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Đề thi gồm có 06 trang) : answer. (5 pts)

The document is a test for high school students on English proficiency. It contains four parts: Listening, Phonetics, Vocabulary and Grammar, and Reading Comprehension. The Listening section contains passages and questions to test comprehension. The Phonetics section contains word pronunciation exercises. The Vocabulary and Grammar section contains exercises on vocabulary, grammar, and correcting errors. The Reading Comprehension section contains passages and questions to test reading ability.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
252 views10 pages

Đề thi gồm có 06 trang) : answer. (5 pts)

The document is a test for high school students on English proficiency. It contains four parts: Listening, Phonetics, Vocabulary and Grammar, and Reading Comprehension. The Listening section contains passages and questions to test comprehension. The Phonetics section contains word pronunciation exercises. The Vocabulary and Grammar section contains exercises on vocabulary, grammar, and correcting errors. The Reading Comprehension section contains passages and questions to test reading ability.

Uploaded by

Thanh Hằng
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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PHÒNG GD&ĐT ĐÔNG SƠN ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG ĐỘI TUYỂN

TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN CHÍCH HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 (LẦN 1)


NĂM HỌC: 2018 - 2019
ĐỀ CHÍNH Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút
(Đề thi gồm có 06 trang)

PART A: LISTENING (15 pts)


Part I. Complete the extract below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each
answer. (5 pts)
AMBASSADOR HOTEL
Registration Card
Name of the customer: (1)_____________________
Passport No.: (2)_____________________________
Number of customers: (3)_______________________
Room No.: (4)_______________________________
Luggage: Two (5)_______________________and one bag.

Part II. You will hear a college lecturer being interviewed about the subject of her new book. Listen and
decide whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F). (5 pts)
6. Pat’s book has already been published for 3 months. T/F
7. Pat thinks girls do not benefit in mixed-sex schools. T/F
8. According to Pat’s book, boys always keep quite when a girl is speaking in the classroon. T/F
9. Pat thinks boys not only dominate the classroom verbally, but physically as well. T/F
10. The so-called “normal” behaviour is men dominate women. T/F

Part III. Listen to the passage and choose the best answer according to what you hear. (5 pts)
11. They’ve known each other for________ .
A. 25 years B. 35 years C. 45 years D. 55 years
12. They became friends because they__________.             
A. went to a different school B. lived in the same city
C. went to the same school D. lived next door to each other
13. They lost contact with each other when one of them___________.
A. moved to England B. moved to Scotland
C. changed his school D. changed his house
14. They've been living here in Brighton since_________.          
A. 1998 B. 1990 C. 1995 D. 1999
15. They did not see each other_________.
A. in the park B. at lunch time C. at James’ wedding D. in the pub
PART B: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.
16. A. advance B. advent C. advice D. adjustment
17. A. obey B. pray C. prayer D. delay
II. Choose the word whose stress is different.
18. A. computer B. obvious C. dependence D. horizon
19. A. convenient B. favorable C. evaluate D. relationship
20. A. obstacle B. intolerable C. possess D. secure
PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (35 pts)
Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
21. His laziness resulted _______ his failure in the final exam.
A. from B. in C. by D. of
22. Sally speaks _______ French. She even can't use her French to ask for directions.
A. few B. a few C. little D. a little
23. Jack: Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?
Jean: _______.
A. No, thanks B. Sorry, the seat is taken
C. Yes, yes. You can sit here D. Yes, I am so glad
24. In most _______ developed countries, up to 50% of _______ population enters higher education at
some time in their lives.
A. the/ x B. the/ the C. x/ x D. x/ the
25. I am not able to go anywhere this weekend because I am up to my _______ in work.
A. eyes B. ears C. head D. face
26. We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are _______.
A. out of work B. out of stock C. out of practice D. out of reach
27. I couldn’t use the pay phone,______I didn’t have any coins with me.
A. yet B. despite C. for D. even though
28. Be careful with your gun! You may _______ somebody.
A. ache B. wound C. hurt D. injure
29. This is a picture of a _______ bus.
A. London red bright B. red bright London
C. bright red London D. London bright red
30. Samuel Clemens,__________under the pen name Mark Twain, created characters that reflected
purely American traits and habits.
A. wrote B. who wrote C. and he wrote D. he wrote

Question II: The passage below contains 7 mistakes( from 31 to 37). Recognise the mistakes and write
their correct forms in your answer sheet. (7 pts)

A table describes the literacy rates of the population in different parts of the country of Fancy from 31

1998 to 2007. As can be seen, they varied considerable between 1998 and 2007. In the Lowlands, 32

there was a gradual raise in the amount of both males and females who were literate. In contrast, 33
the literacy rate in the Midlands declined steadily in both the number of males and females. At the 34

Highlands, the trend for literacy rate was  different with the other regions. While the number of 35

literate males  went up sharply between 1998 and 2007, the amount of literate females fell 36

dramatically. This data may to help the researchers or planners make suitable plans for educational 37

development in each area of the country.

Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (6 pts)
38. It is vitally important that the order (cancel) ________ immediately.
39. He took a risk investing money with them. I’d rather he (not do) ________ it.
40. The girl got a lot of trouble. She (not tell) _________ a lie.
41. He really didn’t expect (introduce)_________ to the president.
42. I don’t know why you always (talk)___________ in class, boys.
43. __________(read) the instruction, he snatched up the fire extinguisher.

Question IV: Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (7 pts)

44. The Mesenger Call Service helps you to ______ the recipient of the time and place to receive the call.
(NOTE)

45. Solar energy, wind power and water power are _____sources of energy. (ALTERNATE)

46. I forgot to renew my________in the sailing club. (MEMBER)

47. In Western countries, electricity, gas, and water are not luxuries but _______ . (NECESSARY)

48. List the problems facing poor and _________ countries. (POPULATE)

49. Seven_________countries have arrangements to deliver EMS items. (ADD)


50.Petroleum is the most ________used energy source, supplying about 40% of the planet’s energy.
(COMMON)

PART D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)


Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space.
(10 pts)
To many people, their friends are the most important in their life. Really good friends always (51)
_____ joys and sorrows with you and never turn their (52) ______ on you. Your best friend maybe someone
you have known all your life or someone you have grown (53) _____ with.
There are all sorts of things that can (54) _______ about this special relationship. It maybe the (55)
______ of enjoying the same activities and sharing (56) ______. Most of us have met someone that we have
immediately felt relaxed with as if we (57) ______ them for ages. However, it really (58) ______ you years
to get to know someone well (59) ______ to condiser your best friend.
To the majority of us, this is someone we trust completely and (60) _______ understands us better
than anyone else. It's the person you can tell him or her your most intimate secrets.
51. A. have B. give C. spend D. share
52. A. hands B. legs C. backs D. heads
53. A. up B. in C. through D. on
54. A. bring B. cause C. provide D. result
55. A. problem B. result C. solution D. event
56. posessions B. savings C. personality D. experiences
57. A. know B. knew C. have known D. had known
58. A. spends B. takes C. reaches D. controls
59. A. enough B. too C. such D. so
60. A. who B. whose C. whom D. which
Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts)

The birthday cake is traditionally highly decorated,and typically covered (61) ______ lit candles when
presented; the number of candles often equals the( 62) ________ of the person.The person (63) _______
birthday it is makes a silent wish and then (64) ____out the candles;if done in one breath,the wish is
supposed to come (65) ______,but only if the person keeps the wish to himself(or herself). It is also
common for the "birthday boy" or" birthday girl" to cut the initial (66) ______ of the cake as a newlywed
cuple might with a wedding cake.Birthday cakes have been a tradition dating back as (67) _______ as the
Middle Ages when the English would conceal symbolic items (68) _______ as gold coins,rings and thimbles
inside their cakes.Each item was associated with a prediction.For example, a person (69) _______a gold
coin in a birthday cake would supposedly (70) _______ wealthy. 
Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10 pts)
Ranked as the number one beverage consumed worldwide, tea takes the lead over coffee in both
popularity and production with more than 5 million metric tons of tea produced annually. Although much of
this tea is consumed in Asian, European, and African countries, the United States drinks its fair share.
According to estimates by the Tea Council of the United States, tea is enjoyed by no less than half of the
U.S. population on any given day. Black tea or green tea – iced, spiced, or instant – tea drinking has spurred
a billion-dollar business with major tea producers in Africa and South America and throughout Asia.
Tea is made from the leaves of an evergreen plant, Camellia sinensis, which grows tall and lush in
tropical regions. On tea plantation, the plant is kept trimmed to approximately four feet high and as new
buds called flush appear, they are plucked off by hand. Even in today’s world of modern agricultural
machinery, hand harvesting continues to be the preferred method. Ideally, only the top two leaves and a bud
should be picked. This new growth produces the highest quality tea.
After being harvested, tea leaves are laid out on long drying racks, called withering racks, for 18 to
20 hours. During this process, the tea softens and becomes limp. Next, depending on the type of tea being
produced, the leaves may be crushed or chopped to release flavor, and then fermented under controlled
conditions of heat and humidity. For green tea, the whole leaves are often steamed to retain their green color,
and the fermentation process is skipped. Producing black teas requires fermentation during which the tea
leaves begin to darken. After fermentation, black tea is dried in vats to produce its rich brown or black color.
No one knows when or how tea became popular, but legend has it that tea as a beverage was discovered in
2737 B.C. by Emperor Shen Nung of China when leaves from a Camellia dropped into his drinking water as
it was boiling over a fire. As the story goes, Emperor Shen Nung drank the resulting liquid and proclaimed
the drink to be most nourishing and refreshing. Though this account cannot be documented, it is thought that
tea drinking probably originated in China and spread to other parts of Asia, then to Europe, and ultimately to
America colonies around 1650.
With about half the caffeine content as coffee, tea is often chosen by those who want to reduce, but
not necessarily eliminate their caffeine intake. Some people find that tea is less acidic than coffee and
therefore easier on the stomach. Others have become interested in tea drinking since the National Cancer
Institute published its findings on the antioxidant properties of tea. But whether tea is enjoyed for its
perceived health benefits, its flavor, or as a social drink, teacups continue to be filled daily with the world’s
most popular beverage.
71.Why does the author include statistics on the amount of tea produced, sold, and consumed?
A. To demonstrate tea’s popularity
B. To show the expense of processing such a large quantity of tea
C. To explain why coffee is not the most popular beverage worldwide
D. To impress the reader with factual sounding information
72. Based on the passage, what is implied about tea harvesting?
A. It is totally done with the assistance of modern agricultural machinery.
B. The method has remained nearly the same for a long time.
C. It is no longer done in China
D. The method involves trimming the uppermost branches of the plant.
73.What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 of the passage refer to_____?
A. new buds B. tropical regions C. tea pickersD. evergreen plants
74. Which of the following is NOT true about the tea production process?
A. Black tea goes through two drying phases during production.
B. Black tea develops its dark color during fermentation and final drying.
C. Green tea requires a long fermentation process.
D. Green tea is often steamed to keep its color
75. The word “documented” in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by which of the following word?
A. kept B. proved C. stored D. ignored
76. According to the passage, what is true about the origin of tea drinking?
A. It began during the Shen Nung dynasty
B. It may have begun some time around 1650
C. It is unknown when tea first became popular.
D. It was originally produced from Camillia plants in Europe.
77. The word “eliminate” in paragraph 5 could be best replaced by which of the following word?
A. increase B. reduce C. decrease D. remove
78. According to the passage, which may be the reason why someone would choose to drink tea instead of
coffee?
A. Because it’s easier to digest than coffee
B. Because it has a higher nutritional content than coffee
C. Because it helps prevent cancer
D. Because it has more caffeine than coffee
79. Where in the passage does the author mention research conducted on the beneficial effects of tea
drinking?
A. In paragraph 4 B. In paragraph 2
C. In paragraph 1 D. In paragraph 5
80. What best describes the topic of this passage?
A. The two most popular types of tea B. How tea is produced and brewed
C. The benefits of tea consumption worldwide D. Tea consumption and production

PART D: WRITING (20 pts)


Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
81. Under no circumstances should you phone the police.
The last __________________________________________________________________
82. Although the fish appears to be harmless, it is quite dangerous.
Contrary__________________________________________________________________
83. While I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, I will help you this time.
Despite___________________________________________________________________
84. You won’t reach the station in less than twenty minutes.
It will take ________________________________________________________________
85. It is thought that the accident was caused by the human error.
The accident_______________________________________________________________

Question II: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it. Do not change the form of the given word. (5 pts)

86. Dickens’ last novel was unfinished when he died. (WITHOUT)

________________________________________________________________________
87. John was not surprised to hear that he had failed his driving test. (CAME)
_________________________________________________________________________________
88. You can avoid tooth decay by brushing your teeth regularly. (PREVENT)
_________________________________________________________________________________
89. I’m telling you this for you not to make a mistake. (FEAR)
_______________________________________________________________________________
90. She has extensive knowledge of ancient Egypt. (KNOWLEDGEABLE)

Question III: (10pts) “Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Television has
destroyed communication among friends and family.” In 150 words, write a paragraph, using reasons
and specific examples to support your opinions.

- THE END -
KEYS
PART A: LISTENING (15 pts)
Part I. Complete the extract below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORD OR A NUMBER for
each answer. (5 pts)
1. Reade 2. JDA 2151623 3. 1/ one 4. 1201 5. suitcases

Part II. You will hear a college lecture being interviewed about the subject of her new book sister.
Listen and decide whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F). (5 pts)
6. F 7. T 8. F 9. T 10.T

Part III. Listen to the passage and choose the best answer according to what you hear. (5 pts)
11. A 12. D 13. B 14.A 15.C
PART B: Phonetics
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.
16. B 17.C
II. Choose the word whose stress is different.
18. B 19.D 20. A

PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (35 pts)


Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
- Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm.
21. B 22. C 23. B 24. D 25.B
26. B 27. C 28. B 29. C 30. B

Question II: The passage below contains 7 mistakes( from 26 to 32). Recognise the mistakes
and write their correct forms in your answer sheet. (7 pts)
31. A => The 32. considerable => considerably 33. raise=> rise
34. At => In 35.with => from 36. amount => number
37. to help => help

Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
38. (should) be cancelled
39. hadn’t done
40. shouldn’t have told
41. to be introduced
42. are always talking
43. being told
Question IV: Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (8 pts)
44. notify
45. alternative
46. membership
47. necessities
48. overpopulated
49. additional
50. commonly
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for
each space. (10 pts)
- Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm.
51. D 52. C 53. A 54. A 55. B
56. D 57. D 58. B 59. A 60. A

Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts

61. with 62. age 63. whose 64. blows 65. true
66. piece 67. far 68. such 69. finding 70. become
Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10 pts)
71. B 72. B 73. C 74. C 75. A
76. A 77. A 78. D 79. B 80. D

PART D: WRITING (20 pts)


Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
81.The last thing you should is (to) call the police.
82. Contrary to its harmless appearance, the fish is quite dangerous.
83. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior/ the fact that I strongly disapprove of your
behavior, I will help you this time.
84. It will take you at least 20 minutes to reach the station.
85. The accident is thought to have been caused by human error.

Question II: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible
in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Do not change the form of the given word. (5 pts)
86. Dickens died without finishing his last novel.
87. It came as no surprise to John to hear that he had failed his driving test.
88. Brushing your teeth regularly can prevent tooth decay.
89. I’m telling you this for fear that you might make a mistake.
90. She is very knowledgeable about ancient Egypt.
Question III: (10pts) “Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Television has
destroyed communication among friends and family.” In 150 words, write a paragraph, using
reasons and specific examples to support your opinions.
POINTS
- Completion 2 ps (if unfinished, grant 1 p)
- Contents:
+ Persuasiveness 3 ps
+ Accuracy (grammar, expressions, 4 ps (subtract 0.25 point for each mistake)
spelling…)
+ Length (120 – 150 ws) 1p
- Cách quy đổi điểm bài thi về thang điểm 20:
Tổng số câu đúng
Điểm bài thi = 5

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