YOUR NAME (PRINT)

LAST FIRST MI

TEST CENTER
NUMBER NAME OF TEST CENTER ROOM NUMBER

SAT Reasoning Test — General Directions

Timing IMPORTANT: The codes below are unique to
• You will have 3 hours and 45 minutes to work on this test. your test book. Copy them on your answer sheet
• There are ten separately timed sections: in boxes 8 and 9 and fill in the corresponding
䉴 One 25-minute essay circles exactly as shown.
䉴 Six other 25-minute sections
䉴 Two 20-minute sections
䉴 One 10-minute section 9 TEST FORM
(Copy from back of test book)
• You may work on only one section at a time.
• The supervisor will tell you when to begin and end each section.
• If you finish a section before time is called, check your work on that section.
You may NOT turn to any other section.
8 FORM CODE
• Work as rapidly as you can without losing accuracy. Don’t waste time on
(Copy and grid as on
questions that seem too difficult for you. back of test book.)

Marking Answers
• Carefully mark only one answer for each question. A A A A 0 0 0

• Make sure each mark is dark and completely fills the circle. B B B B 1 1 1

• Do not make any stray marks on your answer sheet. C C C C 2 2 2

• If you erase, do so completely. Incomplete erasures may be scored as D D D D 3 3 3
intended answers. E E E E 4 4 4
• Use only the answer spaces that correspond to the question numbers. F F F F 5 5 5
• You may use the test book for scratchwork, but you will not receive credit G G G G 6 6 6
for anything written there.
H H H H 7 7 7
• After time has been called, you may not transfer answers to your answer
I I I I 8 8 8
sheet or fill in circles.
J J J J 9 9 9
• You may not fold or remove pages or portions of a page from this book,
K K K K
or take the book or answer sheet from the testing room.
L L L L
M M M M
Scoring
N N N N
• For each correct answer, you receive one point.
O O O O
• For questions you omit, you receive no points.
P P P P
• For a wrong answer to a multiple-choice question, you lose one-fourth of
Q Q Q Q
a point.
䉴 If you can eliminate one or more of the answer choices as wrong, R R R R

you increase your chances of choosing the correct answer and S S S S

earning one point. T T T T

䉴 If you can’t eliminate any choice, move on. You can return to the U U U U
question later if there is time. V V V V
• For a wrong answer to a student-produced response (“grid-in”) math W W W W
question, you don’t lose any points. X X X X
• The essay is scored on a 1 to 6 scale by two different readers. The total Y Y Y Y
essay score is the sum of the two readers’ scores.
Z Z Z Z
• Off-topic essays, blank essays, and essays written in ink will receive a
score of zero.
The passages for this test have been adapted from published material. The ideas
contained in them do not necessarily represent the opinions of the College Board
or ETS.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOK UNTIL THE

SUPERVISOR TELLS YOU TO DO SO.

UNAUTHORIZED REPRODUCTION OR USE OF ANY PART OF THIS TEST IS PROHIBITED.

 SAT Reasoning Test TM

✎ Use a No. 2 pencil on ALL sections of the answer sheet, including the essay. Be sure each mark
is dark and completely fills the intended circle. Completely erase any errors or stray marks.

1 Your Name:
(Print)

Last First M.I.

I agree to the conditions on the back of the SAT® test book.

Signature: Date:

Home Address:
Number and Street City State Zip Code
Home Phone: ( ) Center:
(Print) City State/Country

DATE OF Important: Fill in TEST FORM

2 YOUR NAME 3 BIRTH
5 SEX items 8 and 9 9 (Copy from back of test book.)
exactly as shown
Last Name First Name Mid. MONTH DAY YEAR on the back of
(First 6 Letters) (First 4 Letters) Init. Female Male test book.

0 0 0 0 0 FORM TEST BOOK

6 REGISTRATION NUMBER 8 CODE 10 SERIAL NUMBER
– – – – – 1 1 1 1 1
(Copy from Admission Ticket.) (Copy and grid as on
(Copy from front of test book.)
’ ’ ’ ’ ’ 2 2 2 2
back of test book.)
3 3 3 3

A A A A A A A A A A A 4 4 4 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
B B B B B B B B B B B 5 5 5 5 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 A A A A 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1
C C C C C C C C C C C 6 6 6 6 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 B B B B 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2
D D D D D D D D D D D 7 7 7 7 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 C C C C 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3
E E E E E E E E E E E 8 8 8 8 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 D D D D 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4
F F F F F F F F F F F 9 9 9 9 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 E E E E 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5
G G G G G G G G G G G 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 F F F F 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 6
H H H H H H H H H H H 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 G G G G 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 7
I I I I I I I I I I I 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 H H H H 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 8
J J J J J J J J J J J 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 I I I I 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 9
K K K K K K K K K K K J J J J 9 9 9
L L L L L L L L L L L ZIP SOCIAL SECURITY K K K K TEST
4 CODE 7 NUMBER 11 CENTER
M M M M M M M M M M M L L L L
(Supplied by Test Center
N N N N N N N N N N N M M M M Supervisor.)

O O O O O O O O O O O 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 N N N N
P P P P P P P P P P P 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 O O O O 0 0 0 0 0
Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 P P P P 1 1 1 1 1
R R R R R R R R R R R 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 Q Q Q Q 2 2 2 2 2
S S S S S S S S S S S 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 R R R R 3 3 3 3 3
T T T T T T T T T T T 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 S S S S 4 4 4 4 4
U U U U U U U U U U U 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 T T T T 5 5 5 5 5
V V V V V V V V V V V 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 U U U U 6 6 6 6 6
W W W W W W W W W W W 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 V V V V 7 7 7 7 7
X X X X X X X X X X X 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 W W W W 8 8 8 8 8
Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y X X X X 9 9 9 9 9
Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z I am taking this test as a Y Y Y Y

FOR OFFICIAL USE standby test-taker Z Z Z Z

ONLY
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 00272-36390 • NS75E4600 • Printed in U.S.A.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 Copyright © 2005 by College Entrance Examination Board. All rights reserved.
College Board, SAT, and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of the College Entrance Examination Board. 728986
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 SAT Reasoning Test and SAT Subject Tests are trademarks owned by the College Entrance Examination Board.
168735-102:654321 ISD4939

PLEASE DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA

SERIAL #
 I prefer NOT to grant the College Board the right to use, reproduce, or publish my essay for any purpose
SECTION beyond the assessment of my writing skills, even though my name will not be used in any way in conjunction
with my essay. I understand that I am free to mark this circle with no effect on my score.

1 IMPORTANT: Use a No. 2 PENCIL. Do NOT write outside the border!

Words written outside the essay box or written in ink WILL NOT APPEAR in the copy
sent to be scored, and your score will be affected.

Begin your essay on this page. If you need more space, continue on the next page.

Page 2 Continue on the next page, if necessary.

Continuation of ESSAY Section 1 from previous page. Write below only if you need more space.
IMPORTANT: DO NOT START on this page—if you do, your essay may appear blank and your score may be affected.

Page 3
PLEASE DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA
SERIAL #
 Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer questions than answer spaces, leave the extra
answer spaces blank. Be sure to erase any errors or stray marks completely.

1 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 31 A B C D E

2 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 32 A B C D E

3 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 33 A B C D E

SECTION 4 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 34 A B C D E

5 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 35 A B C D E

2 6
7
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
16
17
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
26
27
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
36
37
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

8 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 38 A B C D E

9 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 39 A B C D E

10 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 40 A B C D E

1 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 31 A B C D E

2 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 32 A B C D E

3 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 33 A B C D E

SECTION 4 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 34 A B C D E

5 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 35 A B C D E

3 6
7
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
16
17
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
26
27
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
36
37
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

8 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 38 A B C D E

9 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 39 A B C D E

10 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 40 A B C D E

CAUTION Use the answer spaces in the grids below for SECTION 2 or SECTION 3 only if you are told to do
so in your test book.
Student-Produced Responses ONLY ANSWERS ENTERED IN THE CIRCLES IN EACH GRID WILL BE SCORED. YOU WILL
NOT RECEIVE CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES ABOVE THE CIRCLES.

9 10 11 12 13
⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

14 15 16 17 18
⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

Page 4
 Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer questions than answer spaces, leave the extra
answer spaces blank. Be sure to erase any errors or stray marks completely.

1 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 31 A B C D E

2 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 32 A B C D E

3 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 33 A B C D E

SECTION 4 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 34 A B C D E

5 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 35 A B C D E

4 6
7
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
16
17
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
26
27
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
36
37
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

8 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 38 A B C D E

9 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 39 A B C D E

10 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 40 A B C D E

1 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 31 A B C D E

2 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 32 A B C D E

3 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 33 A B C D E

SECTION 4 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 34 A B C D E

5 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 35 A B C D E

5 6
7
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
16
17
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
26
27
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
36
37
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

8 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 38 A B C D E

9 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 39 A B C D E

10 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 40 A B C D E

CAUTION Use the answer spaces in the grids below for SECTION 4 or SECTION 5 only if you are told
to do so in your test book.
Student-Produced Responses ONLY ANSWERS ENTERED IN THE CIRCLES IN EACH GRID WILL BE SCORED. YOU WILL
NOT RECEIVE CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES ABOVE THE CIRCLES.

9 10 11 12 13
⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

14 15 16 17 18
⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

Page 5
 Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer questions than answer spaces, leave the extra
answer spaces blank. Be sure to erase any errors or stray marks completely.

1 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 31 A B C D E

2 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 32 A B C D E

3 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 33 A B C D E

SECTION 4 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 34 A B C D E

5 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 35 A B C D E

6 6
7
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
16
17
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
26
27
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
36
37
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

8 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 38 A B C D E

9 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 39 A B C D E

10 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 40 A B C D E

1 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 31 A B C D E

2 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 32 A B C D E

3 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 33 A B C D E

SECTION 4 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 34 A B C D E

5 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 35 A B C D E

7 6
7
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
16
17
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
26
27
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
36
37
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

8 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 38 A B C D E

9 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 39 A B C D E

10 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 40 A B C D E

CAUTION Use the answer spaces in the grids below for SECTION 6 or SECTION 7 only if you are told
to do so in your test book.
Student-Produced Responses ONLY ANSWERS ENTERED IN THE CIRCLES IN EACH GRID WILL BE SCORED. YOU WILL
NOT RECEIVE CREDIT FOR ANYTHING WRITTEN IN THE BOXES ABOVE THE CIRCLES.

9 10 11 12 13
⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

14 15 16 17 18
⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄ ⁄
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5

168735-001–2/2
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
Page 6 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

PLEASE DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA

SERIAL #
 Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer questions than answer spaces, leave the extra
answer spaces blank. Be sure to erase any errors or stray marks completely.

1 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 31 A B C D E

2 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 32 A B C D E

3 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 33 A B C D E

SECTION 4 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 34 A B C D E

5 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 35 A B C D E

8 6
7
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
16
17
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
26
27
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
36
37
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

8 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 38 A B C D E

9 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 39 A B C D E

10 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 40 A B C D E

1 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 31 A B C D E

2 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 32 A B C D E

3 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 33 A B C D E

SECTION 4 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 34 A B C D E

5 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 35 A B C D E

9 6
7
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
16
17
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
26
27
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
36
37
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

8 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 38 A B C D E

9 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 39 A B C D E

10 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 40 A B C D E

1 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 31 A B C D E

2 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 32 A B C D E

3 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 33 A B C D E

SECTION 4 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 34 A B C D E

5 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 35 A B C D E

10 6
7
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
16
17
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
26
27
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

E
36
37
A

A
B

B
C

C
D

D
E

8 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 38 A B C D E

9 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 39 A B C D E

10 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 40 A B C D E

Page 7
 CERTIFICATION STATEMENT
Copy the statement below (do not print) and sign your name as you would an official document.

I hereby agree to the conditions set forth online at www.collegeboard.com and/or in the SAT Registration Booklet and certify that I am the
person whose name and address appear on this answer sheet.

By signing below, I agree not to share any specific test questions or essay topics with anyone after I test by any form of communication,
including, but not limited to: email, text messages, or use of the Internet.

Signature Date

SPECIAL QUESTIONS
1 A B C D E F G H I J

2 A B C D E F G H I J

3 A B C D E F G H I J

4 A B C D E F G H I J

5 A B C D E F G H I J

6 A B C D E F G H I J

7 A B C D E F G H I J

8 A B C D E F G H I J

Page 8
PLEASE DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA
SERIAL #
You may use this space to make notes for your essay. Remember, however, that you
will receive credit ONLY for what is written on your answer sheet.
_________________________________________________________________________

NOTES ONLY

Write essay on answer

sheet!
 ESSAY
Time — 25 minutes

Turn to page 2 of your answer sheet to write your ESSAY.

The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can develop and express ideas. You should, therefore, take
care to develop your point of view, present your ideas logically and clearly, and use language precisely.

Your essay must be written on the lines provided on your answer sheet— you will receive no other paper on which to write.
You will have enough space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins, and keep your handwriting to a reasonable size.
Remember that people who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you write. Try to write or print so that what
you are writing is legible to those readers.

Important Reminders:
• A pencil is required for the essay. An essay written in ink will receive a score of zero.
• Do not write your essay in your test book. You will receive credit only for what you write on your
answer sheet.
• An off-topic essay will receive a score of zero.

You have twenty-five minutes to write an essay on the topic assigned below.

Think carefully about the issue presented in the following excerpt and the assignment below.

We often hear that we can learn much about someone or something just by casual observation.
We are not required to look beneath the surface or to question how something seems. In fact, we
are urged to trust our impressions, often our first impressions, of how a person or a situation
seems to be. Yet appearances can be misleading. What “seems” isn’t always what is.

Assignment: Is the way something seems to be not always the same as it actually is? Plan and write an essay in which you
develop your point of view on this issue. Support your position with reasoning and examples taken from your
reading, studies, experience, or observations.

BEGIN WRITING YOUR ESSAY ON PAGE 2 OF THE ANSWER SHEET.

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
 SECTION 2
Time — 25 minutes
24 Questions

Turn to Section 2 (page 4) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.

4. Many of our memories are -------, escaping our con-

Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank sciousness just as we strain to recall a face or a name.
indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A (A) elusive (B) pervasive (C) unvaried
through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when (D) insensitive (E) impractical
inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the
sentence as a whole. 5. Although Caroline Gordon was rigorously objective
in her journalistic writing, her lively and ------- private
Example:
correspondence ------- a delightful capacity for biting
Hoping to ------- the dispute, negotiators proposed commentary on the social scene.
a compromise that they felt would be ------- to both
(A) incisive . . disguised
labor and management.
(B) eloquent . . derided
(A) enforce . . useful (C) dispassionate . . demonstrated
(B) end . . divisive (D) exuberant . . minimized
(C) overcome . . unattractive (E) entertaining . . exhibited
(D) extend . . satisfactory
(E) resolve . . acceptable 6. An effective member of a debating team must focus
clearly on the ------- issue and avoid ------- arguments.

1. Despite ------- on taking rare tamarins from their (A) equivocal . . obstreperous
habitat, the illegal trade in the tiny monkeys (B) designated . . pertinent
remains -------. (C) comprehensive . . general
(D) principal . . peripheral
(A) commendations . . obligatory (E) subtle . . significant
(B) consultations . . predominant
(C) restrictions . . local 7. The ------- with which merchants and landowners in
(D) penalties . . illicit early-nineteenth-century Maryland and Virginia -------
(E) prohibitions . . active Joshua Johnston’s professional services attests to his
artistic skill as a portrait painter.
2. Representing a round world on a flat surface is impos-
sible without some -------: the Mercator projection (A) avidness . . sought
map shows Greenland as over ten times larger than (B) diffidence . . purchased
Mexico, a country in fact only slightly smaller than (C) patience . . replaced
Greenland. (D) elegance . . regarded
(E) zealousness . . overlooked
(A) oversight (B) simplification
(C) distortion (D) sophistication 8. The man’s colleagues characterized him as -------
(E) superficiality because he had an irritable, quarrelsome disposition.

3. The highly publicized redesign of the car is essentially (A) tyrannical (B) disingenuous
-------: the exterior has been updated, but the engine (C) sanctimonious (D) cantankerous
remains unchanged. (E) morose

(A) intuitive (B) cosmetic (C) incoherent

(D) consequential (E) retroactive
 The passages below are followed by questions based on their content; questions following a pair of related passages may also
be based on the relationship between the paired passages. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the
passages and in any introductory material that may be provided.

Questions 9-12 are based on the following passages.

10. The author of Passage 2 would most likely respond
Passage 1 is by Dorothy Sayers; Passage 2 is adapted to the statement in lines 4-5, Passage 1 (“it rarely . . .
from a work by Raymond Chandler. passion”), by
(A) arguing that this approach limits the characters’
Passage 1 development
The detective story does not and cannot attain the (B) denying that most writers of detective stories
loftiest level of literary achievement. Though it deals rely on formulas
with the most desperate effects of rage, jealousy, and (C) agreeing that strong emotions are out of place
Line revenge, it rarely touches the heights and depths of in detective stories
5 human passion. It presents us with an accomplished (D) conceding that great literature is seldom
fact, and looks upon death with a dispassionate eye. It commercially successful
does not show us the inner workings of the murderer’s (E) concurring that readers are primarily interested
mind— it must not, for the identity of the criminal is in plot
hidden until the end of the book. The most successful
10 writers are those who contrive to keep the story running 11. Which of the following characteristics of detective
from beginning to end upon the same emotional level, stories presented in Passage 1 would be LEAST
and it is better to err in the direction of too little feeling likely to be attributed to the “pattern” mentioned
than too much. in line 19, Passage 2 ?
Passage 2 (A) “cannot attain the loftiest level of literary
achievement” (lines 1-2)
I think what was really gnawing at Dorothy Sayers in (B) “deals with the most desperate effects of
15 her critique of the detective story was the realization that rage, jealousy, and revenge” (lines 2-4)
her kind of detective story was an arid formula unable to (C) “presents us with an accomplished fact”
satisfy its own implications. If the story started to be about (lines 5-6)
real people, they soon had to do unreal things to conform (D) “looks upon death with a dispassionate eye”
to the artificial pattern required by the plot. When they did (line 6)
20 unreal things, they ceased to be real themselves. Sayers’ (E) “does not show us the inner workings of the
own stories show that she was annoyed by this triteness. murderer’s mind” (lines 7-8)
Yet she would not give her characters their heads and let
them make their own mystery. 12. Passage 1 suggests that Sayers would most likely
respond to lines 17-20, Passage 2 (“If the story started
9. Which best describes the relationship between . . . themselves”), by pointing out that
the two passages?
(A) great writers seldom explore the range of human
(A) Passage 1 explains the evolution of a genre, emotions
while Passage 2 challenges the notion of (B) detective stories do not address the consequences
a distinct genre. of people’s emotions
(B) Passage 1 discusses the constraints of a genre, (C) detective stories are driven by the plot, not by
while Passage 2 contends that many of these the characters
constraints are self-imposed. (D) readers of detective stories prefer unrealistic
(C) Passage 1 celebrates a genre, while Passage 2 situations
points out its deficiencies. (E) real people often act in ways that are unexpected
(D) Passage 1 explains the popularity of a genre,
while Passage 2 questions its commercial
success.
(E) Passage 1 compares a genre unfavorably
to other types of writing, while Passage 2
argues that the genre has unique features.
 Questions 13-24 are based on the following passage. in the city streets. But my adversaries performed similar
experiments with different results. Perhaps they were not
This passage is adapted from a series in which a college careful to follow my procedures. The neck of the flask must
professor dramatizes the lectures of famous scientists from be heated first to kill the bacteria on the glass; then a heated
the past. Here he speaks as Louis Pasteur (1822-1895). 50 instrument must be used to break the tip of the flask as it is
In this part of the lecture, Pasteur has just described his held high above the head. Immediately thereafter the flask
discovery of the effect of heating certain microbes that must be sealed again in a flame [Pasteur demonstrates the
infect bottled beverages (the process later named procedure]. In these difficult researches, while I sternly
pasteurization). object to frivolous contradictions, I feel nothing but grat-
55 itude toward those who warn me if I should be in error.
But these undesirable microbes! Where and how did
I then devised a conclusive experiment. I boiled a nutri-
they arise? By spontaneous generation,* as some believe?
tious infusion in a flask with a long curved neck like this
When I began to ask these questions of myself and of my
one. The tip of the neck was not sealed but left open to the
Line students and colleagues, my close friends said: “Oh, no,
outside air. Thus, there was no hindrance to the entrance of
5 do not waste your time on such worthless philosophical
60 fresh air with its “vital force” as claimed by the advocates
problems. Many a scientist has floundered and perished in
of spontaneous generation. But bacteria in the entering air
the quagmire of spontaneous generation.” I replied: “But
would be trapped by the walls of the long glass tube. The
the origin of life is a profound problem.” With few excep-
fluid remained sterile so long as the flask was maintained
tions, past discourses on spontaneous generation have been
in the vertical position. If, however, I contaminated the
10 metaphysical exercises conducted with great passion, but
65 broth by allowing some of it to flow into the neck and then
without adding to our scientific knowledge.
back into the flask, putrefaction promptly followed. So we
I could not set aside my burning desire to bring a little
see that life does not arise spontaneously. Life comes only
stone, God willing, to the frail edifice of our knowledge of
from life.
the deep mysteries of life and death, where all our intellects
15 have so lamentably failed. In defense of nonapplied science
*The supposed origination of living matter directly from lifeless matter
I have repeatedly told my students that without theory,
practice is but routine. Only theory is able to cause the
spirit of invention to arise and develop. It is important that
13. The focus of the lecture is on how Pasteur
students should not share the opinion of those who disdain
20 everything in science that has no immediate application. In (A) disproved an erroneous theory
science, chance favors only the mind that is prepared. (B) documented and published his experiments
I repeat: in science, chance favors only the mind that (C) developed a process for killing microbes
is prepared. (D) applied his findings on spontaneous generation
I first confirmed the experiments of the Italian abbé, to new problems
25 Lazzaro Spallanzani, known also for his studies in gastric (E) contributed to the improvement of laboratory
digestion. I made a nutritious broth, put it in a flask such research standards
as this [Pasteur holds up a large flask containing a brown
solution], heated it to violent boiling, and then sealed the 14. In the lecture, Pasteur concludes that the answer to the
neck of the flask in a flame. My results agreed with those question “Where and how did they arise?” (lines 1-2) is
30 of Spallanzani: the broth remained pure. But if the neck
be broken to admit air, the broth soon became putrid. My (A) spontaneously
critics said that the heating made the air in the flask unfit (B) from airborne bacteria
for spontaneous generation. Only when fresh air is admitted (C) from impurities in the original broth
can life begin anew. I argued in vain—even before our (D) from the curved neck of a flask
35 Academy of Sciences—that the putrefaction was caused by (E) from a broken flask
admission of bacteria. More convincing experiments were
needed.
I opened flasks of sterilized broth in the cellar of the
Paris observatory, where the air was still. Only one flask
40 out of ten became putrid, whereas eleven flasks out of
eleven opened in the courtyard quickly acquired a rich
growth of bacteria. I journeyed to Mt. Montanvert in the
Alps, where I opened twenty flasks of sterilized broth. Only
one became putrid. I concluded that the air in the cellar and
45 the air above the glacier were freer of bacteria than the air
15. In the first two paragraphs (lines 1-23), Pasteur is 19. Pasteur’s pronouncement about preparation and chance
primarily concerned with in lines 20-23 implies that
(A) summarizing the results of his experiments about (A) only projects that have an immediate application
spontaneous generation are important
(B) criticizing those who have taken the passion out (B) practice improves a scientist’s chances of making
of science a significant discovery
(C) establishing his motivation for studying the origin (C) few scientists are lucky enough to devise useful
of microbes theories
(D) attacking critics of his experiments (D) work on projects that have no immediate appli-
(E) correcting the impression that he is concerned cation prepares scientists to exploit chance
only with experiments that have immediate discoveries
application (E) most scientific discoveries that have no immediate
application are the result of good luck and
16. The word “quagmire” (line 7) is used primarily to timing
emphasize the
20. In context, the reference to the Academy of Sciences
(A) state of scientific ignorance in the 1800’s
(line 35) serves to suggest why
(B) futility of a particular line of research
(C) moral dilemma faced by scientists like Pasteur (A) Pasteur was so determined to make a significant
(D) failure of some to distinguish between pure and contribution to scientific knowledge
applied science (B) Pasteur felt compelled to replicate Spallanzani’s
(E) tendency of unsuccessful scientists to look for experiments
simple solutions (C) spontaneous generation had already begun to
be discredited when Pasteur began his
17. Pasteur characterizes “past discourses on spontaneous experimentation
generation” (line 9) as having (D) Pasteur believed he needed to design experiments
that were more persuasive
(A) demonstrated the futility of practical scientific (E) spontaneous generation was viewed by Pasteur’s
studies colleagues as a topic that was unfit for scientific
(B) failed because of incomplete knowledge about study
sterilization of apparatus
(C) enabled him to understand inconsistencies in his
21. In line 41, “rich” most nearly means
early experiments
(D) failed to increase scientific knowledge (A) precious
(E) resolved much of the controversy surrounding the (B) vital
issue (C) abundant
(D) meaningful
18. The “little stone” (lines 12-13) refers to the (E) productive
(A) slight addition that Pasteur hoped to make to
22. The “conclusive experiment” (line 56) performed by
the existing body of facts
Pasteur was designed to answer critics who argued that
(B) small effect that Pasteur wanted to have on
one person’s learning (A) the apparatus used in Pasteur’s earlier experi-
(C) minor disappointment Pasteur felt at being ments had not been adequately sterilized
rebuffed by his colleagues (B) Pasteur’s experiments related to spontaneous
(D) narrow-mindedness of those who cling to generation had no immediate application
scientific fallacies (C) the results of Pasteur’s experiments in the Alps
(E) imperceptible progress that Pasteur had made and in the cellar could not be replicated
in understanding spontaneous generation (D) the broth in the flasks of Pasteur’s earlier experi-
ments was not nutritious enough
(E) heating made the air in the flasks of the earlier
experiments unfit for spontaneous generation
23. In the context of the passage as a whole, the 24. In his conclusive experiment, Pasteur kept the flasks
“vital force” (line 60) is best described as vertical (line 64) in order to
(A) what Pasteur called the basic unit of life (A) prevent fresh air from entering them
(B) a term that was outdated in Pasteur’s time (B) retain the boiling liquid inside the flasks
(C) nutrients necessary for sustaining life (C) prevent the fluid from touching trapped bacteria
(D) that which has the power to destroy life (D) avoid disturbing the solution inside
(E) what opponents of Pasteur believed to be (E) replicate his previous experiments exactly
a source of life

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
 SECTION 3
Time — 25 minutes
20 Questions

Turn to Section 3 (page 4) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet. You may use any available space for scratchwork.

1. Which of the following represents the total cost, in

dollars, of k compact discs at $15 each and p compact
disc cases at $25 each? (Disregard sales tax.)
(A) 15k + 25 p
(B) 25k + 15 p
(C) 40a k + p f
(D) 0.40( k + p)
(E) a15 + k fa25 + pf

2. If the areas of the two rectangles in the figure above

are equal, which of the following could be the
coordinates of point R ?
(A) a −2, − 4f
(B) a −2, 2f
(C) a −2, 4 f

(D) a2, − 4f

(E) a2, 4f
 1 1 1 1 1 1
3. A box contains 2,900 solid-colored marbles that 5. If + + > + + , then x could be which
are either orange, blue, or green. If 29 percent of 6 7 8 x 7 8
of the following?
the marbles are orange and 29 percent of the marbles
are blue, what percent are green? (A) 3
(B) 4
(A) 29%
(C) 5
(B) 42%
(D) 6
(C) 52%
(E) 7
(D) 58%
(E) 71%

P = {1, 3, 5, 6}
Q = {2, 4, 6, 7, 9}
6. If tx + 5 = (t + 1) x, which of the following must be
4. Sets P and Q are shown above. If x is a member true?
of set P and y is a member of set Q, which of the
following CANNOT be equal to the product xy ? (A) x = 4
(B) x = 5
(A) 16 (C) t = 4
(B) 18 (D) t = 5
(C) 20 (E) t = 5x
(D) 21
(E) 24
Questions 7-9 refer to the following definition. 3 ( x - 7) ( x - 2 ) = k

Let # be defined by a # b = ab + a + b for all numbers 10. In the equation above, k is a constant. If the roots
of the equation are 7 and 2, what is the value of k ?
a and b.
(A) 0
7. 2#5= (B) 2
(C) 3
(A) 7 (D) 7
(B) 10 (E) 14
(C) 17
(D) 20
(E) 32

8. If 10 # h = 98, then h =
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 10 11. Which of the following represents the area, A, of a
(D) 11
circle as a function of its diameter, d ?
(E) 12
(A) A(d ) = p d

(B) A(d ) = 2 p d

(C) A(d ) = p d 2

pd 2
(D) A(d ) =
2
pd 2
(E) A(d ) =
9. For what value of x is the statement x # y = x 4
always true?
(A) -2
(B) -1
(C) 0
(D) 1
(E) 2
 x f ( x) z g (z)
4 5 5 4
8 a 10 b
12 9 20 7

12. The table above shows some values for the functions
f and g . If f and g are linear functions, what
is the value of a - b ?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 4
13. The depth of a lake is the difference between the altitude
at the surface and at the lowest point of the lake. If the
five lakes in the graph above were listed in order from
the greatest depth to the least depth, which lake would
be third in the list?
(A) Erie
(B) Huron
(C) Michigan
(D) Ontario
(E) Superior
 16. If a number is chosen at random from the set
k−12, − 6, 0, 6, 12p, what is the probability
that it is a member of the solution set of both
2 x − 3 < 7 and x + 5 > − 6 ?
(A) 0

1
(B)
5
14. In the figure above, x > 90 and y = z + 1. If z is an
2
integer, what is the greatest possible value of y ? (C)
5
(A) 30 3
(B) 45 (D)
(C) 60 5
(D) 61 4
(E)
(E) 89 5

15. Molly is 64 inches tall. At 10:00 A.M. one day, her

shadow is 16 inches long, and the shadow of a nearby
tree is s inches long. In terms of s, what is the height, 17. If the length of AB is 5 and the length of BC is 6,
in inches, of the tree?
which of the following could be the length of AC ?
(A) s + 48
(A) 10
(B) 12
(B) 2 s
(C) 13
s (D) 15
(C)
4 (E) 16
(D) 4s
2
F sI
(E)
H 2K
 20. On the number line above, the tick marks are equally
spaced. Which of the lettered points represents y ?
18. In triangle ABC above, if AD = 6, DC = 3, and
(A) A
BC = 4, what is the area of triangle ABD ? (B) B
(A) 36 (C) C
(B) 18 (D) D
(C) 12 (E) E
(D) 6
(E) 3

19. If x and y are two different integers and the

product 35xy is the square of an integer, which
of the following could be equal to xy ?
(A) 5
(B) 70
(C) 105
(D) 140
(E) 350

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
 SECTION 5
Time — 25 minutes
24 Questions

Turn to Section 5 (page 5) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.

3. In 1575 Venetians instituted an annual celebration to

Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank ------- the end of the ------- that had struck the city.
indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A (A) lament . . turmoil
through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when (B) commemorate . . plague
inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the (C) eulogize . . pestilence
sentence as a whole. (D) hail . . prosperity
(E) solemnize . . fame
Example:
Hoping to ------- the dispute, negotiators proposed 4. Lena Horne’s singing style is such that she can invest
a compromise that they felt would be ------- to both even the most ------- lyrics with dramatic meaning.
labor and management.
(A) harmonious (B) sensational
(A) enforce . . useful (C) impeccable (D) vapid
(B) end . . divisive (E) esteemed
(C) overcome . . unattractive
(D) extend . . satisfactory 5. A long-standing theory about the migration of green
(E) resolve . . acceptable turtles was ------- by an innovative marine biologist
who graciously defused potential ------- by dedicating
her work to the original researcher.
1. After winning the lottery, John bought sports cars, built
a mansion, and wore designer suits; however, by thus - (A) instigated . . rancor
------ his -------, he alienated his friends. (B) renounced . . approval
(C) displaced . . attribution
(A) enduring . . hardship (D) enhanced . . alteration
(B) flaunting . . prosperity (E) repudiated . . acrimony
(C) undermining . . image
(D) calculating . . successes
(E) moderating . . consumption

2. The study of biology, once considered the key to

solving nature’s mysteries, has instead served to
emphasize nature’s incredible -------.
(A) tranquillity (B) immobility (C) consistency
(D) desirability (E) complexity
 Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied
in each passage and in any introductory material that may be provided.

Questions 6-7 are based on the following passage. Questions 8-9 are based on the following passage.

On the morning of June 13, 1998, a 4.6-billion-year-old Apes raised by humans seem to pretend more frequently
extraterrestrial object streaked into Earth’s atmosphere and than do apes in the wild. Animal handlers see behaviors
blew to pieces in the sky somewhere in the neighborhood they interpret as pretending practically every day. But Anne
Line of Nelda Wallace’s backyard. A dark basketball-size object Line Russon, a psychologist, says she has found only about 20
5 dropped with a loud ssshhht into Wallace’s garden, and 5 recorded cases of possible pretending in free-ranging
fragments pelted other properties —only the first of many orangutans, culled from thousands of hours of observation.
strange things soon to occur in town. For meteorites are One possible reason, she noted in an e-mail interview from
more than just stars of science-fiction movies. Scientists her field station in Borneo, is that researchers have not been
covet them, private dealers scoop them up for resale at looking for such behavior. But many researchers believe
10 spiraling prices, and professional searchers travel the 10 that interaction with humans—and the encouragement to
world to hunt them down. Nelda Wallace’s town was pretend that comes with it—may play a major role in why
about to be invaded by meteorite dealers, meteorite domesticated apes playact more.
fans, meteorite poachers, and other alien life-forms.
8. Russon’s hypothesis would be most fully tested by
6. The sentence in lines 1-4 (“On the morning . . . which possible research project?
backyard”) is best characterized as
(A) Examining data from observations of pretending
(A) ironic behavior in apes other than orangutans
(B) dramatic (B) Expanding ongoing observations of orangutans
(C) comical to include pretending behavior
(D) nostalgic (C) Documenting pretending behavior among
(E) celebratory orangutans raised by humans
(D) Comparing specific pretending behaviors in
7. The reference to the “alien life-forms” (line 13) free-ranging and domesticated orangutans
primarily serves to (E) Reviewing existing data on free-ranging
orangutans to determine the earliest record
(A) hint at the dangers posed by some of pretending behavior
unexpected visitors
(B) mock the public’s fascination with
9. Which theoretical statement about pretending behavior
extraterrestrial beings
in apes would be supported most fully by the “many
(C) indicate the dearth of reliable information
researchers” mentioned in line 9 ?
about a subject
(D) acknowledge a lack of familiarity with (A) Having the ability to pretend has enabled
a scientific phenomenon apes, such as chimpanzees, to be trained
(E) provide a humorous label for a certain as performers.
kind of zealotry (B) All types of apes, both wild and domesticated,
can pretend with human companions.
(C) Pretending behavior for wild apes may vary
considerably by region and population.
(D) Handlers of domesticated apes do not always
have the rigorous observational training of
scientists.
(E) Wild apes living apart from humans pretend
only rarely.
 Questions 10-18 are based on the following passage. everything. One summer my sister and I had to take
ikebana, the art of flower arrangement, at our grandfather’s
This excerpt is from a short story by a Japanese American 50 school. The course was taught by Mrs. Oshima, a soft-
writer. The narrator reflects on her family’s past as she spoken, terrifying woman, and my supplies were provided
helps her mother prepare to move from her home. by my grandmother, whose tastes ran to the oversized.
I remember little of that class and its principles. What I
There’s a photograph of my mother standing on the pier remember most clearly is having to walk home carrying
in Honolulu in 1932, the year she left Hawaii to attend the 55 one of our creations, which, more often than not, towered
University of California. She’s loaded to the ears with leis. above our heads.
Line She’s wearing a fedora1 pulled smartly to the side. She is How do we choose among what we experience, what
5 not smiling. Of my mother’s two years at the university, we are taught, what we run into by chance, or what is
my grandmother recalled that she received good grades forced upon us? What is the principle of selection? My
and never wore a kimono again. My second cousin, with 60 sisters and I are not bound by any of our mother’s obli-
whom my mother stayed when she first arrived, said she gations, nor do we follow the rituals that seemed so
was surprisingly sophisticated —she liked hats. My mother important. My sister once asked, do you realize that when
10 said that she was homesick. Her favorite class was biology she’s gone that’s it ? She was talking about how to make
and she entertained thoughts of becoming a scientist. Her sushi3, but it was a more profound question nonetheless.
father, however, wanted her to become a teacher, and his
wishes prevailed, even though he would not have forced 1 A fedora is a soft felt hat popular in the United States in the 1930’s.
them upon her. She was a dutiful daughter. 2 Chasuke is a rice and tea mixture.
15 During her second year, she lived near campus with a 3 Sushi is cold rice shaped into small cakes and sometimes topped or
mathematics professor and his wife. In exchange for room wrapped with garnishes.
and board she cleaned house, ironed, and helped prepare
meals. One of the things that survives from this period is a
black composition book entitled Recipes of California. As 10. The thematic focus of the passage is on the
20 a child, I read it like a book of mysteries for clues to a life
both alien and familiar. Some entries she had copied by (A) conflicts between the narrator’s mother and
hand; others she cut out of magazines and pasted on the grandmother
page, sometimes with a picture or drawing. The margins (B) challenge of balancing conflicting values and
contained her cryptic comments: “Saturday bridge club,” practices
25 “From Mary G. Do not give away.” (C) widespread assimilation of immigrants into the
That book holds part of the answer to why our family culture of the United States
rituals didn’t fit the norm either of our relatives or of the (D) desirability of maintaining traditions
larger community in which we grew up. At home, we ate (E) irrelevance of traditional customs to modern
in fear of the glass of spilled milk, the stray elbow on the society
30 table, the boarding house reach. At my grandparents’, we
slurped our chasuke2. We wore tailored dresses and black 11. The grandmother’s comments in lines 5-7 imply that
shoes with white socks; however, what we longed for were her daughter’s experiences at the university were
the lacy colorful dresses that other girls wore to church on characterized by
Sunday. For six years, I marched to Japanese language (A) success and camaraderie
35 school after my regular classes; however, we only spoke (B) accomplishment and assimilation
English at home. We talked too loudly and all at once, (C) enlightenment and introspection
which mortified my mother, but she was always complaining (D) diligence and homesickness
about Japanese indirectness. I know that she smarted under (E) scholarship and competition
a system in which the older son is the center of the familial
40 universe, but at thirteen I had a fit of jealous rage over her 12. In line 11, the word “entertained” most nearly means
fawning attention to our only male cousin.
My sister has found a photograph of our mother, a (A) regaled
round-faced and serious twelve or thirteen, dressed in a (B) hosted
kimono and seated, on her knees, on the tatami mat. She is (C) flaunted
45 playing the koto, a difficult stringed instrument thought to (D) harbored
teach girls discipline. Of course, everything Japanese was (E) welcomed
a lesson in discipline—flower arranging, embroidery,
13. The narrator’s statement in line 14 (“She . . . 17. In lines 53-56, the narrator’s description of childhood
daughter”) serves to walks home from ikebana class conveys a sense of
(A) defend her mother’s interest in science (A) adventure
(B) justify her mother’s decision to leave home (B) relief
(C) explain why her mother became a teacher (C) melancholy
(D) question the relevance of established customs (D) absurdity
(E) rationalize her grandfather’s actions (E) vitality

14. The narrator suggests that as a child she read her 18. To the narrator, her sister’s question (lines 62-63)
mother’s book of recipes in order to implies that the
(A) seek proof of her mother’s devotion to the family (A) mother represented the last true vestige of the
(B) understand more fully the contradictions in her sisters’ Japanese heritage
mother’s behavior (B) mother should have made more of an effort to
(C) perpetuate the fantasy she created about her educate her daughters about their background
mother (C) mother’s education in California extended beyond
(D) search for clues to her mother’s reluctance to the confines of the university
discuss her past (D) sisters were saddened by their mother’s decision
(E) discover the cause of her mother’s unhappiness to move
(E) sisters would not regret the absence of traditional
15. The description of the reaction of the mother to her family rituals
children’s manner of speaking (lines 36-38) highlights
how she
(A) feared that her children’s naïveté would invite
trouble
(B) shared her children’s distaste for Japanese
language lessons
(C) was still imbued with the lessons of her culture
(D) insisted on maintaining a strong Japanese
influence in her home
(E) wanted her children to be fluent in the Japanese
language

16. The narrator repeats the word “everything” in

lines 46-48 to
(A) explain the intensity of her competition with her
sister
(B) characterize the diverse achievements of Japanese
Americans
(C) describe her mother’s single-minded pursuit of
perfection
(D) emphasize the extent to which discipline governed
Japanese life
(E) highlight the extraordinary skill required to master
the koto
 Questions 19-24 are based on the following passage. 19. The first two paragraphs (lines 1-37) primarily serve to
(A) argue against the depiction of children in artwork
The following passage is excerpted from a historian’s
(B) suggest that medieval Western art was particularly
examination of European attitudes toward childhood.
conservative
Medieval European art until about the twelfth century (C) describe the unrealistic portrayal of children in
did not know childhood or did not attempt to portray it. medieval art
It is hard to believe that this neglect was due to incompe- (D) trace the evolution of realistic representation in
Line tence or incapacity; it seems more probable that there was Western art
5 no place for childhood in the medieval world. A miniature (E) postulate a theory about the thematic focuses of
painted during the twelfth century provides us with a medieval Western art
striking example of the deformity that an artist at that time
would inflict on the representation of children’s bodies. 20. The author’s argument about the depiction of children
The subject is a Biblical scene in which Jesus is surrounded in medieval art assumes that the depictions
10 by little children. Yet the miniaturist has grouped around
(A) suggest the connection between medieval art and
Jesus what are obviously eight men, without any charac-
religion
teristics of childhood; they have simply been depicted on
(B) prefigure the gradual shift to realism
a smaller scale. In a French miniature of the late eleventh
(C) are too varied to support any one argument
century, three children brought to life by a saint are also
(D) reflect earlier civilizations’ corruption
15 reduced to a smaller scale than the adults, without any
(E) offer an indication of commonly held attitudes
other difference in expression or features. A painter would
not hesitate to give the body of a child the musculature of
an adult. 21. The author’s argument is developed primarily by
In the world of pictorial formulas inherited from (A) quotations from literary sources
20 ancient Rome, right up to the end of the thirteenth century, (B) descriptions of visual evidence
there are no children characterized by a special expression, (C) psychological analyses of medieval artists
but only adults on a reduced scale. This refusal to accept (D) comparisons of modern and medieval images
child morphology* in art is to be found too in most of the of the body
ancient civilizations. A fine Sardinian bronze of the ninth (E) reflections on the philosophical nature of
25 century B.C. shows a mother holding in her arms the bulky childhood
body of her son. The museum catalog tells us: “the little
masculine figure could also be a child which, in accor- 22. The last sentence of the passage (lines 46-50) primarily
dance with the formula adopted in ancient times by other serves to
peoples, had been represented as an adult.” Everything in
30 fact would seem to suggest that the realistic representation (A) define an important term that is central to the
of children or the idealization of childhood was confined author’s argument
to ancient Greek art. Representations of Eros, the Greek (B) dismiss objections to the author’s thesis
child god of love, proliferated in that Hellenistic period, (C) provide an explanation for the phenomenon
but childhood disappeared from art together with the other discussed in the previous paragraphs
35 Hellenistic themes, and the subsequent Romanesque art (D) introduce examples from other time periods and
returned to the rejection of the special features of other forms of representational art
childhood. (E) summarize the views of other historians of
This is no mere coincidence. Our starting point in medieval art
this study is a world of pictorial representation in which
40 childhood is unknown; literary historians such as Calvé
have made the same observation about the medieval epic,
in which child prodigies behave with the courage and
physical strength of doughty warriors. This undoubtedly
meant that the people of the tenth and eleventh centuries
45 did not dwell on the image of childhood and that the
image had neither interest nor even reality for them. It
suggests too that in the realm of real life, and not simply
in that of aesthetic translation, childhood was a period of
transition that passed quickly and that was just as quickly
50 forgotten.

* Structure and form

23. In line 48, “translation” most nearly means 24. The author offers which explanation for the way that
medieval painters depicted children?
(A) substitution
(B) explanation (A) Children were discouraged from becoming artists’
(C) representation models.
(D) transportation (B) Children were more difficult to paint than adults.
(E) correction (C) Children had never been a subject of art in
Western traditions.
(D) Childhood was not understood as a separate phase
of life.
(E) Childhood was not recognized in medieval
theology.

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
 SECTION 6
Time — 25 minutes
18 Questions

Turn to Section 6 (page 6) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: This section contains two types of questions. You have 25 minutes to complete both types. For questions 1-8, solve
each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. You may
use any available space for scratchwork.

1. Which of the following triples aa, b, cf does NOT 2. An amusement park charges $7 more for an adult’s
satisfy the equation a ⴢ b + c = 15 ? admission than for a child’s admission. If a group of
4 adults and 3 children spent $119 on admission, what
(A) a2, 6, 3f is the price of admission for one child?
(B) a2, 7, 1f
(A) $11
(C) a3, 5, 0 f (B) $13
(D) a 4, 3, 3f (C) $16
(E) a5, 2, 4 f
(D) $17
(E) $18
3. The figure above shows four apartments in a building.
In this building, each apartment is occupied by only
one person. Alice lives next to Sam, and Paul lives
next to Alice and Dara. In which apartment could Alice
live? 5. The graph above shows various temperatures from 10
A.M. to 6 P.M. of a given day. Which of the following
(A) 1 only situations best fits the information on the graph?
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only (A) It rained a little, and then the Sun came out and
(D) 2 or 3 warmed things up.
(E) 1 or 4 (B) The mild temperature was lowered by a heavy
rain in the morning, and the temperature
dropped lower by evening.
(C) It was more windy in the morning than it was
in the evening, and the temperature was mild
throughout.
(D) The morning was cold, but the Sun later came
out and raised the temperature.
(E) The temperature decreased at a constant rate from
10 A.M. to 6 P.M.

4. What is the ratio of the radius r of a circle to the

circumference of the circle?
(A) 1:2π
(B) 1: π
(C) 1: πr
(D) π :1
(E) 2π :1
6. Rita’s dog weighed 5 pounds when she bought it. 7. If all four interior angles of quadrilateral P have the
Over the next several years, the dog’s weight increased same measure, which of the following statements must
by 10 percent per year. Which of the following be true?
functions gives the weight, w, in pounds,
I. All sides of P have equal length.
of the dog after n years of weight gain at this rate?
II. The diagonals of P are perpendicular.
(A) w(n ) = 5 + 0.1n III. The measure of each interior angle of P is 90°.

(B) w(n ) = 5 (0.1)n (A) None

(B) I only
(C) w(n ) = 5 (0.9)n (C) II only
(D) III only
(D) w(n ) = 5 (1.1)n (E) I, II, and III
(E) w(n ) = 5 ( n)1.1

x
8. If x = 5 y and y = z + 1, what is in terms of z ?
5
(A) z
(B) z + 1
(C) 5 z
(D) 5 z + 1
(E) 5 z +1
 10. If 2 x + 3 y = 21 and x and y are positive integers,
what is one possible value of x ?

9. A snack machine has buttons arranged as shown above.

If a selection is made by choosing a letter followed by
a one-digit number, what is the greatest number of
different selections that could be made?
11. A rectangular-shaped field has a perimeter of 400 feet 13. If x divided by one-half is 50, what is the value of x ?
and a width of 80 feet. What is the area of the field in
square feet?

n 4 4
12. If e3 × 10 j + e5 × 10 j = e5.03 × 10 j, what is the
value of n ?

14. In 䉭 ABC above, what is the length of AD ?

15. The sum of the positive odd integers less than 100 is 17. Fifty percent of the songs played on a certain radio
subtracted from the sum of the positive even integers station are 3 minutes long, 30 percent are 5 minutes
less than or equal to 100. What is the resulting long, and 20 percent are 2 minutes long. What is the
difference? average (arithmetic mean) number of minutes per song
played on this radio station?

f ( x ) = kg ( x ) + 2

16. The function f above is defined in terms of another 18. A large solid cube is assembled by gluing together
function g for all values of x, where k is a constant. identical unpainted small cubic blocks. All six faces
If t is a number for which f (t ) = 30 and g (t ) = 8, of the large cube are then painted red. If exactly 27 of
the small cubic blocks that make up the large cube have
what does k equal? no red paint on them, how many small cubic blocks
make up the large cube?

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
 SECTION 7
Time — 25 minutes
35 Questions

Turn to Section 7 (page 6) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.

3. You cannot expect to treat your friends badly and no

The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness one notices.
of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence
is underlined; beneath each sentence are five ways of (A) and no one notices
phrasing the underlined material. Choice A repeats the (B) and have no one notice
original phrasing; the other four choices are different. If (C) without notice by someone
you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence (D) without notice by no one
than any of the alternatives, select choice A; if not, select (E) without the result of somebody noticing
one of the other choices.
4. The memoirs of President Clinton begin with his
In making your selection, follow the requirements of
childhood in Arkansas and culminate in his rise to
standard written English; that is, pay attention to grammar,
the presidency.
choice of words, sentence construction, and punctuation.
Your selection should result in the most effective (A) begin with his childhood in Arkansas and
sentence—clear and precise, without awkwardness or culminate
ambiguity. (B) that begin with his childhood in Arkansas and
culminate
EXAMPLE: (C) have begun with his childhood in Arkansas and
culminate
Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book
(D) have begun with his childhood in Arkansas and
and she was sixty-five years old then.
culminating
(A) and she was sixty-five years old then (E) began with his childhood in Arkansas and are
(B) when she was sixty-five culminated
(C) at age sixty-five years old
(D) upon the reaching of sixty-five years 5. Because of ignoring its potential, biofeedback is a
(E) at the time when she was sixty-five medical therapy most physicians reject.
(A) Because of ignoring its potential, biofeedback is
a medical therapy most physicians reject.
1. William Faulkner, being that he was a Southern writer, (B) Biofeedback is rejected by most physicians
used Mississippi as a setting for most of his novels. because of their ignoring its potential.
(C) Most physicians, because of ignoring the potential
(A) being that he was a Southern writer
of biofeedback, and rejecting it.
(B) a Southern writer
(D) Most physicians reject biofeedback because they
(C) while a writer from the South
ignore its potential.
(D) in origin a writer of the South
(E) A medical therapy rejected by most physicians,
(E) because of him being a writer from the South
caused by ignoring its potential, is biofeedback.
2. Tadpoles hatch and metamorphose into small
replicas of adult frogs although remaining in
their aquatic birthplace.
(A) although remaining
(B) while remaining
(C) in spite of it remaining
(D) due to their remaining
(E) in the course of which they remain
6. In Death of a Salesman Willy Loman mistakenly 9. Although the candidate promised both to cut taxes and
believes that his sons have no flaws, believing which improve services, he failed to keep either of them after
leads to many problems for the entire family. the election.
(A) believing which leads (A) Although the candidate promised both to cut taxes
(B) a belief that leads and improve services, he
(C) and which is to lead (B) The candidate, having promised both to cut taxes
(D) the belief of which leads and improve services,
(E) his believing this leads (C) Although the candidate made promises both to cut
taxes and improve services, he
7. Clara Barton, an American nurse, whose influence as a (D) Having promised, first, to cut taxes and, second,
reformer in the field of health care almost equals that to improve services, the candidate
of Florence Nightingale. (E) The candidate’s promises were both to cut taxes
and improve services, he
(A) Clara Barton, an American nurse, whose influence
as a reformer 10. The students found fieldwork in the state forest more
(B) Clara Barton, who was an American nurse and exciting and dangerous than any of them had
whose influence as a reformer anticipated, having to be rescued by helicopter during
(C) An American with influence as a nursing a fire.
reformer, Clara Barton
(D) Clara Barton was an American nurse whose (A) anticipated, having to be
influence as a reformer (B) anticipated; when they had to be
(E) An American, Clara Barton who was a nursing (C) anticipated: they had to be
reformer and whose influence (D) anticipated: among which was their
(E) anticipated, and so they had been
8. During the summer months, several thousand people
a day visit the park, which is known for its waterfalls 11. Chinese watercolors have become more popular than
and rock formations. American and European artists who are their
contemporaries.
(A) During the summer months, several thousand
people a day visit the park, which is known (A) American and European artists who are their
for its waterfalls and rock formations. contemporaries
(B) Known for its waterfalls and rock formations, (B) contemporary American and European artists
several thousand people a day visit the park (C) those by contemporary American and European
during the summer months. artists of the period
(C) Several thousand people a day visit the park (D) those of American and European pictures of the
during the summer months known for its same period
waterfalls and rock formations. (E) those by contemporary American and European
(D) Several thousand people had visited the park artists
a day, which is known for its waterfalls and
rock formations during the summer months.
(E) During the summer months, knowing its
waterfalls and rock formations, several thousand
people a day visit the park.
The following sentences test your ability to recognize 15. Both Dorothy Sayers plus Carolyn Heilbrun
grammar and usage errors. Each sentence contains either A
a single error or no error at all. No sentence contains more
than one error. The error, if there is one, is underlined have written scholarly works as well as popular
and lettered. If the sentence contains an error, select the B C
one underlined part that must be changed to make the murder mysteries, demonstrating a diversity of
sentence correct. If the sentence is correct, select choice E.
In choosing answers, follow the requirements of standard D
written English. talents and interests. No error
E
EXAMPLE:

The other delegates and him immediately 16. Although the coach had predicted that the team
A B C A B
accepted the resolution drafted by the would have a winning season, the fans were surprised
D C
neutral states. No error by the success of the young, inexperienced players.
E
D
No error
E
12. By next year the old vaudeville theater had been
A 17. Because they must compete with a large chain of
converted into two small theaters in which films A
B C super-stores that can afford to charge very low rates for
can be shown . No error
D E certain items, the owners of small hardware stores

13. Some scholars studying the writings of Emily Brontë know that you are unlikely to make much profit
A B C
have become increasingly interested in the and may , in fact, go bankrupt. No error
B C D E
relationships between her siblings and she . No error
D E 18. Although science offers the hope of preventing
A
14. At the 1984 Olympic Games, John Moffet and Pablo serious genetic diseases, there is difficult ethical
B
Morales, who were swimmers on the United States questions raised by the possibility of altering human
A B C D
team, set world records . No error heredity. No error
C D E E
19. In the nineteenth century, careers in business and law 23. Obviously , Whistler’s paintings, unlike Klee , are
A B
were prestigious, but it did not require practitioners conventional in their subject matter. No error
A B C C D E
to hold college degrees. No error
D E 24. A newly formed organization of homeowners and

20. Chess players find that playing against a computer business people have met with the transportation
A
is helpful to improve their skills, even though no department to voice its concerns about plans for
A B C B C D
chess-playing computer has yet won a championship. a shopping mall in the community. No error
D E
No error
E 25. Although she considers her chemistry research
A
21. Reaching lengths of twelve inches, banana slugs are complete , she has heeded her professor’s advice
A B B C
the much larger of all the slug species that inhabit and is conducting three additional experiments.
C D D
North America. No error No error
E E

22. Maya Madera proudly wore her sister’s 26. Princeton University officials first broke with
A A
most popular invention, a watch for winter campers a tradition of awarding honorary degrees only
B B
that flashes the temperature in lighted numerals and to men when they awarded it to author Willa
C C D
sends out a loud alarm when pressing a button . Cather. No error
D E
No error
D E
27. His love of politics led him to volunteer in local Directions: The following passage is an early draft of an
A B essay. Some parts of the passage need to be rewritten.
campaigns as well as a job in a government office Read the passage and select the best answers for the
questions that follow. Some questions are about particular
C D
sentences or parts of sentences and ask you to improve
in the state capital. No error sentence structure or word choice. Other questions ask you
E to consider organization and development. In choosing
answers, follow the requirements of standard written
English.
28. Now that Michiko finished the research, she feels
A
Questions 30-35 are based on the following.
reasonably confident about writing her paper
B C (1) A significant problem all across our state is garbage.
on the rise of the progressive movement in the (2) Our landfills are full. (3) It seems that we must either
D find new sites for landfills or employ other methods of
disposal, like incineration. (4) Unfortunately, there are
United States. No error drawbacks to every solution that they think of. (5) Polluted
E runoff water often results from landfills. (6) With
incineration of trash, you get air pollution. (7) People are
criticized for not wanting to live near a polluting waste
29. The condition known as laryngitis usually causes disposal facility, but really, can you blame them?
A (8) Recycling can be an effective solution, but owners of
the vocal cords and surrounding tissue to swell, thus apartment complexes and other businesses complain that
B recycling adds to their expenses. (9) Local governments
enjoy the benefits of taxes collected from business and
preventing the cords to move freely . No error industry. (10) They tend to shy away from pressuring such
C D E heavy contributors to recycle.
(11) Perhaps those of us being concerned should
encourage debate about what other levels of government
can do to solve the problems of waste disposal. (12) We
should make a particular effort to cut down on the
manufacture and use of things that will not decompose
quickly. (13) Certainly we should press individuals,
industries, and all levels of government to take responsible
action while we can still see green grass and trees between
the mountains of waste.

30. Which of the following would fit most logically

between sentences 1 and 2 ?
(A) A sentence citing examples of states that have
used up available landfills
(B) A sentence citing examples of successful
alternatives to landfills
(C) A sentence citing the number of new landfills in
the state
(D) A sentence citing the number of illnesses blamed
on polluted water in the state
(E) A sentence citing the average amount of trash
disposed of annually by each person in the state
31. Which of the following is the best way to phrase the 34. In context, which of the following is the best way to
underlined portion of sentence 4 (reproduced below) ? combine sentences 9 and 10 ?
Unfortunately, there are drawbacks to every solution (A) Local governments enjoy the benefits of taxes
that they think of. collected from business and industry, as they
(A) (as it is now) tend to shy away from pressuring such heavy
(B) that was thought of contributors to recycle.
(C) that they have previously come up with (B) Because local governments enjoy the benefits of
(D) to which there are proposals taxes collected from business and industry, they
(E) that has been proposed tend to shy away from pressuring such heavy
contributors to recycle.
(C) However, local governments enjoy the benefits of
32. Which of the following is the best way to revise and
taxes collected from business and industry, they
combine sentences 5 and 6 (reproduced below) ?
tend to shy away from pressuring such heavy
Polluted runoff water often results from landfills. With contributors to recycle.
incineration of trash, you get air pollution. (D) In addition to enjoying the benefits of taxes
collected from business and industry, local
(A) With landfills, polluted runoff water will result,
governments tend to shy away from pressuring
and whereas with incineration of trash, you get
business and industry into recycling.
air pollution.
(E) Local governments, enjoying the benefits of taxes
(B) While on the one hand are landfills and polluted
collected from business and industry, they tend
runoff water, on the other hand you have air
to shy away from pressure to recycle.
pollution in the case of incineration of trash.
(C) Landfills often produce polluted runoff water, and
35. Which of the following is the best phrasing for
trash incineration creates air pollution.
the underlined portion of sentence 11 (reproduced
(D) Landfills and incineration that produce water and
below) ?
air pollution.
(E) Runoff water is from new landfills; from Perhaps those of us being concerned should encourage
incineration of trash, there is air pollution. debate about what other levels of government can do to
solve the problems of waste disposal.
33. If sentence 8 were rewritten to begin with the clause
(A) (as it is now)
“Although recycling can be an effective solution,” the
(B) those of us who are concerned
next words would most logically be
(C) those concerned ones of us
(A) and owners of apartment complexes and other (D) we, being among those who are concerned,
businesses complain (E) we who are those being concerned
(B) yet owners of apartment complexes and other
businesses complain
(C) owners of apartment complexes and other
businesses complain
(D) mostly owners of apartment complexes and other
businesses are complaining
(E) owners of apartment complexes and other
business complained

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
 SECTION 8
Time — 20 minutes
19 Questions

Turn to Section 8 (page 7) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.

3. The serious purpose of the paper-airplane flying

Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank contest, which attracted many novel and sometimes
indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath truly ------- entries, was to determine whether any
the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A ------- aerodynamic designs could be discovered.
through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when
inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the (A) unorthodox . . conventional
sentence as a whole. (B) bizarre . . revolutionary
(C) derivative . . imaginative
Example: (D) mundane . . predictable
Hoping to ------- the dispute, negotiators proposed (E) ungainly . . aesthetic
a compromise that they felt would be ------- to both
labor and management. 4. Carson presents her case so strongly and logically
that only the prejudiced or the ------- will attempt to
(A) enforce . . useful ------- her.
(B) end . . divisive
(C) overcome . . unattractive (A) impartial . . defy
(D) extend . . satisfactory (B) doubtful . . champion
(E) resolve . . acceptable (C) gullible . . believe
(D) obstinate . . contradict
(E) irrational . . follow
1. Most pioneers ------- this valley on their journey to the
West because its rugged terrain and frequent landslides 5. Over the years the anthropologist’s opinions had
made it a ------- place for travelers. -------: he refused to tolerate new ideas and nothing
could change his mind.
(A) flanked . . fascinating
(B) avoided . . necessary (A) digressed (B) proliferated (C) ossified
(C) encompassed . . curious (D) germinated (E) incubated
(D) enjoyed . . troublesome
(E) skirted . . hazardous 6. As the first ------- of the political campaign, the
senator unleashed a spirited verbal attack on her
2. Ballads often praise popular figures who have leading opponent.
performed feats that many perceive as -------, such as
defending the poor or resisting ------- authority. (A) salvo (B) encore (C) palliative
(D) concession (E) demurral
(A) modest . . acceptable
(B) inescapable . . legitimate
(C) insufficient . . overpowering
(D) admirable . . unjust
(E) unbelievable . . tolerable
 The two passages below are followed by questions based on their content and on the relationship between the two passages.
Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passages and in any introductory material that may be
provided.

Questions 7-19 are based on the following passages. By the time the show became popular, the Endowment had
vanished from the credits, its job done.
The following passages are taken from testimony given 40 When you’re starting out, it seems like nobody wants
before congressional committees about how government to give you a dime, and then, when you have big success
funding affects the arts. The author of the first passage is and have everything you could ever want, people can’t do
a writer and radio entertainer; the author of the second enough for you. The Endowment is there at the beginning,
passage is a novelist and critic. and that’s the beauty of it.
Passage 2
Passage 1
45 I love my country’s government for its attempt in a pre-
All governments have honored artists when they are carious world to sustain a peaceful order in which work can
old and saintly and successful and almost dead, but twenty- be done and happiness can be pursued, not for the good of
five years ago Congress decided to boldly and blindly the state, but in a state that exists for our good.
Line support the arts—support the act of creation itself— and I love my government not least for the extent to which
5 to encourage artists who are young and dangerous and 50 it leaves me alone. My personal ambition has been simply
unknown and very much alive. This courageous legislation to live by the work of my pen. This is not a very fastidious
has changed American life. ambition. If I were aware of large amounts of federal money
Forty years ago, if American men or women meant to available to purveyors of the written word, I would attempt
have artistic careers, they got on the train to New York. to gain access to it and hope to please the administrators of
10 Today, you can be a violinist in North Carolina, a writer in 55 this fund as I hope to please magazine editors and book
Iowa, a painter in Utah. This is a small and lovely revolu- buyers.
tion that the National Endowment for the Arts (NEA) has But I would rather have as my patron a host of anony-
helped to bring about. The Endowment has fostered thou- mous citizens digging into their own pockets for the price
sands of artistic works—many of which will outlive you of a book or a magazine than a small body of enlightened
15 and me—but even more important, the Endowment has 60 and responsible people administering public funds. I would
changed how we think about the arts. Today, no American rather chance my personal vision of the truth striking home
family can be secure against the danger that one of its chil- here and there in the chaos of publication that exists than
dren may decide to become an artist. attempt to filter it through a few sets of official, honorable,
I grew up in a family that never attended concerts or and public-spirited scrutinizers.
20 museums, never bought books. I never imagined that a 65 The realms of scientific research are now inextricably
person could be a writer. involved with government funding. Can we fear that the
Twice in my life, at crucial times, grants from the humanities might become similarly dependent? If I try to
Endowment made it possible for me to be a writer. The think of who in the last century has most brilliantly illumi-
first, in 1969, arrived when I was young, broke, married nated our sense of humanity, which I take to be the end
25 with a baby, living on very little cash and a big vegetable 70 purpose of the humanities, I think of Freud and Kafka, of
garden. I was writing for The New Yorker at the time, but Proust and Joyce, of Whitman, of Henry James. I wonder
they weren’t aware of it. I wrote every morning and every how many of these brave, strange, stubborn spirits would
night. I often had fantasies of finding a patron— a beggar have wanted subsidies from their governments.
would appear at my door, I’d give him an egg salad sand- How can public-salaried officials not think in terms of
30 wich, and suddenly he’d turn into a man in a pinstripe suit, 75 respectability, of social optimism, of broad and uncontro-
Prince Bob from a philanthropic foundation. But instead, I versial appeal? How can legislators, asked to vote tax money
got a letter offering me a job for one month in the Writers away, not begin to think of guidelines that insidiously edge
in the Schools program in Minneapolis, funded by the toward censorship?
NEA, which sent young writers into the schools to read If government money becomes an increasingly impor-
35 and teach. 80 tant presence in the financing of the humanities, is there
In 1974 a grant from the NEA enabled me and my col- a danger, I respectfully ask, of humanists becoming
leagues at a public radio station to start a new radio series. politicians?
7. The argument in Passage 1 is supported primarily by 12. Lines 40-43 (“When . . . for you”) suggest that the
author of Passage 1 would agree with which of the
(A) a theory of how art is created
following observations?
(B) the author’s personal experiences
(C) examples of renowned artists (A) Those who never succeed value success most.
(D) evidence of the harmful effects of arts funding (B) The love of money is the root of all evil.
(E) emotional appeals to uphold the rights of citizens (C) Nothing succeeds like success.
(D) Make a virtue of necessity.
8. Which is a likely response by the author of Passage 2 (E) Time is money.
to the description of artists as “dangerous” (line 5) in
Passage 1 ? 13. The author of Passage 2 would most likely criticize the
author of Passage 1 on the grounds that
(A) Practical concerns rarely prevent artists from
speaking out on controversial issues. (A) humor detracts from the seriousness of the issue
(B) Artists should not be permitted to undermine the being discussed
values of their society. (B) public funding is often given to artists who do not
(C) Artists will cease taking risks if they come to need it
depend on government money. (C) it is invalid to assume that artists can also be
(D) The future of the arts in the United States depends teachers
on whether young artists can continue to shock (D) taxes will be too high if the government supports
the public. the arts
(E) Experienced artists know better how to excite the (E) public funding is just as likely to inhibit artists as
public than do young artists. it is to encourage them

9. In lines 10-11, Passage 1, the author refers to North 14. In line 57, Passage 2, “host” most nearly means
Carolina, Iowa, and Utah to
(A) large number
(A) prove that certain environments support creativity (B) sustaining organism
better than others (C) provider
(B) support the argument by mentioning how few (D) proprietor
exceptions there are to it (E) sponsor
(C) show that opportunities for artistic success are now
widely available 15. The question in lines 66-67 suggests that the author
(D) suggest that legislators should listen to their of Passage 2 believes that federal funding of scientific
constituents research
(E) offer a parallel between arts funding and democracy
(A) encourages deceit
(B) undermines autonomy
10. The statement in lines 16-18, Passage 1 (“Today . . .
(C) encourages an unhealthy competitiveness
artist”) is best described as an example of
(D) develops a superficial sense of loyalty
(A) an ironic comment (E) spends public money under false pretenses
(B) an emotional plea
(C) a moral pronouncement 16. The author of Passage 2 most likely thinks that the
(D) a definition of a key concept individuals named in lines 70 -71 would have
(E) a generalization supported by research
(A) supported the idea of providing artists with
government funding
11. The “man in a pinstripe suit” (line 30, Passage 1) is
(B) avoided writing about controversial topics if
(A) a fastidious bureaucrat doing so brought them more funding
(B) a character in a novel (C) been even more influential if they had received
(C) a famous writer government funding
(D) an anonymous critic (D) embraced the romantic image of the starving
(E) an imagined benefactor artist
(E) refused to submit their creativity to outside
control
17. The final sentence of Passage 2 serves to 19. Which of the following situations would support the
position taken in Passage 1 and provide examples
(A) emphasize the moral dilemmas that artists face
contrary to the argument in Passage 2 ?
when selling their work
(B) indicate why artists are so often in need of finan- I. A federally sponsored photographer displayed an
cial support innovative collection of photographs that offended
(C) suggest that the public should not have to subsidize both the sponsor and a large segment of the public.
the art preferred by bureaucrats II. The most original works of a certain brilliant
(D) warn of the likelihood of artistic compromise composer were those commissioned by kings.
(E) link arts funding in the United States with other III. A theatrical troupe from Harlem achieved promi-
social programs nence by drawing large audiences from its local
community.
18. Which of the following is an assumption in Passage 2
(A) I only
that the author of Passage 1 would most likely question?
(B) III only
(A) Public funding of the arts increases the danger of (C) I and II only
censorship. (D) II and III only
(B) Artistic creation should not involve taking finan- (E) I, II, and III
cial risks.
(C) Artists appreciate financial support more if they
earn it after suffering hardships.
(D) Administrators of arts funding have higher artistic
standards than the general public.
(E) Democracy is conducive to artistic self-expression.

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
 SECTION 9
Time — 20 minutes
16 Questions

Turn to Section 9 (page 7 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet. You may use any available space for scratchwork.

1. A community college charges an activity fee of $4.00

per student and has a student body of 8,200 students.
If every student pays the fee, what is the total amount
in activity fees collected from the students?
(A) $32.80
(B) $328.00
(C) $3,280.00
(D) $32,800.00
2. In the figure above, OA ^ OC and OB ^ OD.
(E) $328,000.00
If x = 35, what is the value of z ?
(A) 55
(B) 45
(C) 35
(D) 30
(E) 25
 COMMON NAIL SIZES 4. In a sequence of numbers, the first number is 2 and
each number after the first is 2 more than 3 times the
Length preceding number. What is the fourth number in the
Size in Inches sequence?
2d 1 (A) 14
1 (B) 17
3d 1
4 (C) 38
1 (D) 80
4d 1 (E) 242
2
1
8d 2
2
10d 3

3. Some common nail sizes and their corresponding

lengths are shown in the table above. If nail sizes
from 2d up to 10d increase by a constant length for
each increase of 1d in size, what would be the length,
in inches, of a 6d nail?
1
(A) 2
4
1
(B) 2
8
(C) 2
7
(D) 1
8
3 5. If x = 3 y and y = 4z, what is x in terms of z ?
(E) 1
4 3
(A) z
4
(B) z
4
(C) z
3
(D) 7z

(E) 12 z
 2F m mI
6. If the average (arithmetic mean) of 5 and r is 7 and the 7. If m > 0, then m − =
Hm mK
average of 3 and s is 3, what is the average of r and s ?
(A) 3 (A) 0
(B) 5 (B) 1
(C) 6 (C) m
(D) 9 2
(D) m −1
(E) 12 2
(E) m
Questions 8-9 refer to the following figures and
LENGTH OF A YOUNG SNAKE
information.
Age 2 3 4 5 6
(in months)
Length 4 9 11 12 12.5
(in centimeters)

10. Which of the following graphs best represents the

information in the table above?
(A) (B)

The figure on the left is called an ell. The lengths of

some of its sides are given, and all the angles are right
angles. For any positive integer n, an n-ell is the figure
formed by positioning n ells adjacent to each other as
shown in the 3-ell on the right.

8. What is the perimeter of the 3-ell?

(A) 18
(B) 21
(C) (D)
(C) 24
(D) 27
(E) 30

(E)
9. The perimeter of an 80-ell is 326 and the perimeter of a
20-ell is 86. What is the perimeter of a 100-ell?
(A) 406
(B) 409
(C) 412
(D) 416
(E) 430
 1. Add 3y to 2x. 13. During a one-cent sale, a shopper pays the regular
2. Multiply the sum by 2. price for a bottle of vegetable oil and pays $0.01 for
3. Subtract x − 2 y from the product. a second bottle. If the regular price of the vegetable
oil is $1.89, how much per bottle does the shopper
11. If the steps above are followed in order, which of the save by buying two bottles at this sale?
following is a simplified expression for the result? (A) $0.01
(A) − 4 y + 3 x (B) $0.94
(B) y + 3x (C) $0.95
(D) $0.96
(C) 4 y + 5 x
(E) $1.89
(D) 5 y + 3 x
(E) 8 y + 3 x

r +t 5 r
14. If = , what is the value of ?
r −t 2 t
7
(A) −
12. If k is a positive integer, which of the following is 3
equivalent to 3k + 3k ? (B) −1
k
(A) 2 ⴢ 3 3
(C)
(B) 3 2k 7

(C) 6 k (D) 1

(D) 6 2 k (E)
7
2k 3
(E) 9
15. A right circular cylinder has a base of circumference 16. In the xy-coordinate plane, the graph of y = - x 2 + 9
8p . If the volume of the cylinder is 128p , what is the intersects line
at ( p, 5) and (t , - 7) . What is the
height?
least possible value of the slope of
?
(A) 4
(B) 8 (A) 6
(C) 12 (B) 2
(D) 16 (C) - 2
(E) 32
(D) - 6
(E) -10

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.
 SECTION 10
Time — 10 minutes
14 Questions

Turn to Section 10 (page 7) of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding
circle on the answer sheet.

2. Hawaii’s Haleakala, being more than 10,000 feet high,

The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness and the world’s largest dormant volcano.
of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence
is underlined; beneath each sentence are five ways of (A) Haleakala, being more than 10,000 feet high and
phrasing the underlined material. Choice A repeats the (B) Haleakala, more than 10,000 feet high, it is
original phrasing; the other four choices are different. If (C) Haleakala which is more than 10,000 feet high,
you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence being
than any of the alternatives, select choice A; if not, select (D) Haleakala, more than 10,000 feet high, is
one of the other choices. (E) Haleakala, more than 10,000 feet high; it is
In making your selection, follow the requirements of
standard written English; that is, pay attention to grammar, 3. I do not blame Leslie for her anger yesterday, being it
choice of words, sentence construction, and punctuation. was her plan and she should have credit for it.
Your selection should result in the most effective (A) yesterday, being it was her plan and she should
sentence—clear and precise, without awkwardness or have credit for it
ambiguity. (B) yesterday, being that she should have credit for it
when it was her plan
EXAMPLE: (C) yesterday when it was her plan, for which they
Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book should give her credit for it
and she was sixty-five years old then. (D) yesterday; since she should receive credit, it being
her plan
(A) and she was sixty-five years old then (E) yesterday: it was her plan, and she should have
(B) when she was sixty-five received credit for it
(C) at age sixty-five years old
(D) upon the reaching of sixty-five years 4. At the time at which temperatures approach absolute
(E) at the time when she was sixty-five zero, or -459.7° F, metals become highly conductive,
and their volume shrinks dramatically.
(A) At the time at which temperatures approach
1. In their zeal to make beachfront living widely (B) When temperatures approach
available, developers have overbuilt, thereby they (C) Since temperatures approached
endanger fragile coastlines. (D) At the point temperatures had approached
(A) overbuilt, thereby they endanger fragile coastlines (E) While temperatures approaching
(B) overbuilt they endanger fragile coastlines as a
result 5. Participants in the executive leadership workshop
(C) overbuilt and thereby have endangered fragile expect a program of outstanding speakers and gaining
coastlines information about new approaches to management.
(D) overbuilt; fragile coastlines endangered thereby (A) and gaining information
(E) overbuilt, the fragile coastlines are endangered (B) as well as information
by this (C) as well as being informed
(D) and also being informed
(E) in addition, they expect to gain information
6. One of the unforeseen consequences of the editor’s 10. After 1907, residents of the Omaha Reservation could
management style is that it leaves so little room for use the hospital in Walthill, Nebraska, it was
innovation. established by Dr. Susan LaFlesche Picotte, an Omaha
Indian.
(A) that it leaves so little room for innovation
(B) that they leave so little room for innovation (A) hospital in Walthill, Nebraska, it was established
(C) that sufficient room is not left for their innovation by Dr. Susan LaFlesche Picotte, an Omaha
(D) that innovation has so little room left from it Indian
(E) to leave so little room for innovation (B) hospital; it was in Walthill, Nebraska and
established by Dr. Susan LaFlesche Picotte, an
7. For decades, African American music has inspired Omaha Indian
musicians throughout the world, including in Russia. (C) hospital that has been established by Dr. Susan
(A) including in Russia LaFlesche Picotte, an Omaha Indian, in Walthill,
(B) including those of Russia Nebraska
(C) this includes Russia (D) Walthill, Nebraska, hospital where an Omaha
(D) one of which is Russia Indian, Dr. Susan LaFlesche Picotte, established
(E) one example being Russia it
(E) hospital established in Walthill, Nebraska, by Dr.
8. By the end of the eighteenth century, watchmaking Susan LaFlesche Picotte, an Omaha Indian
technology had greatly improved, and they were
standard equipment for military personnel. 11. Eating food that has a high concentration of fat causes
essentially the same reaction in the stomach than if you
(A) and they were standard equipment for military eat too fast.
personnel
(B) so it was standard equipment for military (A) than if you eat
personnel to have watches (B) than to eat
(C) with watches included in the standard equipment (C) as if one eats
for military personnel (D) as eating
(D) and watches had become standard equipment for (E) as it does when eating
military personnel
(E) and for military personnel it was standard 12. Not one of the students in the advanced chemistry class
equipment have passed a single test with a grade better than a C,
but the second half of the course will be easier.
9. Nancy and Carlos will represent Central High in (A) have passed a single test with a grade better than a
the swimming competition, their work in this having
C
been excellent this year.
(B) have managed to pass a single test with better than
(A) competition, their work in this having been a C grade
excellent this year (C) have passed a single test any better than
(B) competition, they have done excellent work a grade of C
this year in this (D) has passed having better than a C grade on
(C) competition, for this year they have done a single test
excellent work in this (E) has passed a single test with better than
(D) competition, for their swimming has been a C grade
excellent this year
(E) competition, their work as swimmers having
been excellent this year
13. In neighborhoods throughout the United States, one 14. A flurry of do-it-yourself books on the market today
can encounter hundreds of different rope-jumping are inspiring homeowners to do their own repairs.
games, each with its own rules.
(A) are inspiring homeowners to do their own repairs
(A) each with its own rules (B) are inspiring to homeowners about their own
(B) each having their own rules repairs
(C) when they each have their own rules (C) is inspiring homeowners into doing their own
(D) which has its own rules repairing
(E) they each have rules of their own (D) is inspiring homeowners to do their own repairs
(E) inspiring homeowners to repair their own homes

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.