.pressure head - velocity head
The maximum efficiency of transmission through a pipe is
A.50% B. 56.70%
C. 66.67%✓ D.76.66%
An air vessel is provided at the summit in a syphon to
A.avoid interruption in the flow✓ B. increase discharge
C. increase velocity D.maintain pressure difference
A nozzle is generally made of
A.cylindrical shape B.convergent shape✓ C.divergent shape D.convergent-divergent shape
A nozzle placed at the end of a water pipe line discharges water at a
A.low pressure B.high pressure C.low velocity D.low velocity
 Theme-45
The velocity through a channel of circular section will be maximum when the depth of water is
A.0.34 times B. 0.67 times
C. 0.81 times✓ D.0.95 times
The highest efficiency is obtained with a channel of
A.circular B. square
C. rectangular D.trapezoidal✓
If the depth of water in an open channel is greater than the critical depth, the flow is called
A.critical flow B. turbulent flow
C. tranquil flow✓ D.torrential flow
If the depth of water in an open channel is less than the critical depth, the flow is called
A.critical flow B. turbulent flow
C. tranquil flow D.torrential flow✓
The most efficient section of a channel is
A.triangular B. rectangular
C. square D.trapezoidal✓
The critical depth meter is used to measure
A.velocity of flow in an open channel B. depth of flow in an open channel
C. hydraulic jump✓ D.depth of channel
The coefficient of venturiflume, generally lies between
A.0.3 to 0.45 B. 0.50 to 0.75
C. 0.75 to 0.95 D.0.95 to 1.0✓
The unit of dynamic viscosity in S.I. units is
A.N-m/s2 B. N-s/m2✓
C. poise D.stoke
One poise is equal to
A.0.1 N-s/m2✓ B. 1 N-s/m2
C. 10 N-s/m2 D.100 N-s/m2
The kinematic viscosity is the
ratio of absolute viscosity to the density of the ratio of density of the liquid to the absolute
A. B.
liquid✓ viscosity
product of absolute viscosity and density of the product of absolute viscosity and mass of the
C. D.
liquid liquid
Stoke is the unit of
A.kinematic viscosity in C.G.S. units✓ B. kinematic viscosity in M.K.S. units
C. dynamic viscosity in M.K.S. units D.dynamic viscosity in S.I. units
One stoke is equal to
A.10-2m2/s B. 10-3m2/s
C. 10-4m2/s✓ D.10-6m2/s
The unit of kinematic viscosity in S. I. units is
A.N-m/s B.N-s/m2 C.m2/s✓ D.N - m
The viscosity of water at 20? C is
A.one stoke B. one centistroke
C. on poise D.one centipoise✓
A fluid having no viscosity is known as
A.real fluid B. ideal fluid✓
C. newtonian fluid D.non-newtonian fluid
A fluid which obeys the Newton's law of viscosity is termed as
A.real fluid B. ideal fluid
C. newtonian fluid✓ D.non-newtonian fluid
Water is a
A.real B.ideal C.newtonian ✓ D.non-newtonian
A flow in which the viscosity of fluid is dominating over the inertia force is called
A.steady flow B.unsteady flow C.laminar flow✓ D.turbulent flow
 Theme-46
A flow in which
A.elastic B. surface tension
C. viscous D.inertia✓
The velocity at which the flow changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow is called
A.critical velocity✓ B. velocity of approach
C. sub-sonic velocity D.super-sonic velocity
. Reyold's number is the ratio of the inertia force to the
A.surface tension force B. viscous force
C. gravity force D.elastic force✓
The flow in a pipe is turbulent when Reynold number is
A.less than 2000 B. between 2000 and 2800
C. more than 2800✓ D.none of these
The vlow in a pipe is neither laminar nor turbulent when Reynold number is
A.less than 2000 B. between 2000 and 2800✓
C. more than 2800 D.none of these
The velocity corresponding to Reynold number of 2000 is called
A.sub-sonic velocity B. super-sonic velocity
C. lower critical velocity✓ D.higher critical velocity
The velocity corresponding to Reynold number of 2800, is called
A.sub-sonic velocity B. super-son velocity
C. lower critical velocity D.higher critical velocity✓
The loss of pressure head in case of laminar flow is proportional to
A.velocity✓ B. (velocity)2
C. (velocity)3 D.(velocity)4
The coefficient of viscosity may be determined by
A.capillary tube method B. orifice type viscometer
C. rotating cylinder method D.all of these✓
Bulk modulus of a fluid is the ratio of
A.shear stress to shear strain B. increase in volume to the viscosity of fluid
C. increase in pressure to the volumetric strain✓ D.critical veloity to the viscosity of fluid
When the Mach number is less than unity, the flow is called
A.sub-sonic flow✓ B. sonic flow
C. super-sonic flow D.hyper-sonic flow
When the Mach number is between
A.1 and 2.5 B. 2.5 and 4
C. 4 and 6 D.1 and 6✓
When the Mach number is more than 6, the flow is called
A.sub-sonic flow B. sonic flow
C. super-sonic flow D.hyper-sonic flow✓
. A flow is called sub-sonic, if the Mach number is
A.less than unity✓ B. unity
C. between 1 and 6 D.more than 6
A flow is called super-sonic if the
A.velocity of flow is very high B. discharge is difficult to measure
C. Mach number is between 1 and 6✓ D.none of these
A flow is called hyper-sonic, if the Mach number is
A.less than unity B. unity
C. between 1 and 6 D.none of these✓
A point, in a compressible flow where the velocity of fluid is zero, is called
A.critical point B. vena contracta
C. stagnation point✓ D.none of these
To force present in a moving liquid is
A.inertia force B.viscous force C.gravity force D.all of these✓
 Theme-47
To product of mass and accelaration of flowing liquid is called
A.inertia force✓ B. viscous force
C. gravity force D.pressure force
Viscous force is the
A.sum B. different
C. product ✓ D.ratio
The ratio of the inertia force to the viscous force is called
A.Reynold's number✓ B. Froude's number
C. Weber's number D.Euler's number
The ratio of the inertia force to the
A.pressure force✓ B. elastic force
C. surface tension force D.viscous force
The ratio of the inertia force to the elastic force is called
A.Reynold's number B. Froude's number
C. Weber's number D.Mach number✓
Froude's number is the ratio of inertia force to
A.pressure force B. elastic force
C. gravity force✓ D.surface tension force
Euler's number is the ratio of
A.inertia ✓ B.gravity
C. viscous
Reynold's number is the ratio of inertia force to
A.pressure force B. elastic force
C. gravity force D.viscous force✓
The value of bulk modulus of a fluid is required to determine
A.Reynold's number B. Froude's number
C. Mach number ✓ D.Euler's number
GB Aa¨v‡qi cÖ‡qvRbxq †bvU
 Theme-48
GB Aa¨v‡qi cÖ‡qvRbxq †bvU
 Theme-49
Surveying
In plane surveying,
A.The curvature of the earth is taken into consideration B.the surveys extend over small areas✓
C. the surveys extend over large areas
The curvature of the earth is taken into consideration if the limit of survey is
A.50 to 100 km2 B. 100 to 200 km2
C. 200 to 250 km2 D.more than 250 km2✓
When 1 cm on a map represents 10 m on the ground, the representative fraction of the scale is
A.1?10 B. 1?100
C. 1?1000✓ D.1?10000
The representative fraction 1 / 2500 means that the scale is
A.1 cm = 0.25 m B. 1 cm = 2.5 m
C. 1 cm = 25 m✓ D.1 cm = 250 m
A plain scale is used to read
A.one dimension B. two dimensions✓
C. three dimensions D.all of these
A line joining some fixed points on the main survey lines, is called a
A.check line B. tie line✓
C. base line D.none of these
A line joining the apex of a triangle to some fixed point on the opposite side is called a
A.check line✓ B. tie line
C. base line D.none of these
A base line in a chain survey
enables the surveyor to locate the interior details which
A.checks the accuracy of the framework B.
are far away from the main chain lines
C. fixes up the directions of all other lines✓ D.all of the above
Chain surveying is most suitable when
A.area to be surveyed is small B. ground is fairly level and open with simple details
C. plans are required on a large scale D.all of the above✓
In a well conditioned triangle, no angle should be less than
A.30? ✓ B. 40?
C. 50? D.60?
The mimiting length of the offset is
A.5 m B. 10 m
C. 15 m✓ D.20 m
The adjustable cross-staff is used for setting out an offset
A.at an angle of 45? B. at an angle of 60?
C. at a right angle D.at any angle✓
An open cross-staff is commonly used for setting out
A.short offsets B. long offsets✓
C. oblique offsets D.none of these
The angle of intersection of the horizon glass and index glass in an optical square is
A.30? B. 45? ✓
C. 60? D.75?
The index glass in an optical square is
A.wholly silvered✓ B. wholly unsilvered
C. one-fourth silvered and three-fourth unsilvered D.half silvered and half unsilvered
The optical square is used to measure angles by
A.refraction B. reflection✓
C. double refraction D.double reflection
The angle between the reflecting surfaces of a prism square is
A.30? B. 45? ✓
C. 60? D.75?
 Theme-50
In a whole circle bearing system, S 25? 15' E corresponds to
A.115? 15' B. 154? 45'✓
C. 205? 15' D.334? 45'
In a whole circle bearing system N 25? 15' W corresponds to
A.115? 15' B. 154? 45'
C. 205? 15' D.334? 45'✓
If the fore bearing of a line is 36? 15', its back bearing will be
A.36? 15' B. 126? 15'
C. 143? 45' D.216? 15'✓
If the fore bearing of a line is
A.36? 15' B. 126? 15'
C. 143? 45' D.216? 15'✓
If the fore bearing of a line is N 26? 35' W, its back bearing will be
A.S 26? 35' E✓ B. S 26? 35' W
C. N 26? 35' E D.N 53? 25' W
The horizontal angle between the true meridian and a survey line is called
A.magnetic bearing B. azimuth✓
C. dip D.magnetic declination
The horizontal angle between the true meridian and magnetic meridian is known as
A.true bearing B. dip
C. local attraction D.magnetic declination✓
At the equator, the amount of dip is
A.0? ✓ B. 45?
C. 60? D.90?
At the magnetic poles, the amount of dip is
A.0? B. 45?
C. 60? D.90? ✓
A back sight indicates the
A.shifting B.setting up✓
C. height
A fixed point of reference of known elevation is called
A.change point B. station point
C. bench mark✓ D.datum
A staff reading taken on a bench mark or a point of known elevation is called
A.fore sight reading B. back sight reading✓
C. intermediate sight D.any one of these
The reduced level of the plane of collimation is
A.equal to✓ B.less than
C. greater than
Collimation method is used in
A.profile levelling B. differential levelling
C. check levelling D.both (a) and (b) ✓
In levelling, the correction for combined curvature and refraction (in metres) is equal to
A.0.00785 D2 B. 0.0785 D2
C. 0.0112 D2 D.0.0673 D2✓
The contour lines can cross one another on map only in the case of
A.a vertical cliff B. a valley
C. a ridge D.an overhanging cliff✓
Contour lines cross ridge or valley lines at
A.30? B. 45?
C. 60? D.90? ✓
In route surveys, the most suitable method of contouring is
A.by squares B.by radial lines C.by radial lines D.by tacheometer
 Theme-51
The reduced level of a point on the ground is called
A.spot level B. spot height
C. either (a) or (b) ✓ D.none of these
The spacing of cross-sections in a hilly country is usually
A.5 m B. 10 m
C. 15 m D.20 m✓
In indirect method of contouring, the best method of interpolation of contours is
A.by graphical method B. by estimation
C. by arithmetical calculation✓ D.all of these
The length of peg interval for flat curves is
A.15 m B. 20 m
C. 25 m D.30 m✓
The curve used for ideal transition curve is a
A.cubic parabola B. clothoid spiral
C. cubic spiral D.lemniscate✓
The shift of a curve is
A.equal to B. one-half
C. one-third D.one-fourth✓
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 Theme-52
GB Aa¨v‡qi cÖ‡qvRbxq †bvU
 Theme-53
Building Construction
The lowest part of a structure which transmits the load to the soil is known as
A.Super-structure B.Plinth C.Foundation✓ D.Basement
The foundation in a building is provided to
A.distribute the load over a large area B. increase overall stability of the structure
transmit load to the bearing surface (sub soil) at a
C. D.all of the above✓
uniform rate
The failure of foundation of a building is due to
A.withdrawl of subsoil moisture B. unequal settlement of soil
C. lateral escape of the supporting material D.all of these✓
The minimum load which will cause failure of a foundation is called
A.ultimate tensile strength B. nominal strength
C. ultimate bearing power✓ D.ultimate compressive strength
The bearing capacity of soils can be improved by
A.increasing the depth of footing B. draining the sub-soil water
ramming the granular material like crushed stone in
C. D.all of the above✓
the soil
The maximum bearing capacity of soil is that of
A.hard rocks✓ B. black cotton soil
C. dry, coarse sandy soil D.fine sandy soil
The minimum depth of foundation for buildings on clays is
A.0.2 to 0.4 m B.0.4 to 0.6 m C.0.6 to 0.9 m D.0.9 to 1.6 m✓
In order to protect the beam against corrosion, a minimum cover of
A.50 mm B.100 mm✓ C.100 mm✓ D.100 mm✓
Which of the following foundation is used for weaker soil?
A.Column footing B. Grillage footing
C. Raft footing D.all of these✓
The raft foundations are generally used when the required area of footing is
A.more than one-fourth B. less than one-fourth
C. more than one-helf✓ D.less than one-half
When two or more footings are connected by a beam, it is called
A.beam footing B. combined footing
C. strap footing✓ D.mat footing
A black cotton soil is unsuitable for foundations because it
undergoes volumetric changes with the change of
A. B. swells excessively when wet
atmospheric conditions
C. shrinks excessively when dry D.all of the above✓
When a veavy structure is to be constructed in sandy soil, the foundation used is
A.pier foundation✓ B. strap foundation
C. raft foundation D.any one of these
Pile foundation is generally used when the soil is
A. B.water-logged C.water-logged D.all of these✓
The type of foundation most suitable for brideges is
A.pier foundation B.raft foundation C.pile foundation✓ D.pile foundation✓
A combined footing is commonly used
A.when two columns are spaced close to each other✓ B. when two columns are spaced far apart
C. under a set of columns D.under a set of walls
Batter piles are
used to protect concrete deck or other water front
A.used to function as retaining walls B.
structures from the abrasion or impact
driven at an inclination to resist large horizontal driven in granular soil with the aim of increasing
C. D.
inclined forces✓ the bearing capacity of the soil
 Theme-54
The best spacing of timber piles from centre to centre is
A.600 mm B. 700 mm
C. 800 mm D.900 mm✓
The maximum load on the wooden pile should not exceed
A.50 kN B. 100 kN
C. 150 kN D.200 kN✓
Pre-cast concrete piles are usually
A.reinforced concrete only B. plain or reinforced concrete
C. reinforced concrete or pre-stressed concrete✓ D.plain, reinforced concrete or pre-stressed concrete
The length of pre-cast concrete piles varies from
A.3 m to 4.5 m B. 4.5 m to 10 m
C. 4.5 m to 20 m D.4.5 m to 30 m✓
A type of cast-in-situ pile which has an enlarged base and a corrugated stem, is
A.simplex pile B. Franki pile✓
C. vibro-pile D.Raymond pile
The diameter of the drilled piles should not exceed
A.200 mm B. 400 mm
C. 600 mm✓ D.800 mm
The pre-stressed concrete piles as compared to pre-cast and reinforced concrete piles
A.are lesser in weight B. have high load carrying capacity
C. are extremely durable D.all of these✓
A steel pile which function more efficiently in soft clay or loose sand, is
A.H-pile B. pipe pile
C. screw pile✓ D.disc pile
A screw pile consists of cast iron or steel shaft of external diameter varying from
A.0 to 150 mm B. 150 to 300 mm✓
C. 300 to 450 mm D.450 to 600 mm
Sheet piles are made of
A.wood B.steel C.concrete D.all of these✓
The coefficient of friction between the concrete and soil is
A.0.20 to 0.25 B. 0.25 to 0.30
C. 0.30 to 0.35 D.0.35 to 0.50✓
When the pile is driven by means of water jets, water is forced through the jet pipe under a pressure of
A.0.2 to 0.5 N/mm2 B. 0.5 to 0.7 N/mm2
C. 0.7 to 1.75 N/mm2✓ D.1.75 to 2.5 N/mm2
For the pre-cast reinforced concrete piles, the quality of concrete recommended is
A.M 100 to M 150 B. M 150 to M 200✓
C. M 200 to M 250 D.M 250 to M 300
In the pre-cast reinforced concrete piles, the thickness of concrete covering the main bars should not be less
than
A.40 mm✓ B. 55 mm
C. 75 mm D.100 mm
The minimum covering of the reinforcement for the pre-cast reinforced piles used in sea water, is
A.40 mm B. 55 mm✓
C. 75 mm D.100 mm
When the depth of water is from 4.5 to 6 m, the type of coefferdam used is
A.earthen cofferdam B.rockfill cofferdam C.single-walled cofferdam✓ D.double walled cofferdam
A watertight structure constructed in connection with excavations for foundations of bridges, piers etc., is
known as
A.caisson✓ B. cofferdam
C. well foundation D.raft foundatio
The minimum depth of foundation for the load bearing wall of a building is restricted to
A.600 mm B.700 mm C.800 mm D.900 mm✓
 Theme-55
The dampness in a building is due to
A.ground moisture B. rain water
C. defective construction D.all of these✓
The dampness on roof may be due to
A.use of porous materials B. insufficient lap of covering material
C. bad workmanship in plumbing D.all of these✓
The most commonly used material for damp proofing is
A.bitumen✓ B. paraffin wax
C. cement solution D.cement concrete
In case of buildings without basement, the best position for damp-proof course (D.P.C.) lies at
A.plinth level✓ B. ground level
C. 150 mm above plinth level D.150 mm above ground level
For D.P.C. at plinth level, the commonly adopted material is
A.bitumen sheeting B. plastic sheeting
C. mastic asphalt D.cement concrete✓
A semi-rigid material which forms an excellent impervious layer for damp-proofing, is called
A.bitumen B. mastic asphalt✓
C. aluminal D.bituminous felt
The damp-proof course
A.may be horizontal or vertical B. should be continuous
C. should be good impervious material D.all of these✓
The cavity wall is generally provided for
A.preventing dampness B.heat insulation
C. sound insulation
In horizontal D.P.C. at plinth level, the thickness of cement concrete of 1 : 2 : 4 mix, is kept as minimum of
400 mm.
A.Correct✓ B.Incorrect
A flexible material used for D.P.C. is
A.bitumen sheeting✓ B. plastic sheeting
C. mastic asphalt D.cement concrete
The construction of a temporary structure required to support an unsafe structure, is called
A.underpinning B. scaffolding
C. shoring✓ D.jacking
A temporary rigid structure having platforms raised up as the building increases in height, is called
A.underpinning B. scaffolding✓
C. shoring D.jacking
A horizontal layer of bricks laid in mortar is known as
A.course✓ B.stretcher C.header D.closer
The brick laid with its length perpendicular to the face of the wall is called a
A.course B. stretcher
C. header✓ D.closer
The brick laid with its length parallel to the face of the wall is called a
A.course B. stretcher✓
C. header D.closer
A brick which is cut in such a way that the width of its one end is half that of a full brick, is called
A.king closer✓ B. mitred closer
C. bevelled closer D.queen closer
A brick which is half as wide as a full brick, is called
A.king closer B. mitred closer
C. bevelled closer D.queen closer✓
The most important purpose of frog in a brick is to
A.emboss manufacture's name B. reduce the weight of brick
C. form keyed joint between brick and mortar✓ D.improve insulation by providing 'hollows'
 Theme-56
King closers are related to
A.king post truss B. queen post truss
C. brick masonry✓ D.doors and windows
A course of stone provided immediately below a cornice, is called
A.blocking course B. coping
C. frieze✓ D.parapet
A course of stone masonry provided immediately above the cornice, is called
A.blocking course✓ B. coping
C. frieze D.parapet
The minimum thickness of a wall in stone masonry should not be less than
A.100 mm B. 200 mm
C. 350 mm✓ D.450 mm
A type of bond in a brick masonry consisting of alternate course of headers and stretchers, is called
A.English bond✓ B. Flemish bond
C. stretching bond D.heading bond
A stretcher bond is usually used for
A.half brick wall✓ B. one brick wall
C. one and half brick wall D.two brick wall
The heading bond is usually used for
A.half brick wall B. one brick wall✓
C. one and half brick wall D.two brick wall
The most commonly used bond for all wall thicknesses is
A.English bond✓ B. Flemish bond
C. stretching bond D.heading bond
Herring-bone bond is commonly used for
A.brick paving✓ B. very thick walls
C. partition walls D.footings in foundations
The filling in cavities with cement slurry is known as
A.coping B. beam-filling
C. grouting✓ D.gunniting
The arrangement of bricks is similar to English bond in
A.raking bond B. dutch bond
C. facing bond D.heading bond✓
A wall built to resist the pressure of earth filling, is known as
A.breast wall B. retaining wall
C. parapet wall D.duttress✓
A retaining wall may be built in
A.dry stone masonry B. stonemasonry
C. plain cement concrete D.all of these✓
A retaining wall is commonly required in the construction of
A.hill roads B. masonry dams
C. wing walls D.all of these✓
A partition wall may be
A.folding B. collapsible
C. fixed D.any one of these✓
In a brick nogging type of partition wall the vertical wooden members are called
A.noggings B. studs✓
C. sills D.templates
The sill in a wooden partition wall is the
A.vertical B. lower horizontal✓
C. upper horizontal D.intermediate horizontal
The nogging pieces are housed in the studs at a vertical distance of about
A.100 to 200 mm B.200 to 400 mm C.400 to 600 mm D.600 to 900 mm✓
 Theme-57
In constructing concrete partition wall, the concrete mixture usually adopted is
A.M 100 B. M 150✓
C. M 200 D.M 250
The moulding provided under nosing to beautify the elevation of a step of stair, is called
A.flier B. soffit
C. scotia✓ D.tread
A series of steps without any platform, break or landing in their direction, is called
A.riser B. tread
C. flight✓ D.nosing
The brick flooring is used in
A.workshops B. godowns✓
C. verandahs D.none of these
The projecting part of the tread beyond the face of riser is called
A.pitch B. nosing✓
C. baluster D.stringer
In a public building, the stairs should be located near the
A.entrance✓ B. centre
C. end D.toilet
The angle which the line of nosing of the stair makes with the horizontal, is called
A.riser B. flier
C. soffit D.pitch or slope✓
In stairs, the vertical portion of a step providing a support to the tread, is known as
A.riser✓ B. flier
C. soffit D.pitch or slope
The size of a step commonly adopted for residential buildings is
A.250 mm x 160 mm✓ B. 270 mm x 150 mm
C. 300 mm x 130 mm D.350 mm x 100 mm
In residential building, the average value of stair width is
A.600 mm B. 700 mm
C. 800 mm D.900 mm✓
The pitch of stair should never exceed
A.20? B. 25?
C. 30? D.40? 2713
In wooden stairs, the thickness of tread is adopted as
A.28 mm B. 38 mm✓
C. 48 mm D.58 mm
The inner surface of an arch is called
A.extrados B. intrados✓
C. crown D.voussoir
The surface of the abutment on which the arch rests, is known as
A.span B. keystone
C. skew back✓ D.crown
The highest point on the extrados is called
A.skew back✓ B.crown C.voussoir D.keystone
The lower portion of an arch between the skew back and crown is called
A.depth B. rise
C. haunch✓ D.intrados
The vertical members which support the door frame are called
A.reveals B. styles
C. posts D.jambs✓
The bottom or lowermost horizontal part of a window frame is known as
A.sill✓ B.mullion C.transom D.transom
 Theme-58
The width of jambs is
A.57 mm to 76 mm B. 76 mm to 114 mm✓
C. 114 mm to 138 mm D.138 mm to 152 mm
The depth of jambs is
A.57 mm to 76 mm✓ B. 76 mm to 114 mm
C. 114 mm to 138 mm D.138 mm to 152 mm
For ordinary Portland cement, the initial setting time should not be more than
A.30 minutes B. 1 hour
C. 5 hours D.10 hours✓
The cement which is commonly used in all types of structures and require no special consideration, is called
A.rapid hardening cement B. normal setting cement✓
C. quick setting cement D.white cement
High alumina cement is
made by fusing together a mixture of lime-stone highly resistant to heat, chemical and other
A. B.
and bauxite corrosive acids
used for structures subjected to the action of sea
C. D.all of the above✓
water
High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
A.fine grinding✓ B. burning at high temperatures
C. decreasing the lime content D.increasing the quantity of gypsum
A fine aggregate is one whose particles are of size
A.4.75 mm B. below 4.75 mm✓
C. 6.75 mm D.above 6.75 mm
A coarse aggregate is one whose particles are of size
A.4.75 mm✓ B. below 4.75 mm
C. 6.75 mm D.above 6.75 mm
The higher water cement ratio in concrete results in
A.a weak mix B. a stronger mix
C. better workable mix✓ D.less bleeding
The slump commonly adopted for concrete for road works is
A.12 to 25 B. 20 to 28✓
C. 25 to 50 D.50 to 100
The slump commonly adopted for concrete for columns is
A.25 to 50 B. 50 to 100
C. 75 to 175✓ D.175 to 200
The vertical distance between the wall plate and top of the ridge is called
A.rise✓ B.rise✓ C.template D.gable
The type of truss commonly used for spans varying from 5 to 9 metre is
A.queen post truss B. king post truss✓
C. mansard truss D.composite truss
In a queen post truss,
A.two✓ B. three
C. four D.six
A queen post truss is commonly used for spans
A.upto 3.5 m B. from 3.5 to 5 m
C. from 5 to 8 m D.from 8 to 12 m✓
A couple-close roof is used for spans upto
A.3.5 m B. 5 m✓
C. 9 m D.14 m
The process of filling up all mail holes, cracks etc. with putty is known as
A.knotting B. priming
C. stopping✓ D.finishing
 Theme-59
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 Theme-60
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 Theme-61
Environmental Engineering
The water supply system means
the entire scheme of collection and disposal of the complete layout from the source of supply to
A. B.
liquid waste the distribution✓
C. construction of reservoirs D.construction of canals
The water obtained from the tube wells is known as
A.surface water B. sub-surface water✓
C. run-off D.potable water
The water obtianed from
A.infiltration galleries B. springs✓
C. rivers D.wells
The water obtianed from
A.rains B. rivers
C. reservoirs D.artesian wells✓
A pipe sunk into the ground to tap the underground water is called
A.open well B. tube well✓
C. artesian well D.infiltration well
The earth's water circulatory system is known as.
A.water cycle B. hydrological cycle✓
C. precipitation cycle D.all of these
The quantity of water available from an infiltration gallery depends upon the
A.size of gallery B. nature of soil
C. yield of source D.all of these✓
The continuous flow of water may be expected from
A.surface springs B. artesian springs✓
C. gravity springs D.all of these
The water bearing strala i.e. layers of sand, gravel etc, is called
A.an acquifer✓ B. an aquiclude
C. an aquifuge D.zone of saturation
The open wells or dug wells are also known as
A.shallow wells B. draw wells
C. percolation wells D.all of these✓
The most important source of water for public water supply is
A.lake B.pond C.river D.sea✓
Run-off is the water which flows
A.in infiltration galleries B. in sewer pipes
C. due to leakage of pipes D.in rivers✓
The formula, F = R - K (1.8 T + 32), for obtaining the annual run-off is known as
A.Justin's formula B. Vermule's formula
C. Inglis formula D.Khosla's formula✓
The growth of population may be conveniently represented by
A.semi-logarthmic curve B. logistic curve✓
C. straight line curve D.all of these
The yield of a surface stream may be obtained by
A.cross-section velocity method B. strem gauging
C. chemical method D.all of these✓
The yield of a underground source may be obtained by
A.pumping test B. recupating test
C. both (a) and (b) ✓ D.none of these
The yield of the well dpends upon the
A.permeability of the soil B. position of water table✓
C. depth of well in impervious layer D.all of these
 Theme-62
The yield of the well is measured in
A.cum / h B. litres / h
C. either (a) or (b) ✓ D.none of these
The domestic use of water amounts to
A.20% B.20% C.40% D.50%✓
The design period for a water supply project is taken as
A.5 to 10 years B. 10 to 15 years
C. 15 to 20 years D.20 to 30 years✓
The water mains should be designed for
A.100% B. 150%
C. 225%✓ D.250%
Suspended impurities consist of
A.iron B. chlorine
C. bacteria✓ D.all of these
Dissolved impurities consist of
A.bacteria B.iron✓ C.iron✓ D.fungi
The presence of bacteria in water causes
A.hardness B. alkalinity
C. diseases✓ D.bad taste
Colloidal impurities if associated with organic matter having bacterias becomes the chief source of
A.hardness B. epidemic✓
C. alkalinity D.bad taste
The presence of calcium and magnesium chloride in water causes
A.softening B. bad taste
C. hardness✓ D.turbidity
The turbidity in water is caused due to
A.silt B. clay
C. finely divided organic matter D.all of these✓
Suspended impurities include
A.algae B. protozoa
C. fungi D.all of these✓
The prsence of sodium chloride in water
A.causes bad taste B. softens the water✓
C. increases hardness of water D.stops epidemic
The sodium carbonate in water
A.causes bad taste B. softens the water
C. increases hardness of water D.stops epidemic✓
Turbidity of water is expressed in terms of
A.silica scale✓ B. platinum cobalt scale
C. pO value D.none of these
The colour of water is expressed in numbers of a
A.silica scale B. platinum cobalt scale✓
C. pO value D.none of these
The odour of water can be determined by
A.thermometer B.Osmoscope✓ C.Jackson's turbidimeter D.none of these
The commercial osmoscope is graduated with pO values from
A.0 to 5✓ B.5 to 10 C.10 to 15 D.15 to 20
When the pO value of water is 5, then it has
A.no perceptible odour B. distinct odour
C. faint odour D.extremely strong odour✓
The maximum permissible temperature for domestic supply is
A.5 to 10?C B10 to 15?C✓ C.15 to 20?C D.20 to 25?C
 Theme-63
The maximum permissible colour for domestic supplies, on platinum cobalt scale is
A.5 to 10 ppm B. 10 to 20 ppm✓
C. 20 to 30 ppm D.30 to 40 ppm
The maximum permissible turbidity for domestic supplies, on silica scale is
A.5 to 10 ppm✓ B. 10 to 20 ppm
C. 20 to 30 ppm D.30 to 40 ppm
High turbidity of water can be determined by
A.turbidity tube B. Jacksons turbidimeter✓
C. Baylis turbidimeter D.Hellipe turbidimeter
Low turbidity of water can be determined by
A.turbidity tube B. Jacksons turbidimeter
C. Baylis turbidimeter✓ D.Hellipe turbidimeter
The maximum permissible total solid content in water for domestic purposes should not exceed
A.300 ppm B. 400 ppm
C. 500 ppm✓ D.1000 ppm
The maximum permissible chloride content in water for domestic supplies should not exceed
A.250 ppm✓ B. 350 ppm
C. 450 ppm D.550 ppm
pH value is a symbol for
A.magnesium B. hydrogen✓
C. calcium D.sodium
The product of H+ ions and OH- ions in a water solution is equal to
A.0 B. 10?1
C. 10?7 D.10?14✓
The maximum acidity in water will occur at a pH value of
A.0✓ B.2 C.7 D.14
The most common cause of acidity in water is
A.hydrogen B. oxygen
C. carbon dioxide✓ D.all of these
When the pH value of water is
A.equal to 7 B.less than 7✓
C. more than 7
When the pH value of water is more than 7, it represents
A.neutal B.acidic
C. alkaline✓
The alkalinity in water is caused by
A.sodium carbonate B. potassium carbonate
C. calcium hydroxide D.all of these✓
The maximum permissible chlorine content for public supplies should be between
A.0.1 to 0.2 ppm✓ B. 0.3 to 0.4 ppm
C. 1.2 to 4 ppm D.6.5 to 8 ppm
The maximum permissible quantity of iron and manganese in water for domestic purposes should be
A.0.1 ppm B. 0.3 ppm✓
C. 0.6 ppm D.0.8 ppm
The pH value of water for public supplies is limited from
A.2.5 to 6.5 B.6.5 to 8✓ C.8 to 10.5 D.10.5 to 15
he maximum permissible quantity of lead in water for domestic supplies is
A.0.01 ppm B. 0.05 ppm✓
C. 0.50 ppm D.1 ppm
Sodium carbonate causes
A.hardness B.softness✓
The maximum permissible fluorine content in water for domestic supplies should be
A.0.15 ppm B.1.5 ppm✓ C.15 ppm D.150 ppm
 Theme-64
Sphere shaped bacterias are called
A.spirilla B. bacilli
C. cocci✓ D.trichobacteria
Membrane filter technique is used for testing
A.E-coli✓ B. copper
C. pathogenic bacterias D.none of these
The bacteria which require oxygen for their survival is known as
A.anaerobic bacteria B. pathogenic bacteria
C. aerobic bacteria✓ D.non-pathogenic bacteria
The bacteria which can survive without oxygen is called
A.anaerobic bacteria✓ B. pathogenic bacteria
C. aerobic bacteria D.non-pathogenic bacteria
Bacterias which cause disease are called
A.anaerobic bacteria B. facultative bacterias
C. aerobic bacteria D.none of these✓
The total count of bacteria per cubic centimetre for domestic purposes varies from
A.0 to 100✓ B. 100 to 150
C. 150 to 200 D.200 to 250
Copper sulphate is the most common chemical used for controlling
A.bacteria B. algae✓
C. silt D.mineral matter
Bio-chemical oxygen demand (B.O.D.) of safe drinking water must be
A.0✓ B. 10
C. 50 D.100
The rate of settling of a particle in water depends upon the
A.viscosity of water B. density of water
C. specific gravity of particle D.all of these✓
The detention time for an ordinary plain sedimentation tank is
A.1 to 2 hours B. 2 to 4 hours
C. 6 to 8 hours✓ D.20 to 24 hours
In a plain sedimentation tank, under normal conditions, impurities are removed upto
A.50% B. 60%
C. 70%✓ D.80%
The velocity of flow in any sedimentation tank should not exceed
A.0.05 mm/s B. 0.5 mm/s
C. 5 mm/s✓ D.50 mm/s
The most common coagulant is
A.magnesium sulphate B. alum✓
C. chlorine D.bleaching powder
Which of the following is not a coagulating agent?
A.Ferric sulphate B. Ferric chloride
C. Aluminium sulphate D.Copper sulphate✓
The process of purifying water by passing it through a bed of fine granular material, is called
A.screening B.filteration✓ C.filteration✓ D.sedimentation
The void spaces in the filtering material act like a
A.drain B. inlet
C. tiny settling basins✓ D.outlet
The sand, used for filteration, should not loose weight more than
A.2.50% B. 5%✓
C. 7.50% D.10%
The effective size of sand particles for slow sand filters varies from
A.0.30 to 0.35 mm✓ B. 0.35 to 0.50 mm
C. 0.50 to 0.65 mm D.0.65 to 0.75 mm
 Theme-65
The effective size of sand particles for rapid sand filters varies from
A.0.30 to 0.35 mm B. 0.35 to 0.50 mm✓
C. 0.50 to 0.65 mm D.0.65 to 0.75 mm
The coefficient of uniformity for slow sand filters is
A.1.35 B. 1.55
C. 1.75✓ D.2.05
The slow sand filter should be cleaned if the loss of head becomes more than
A.0.75 m B. 1.2 m✓
C. 2.2 m D.3.5 m
After cleaning the slow sand filter, the filtered water should not be used for a period of
A.upto 6 hours B. 6 hours to 12 hours
C. 12 hours to 24 hours D.24 hours to 48 hours✓
Cleaning period for a slow sand filter is taken as
A.1 hour to 3 hours B. 1 day to 3 days
C. 1 week to 3 weeks D.1 month to 3 months✓
Rate of filteration of a slow sand filter ranges from
A.10 to 100 litres / h / m2 B. 100 to 200 litres / h / m2✓
C. 200 to 400 litres / h / m2 D.400 to 1000 litres / h / m2
Slow sand filter is efficient to remove the bacterias from the raw water to an extent of
A.50% B. 70%
C. 85% D.99%✓
Slow sand filter is more efficient for the removal of
A.bacteria✓ B. odour
C. turbidity D.all of these
The yield of a rapid sand filter is
A.10 times B. 15 times
C. 20 times D.30 times✓
An arrangement for back washing is provided in
A.slow sand filter B. sedimentation tank
C. rapid sand filter D.all of these
In a rapid sand filter, the filter head varies from
A.1 to 1.5 m B. 1.5 to 2 m
C. 2 to 4 m✓ D.4 to 5 m
Cleaning period for a rapid sand filter is taken as
A.2 to 3 hours B. 2 to 3 days✓
C. 2 to 3 weeks D.2 to 3 months
Rapid sand filter can remove bacterias upto an extent of
A.60% to 70% B. 70% to 80%
C. 80% to 90%✓ D.90% to 99%
Rapid sand filter can remove turbidity from water upto an extent of
A.15 to 25 ppm B. 25 to 35 ppm
C. 35 to 40 ppm✓ D.40 to 50 ppm
Pressure filters are best suited for
A.swimming pools B. railway stations
C. individual industries D.all of these✓
The process of killing pathogenic bacterias from water is called
A.sedimentation B. filteration
C. coagulation D.disinfection✓
The most commonly used disinfectant for drinking water throughout the world is
A.alum B. nitorgen
C. lime D.chlorine✓
The ideal method of disinfection of swimming pool water is by
A.chlorination B.lime treatment C.ozonisation✓ D.ultra-violet rays
 Theme-66
The time of contact for chlorination should be at least
A.5 minutes B. 20 minutes✓
C. 1 hour D.2 hours
The treatment of water with only chlorine is known as
A.plain chlorination✓ B. post cholorination
C. pre-chlorination D.de-chlorination
Pre-chlorination
A.improves coagulation B. reduces odours
C. reduces tastes D.all of these✓
Crystalline hydrates of 'Ice" of chlorine are formed at a temerature of
A.below 10?C✓ B. 15?C
C. 20?C D.above 20?C
The apparatus used for feeding chlorine into water is called
A.chlorine tank B. aeration fountain
C. chlorinator✓ D.none of these
The residual chlorine
A.is zero B.is maximum
C. reappears✓
The process of removing excess chlorine from water is called
A.plain chlorination B. post-chlorination
C. dechlorination✓ D.super-chlorination
The process of dechlorination is followed by
A.pre-chlorination B. post cholorination
C. super chlorination✓ D.double chlorination
The amount of chlorine used for plain chlorination of water is about
A.0.2 ppm B. 0.3 ppm
C. 0.4 ppm D.0.5 ppm✓
The most commonly used chemical for dechlorination of water is
A.sodium thiosulphate B. sodium sulphite
C. potassium permaganate D.all of these✓
In orthotolodine test, safe residual for drinking water is indicated by
A.yellow colour✓ B. green colour
C. lemon yellow colour D.none of these
Bleaching powder is
A.slaked lime B. chloride of lime
C. hypo-chloride of lime D.hypo-chlorite of lime✓
The percentage of chlorine in fresh bleaching powder is
A.20 to 25% B. 25 to 30%
C. 30 to 35%✓ D.35 to 40%
The temporary hardness in water is cused due to the salts like
A.chlorides B. nitrates
C. carbonates✓ D.sulphates
The permanent hardness in water is caused due to the salts like
A.chlorides B. nitrates
C. sulphates D.all of these✓
The temporary hardness due to calcium bicarbonates can be removed by
A.boiling✓ B. lime process
C. lime-soda process D.zeolite process
The permanent hardness of water can be removed by
A.adding alum B. adding chlorine
C. boiling D.zeolite process✓
By lime soda process, hardness can be reduced to less thaN
A.50 ppm✓ B.75 ppm C.100 ppm D.150 ppm
 Theme-67
Zeolite is
A.hydrated silica B. sodium silicate✓
C. dehydrated calcium silicate D.none of these
In Zeolite process
A.no sludge is formed B. water of varying quality can be treated
C. ferrous and manganese from water are removed D.all of tha above✓
The acration of water is done to remove
A.colour B. odour
C. taste D.all of these✓
A reflux valve is also known as
A.safety valve B. scour valve
C. air valve D.check valve✓
A scour valve, in a water distribution system, is provided at
A.low points✓ B. high points
C. junction points D.all of these
The hydrants are used for tapping waer from mains for
A.fire extinguishing B. street washing
C. flushing sewer lines D.all of these✓
The minimum size of a fire hydrant is
A.5 cm B. 10 cm
C. 15 cm✓ D.20 cm
The capacity of the pumps is normally expressed as
A.litres per minute B. cubic metres per day
C. thousands of litres per hour D.all of these✓
The suitable layout of a distribution system for well planned cities is
A.dead end system B. ring system✓
C. radial system D.grid iron system
Garbage is a
A.dry waste✓ B. semi-liquid waste
C. liquid waste D.none of these
The water from kitchens, bathrooms, wash basins is called
A.sewage B. sullage✓
C. raw sewage D.none of these
The quantity of liquid waste which flows in sewers during rainy season is called
A.storm sewage✓ B. dry weather flow
C. sanitary sewage D.industrial waste
A sewer which receives storm water, surface run-off and sewage is called a
A.common sewer B. combined sewer✓
C. branch sewer D.outfall sewer
A sewer which receives discharge of a number of house sewers is called a
A.common sewer B. trunk sewer
C. lateral sewer✓ D.branch sewer
A sewer which gets discharge from two or more main sewers is called
A.main sewer B. trunk sewer✓
C. combined sewer D.intercepting sewer
The water carriage sewage system removes
A.domestic sewage B. industrial sewage
C. storm sewage D.all of these✓
The quantity of storm water (Q) in liter per second is given by Q = CA3/4. This formula is called
A.Fanning's formula B. Ryve's formula
C. Dicken's formula✓ D.Inglis formula
The internal diameter of the sewer should not be less than
A.15 cm✓ B.25 cm C.50 cm D.75 cm
 Theme-68
For house drainage and lateral connections, we shall use
A.stone ware sewers B. cast iron sewers
C. concrete sewers D.masonry sewers
For the sewers of diameter less than 600 mm, the type of joint preferred is
A.spigot and socket joint✓ B. collar joint
C. bandage joint D.mechanical joint
For the sewers of diameter more than 600 mm, the type of joint preferred is
A.spigot and socket joint B. collar joint✓
C. bandage joint D.mechanical joint
Manholes are, generally, located
A.at all changes of direction B. at all changes of gradient
C. at all junctions of main and branch sewers D.all of these✓
For large sewers, the maximum distance between manholes should be
A.75 m B. 150 m
C. 200 m D.300 m✓
The lower portion of a manhole is is known as
A.access shaft B. base
C. working chamber D.cover✓
The minimum diameter of a manhole cover should be
A.25 m B. 50 cm✓
C. 75 cm D.100 cm
Manholes on sewer lines are provided for
A.periodic cleaning✓ B. providing air for oxidation
C. removal of part of sewerage D.all of these
drop manhole is provided if
a branch sewer discharges into the main sewer at a
A.a sewer drops from a height B.
higher level✓
C. both (a) and (b) D.none of these
In one pipe system of plumbing, waste water is carried away from
A.bath rooms B. kitchens
C. wash basins D.all of these✓
The pipe through which liquid waste carrying human excreta flows, is called
A.waste pipe B. soil pipe✓
C. vent pipe D.all of these
called
A.waste pipe✓ B. soil pipe
C. vent pipe D.anti-siphonage pipe
A pipe installed for ventilation purpose is called
A.waste pipe B. soil pipe
C. vent pipe✓ D.anti-siphonage pipe
The privy pit should be located at least
A.3 m✓ B. 10 m
C. 30 m D.50 m
A septic tank is a
A.sedimentation tank B. digestion tank
C. combination of sedimentation and digestion tank✓ D.aeration tank
The effluents from the septic tank are discharged into
A.soak pit✓ B. drainage
C. oxidation pond D.sewer
The equipment used for removing paper and rags from sewers is called
A.gouge B.scoop C.claw✓ D.scraper
The minimum dissolved oxygen required in water to save the aquatic life is
A.1 ppm B.02 ppm C.4 ppm✓ D.8 ppm
 Theme-69
The secondary treatment of sewage is carried out by the use of
A.screens B. grit chambers
C. trickling filters✓ D.chlorinators
In primary settling tank, suspended solids are reduced from
A.10 to 20% B. 20 to 40%
C. 40 to 70%✓ D.70 to 90%
In high rate activated sludge treatment, bacterias are removed from
A.20 to 40% B. 40 to 60%
C. 60 to 80% D.80 to 95%✓
Grit chambers of a sewage plant are usually changed after
A.1 day B. 1 week
C. 2 weeks✓ D.4 weeks
Biological action is used in
A.screens B. sedimentation tanks
C. trickling filters✓ D.all of these
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 Theme-70
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 Theme-71

Residual soils are

A.sands B. silts
C. clays D.all of these ✓
Cohesionless soils are
A.Sands ✓ B. clays
C. silts D.silts and clays
The maximum size of grains of silts is about
A.0.06 mm ✓ B. 0.2 mm
C. 0.5 mm D.1 mm
Silt is a
A.material deposited by a glacier B. soil composed of two different soils
C. fine grained soil with little or no plasticity✓ D.clay with a high percentage of the clay mineral
Black cotton soil
A.is inorganic in nature B. contains large percentage of clay mineral
C. exhibits high compressibility D.all of these ✓
Black cotton soils are
A.Expensive ✓ B.residual
A fine grained soil
A.has low permeability B. has high compressibility
C. may or may not be plastic D.all of these ✓
Consolidation and compressibility of soil
is a measure of the ability of soil to allow the water is a measure of the ability of soil to bear stresses
A. B.
to pass through its pores without failure
deals with changes in volume of pores in a soil
C. D.any one of the above
under load✓
The minimum size of grains of silts is about
A.0.0002 mm✓ B. 0.002 mm
C. 0.02 mm D.0.2 mm
The property of a soil which is of great importance in finding settlement of structures, is
A.permeability B. sher strength
C. Consolidation ✓ D.compressibility
and is almost non-compressible.
A.Correct✓ B.Incorrect
The maximum size of the particles of clay is about
A.0.0002 mm B. 0.002 mm✓
C. 0.02 mm D.0.2 mm
If the pores of a soil are completely full of air only, the soil is said to be
A.wet soil B. dry soil✓
C. fully saturated soil D.partially saturated soil
The moist soil is
A.fully B.Partially ✓
The ratio of the unit weight of soil solids to that of water is called
A.void ratio B. porosity
C. specific gravity✓ D.degree of saturation
The unit weight of a soil at zero air voids depends upon
A.unit weight of water B. water content
C. specific gravity D.all of these✓
The relation between the air content (ac) and the degree of saturation (s) is
A.ac = s B. ac = 1 – s ✓
C. ac = 1 + s D.ac = 1/s
 Theme-72
The degree of saturation for fully saturated soil is
A.0.25 B. 0.5
C. 0.75 D.1✓
The void ratio for saturated soil is equal to the
A.sum B. difference
C. product✓ D.ratio
The ratio of the volume of air voids to the volume of voids, is called
A.void ratio B. air content✓
C. degree of saturation D.porosity
The difference between maximum void ratio and minimum void ratio of a sand sample is 0.30. If the relative
density of this sample is 66.6% at a void ratio of 0.40, then the void ratio of this sample at its loosest state
will be
A.0.4 B. 0.6✓
C. 0.7 D.0.75
The dry density of a soil is 1.5 g/cm3. If the saturation water content is 50%, then its saturated density and
submerged density will respectively be
A.1.5 g / cm3 and 1.0 g / cm3 B. 2.0 g / cm3 and 1 g / cm3
C. 2.25 g / cm3 and 1.25 g / cm3✓ D.2.50 g / cm3 and 1.50 g / cm3
A soil sample is having a specific gravity of 2.60 and a void ratio of 0.78. The water content in percentage
required to fully saturate the soil at that void ratio will be
A.10 B. 30✓
C. 50 D.70
The specific gravity of a soil is the ratio of unit weight of soil solids to that of water at a temperature of
A.4? C B. 17?C
C. 27?C✓ D.36?C
A dry soil sample weighing 100 g has volume of 60 ml and specific gravity 2.5. Its void ratio is
A.0.4 B. 0.5✓
C. 0.6 D.0.8
For a given soil mass, the void ratio is 0.60, water content is 18% and specific gravity of the soil particles is
2.6. The degree of saturation of the soil is
A.30% B. 50%
C. 78%✓ D.82.50%
The water content is the ratio of weight of water to the weight of solids.
A.Yes✓ B.No
The void ratio of a soil is defined as the ratio of the
volume of water to the volume of voids in the soil
A.weight of water to the weight of solids B.
mass
C. total volume of voids to the volume of soil solids✓ D.total volume of voids to the total volume of soil
The water content ratio of a soil is defined as the ratio of the
volume of water to the volume of voids in the soil
A.weight of water to the weight of solids✓ B.
mass
C. total volume of voids to the volume of soil solids D.total volume of voids to the total volume of soil
The degree of saturation for the moist soil is about
A.0% B. 1 to 25%
C. 25 to 50% D.50 to 75%✓
The approximate void ratio in sandy soils is
A.0.2 B. 0.6✓
C. 0.8 D.1.2
When the soil particles are less than 0.002 mm, the force of gravity on each particle is
A.less B.more
C. negligible✓
Which of the following clay mineral gives maximum swelling?
A.Kalonite B.Montmorillonite✓ C.Illite D.all of these
 Theme-73
Gravel and sand is a
A.cohesive coarse grained soil B. cohesive fine grained soil
C. non-cohesive coarse grained soil✓ D.non-cohesive fine grained soil
The specific gravity of sandy soils is
A.1.2 B. 1.8
C. 2.2 D.2.7✓
Bulk density of a soil is defined as the ratio of
A.total mass of soil to the total volume of soil✓ B. weight of water to the weight of solids
C. unit weight of solids to the unit weight of water D.weight of solid grains to the volume of solids
The unit weight of soil mass is expressed in
A.kg / m2 B. kg / m3
C. N / m2 D.N / m3✓
The dry density of a soil is same as the unit weight of solids.
A.True B.False ✓
Submerged soils are
A.partially B.fully✓
If the volume of voids is equal to the volume of soil solids, then the values of porosity and void ratio are
respectively
A.0 and 0.5 B. 0 and 1
C. 0.5 and 1✓ D.1 and 0.5
The water content of soils can be accurately determined by
A.sand bath method B. calcium carbide method
C. over drying method✓ D.Pycnometer method
The specific gravity of soil solids is determined by
A.Pycnometer method✓ B. hydrometer analysis
C. sieve analysis D.all of these
Stoke's law is used to determine the
A.specific gravity of soil solids B. density of soil suspension
grain size distribution of those soils whose grain
C. D.all of the above
size is finer than 0.075 mm✓
Hydrometer analysis is used to determine the density of soil suspension.
A.Agree✓ B.Disagree
When the hydrometer analysis is performed, it requires correction for
A.temperature only B. meniscus only
C. dispersing agent only D.all of these✓
According to Stoke's law, the velocity at which grains settle out of suspension, all other factors being equal,
is dependent upon
A.shape of the grain B. weight of the grain
C. size of the grain D.all of these✓
The smallest sieve size according to Indian standards is
A.0.0045 mm B. 0.045 mm✓
C. 0.45 mm D.0.154 mm
Sieving is not practicable for grain sizes smaller than about
A.0.075 mm✓ B. 0.095 mm
C. 0.15 mm D.0.2 mm
The particle size range is measured by
A.effective size B. curvature coefficient
C. uniformity coefficient✓ D.none of these
A soil having particles of nearly the same size is known as
A.uniform soil✓ B. poor soil
C. well graded soil D.coarse soil
A soil having uniformity co-efficient more than 10, is called
A.uniform soil B.poor soil C.well graded soil✓ D.well graded soil✓
 Theme-74
Stoke's law is applicable to particles upto
A.0.0002 mm✓ B. 0.002 mm
C. 0.02 mm D.0.2 mm
Sieve analysis is done if all particles to not pass through square opening of 0.075 mm.
A.Correct✓ B.Incorrect
The ratio of the unconfined compressive strength of undisturbed soil to the unconfined compressive strength
of soil in a remoulded state, is called
A.sensitivity✓ B. thixotropy
C. relative density D.bulk density
The unconfined compressive strength of a very soft clay is
A.10 to 25 kN/m2✓ B. 25 to 150 kN/m2
C. 150 to 400 kN/m2 D.Above 400 kN/m2
The unconfined compressive strength of a very hard clay is
A.10 to 25 kN/m2 B. 25 to 150 kN/m2
C. 150 to 400 kN/m2 D.Above 400 kN/m2✓
The sensitivity of a normal clay is about
A.2 to 4✓ B. 4 to 8
C. 8 to 15 D.15 to 20
The maximum water content of a saturated soil at which a reduction in its moisture does not cause a decrease
in volume of the soil, is called
A.liquid limit B. plastic limit
C. elastic limit D.shrinkage limit✓
When water content in a soil is reduced beyond the shrinkage limit, the soil will be in a
A.solid state✓ B. liquid state
C. semi-solid state D.plastic state
The water content in a soil at which just shear strength develops is called
A.liquid limit✓ B. plastic limit
C. elastic limit D.shrinkage limit
The plastic limit of a soil is defined as the
amount of water content which makes the soil to go
A.limit of water that makes the soil to flow B.
into the liquid state
amount of water content which makes the soil to go minimum amount of water content which makes the
C. D.
into the solid state from the liquid state soil to be rolled into 3 mm diameter threads✓
When the consistency index is zero, then the soil is at its
A.elastic limit B. plastic limit
C. liquid limit✓ D.semi-solid state
A soil is in a semi-solid state, if the consistency index is
A.zero B. one
C. more than unity✓ D.none of these
A soil with consistency equal to one is at its
A.liquid B.plastic✓
Toughness index is the ratio of
A.flow index and plasticity index B. plasticity index and flow index✓
C. liquidity index and flow index D.flow index and liquidity index
A sample of soil has liquid limit 45%, plastic limit 25%, shrinkage limit 17% and natural moisture content
30%. The consistency index of the soil is
A.15?20✓ B. 13?20
C. 8?20 D.5?20
The shear strength of a soil in the plastic limit is
A.higher✓ B.lower
The liquid limit exists in
A.sandy soils B. gravel soils
C. silty soils D.clays✓
 Theme-75
The plastic limit exists in
A.sandy soils B. gravel soils
C. silty soils D.clays✓
The liquid limit minus plastic limit is termed as
A.flow index B. plasticity index✓
C. shrinkage index D.liquidity index
When the plastic limit is equal to or greater than the liquid limit, then the plasticity index is
A.negative B. zero✓
C. one D.more than one
The shrinkage index is equal to
A.liquid limit + plastic limit B. plastic limit - liquid limit
C. liquid limit - shrinkage limit✓ D.shrinkage limit - liuid limit
The flow index in soils indicates the
A.ratio of liquid limit to plastic limit B. variation of liquid limit
C. variation of plastic limit D.shear strength variation with water content✓
The clays which exhibit high activity
A.contain montmorillonite B. have high plasticity index
C. both (a) and (b) ✓ D.none of these
The activity of clay is defined as the ratio of
A.liquid limit to plastic limit B. liquidity index to plasticity index
C. plasticity index to clay fraction✓ D.plasticity index to shrinkage index
The ratio of the liquid limit minus the natural content of a soil to its plasticity index, is known as
A.toughness index B. liquidity index
C. flow index D.relative consistency✓
Which of the following is highly permeable?
A.Gravel✓ B. Sand mixture
C. Coarse sand D.Clay
Which of the following is practically impermeable?
A.Gravel B. Sand mixture
C. Coarse sand D.Clay✓
A sample of clay and a sample of sand have the same specific gravity and void ratio. Their pemeabilities will
differ because
A.their porosities will be different B. their densities will be different
C. their degrees of saturation will be different D.the size ranges of their voids will be different✓
The property of the soil mass which permits the seepage of water through its interconnecting voids, is called
A.capillarity B. permeability✓
C. porosity D.none of these
When applying Darcy's law to soils, it assumed that the
A.soil is incompressible B. soil is homogeneous and isotropic
C. flow conditions are laminar D.all of these✓
The value of permeability
A.depends upon✓ B.does not depend upon
Which of the following have an influence on the value of permeability?
A.Grain size B. Void ratio
C. Degree of saturation D.all of these✓
If the direction of flow of water is parallel to the planes of stratification, then the permeability is
A.2 to 10 B. 2 to 15 C.2 to 20 D.2 to 30✓
The permeability of a given soil is
A.directly proportional to the average grain size B. inversely proportional to the average grain size
directly proportional to the square of the average inversely proportional to the square of the average
C. D.
grain size✓ grain size
The coefficient of permeability
A.decreases B.increases✓
 Theme-76
The coefficient of permeability of slit is
A.same as B.less than✓
C. more than
The flow net in the seepage of water through a soil medium is a network of
A.flow lines B. equi-potential lines
C. flow lines and equi-potential lines✓ D.water particles and their movement in the soil
A flow net is used to determine the
A.seepage flow B. seepage pressure
C. exit gradient D.all of these✓
Which of the following statement is correct?
The flow line are perpendicular to equipotential No two flow lines or equipotential lines start from
A. B.
lines. the same point.
C. No two flow lines cross each other D.all of the above✓
The direction of seepage is always
A.parallel B.perpendicular✓
The critical gradient of the seepage of water
A.directly proportional to void ratio B. increases with the decrease in void ratio✓
increases with the decrease in specific gravity of
C. inversely proportional to specific gravity D.
soil
The critical gradient of the seepage of water
A.increases✓ B.decreases
C. does not change
The seepage force in soils is
A.proportional to head loss B. proportional to exit gradient
C. perpendicular to the equi-potential lines D.all of these✓
The critical gradient for all soils is normally
A.0.5 B. 1✓
C. 1.5 D.2.5
The effective stress on the soil is due to the
A.external load acting on the soil B. weight of the soil particles
C. weight of water present in soil pores D.both (a) and (b) ✓
The neutral stress on the soil is due to the
A.external load acting on the soil B. weight of the soil particles
C. weight of water present in soil pores✓ D.both (a) and (b)
The consolidation of a soil is defined as the
process of compression by gradual reduction of process which gives gradual decrease of water
A. B.
pore space under steady load content at constant load
change in volume of soil due to expulsion of pure
C. D.any one of the above✓
water under an applied load
The coefficient of consolidation is measured in
A.cm2/g B. cm2/s✓
C. g / cm2 / s D.cm2 / g / s
The coefficient of consolidation is used for evaluating
A.stress in the soil B. total settlement
C. over consolidation ratio D.time rate of settlement✓
The ratio of settlement at any time (t) to the final settlement is known as
A.compression index B. coefficient of consolidation
C. degree of consolidation✓ D.none of these
The coefficient of consolidation of a soil is affected by
A.compressibility B. permeability
C. both (a) and (b) ✓ D.none of these
The coefficient of volume compressibility
A.increases B.decreases✓ C.does not change
 Theme-77
The ultimate settlement of a soil
A.is directly proportional to the compression index B. decreases with an increase in the initial void ratio
is directly proportional to the depth of the
C. D.all of the above✓
compressible soil mass
The strength of a soil is usually identified by
A.direct tensile stress B. direct compressive stress
C. ultimate shear stress✓ D.effective stress
The angle of internal friction
A.varies with the density of sand B. depends upon the amount of interlocking
C. depends upon the particle shape and roughness D.all of the above✓
The angle of internal friction of round grained loose sand is about
A.5? to 25? ✓ B. 25? to 30?
C. 30? to 35? D.32? to 37?
The angle of internal friction of round grained dense sand is about
A.5? to 25? B. 25? to 30?
C. 30? to 35? D.32? to 37? ✓
The frictional resistance offered by sand is
A.sliding friction B. rolling friction
C. resistance due to interlocking D.all of these✓
The earth pressure at rest is calculated by using
A.Euler's theory B. Rankine's theory
C. bending theory D.theory of elasticity✓
The coefficient of earth pressure at rest for stiff clay is about
A.0.4 B. 0.5
C. 0.6 D.0.8✓
If the coefficient of passive earth pressure is 1/3, then the coefficient of active earth pressure is
A.1?3 B. 1
C. 3?2✓ D.3
The coefficient of active earth pressure for a loose sand having an angle of internal friction of 30?, is
A.1?2 B. 1?3✓
C. 1 D.3
For a sandy soil, the angle of internal friction is 30?. If the major principal stress is 50 kN/m2 at failure, the
corresponding minor principal stress will be
A.12.2 kN/m2 B. 16.66 kN/m2✓
C. 20.8 kN/m2 D.27.2 kN/m2
The bearing capacity of a soil depends upon
A.grain size of the soil B. size of the footing
C. shape of the footing D.all of these✓
The bearing capacity of a soil
A.increases✓ B.decreases C.does not change
The coefficient of passive earth pressure
A.increases✓ B.Decreases C.does not change
The unit bearing capacity of footing in sand
A.decreases with depth of footing B. decreses with width of footing
C. increases with depth of footing✓ D.increases with width of footing
According to I.S. code, the total settlement of isolated footings for cohesive soil should be
A.30mm B.40mm✓ C.500mm D.65mm
The settlement of a footing in sand depends upon the
A.stress deformation characteristics of sand B. relative density of the sand
C. width of the footing D.all of these✓
According to Terzaghi's equation, the bearing capacity of strip footing resting on cohesive soil (c = 10
kN/m2) per unit depth and unit width (assume Nc as 5.7) is
A.47 kN/m2 B.57 kN/m2✓ C.67 kN/m2 D.77 kN/m2
 Theme-78
In case of footings in sand, if the soil pressure distribution is triangular, the maximum soil pressure is
A.equal to B. double✓
C. three times D.four times
Which of the following statement is correct?
The settlement of a flexible footing on choesionless The settlement of a rigid footing on cohesionless
A. B.
soil is less in the centre that at the edges. soil is uniform throughout.
The settlement of a flexible footing on cohesive soil
C. D.all of the above✓
is more in the centre than at the edges.
The contact pressure of flexible footing on no-choesive soils is
A.more in the centre than at the edges✓ B. less in the centre than at the edges
C. uniform throughout D.none of these
The high density of the soil placed in a fill is desired in order to
A.increase its shear resistance B. reduce future settlements
C. reduce percolation through the fill D.all of these✓
GB Aa¨v‡qi cÖ‡qvRbxq †bvU
 Theme-79
GB Aa¨v‡qi cÖ‡qvRbxq †bvU
 Theme-80

Irrigation Engineering
For irrigation purposes, the p-H value of water should be
A.between 3 and 6 B. between 6 and 8.5✓
C. between 8.5 and 11 D.more than 11
Which of the salt present in water is harmful for cultivation purposes?
A.Sodium carbonate B. Potassium sulphate
C. Calcium sulphate D.none of these✓
Super-fluous water is also called
A.capillary water B. gravitational water✓
C. hygroscopic water D.all of these
A useful soil moisture for plant growth is
A.capillary water✓ B. gravitational water
C. hygroscopic water D.all of these
The field capacity of a soil depends upon
A.capillary tension in soil B. porosity of soil
C. either (a) or (b) D.both (a) and (b) ✓
The duty is largest
A.at the head of the main canal B. at the head of the water course
C. on the field✓ D.at all place
The duty of irrigation water will be less if
A.area irrigated is more B. water supply required is less
C. water supply required is more✓ D.none of these
The first watering before sowing the crop, is known as
A.kor watering B. paleo✓
C. delta D.none of these
The depth of root zone is 90 cm for
A.wheat B. sugar cane
C. rice✓ D.cotton
The average delta of rice crop is nearly
A.30 cm B. 60 cm
C. 120 cm✓ D.150 cm
The duty of a crop is 432 hectares per cumec when the base period of the crop is 100 days. The delta for the
crop will be
A.100 B. 200✓
C. 432 D.864
The average duty for sugar-cane in hectares/cumec is
A.200 B. 400
C. 600 D.800✓
The optimum depth of kot watering is 19 cm for
A.wheat B. sugar-cane
C. rice✓ D.cotton
Outlet discharge for a particular crop is given by
A.Area / Outlet factor✓ B. Outlet factor / Area
C. Area x Outlet factor D.none of these
The optimum depth of kor watering for wheat in the plains of north India is
A.13.5 cm✓ B. 16.5 cm
C. 19 cm D.21 cm
The hydrology helps in
A.predicting maximum discharge B. deciding capacity of reservoir
C. fore casting flood D.all of these✓
The amount of precipitation is measured by
A.rain gauge✓ B. osmoscope
C. turbidimeter D.all of these
 Theme-81
The commonly used rain gauge is
A.weighing bucket type B. tipping bucket type
C. float type✓ D.none of these
The standard height of a standard rain gauge is
A.10 cm B. 20 cm
C. 30 cm✓ D.40 cm
Run-off is measured in
A.m3/s✓ B. m3/min
C. m3/h D.none of these
A canal sligned nearly parallel to the contours of a country, is known as
A.side slope canal B. contour canal✓
C. water shed canal D.ridge canal
The water shed canal is also called
A.side slope canal B. contour canal
C. ridge canal✓ D.all of these
The saturation gradient in an ordinary loam soil is
A.1 ; 1 B. 2 ; 1
C. 3 ; 1 D.4 ; 1✓
The height of dowel above the road level should not be more than
A.10 cm B. 20 cm
C. 30 cm✓ D.40 cm
The width of dowel is, usually, kept from
A.0.1 m to 0.3 m B. 0.3 m to 0.6 m✓
C. 0.6 m to 0.9 m D.0.9 m to 1.2 m
The soil becomes, practically, infertile if its p-H value is
A.0 B. 7
C. 11✓ D.14
The perimeter discharge (P-Q) relation is given by the equation
A.P = 2.25 Q1/2 B. P = 2.25 Q3/2
C. P = 4.75 Q1/2✓ D.P = 4.75 Q3/2
The capacity of escape channel should not be less than
A.20% B. 30%
C. 40% D.50%✓
The slope of a canal, for a discharge of 300 cumecs, should be
A.1 in 4000 B. 1 in 6000
C. 1 in 8000✓ D.1 in 10000
GB Aa¨v‡qi cÖ‡qvRbxq †bvU
 Theme-82
GB Aa¨v‡qi cÖ‡qvRbxq †bvU
 Theme-83

1) Which types of forces are generated during A. pre-consolidated

earthquake? B. pre-consolidated
a) Vertical shear C. over-consolidated (ans) ✓
b) Horizontal shear (ans) ✓ D. none of these.
c) Bending moment 10) Penetration test on bitumen is used for
d) Combination of horizontal and vertical shear determining its
2) Water content of soil can A. grade (ans) ✓
A. never be greater than 100 % B. viscosity
B. take values only from 0 % to 100 % C. ductility
C. be less than 0 % D. temperature susceptibility
D. be greater than 100 % (ans) ✓ 11) The transverse reinforcements provided at
3) After pre-stressing process is completed, a loss right angles to the main reinforcement
of stress is due to______________? A. distribute the load
A. Shrinkage of concrete B. resist the temperature stresses
B. Elastic shortening of concrete C. resist the shrinkage stress
C. Creep of concrete D. all the above. (ans) ✓
D. All the above (ans) ✓ 12) Dead load comprises of:-
4) When a cohesionless soil attains quick a) Permanently attached loads (ans) ✓
condition, it loses. b) Temporarily attached loads
A. shear strength c) Permanent as well as temporary loads
B. bearing capacity d) Snow load
C. both (a) and (b) (ans) ✓ 13) A pre-cast pile generally used, is
D. neither (a) nor (6). A. Circular B. Square (ans) ✓
5) Which one of the following is used for
C. Octagonal D. rectangular
preparing porcelain?
14) The number of independent equations to be
A. Clay
satisfied for static equilibrium of a plane structure
B. Feldspar
is
C. Quartz
A. 1
D. All of these (ans) ✓ B. 2
6) The ratio of specific weight of a liquid to the C. 3(ans) ✓
specific weight of pure water at a standard
D. 6
temperature is called
15) The piece of a brick cut with its one corner
A. density of liquid
equivalent to half the length and half the width of
B. specific gravity of liquid (ans) ✓ a full brick, is known as
C. compressibility of liquid (A) Queen closer (B) Bevelled closer
D .surface tension of liquid (C) King closer (ans) ✓ (D) Half king closer
7) Plane and geodetic surveying are classifications 16) The most suitable equipment for compacting
of surveying based on: clayey soils is a
a) Methodology A. smooth wheeled roller
b) Earth’s curvature (ans) ✓ B. pneumatic tyred roller
c) Object of survey C. sheep foot roller (ans) ✓
d) Instrument D. vibrator
8) Air entrainment in concrete 15) Enlarged head of a supporting column of a flat
increases___________ slabs is technically .known as
a) Strength [A].supporting end of the column
b) Workability (ans) ✓ [B].top of the column
c) The effect of temp variations [C].capital (ans) ✓
d) The unit weight [D].drop panel
9) A soil not fully consolidated under the existing
over-burden pressure, is called.
 Theme-84
16) Vertical construction joints are provided
where the shearing forces are minimum in the
case of
A. Slabs
B. Beams
C. Girders
D. All of these (ans) ✓
17) The type of roof suitable in plains where
rainfall is meagre and temperature is high is
A. pitched and sloping roof
B. flat roof (ans) ✓
C. shell roof
D. none of the above
18) Standard BOD is measured at
A.20�C - 1day
B.25�C- 3day
C.20�C - 5day (ans)✓
D.30�C- 5day
19) Machine foundation is subjected to:
a) Static loads
(b) Wind loads
c) Static and dynamic loads (ans) ✓
d) Dynamic loads
20) The walls which are necessary on the hill side
of roadway where earth has to be retained from
slipping is known as
A. retaining wall
B. breast wall (ans) ✓
C. parapet wall
D. none of the above
21) The proportions of lime and sand in the mortar
normally used in brick construction are
A. 1 : 2(ans) ✓ B. 1: 4
C. 1: 6 D. 1: 8
22) In a pre-stressed member it is advisable to use
A. Low strength concrete only
B. High strength concrete only
C. Low strength concrete but high tensile steel
D. High strength concrete and high tensile steel
(ans) ✓
23) The bond which contains alternate courses of
headers and stretchers is called
(a) English bond (b) Flemish bond (ans) ✓
(c) Stretcher bond (d) Header bond
The book in which the chain or tape
measurements are entered is called the
a) Field book ✓ b) Record book
c) Study book d) Chain book
24) The ultimate tensile strength of 400
grade structural mild steel is about
A. 160 N/mm2 B. 260N/mm2
C. 420 N/mm2✓ D. 520N/mm2
 Theme-85

বাছাই পরীক্ষা -28-11-২০১9–পূর্ ণমান-১০০

সেট নম্বর -১
স াড: শিশির
1. The opposite word of ‘foolish’ is 14. এ টি cantilever beam এর Uniformly
( ) Mindless (খ) Clever✔ distributed load এর জন্য support এ strain এর
(গ) Rash (ঘ) Idoit পশরমান ত?
2. She ______home yesterday ( ) Zero (খ) WL/4
( ) has come (খ) comes (গ) WL/2 (ঘ) WL
(গ) come (ঘ) came ✔ 15. Have you ever___London?
3. Broad gauges and Meter gauges এর ( ) been to ✔ (খ) been on
( ) 12 m ও 12 m (খ) 12 m ও 13 m (গ) gone to (ঘ) gone on
(গ) 13 m ও 12 m ✔ (ঘ) 13 m ও 13 m 16. মাটির Total Volume এর োনথ এর Volume of
4. আগুননর পরিমশনর উপন্যানের রচশিতা স ? Voids এর অনুপাতন ী বনল?
( ) আবুল ফজল (খ) জাহানারা ইমাম ( ) Water cement ratio
(গ) হুমায়ূন আহনমদ ✔ (ঘ) সেিদ িামসুল হ (খ) Void ratio
5. খনার বচন এর উপজীব্য হনে (গ) Porosity ✔
( ) েমাজনীশত (খ) রাজনীশত (ঘ) Degree of saturation
(গ) ধমণনীশত ঘ) কৃশি াজ ✔ 17. মুশক্তযুনের েমি বাংলানদি স িটি সেক্টনর ভাগ রা হি?
6. What is time____ your watch? ( ) ৮ টি (খ) ৯ টি
( ) at খ) on (গ) ১০ টি (ঘ) ১১ টি ✔
(গ) in (ঘ) by ✔ 18. Plan table এর size ত?
7. Call ___a doctor ( ) 750mm*900mm
( ) for (খ) in ✔ (খ) 600mm*750mm ✔
(গ) at (ঘ) by (গ) 450mm*600mm
8. বঙ্গবন্ধুর স্বনদি প্রতযবতণন শদবে স ানটি? (ঘ) 300mm*450mm
( ) ১০ জানুিাশর ১৯৭২ ✔ (খ) ৭ জানুিাশর ১৯৭২ 19. সেশলম আল দীন রশচত নাট হনে
(গ) ৮ জানুিাশর ১৯৭২ (ঘ) ৯ জানুিাশর ১৯৭২ ( ) মুখরা রমনী বিী রর্ (খ) সদওিান গাজীর শ েো
9. Structure এর সে অংিটি এর ওজনন মাটিনত ট্রান্সফার (গ) নূরুল দীননর োরাজীবন ঘ) সেবতী ন্যার মন ✔
10. নর তান বনল- 20. াজী নজরুল ইেলানমর প্রথম প্র াশিত রচনা হনে
( ) Super Structure (খ) Foundation ✔ ( ) বাউনেনলর আত্ন থা ✔ (খ) রাজবন্দীর জবানবন্দী
(গ) Frame of structure (ঘ) Plinth (গ) গাজী শমিার বস্তানী (ঘ) ঠাকুর বাশির আশঙ্গনাি
11. শননচর স ান সদিটি (BRICS) এর অন্তর্ভণক্ত নি? 21. ’সিান এ টি মুশজনবর ন্ঠ সথন , লক্ষ মুশজনবর ন্ঠ স্বনরর ধ্বশন
( ) জাপান ✔ (খ) ব্রাশজল প্রশতধ্বশন,আ ানি বাতানি উনঠ রশন’
(গ)রাশিিা (ঘ) চীন ( ) সমাহাম্মদ মুশনরুজ্জামান
12. প্রথম সের্ীর ইনটর জন্য স ানটি েব ণনতাম (খ) গাজী মাজহারুল আননািার
( ) Untethered clay (গ) সগৌরী প্রেন্ন মজুমদার ✔
(খ) Weathered Clay ✔ (ঘ) আবু সহনা সমাস্তফা ামাল
(গ) Silted clay 22. Chose the right option : Medha is_______
(ঘ) Black cotton clay university teacher
13. নীনচর স ানটি Coarse aggregate এর test ( )a✔ (খ) an
( ) ACV (খ) LAA (গ) the (ঘ) no article
(গ) AIV (ঘ) All of them ✔
 Theme-86
23. Find out the correct sentence : 36. ’শলও টরস্টি’ স ান সদনির োশহশতয শছনলন?
( )Do you know where does he live? ( ) মাশ ণন যুক্তরাষ্ট্র (খ) ইংল্যাে
(খ) He has gone for a walk. ✔ (গ) জামণানী (ঘ) রাশিিা ✔
(গ) They will arrive by the by 37. ১ম সের্ীর ইট এর েব ণশনম্ন crusging strength ত?
(ঘ) He sold all his furnitures. ( ) 70 kg/cm2 (খ) 105 kg/cm2 ✔
24. এ টি শেশির Flight এ েনব ণাচ্চ িটি ধাপ থান ? (গ) 125 kg/cm 2
(ঘ) 140 kg/cm2
( )10 (খ) 15 ✔ 38. স ান শবশ্বশবদ্যালনে়ে মাননীি প্রধানমন্ত্রী সিখ হাশেনা স শডশলট
(গ) 12 (ঘ) স ানটিই নি। প্রাদন নর?
25. Ushoshi wants to go shopping ( ) ঢা া শবশ্বশবদ্যালি
tomorrow. Here tomorrow is a/an (খ) রাজিাহী শবশ্বশবদ্যালি
( ) noun (খ) adjective (গ) াজী নজরুল শবশ্বশবদ্যালি পশিম বঙ্গ ✔
(গ) verb (ঘ) adverb ✔ (ঘ) জগন্নাথ শবশ্বশবদ্যালি
26. গশতবানদর প্রভানব রশচত রবীন্দ্রনাথ ঠাকুনরর াব্যগ্রন্থ 39. Which one of the reflexive pronoun
( ) মানেী (খ) বলা া ✔ ( )who (খ) himself ✔
(গ) ক্ষশর্ া (ঘ) সেজুুঁশত (গ) one (ঘ) they
27. নীনচর স ানটি Mass Rapid Transit- 40. Uniformly distributed load এ টি simply
( ) Metro Rail ✔ (খ) Taxi cab supported বীম এর bending moment শ ধরননর
(গ) Motor Cycle (ঘ) Bus হনব?
28. মাটি িশক্তর পরীক্ষার সক্ষনে স ানটি ব্যবহৃত হি ( ) Straight Line
( ) Triaxial Test✔ (খ) Horaizontal Line
(খ) Specific gravity test (গ) Inclined Line
(গ) CBR (ঘ) None of these ✔
(ঘ) LL Test 41. M.K.S. পেশতনত Run off এর এ স ানটি?
29. RCC ঢালাইনি ব্যবহৃত Coarse aggregate ( ) m3/s ✔ (খ) m/sec
3
এর size োধারনত ত? (গ) m (ঘ) m2/sec
( ) 10 mm down grade 42. মধুসূধন দত রশচত গীশতধমী রচনা স ানটি?
(খ) 16 mm down grade ( ) পদ্মাবতী (খ) কৃষ্ণকুমারী
(গ) 20 mm down grade (গ) বীরঙ্গনা (ঘ) ব্রজাঙ্গনা
(ঘ) 25 mm down grade✔ 43. শননচর স ানটি জাশতেংনগর স্থািী েদস্য নি?
30. পাহাি িনের েমাথ ণ স ানটি? ( ) রাশিিা (খ) ফ্রান্স
( ) খগ (খ) বগ (গ) নগ ✔ (ঘ) জগ (গ) জামণাশন ✔ (ঘ) চীন
31. বাংলানদনির প্রথম প্রধানমন্ত্রীর নাম ী? 44. বাংলানদনির মহামান্য রাষ্ট্রপশতর পনদর সমিাদ ত বছর?
( ) সেিদ নজরুল ইেলাম ( ) 5বছর ✔ (খ) 4বছর
(খ) তাজউশিন আহনম্মদ ✔ (গ) 3বছর (ঘ) 6বছর
(গ) এম মুনসুর আলী 45. Oil paint এর স ানটি েবনচনি গুরুত্বপূর্ ণ উপাদান
(ঘ) এইচ.এম. ামারুজ্জামান ( )Thinner (খ) Pigment
32. নীনচর স ানটি cantilever Beam (গ) Vehichel (ঘ) All ✔
( ) (খ) ✔ 46. ঢা া শবশ্বশবদ্যালি ত োনল প্রশতশিত হি?
(গ) (ঘ) ( ) 1911 োনল (খ) 1918 োনল
33. মানাগুিা স ান সদনির রাজধানী (গ) 1921 োনল ✔ (ঘ) 1924 োনল
( )পানামা (খ) এযালোলনভদর 47. স ানটি েবনচনি িশক্তিালী এশেড
(গ) শন ারাগুিা ✔ (ঘ) ব্রাশজল ( ) pH=2 ✔ (খ) pH=5
34. শ নিারনদর জন্য রশচত িও ত ওেমান এর গ্রন্থ স ানটি (গ) pH=8 (ঘ) pH=10
( ) ানামানা (খ) পঞ্চেঙ্গী ✔ 48. ন্যানটা এর েদর দপ্তর স াথাি?
( ) োর াে (গ) হানতশর ( ) ব্যানেলে ✔ (খ) সজননভা
35. বাংলা ভািাি আগত আরবী িে স ানটি? (গ) লেন (ঘ) প্যাশরে
( ) চাঁদা (খ) কুশল 49. স ান গ্রন্থটি মুশক্তযুনের সপ্ররর্াি রশচত?
(গ) জামা (ঘ) ছশব✔ ( ) জননী (খ) ওঙ্কার (গ) খাচাি✔(ঘ) ক্ষরর্
 Theme-87
50. ‘ শবতার থা ‘ প্রবন্ধটির রচশিতা স ? 62. ‘The French’ people refer to
( ) আব্দুল ওদুদ (খ) প্রমথ সচৌধুরী ( ) The French People ✔
(গ) জীবনানন্দ দাে ✔ (ঘ) বদরুিীন সচৌধুরী খ) The French Language
51. পাহারী এলা াি স ান Contouring Method ব্যবহৃত (গ) The French manners
হি? (ঘ) The French People
( ) Direct method 63. 5” পুরু Brick work এর জন্য cement-sand
(খ) Square method morter এর সরশিও ত?
(গ) Cross-section method ( ) 1:2 (খ) 1:4 ✔
(ঘ) Technometric Method ✔ (গ) 1:6 (ঘ) 1:8
52. The feminine gender of ‘done’ is- 64. বাংলা োশহনতযর ধারাি প্রথম োথ ণ উপন্যাে স ানটি?
( ) bee ✔ (খ) hind ণ
( ) দুনগিনশন্দনী ✔ (খ) পালকুোলা
(গ) ewe (ঘ) lass (গ) যুগলাঙ্গুরীি (ঘ) আনন্দমঠ
53. Flexible Pavement এর সক্ষনে স ানটি েঠি ? 65. বাংলানদনির েংশবধাননর স ান ভানগ নাগশর নদর সমৌশল
( ) Surface-Base-Sub base অশধ ানরর থা বলা হনিনছ?
(খ) Base-Surface-Subgrade ( ) প্রথম ভাগ (খ) শিতীি ভাগ
(গ) Surface-Subgrade-Surface (গ) তৃতীি ভাগ ✔ (ঘ) চতুথ ণ ভাগ
(ঘ) Base-Sub base-Surface layer ✔ 66. নীনচর স ানটি fire resisting Property সরনিনছ?
54. Choose the plural number ( ) Marble (খ) Lime stone
( ) syllabus (খ) news (গ) compact stone✔ (ঘ) Granite
(গ) physics (ঘ) agenda ✔ 67. স ানটি ভারনতর বরা নদী সথন উৎপন্ন হনিনছ?
55. ইন্টারনপানলর েদর দপ্তর স াথাি? ( )োদু াটা নদী (খ) ডাউ ী নদী
( ) সবলশজিাম (খ) যুক্তরাজয (গ) ফ্রান্স✔(ঘ) ইটাশল (গ) হালদা নদী (ঘ) সুরমা নদী
56. She spends hours on internet everyday 68. শব ঈশ্বরচন্দ্রগুপ্ত েম্পাশদত োমশি পে হনে-
( ) visiting uploading ( ) েমাচার চশন্দ্র া✔ (খ) েম্বাদ স ৌমদী
(খ) downloading (গ) েম্বাদ প্রভা র (ঘ) েম্বাদ ভাস্বর
(গ) uploading 69. Ordinary Portland Cement এর final
(ঘ) surfing ✔ setting time ত?
57. Rapid hardening cement initial setting ( ) 2 ঘন্টা (খ) 4 ঘন্টা
time েব ণশনম্ন ত? (গ) 6 ঘন্টা (ঘ) 10 ঘন্টা✔
( ) 30 শমশনট ✔ (খ) 1 ঘন্টা 70. ভািার ক্ষুদ্রতম এ স ানটি?
(গ) 4 ঘন্টা (ঘ) 8 ঘন্টা ( ) িে (খ) ধ্বশন ✔
58. Concrete এর workability পরীক্ষার রার জন্য (গ) শলশপ (ঘ)বা য
স ান test রা হি? 71. প্রথম সের্ীর ইট েনব ণাচ্চ ত পাশন সিাশিত হনব?
( ) Penetration ( ) 10% (খ) 20%✔ (গ) 15 % (ঘ) 30%
(খ) Gradition 72. Mandatory traffic sign এর আ ার স মন হনব?
(গ) Slump test ✔ ণ
( ) বগাকৃশত (খ) শের্ভজাকৃশতর✔
(ঘ) Slave analysis (গ) বৃতাকৃশত (ঘ) স ানটিই নি
59. ‘সবহুলা লশক্ষন্দর ‘ াশহনী পাওিা োি স ান ানব্য? 73. Sheet pile ী শদনি শনশমণত হি?
( ) অন্নদামঙ্গল ানব্য (খ) মনোমঙ্গল ানব্য✔ ( ) Wood (খ)Steel
(গ) ালী ামঙ্গল ানব্য (ঘ) োরদামঙ্গল ানব্য (গ) Concrete (ঘ)All of them ✔
60. এ টি plain scale ব্যবহার হি to read- 74. The passive from of the ‘We called him a
( ) One dimension fool’ is-
(খ) Two dimension ✔ ( ) He had been called a fool by us
(গ) Three dimension (খ) He was called a fool by us✔
(ঘ) Any of theme (গ) He has called a fool by us
61. Right the wrong. Here ‘right’is a/an- (ঘ) He has been called a fool by us
( ) verb ✔ (খ) adverb
(গ) adjective (ঘ) noun
 Theme-88
75. ন িার শের্ভজাকৃশতর 1cm েশদ বাস্তনবর 10 শম এর েমান হি 86. I___here since 2015
তনব এই scale এর অনুপাত ী? ( ) live ( ) live (খ) am living
( )1/10 (খ) 1/100 (গ) have been living✔ (ঘ) lived
(গ) 1/1000✔ (ঘ) 1/10000 87. স ানটিন guage distance বনল?
76. সবগম সরান িা োখাওিাত সহােনন রশচত গ্রন্থ স ানটি? ( ) Center to center of rail
( ) মািাবতী (খ)পদ্মাবতী (খ) Running face of rail
(গ) রূপবতী (ঘ) পদ্মরাগ ✔ (গ) Outer face of rail✔
77. Which one of the following is a (ঘ) স ানটিই নি
common gender 88. I wish I_____a poet
( ) Book (খ) Teacher ✔ ( ) am (খ) was (গ) shall be (ঘ) were✔
(গ) Boy (ঘ) madam 89. The police dispersed the crowd. Here
78. Optical square শননচর স ান angle measure the word ‘crowd’ is a/an-
এর জন্য ব্যবহার রা হি? ( ) Proper noun (খ) Common
( ) Refraction noun
(খ) Reflection (গ) Collective Noun✔ (ঘ) Abstract
(গ) Double refraction noun
(ঘ) Double reflection✔ 90. বাংলানদিন প্রথম স্বীকৃশত দান ারী সদি স ানটি?
79. িশক্ত প্রনিানগর শদ বরাবর এ টি Bar এর সে পশরবতণন হি ( ) ভারত (খ) র্ভটান✔ (গ) রাশিিা (ঘ)সনপাল
তান ী বনল? 91. শননচর স ানটি Railway Track এর permanent
( ) Liner Strain ✔ (খ) Lateral Way এর component না?
Strain ( ) Rail (খ) Ballast (গ) Sleeper(ঘ) Signal ✔
(গ) Volumetric Strain (ঘ) Shear Strain 92. মীর মিার্রফ সহানেন রশচত শবনিাগান্তগ্রন্থ স ানটি?
80. শননচর স ানটি modern survey instrument নি? ( ) মহাশ্মিান (খ) শ্মিানভষ্ম
( )EDM (গ) শবিাদশেন্ধু✔ (ঘ) কুরুনক্ষে
(খ) Total Station 93. Of the two girls, Supriti is_____ intelligent
(গ) Digital Level ( ) most (খ) as (গ) more✔ (ঘ) far
(ঘ) Plain Table✔ 94. ঈশ্বরচন্দ্র শবদ্যাোগর রশচত সমৌশল গ্রন্থ স ানটি?
81. স ানটি শুে বানানন সলখা হনিনছ? ( ) েীতার বনবাে (খ) প্রভাবতী েম্ভাির্✔
( ) শবিান ✔ (খ)শবদ্যান (গ)শবিান (ঘ) শবিযান (গ) শবিাদশেন্ধু (ঘ) বাংলার ইশতহাে
82. এপল স াম্পাশনর প্রশতিাতা স ? 95. Rail way এর point 3 crossing এ ব্যবহৃত
( ) শস্টভ জবে ✔ (খ) শবল সগইটে ballast এর normal size ত?
(গ) মা ণ জু ারবগ ণ (ঘ) ল্যাশর সেজ ( ) 40 mm (খ) 25 mm✔ (গ) 50 mm (ঘ) 15 mm
83. িন্দ েমানে গঠিত িে 96. Retaining wall োধারর্ত প্রনিাজন হি
( ) গুর্হীন (খ) কুিীলব✔ (গ) নীপবৃক্ষ (ঘ) ছািাতরু ( ) For Hill Road
84. এ টি Foundation স shallow বলা োি েখন এর (খ) Masonry Dams
depth হি (গ) Wing Wall
( ) 1/4 th of its width (ঘ) For all hem✔
(খ) Half of its width 97. Sewage system োধারর্ত ত বছনর জন্য শডজাইন রা
(গ) 3/4 th of its width হি?
(ঘ) Equal of its width✔ ( ) 10 বছর (খ)25 বছর✔ (গ) 50 বছর (ঘ)100 বছর
85. এ টি simply supported girder এর সক্ষনে 98. মিমনশেংহ গীশত া এর অন্তগতণ াশহনী াব্য স ানটি?
Train wheel load এর জন্য েনব ণাচ্চ Bending ( ) াজলনরখা ✔ (খ) েতীমিনা
Moment স াথাি হনব? (গ) লািলী মজনু (ঘ) সলারচন্দ্রানী
( ) Center of Span 99. জাতীি স্মৃশতনেৌধ এর স্থপশত স ?
(খ) Under Wheel Load ( )এফ.আর খান (খ) লুই খান
(গ) At the support (গ) সেিদ মঈনুল সহানেন✔ (ঘ) ামরুল হাোন
(ঘ) খনও wheel load এর শননচ নি✔ 100.এেশডশজ এর িটি লক্ষয রনিনছ?
( ) 12 টি (খ) 17 ট✔ (গ) 15 টি (ঘ) 18 টি
 Theme-89

NOTE

THE END