Rs.

25

VISION IAS
PT 2021
Test - 2 (3179)
(Working of Indian Constitution)

PTO for Syllabus

 SYLLABUS

▪ Central Government: President, Vice President, Prime minister,

Central Council of Ministers, Parliament
▪ State Government: Governor, Chief Minister, State Council of
Ministers, State Legislature
▪ Indian Federalism and Centre-State Relations
▪ Local Government: Panchayati Raj, Local Urban Government
▪ Judiciary: Supreme Court, High Courts, Subordinate Courts
▪ Elections
+ Current Affairs (May 2020)

REFERENCES

▪ 11th NCERT: Indian Constitution at Work

▪ Indian Polity by M Laxmikanth
1. Consider the following statements with 4. Consider the following statements regarding
regard to the State Council of Ministers: Union Ministers:
1. The constitution specifies the size of the 1. A person cannot become a minister
state council of ministers and the without being a Member of Parliament
ranking of ministers. (MP).
2. The advice tendered by the ministers to 2. The salaries and allowances of ministers
the Governor shall not be inquired into are mentioned in the Constitution.
in any court. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Consider the following statements with

2. Consider the following statements with
regard to Vice-President’s role as Chairman
reference to Public Accounts Committee:
of the Rajya Sabha:
1. The committee was set up under the
provisions of Government of India Act 1. He is the final authority on the
1919. interpretation of the Constitution and the
2. Speaker is the ex- officio chairman of Rules of Procedure for all house-related
the committee matters.
3. A minister cannot be a member of the 2. His rulings constitute precedents which
committee. are of a binding nature.
Which of the statements given above 3. He determines whether a Rajya Sabha
is/are not correct? member stands to be disqualified on
(a) 1 only grounds of defection.
(b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 1 and 2 only correct?
(d) 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. Consider the following statements with (c) 1 and 3 only
reference to the Supreme Court of India: (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The advice of the Supreme Court on any
dispute arising out of any pre- 6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha derives
constitutional treaty is not binding on the his/her powers and duties from:
President.
1. The Constitution of India
2. The court must tender its opinion to the
2. The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of
President if he/she refers matters related
Business of Lok Sabha
to any question of law or fact of public
3. Parliamentary Conventions
importance.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above are
given below.
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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7. Consider the following statements with 10. Who among the following are 'service
reference to pesticides in India: voters' which are eligible to cast their vote
1. Pesticides in India are regulated under either through postal ballot or through proxy
the Insecticides Act, 1968. voting?
1. Non-resident Indians
2. The use of pesticides is banned by the
2. Members of armed forces
Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
3. Indian diplomats posted abroad
3. Pesticides in India cannot be advertised
Select the correct answer using the code
and promoted. given below.
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 only
correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 11. With respect to Lok Adalats, consider the
following statements:
8. Consider the following statements with 1. It has been given statutory status under
the Legal Services Authorities Act,
reference to Consolidated Sinking Fund:
1987.
1. It is a reserve fund created by the states
2. The award by the Lok Adalat is not
with RBI as a buffer for repayment of
binding and it is appealable.
their liabilities. 3. There is no strict application of
2. This fund is maintained in the public procedural laws like the Civil Procedure
account and is not to be used for any Code and the Evidence Act while
other purpose, except for the redemption assessing the claim by Lok Adalat.
of loans. Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. Consider the following statements with
reference to National Migrant Information
9. Consider the following statements with System:
respect to Vote of Credit: 1. It a central online repository on migrant
1. It is granted for meeting an unexpected workers designed to facilitate their
demand upon the resources of India. seamless movement across States.
2. It is an extraordinary grant and the 2. It is developed by NITI Aayog.
details of the demand are not ordinarily 3. It can be used for contact tracing and
given in a budget. movement monitoring during COVID-
19.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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13. Consider the following statements regarding 16. Consider the following pairs:
the office of Speaker in the Lok Sabha:
Ethnic Groups in news Country
1. The date of the election of the Speaker is
fixed by the Pro-tem Speaker. 1. Uighurs : China
2. The Speaker being a member of the
ruling party vacates his office as soon as 2. Oromo : Iraq
the Lok Sabha is dissolved.
3. Kurds : Ethiopia
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Which of the pairs given above is/are
(a) 1 only
correctly matched?
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
14. To provide independence to Judiciary, the
removal of judges of the Supreme Court and (d) 1, 2 and 3
High Courts is made extremely difficult by
the constitution. In this context, which of the
following statements are correct? 17. The power to appoint delimitation
1. A Chief Justice of High Court can be commission for the delimitation of
removed only on the ground of proven
constituencies is conferred on:
misbehavior or incapacity.
2. A motion containing the charges against (a) Election Commission of India
the judge must be approved by a special (b) State Election Commission
majority in both houses of the
parliament. (c) The President
3. No High Court Judge has been removed (d) The Parliament
from the office so far.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. 18. Consider the following statements with
(a) 1 and 2 only regard to the election of President:
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 1. The voting in the election of the
(d) 1 and 3 only President is done by open ballot.
2. The Election of the President is held
15. Consider the following statements regarding
the division of power of taxation between according to the principle of First Past
the Centre and the States: the post system.
1. The power of taxation on subjects
enumerated in the concurrent list lies 3. Provisions of NOTA are not applicable
exclusively with the Parliament. in the presidential election.
2. The power to impose taxes on subjects
Which of the statements given above is/ are
not enumerated in any list is vested with
the state legislatures. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 3 only
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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19. The Indian Constitution has not adopted the 22. Which of the following statements regarding
system of proportional representation for the the Union Cabinet Committees is/are
election of members of Lok Sabha and correct?
Legislative Assemblies because: 1. The decisions made by them are binding
1. Difficult for the voters to understand the on the Cabinet.
complexity of the system. 2. Their members are drawn only from the
2. Multiple political parties in India will cabinet ministers.
lead to instability in government. Select the correct answer using the code
3. It decreases the significance of the party given below.
system. (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
given below.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only 23. Which of the following features make
(d) 1, 2 and 3 elections in India free and fair?
1. Universal Adult Franchise
2. Independence of Election Commission
20. Consider the following:
3. Use of VVPAT in the voting process.
1. Power to give advise to the President
Select the correct answer using the code
2. Power to entertain Public Interest
given below.
Litigation (PILs) from the individuals (a) 1 and 2 only
3. Power to entertain Writs (b) 1 and 3 only
Which of the above powers is/are conferred (c) 2 and 3 only
on the Supreme Court but is not available to (d) 1, 2 and 3
the High Court?
(a) 2 and 3 only 24. Which of the following is/are correct with
(b) 1 only reference to the reservation of seats in the
(c) 1 and 3 only panchayats, as provided under the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 constitution?
1. Seats for the SCs and the STs are to be
21. With reference to a Judge of the High Court reserved in every panchayat in the
in India, consider the following statements: proportion of their population to the total
1. A distinguished jurist cannot be population in the panchayat area.
appointed as High Court Judge. 2. Of the seats reserved for the SCs and the
2. To uphold judicial independence, the STs, not less than one-third of the seats
constitution has fixed the tenure of High are to be reserved for women belonging
Court Judges. to the respective categories.
3. A Judge subscribes to an oath or 3. The legislature of a state can make any
affirmation before the governor of the provision for reservation of seats in any
state. panchayat in favor of backward classes.
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below.
(a) 1 only
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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25. The committee/commission was formed to 28. Consider the following statements:
examine thoroughly the various issues in 1. The term of Prime Minister is five
Center-state relations. It recommended the years.
establishment of an Inter-State Council 2. The constitution provides that the
under Article 263 of the Constitution for the President has to appoint the leader of the
first time. majority party in the Lok Sabha as Prime
Which of the following committees/ Minister.
commission is referred to in the above 3. Nominated members of the Rajya sabha
paragraph? cannot become the Prime Minister.
(a) Punchhi Commission Which of the statements given above is/are

(b) Khusro Committee not correct?

(c) First Administrative Reforms (a) 1 and 3 only

Commission (b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Sarkaria Commission
(d) 1, 2 and 3

26. Which of the following measures are taken

29. Consider the following statements with
by RBI for tackling the COVID-19
reference to the Securitisation and
pandemic?
Reconstruction of Financial Assets and
1. Decreasing repo rate
Enforcement of Security Interest
2. Increasing reverse repo rate
(SARFAESI) Act:
3. Moratorium on payment of loans
1. It empowers banks to directly auction
Select the correct answer using the code
the mortgaged properties to recover
given below.
loans from borrowers who have turned
(a) 1 and 2 only
in NPAs.
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. The Act does not apply to cooperative
(c) 1 and 3 only
banks.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
27. With reference to 'Lobbying' in India,
(a) 1 only
consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only
1. It is a technique used by pressure groups
(c) Both 1 and 2
to convince policymakers to enforce (d) Neither 1 nor 2
decisions in their favour.
2. It is statutorily recognized in India. 30. Dinesh Goswami Committee, Vohra
Which of the statements given above is/are Committee and Tankha Committee, are all
correct? related to:
(a) 1 only (a) Electoral Reforms
(b) 2 only (b) Judicial Reforms
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Centre-State Relations Reforms
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Panchayati Raj Reforms

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31. Which of the following statements is/are 34. With respect to Gram Nyayalayas, consider
correct with respect to the High Courts of the following statements:
Union territories? 1. It has been set up through laws of
1. The High Court of Delhi was established respective state legislatures.
by the Constitution under Article 2. Its presiding officer, Nyayadhikari is
239AA.
appointed by the State Government in
2. Establishing a High Court for a Union
consultation with the High Court.
Territory would require a constitutional
3. The Gram Nyayalaya shall exercise the
amendment.
powers of both Criminal and Civil
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. Courts.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 , 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
32. Which of the following circumstances may (d) 1 and 2 only
lead to the resignation of the Council of
Ministers? 35. In the context of Science and Technology,
1. Passage of No-Confidence Motion in 'ANITA' recently seen in news is
Lok Sabha (a) a radio telescope used to detect ultra-
2. Motion of Thanks is not passed by the
high energy cosmic-ray neutrinos.
House in Lok Sabha
(b) a satellite launched to measure the rate
3. Money bill gets defeated in Lok sabha
of melting of ice in Arctic.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. (c) an instrument used to detect
(a) 1 and 2 only gravitational waves
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) India's first humanoid robot.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 36. Consider the following statements with
reference to BharatMarket:
33. Which of the following qualifications are 1. It is a national e-commerce marketplace
required for the appointment of District for all retail traders.
Judges?: 2. It provides end-to-end services in the
1. He should not already be in the service logistics and supply chains from
of the Central or the state government. manufacturers to end consumers,
2. He should have been an advocate or a
including deliveries at home.
pleader for five years.
3. It is an initiative of Ministry of
3. He should be recommended by the high
Commerce and Industry.
court for appointment.
Which of the statements given above are
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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49. Consider the following statements with 52. Consider the following statements with
reference to Gharials: reference to Defence Testing Infrastructure
1. They are categorised as critically Scheme (DTIS):
1. Its objective is to promote indigenous
endangered in the IUCN Red List of
defence production by bridging gaps in
Species.
Defence Testing Infrastructure (DTI).
2. In India, gharials in their natural habitat
2. The Scheme is limited to setting up DTIs
can be found only in Chambal river. in the Defence Industrial Corridors
Which of the statements given above is/are (DICs) only.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

50. Which of the following types of bills need

53. With respect to the appellate jurisdiction of
the prior recommendation of the president
the Supreme Court to grant Special Leave,
before introduction in the Parliament? which of the following statement is correct?
1. Money bill 1. It is applicable only to civil and criminal
2. Constitution Amendment bill matters.
3. Alteration of boundaries of State 2. It is a discretionary power of the
Select the correct answer using the code Supreme Court.
given below. Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

51. Consider the following statements with 54. With reference to the local self-government
respect to the Open Skies Treaty: in India, consider the following statements:
1. Only members of the NATO Alliance 1. Local government is a subject under the
can join the Treaty. concurrent list of the seventh schedule of
the Constitution.
2. Under the Treaty, a member state can
2. The provisions of part IX of the
“spy” on any part of the host nation,
Constitution do not apply to the Union
with the latter’s consent.
Territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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55. Consider the following statements with 58. Consider the following statements with
respect to Appropriation Bill:
reference to the reservation of seats under
1. The government cannot withdraw
money from the Consolidated Fund of the PESA Act:
India till the enactment of the
1. The reservation for the Scheduled Tribes
appropriation bill.
2. It is introduced only in the Lok Sabha. in every Panchayat cannot be less than
Which of the statements given above is/are
half of the total number of seats.
correct?
(a) 1 only 2. All seats of Chairpersons of Panchayats
(b) 2 only
at all levels have to be reserved for the
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Scheduled Tribes.
Which of the statements given above is/are
56. Which of the following benefits is/are
enjoyed by a nationally recognized political correct?
party in India? (a) 1 only
1. They are given free electoral rolls by the
Election Commission. (b) 2 only
2. The election symbol of that party cannot (c) Both 1 and 2
be used by any other political party in
polls across India. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. They get land or buildings from the
government to set up their party offices.
59. Consider the following statements with
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. respect to the collective privileges of the
(a) 1 and 2 only
Houses of Parliament:
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. Parliament has the right to publish its
(d) 1, 2 and 3
reports, debates, and proceedings and

57. With reference to the District Planning also the right to prohibit others from
Committee under Part IX of the publishing the same.
Constitution, consider the following
statements: 2. Parliament can punish any individual for
1. It prepares a draft development plan by breach of its privileges.
consolidating the plans prepared by
panchayats and municipalities in the 3. Parliament has the right to receive
district and forwards it to the state immediate information about the arrest,
government.
2. Two-thirds of the members of a district detention, conviction, imprisonment, and
planning committee are to be elected by release of a member of the House.
the elected members of the district
panchayat and municipalities in the Which of the statements given above is/are
district from amongst themselves. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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60. With respect to the representation of Union 63. With reference to the Vice President Of
India, consider the following statements:
Territories in the Lok Sabha, the
1. Vice president can be removed from his
Constitution of India office by the process of impeachment.
(a) Provides for direct Election 2. The resolution for removal must be
passed by a special majority by both the
(b) provides for indirect Election Houses of the Parliament separately
(c) Empowers the Parliament to enact a law. 3. The Constitution has not mentioned any
ground for the removal of the Vice
(d) provides for nomination by the Speaker
president.
Which of the statements given above is/ are
61. International Energy Agency (IEA) an correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
autonomous intergovernmental organization
(b) 1 and 2 only
that provides critical analysis and insights on (c) 3 only
trends in energy demand and supply (d) 1, 2 and 3

is established in the framework of:

64. In India, "None of the above", or NOTA,
(a) United Nations (UN) option on the ballot paper or the EVM refers
to:
(b) Organization of the Petroleum Exporting
(a) the right to seek re-elections.
Countries (OPEC) (b) the right to not vote for any candidate
(c) Organisation of Economic Co-operation secretly.
(c) the right to express lack of faith in the
and Development (OECD)
electoral process.
(d) G-20 (d) the right to seek re-election with a new
set of candidates.

62. Consider the following statements regarding

65. Consider the following statements with
the Union Territory of Delhi: reference to the Legislative Council:
1. The Chief Minister of Delhi is appointed 1. The constitution of India lays down that
a person to be elected to it, must be an
by the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi. elector for an assembly constituency in
2. The ministers hold office during the concerned State.
2. The council must return a money bill in
the pleasure of Lieutenant Governor.
14 days.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. The member of the Legislative Council
cannot be the chief minister or minister.
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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66. Which of the following will not lead to 69. Consider the following statements with
the disqualification of a Member of the respect to the legislative procedure for
Parliament on the grounds of defection? passing an ordinary bill in a state legislature

(a) If a member voluntarily gives up with a Legislative Council:

membership of the political party on 1. The Constitution provides for a joint

which he/she was elected. sitting of both the Houses in case of

(b) If a member abstains from voting disagreement.

without obtaining prior permission and 2. The Governor enjoys qualified veto

such an act is not condoned by his party. if the bill is passed by the House and

(c) An independent member joins a political presented for his assent.

party after being elected. Which of the statements given above is/are

(d) If a nominated member of the house correct?

joins a political party within three (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
months of his becoming a member.
(c) Both 1 and 2

67. This wildlife sanctuary is a part of the (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Elephant reserve located in the Dibrugarh

70. Consider the following statements regarding
district of Assam in India. It is famous for
the nomination of members to the Rajya
Assam Valley Tropical Wet Evergreen
Sabha:
Forests. Recently, the National Board for
1. The members are nominated by the
Wild Life has granted permission for coal
Chairman of Rajya Sabha from the list
mining in this reserve. The above passage
of members submitted by the House.
describes which of the following wildlife
2. The rationale of nomination to the Rajya
sanctuary?
Sabha is to provide eminent and
(a) Pobitora wildlife sanctuary
experienced persons a place without
(b) Dehing Patkai wildlife sanctuary
going through the process of election.
(c) East Karbi Anglong wildlife sanctuary
3. The provision has been borrowed from
(d) Deepor Beel wildlife sanctuary
the South African Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are
68. Shekatkar Committee recently in news is
correct?
related to:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(a) Banking Sector reforms
(b) 2 only
(b) Reforms in Judicial system
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Reforms in Tax structure
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Reforms in Armed forces

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71. Consider the following statement with 74. Consider the following statements regarding
reference to President of India: the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty
1. He should be qualified as member of (CTBT):
either house of Parliament.
1. The CTBT bans any nuclear weapon test
2. The constitution empowers the
explosion or any other nuclear
parliament to determine the allowances,
emoluments and privileges of the explosion.
president. 2. The Treaty also helps prevent human
Which of the statements given above is/ are suffering and environmental damages
correct? caused by nuclear testing.
(a) 1 only 3. India is not a signatory to CTBT.
(b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2
correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only

72. Consider the following statements with (b) 2 and 3 only

respect to the language in Parliament: (c) 1 and 3 only
1. Any of the languages mentioned in the (d) 1, 2 and 3
eight schedule can be used for
transacting business in the Parliament. 75. Consider the following statement with
2. A member can address the House in his
reference to the legislative powers of the
mother-tongue.
President:
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 1. He adjourns meetings of both the houses
(a) 1 only of the Parliament.
(b) 2 only 2. He nominates two members of the
(c) Both 1 and 2 Anglo-Indian community in the Lok
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/ are
73. In post-independent India, which of the
correct?
following sections of the society have been
(a) 1 only
provided with reservation of seats in the Lok
Sabha? (b) 2 only
1. Scheduled Castes (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Other Backward Classes (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Women
4. Religious Minorities 76. Which of the following is not provided for
Select the correct answer using the code
by the Representation of People Act, 1951?
given below.
(a) Qualification of members of parliament
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) Qualification of voters
(c) 1 only (c) Registration of political parties
(d) 2 and 4 only (d) Electoral offences

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77. With respect to the Subordinate Courts, 80. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
consider the following statements: matched?
1. The sessions judge has the power to Initiative Objective
impose capital punishment.
1. Mission : Indian Navy to repatriate
2. The Chief Judicial Magistrate tries
Sagar Indian citizens from
criminal cases that are punishable with
overseas
imprisonment for a term of up to seven
years. 2. Operation : Medical Assistance to
Which of the statements given above is/are Samudra Setu Indian Ocean Region
correct? countries.
(a) 1 only 3. Operation : Accelerate the
(b) 2 only Warp Speed development of vaccine
(c) Both 1 and 2 for COVID-19.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
78. What happens when an elected member of (a) 1 and 2 only
the House does not subscribe to an oath? (b) 2 and 3 only
1. He can participate in the proceedings of (c) 3 only
the House but not vote. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. He is eligible to Parliamentary privileges
and immunities.
81. Which of the following is/are correct with
Select the correct answer using the code
reference to the system of Panchayati Raj in
given below.
India?
(a) 1 only
1. Panchayati Raj Institutions have been
(b) 2 only
given constitutional status through the
(c) Both 1 and 2
73rd Amendment Act, 1992.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Constitution provides for an option
of a two-tier system of Panchayati Raj in
79. With an aim to break down the border the states having a population not
barriers between the states, the Constitution exceeding 20 lakh.
of India under Article 301 declares that
Select the correct answer using the code
trade, commerce and intercourse throughout
given below.
the territory of India shall be free but with
(a) 1 only
few exceptions.
(b) 2 only
With reference to the above paragraph,
(c) Both 1 and 2
consider the following statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Parliament can impose restrictions on
the freedom of trade, commerce, or
intercourse between the states in the 82. With reference to Zonal Councils, consider
public interest. the following statements:
2. Parliament may give preference to one 1. They are statutory bodies.
state over another state in the case of 2. The Union Home Minister is the
scarcity of goods in any part of India. Chairman of each of these Councils.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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83. The office of the ‘Leader of the House’ is 86. Consider the following statements:
provided under: 1. The maximum strength of the legislative
council depends on the total strength of
(a) Parliamentary Statute
the legislative assembly.
(b) Rules of Procedure and Conduct of
2. Currently, 7 states have created the
Business Legislative Councils.
(c) Constitution of India 3. One-third of the members of the
(d) None of the above Legislative Council are elected directly
by the people of the State.
84. The committee considers the demand for Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
grants of the concerned ministries. It secures
(a) 1 only
the accountability of the executive and also
(b) 1 and 2 only
assists in debating the budget. The members (c) 3 only
to the committee are nominated by the (d) 2 and 3 only
Presiding officers of both the houses.
Which of the following committee is 87. The Act for decreasing or increasing the
voting age limit must be passed by:
described by the above passage?
(a) Simple Majority of Parliament
(a) A General Purpose committee
(b) Special Majority of Parliament
(b) Consultative committee (c) Special Majority and Consent of half of
(c) Department Related Standing the States
Committee (d) By an Order of Election Commission of

(d) Business Advisory Committee India.

88. It is one of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal

85. Consider the following statements regarding
Groups found in Maharashtra and parts of
Centre-State financial relations:
Gujarat. They are known for their old
1. The property or income of corporations occupation of making Katha (Catechu) the
and companies owned by a state cannot thickened sap from the wood of Khair.
be taxed by the Centre. Recently people from this tribe is associated
with setting up a successful enterprise in the
2. All the property of Centre within a state
marketing of giloy, a minor forest produce
are subject to State taxation.
used by pharmaceutical companies.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the following tribes is being
correct? described by the above passage?
(a) 1 only (a) Maria Gond

(b) 2 only (b) Chenchu

(c) Kolam
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Katkari
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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89. Which of the following may be regarded as 92. With reference to the Panel of the Vice-
the importance of having a bicameral Chairpersons of the Rajya Sabha, consider
legislature? the following statements:
1. It gives representation to different 1. The Vice-President nominates from
sections of society. amongst the members a panel of vice-
chairpersons.
2. It gives representation to all
2. The member of the panel of vice-
geographical regions of the country.
chairpersons presides over the House
3. It acts as a revising body and prevents when the office of the Chairman or the
potential abuse of power. Deputy Chairman is vacant.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/are
given below. correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

90. Which of the following are voluntary 93. Consider the following statements with
(discretionary or optional) provisions under reference to the reservation of Bill by the
Governor for the considerations of the
Part IX of the Constitution?
President:
1. Giving representation to MPs and MLAs
1. If the president returns the bill for the
in the Panchayats falling within their reconsideration of the State legislature, it
constituencies has to consider it within six months.
2. Direct elections to all seats in 2. If the bill is again passed by the State
panchayats at the village, intermediate legislature with or without Amendments
and district levels and presented to the president, he is
3. Providing reservation of seats for bound to give assent to the bill.
backward classes in panchayats 3. It is obligatory for the Governor to
Select the correct answer using the code reserve the bill for the consideration of
given below. the President which endangers the
(a) 1 and 2 only position of State High court.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 and 3 only
correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
91. Which of the following does not lapse on the (d) 1, 2 and 3
dissolution of the legislative assembly of the
state? 94. Consider the following statements with
1. A Bill pending in the council but not reference to the dissolution of Panchayats,
passed by the assembly. under the Constitution:
2. A Bill pending in the assembly whether 1. The Constitution of India has not
originating in the assembly or specified the grounds for the dissolution
transmitted to it by the council. of Panchayats.
2. The new Panchayat constituted upon the
3. A Bill passed by the legislature but
dissolution of a Panchayat before the
pending assent of the Governor or the
expiration of its duration continues only
President. for the remainder of the period.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/are
given below. correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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95. Which of the following qualifications is/are 98. Consider the following pairs:
laid down by the Constitution for the Union Territory Under the territorial
appointment of a person as a Governor? jurisdiction of
1. He should be a citizen of India 1. Andaman and : Madras High Court
2. He should not belong to the state where Nicobar Islands
he is appointed. 2. Lakshadweep : Kerala High Court
3. He should have completed the age of 35 Islands
3. Daman and Diu : Gujarat High Court
years.
Which of the pairs given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code
correctly matched?
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 only

99. Consider the following statements with

96. Which of the following statements is/are regard to the Estimates committee:
correct with reference to the Governor of a 1. The committee was first constituted in
State? 1950 on the recommendations of Pt.
1. He is entitled to such emoluments, Jawahar Lal Nehru.
allowances and privileges as may be 2. Its members are only from the Lok
determined by the State Legislature. Sabha.
2. One person cannot be appointed as Which of the statements given above is/are
Governor of more than one state. correct?
3. The constitution does not lay down any (a) 1 only
grounds upon which a governor may be (b) 2 only
removed from his office (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only 100. Which of the following statements is/ are
(b) 1 and 2 only correct with reference to the executive
powers of the Governor?
(c) 3 only
1. He appoints the State Election
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Commissioner and determines his
conditions of service.
97. Which of the following committees 2. He appoints and removes the chairman
recommended a two-tier Panchayati Raj and members of the State Public Service
system with a Zila Parishad at the district Commission.
level, and below it, the Mandal panchayat Select the correct answer using the code
consisting of a group of villages? given below.
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (a) 1 only
(b) Thungon Committee (b) 2 only
(c) Ashok Mehta Committee (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Gadgil Committee (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 VISION IAS
www.visionias.in
ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 3179 (2021)

Q 1.B
• As per Article 163, there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister as the head to aid and
advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except in so far as he is required to exercise his
functions in his discretion.
• The advice tendered by Ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired into in any court. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
• The total number of ministers, including the chief minister, in the council of ministers in a state, shall not
exceed 15 percent of the total strength of the legislative assembly of that state. But, the number of
ministers, including the chief minister, in a state shall not be less than 12. This provision was added
by the 91st Amendment Act of 2003.
o The Constitution does not specify the size of the state council of ministers or the ranking of
ministers. They are determined by the chief minister according to the exigencies of the time and
requirements of the situation. Hence statement 1 is not correct .
• Every Minister and the Advocate General for a State shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take
part in the proceedings of, the legislative Assembly of the State or, in the case of a State having a
Legislative Council, both Houses, and to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, any
committee of the Legislature of which he may be named a member, but shall not, by virtue of this article,
be entitled to vote Officers of the State Legislature (Article 177).

Q 2.D
• The Committee on Public Accounts is constituted by Parliament each year for examination of :
o accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by Parliament for expenditure of Government of
India,
o the annual Finance Accounts of Government of India,
o and such other accounts laid before Parliament as the Committee may deem fit such as accounts of
autonomous and semi-autonomous bodies (except those of Public Undertakings and Government
Companies which come under the purview of the Committee on Public Undertakings).
• The Committee on Public Accounts is the oldest Parliamentary Committee and was first constituted
in 1921. It was constituted under the GOI act 1919. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Committee consists of 22 Members, 15 Members are elected by Lok Sabha and 7 Members of the
Rajya Sabha are associated with it.
• The Speaker is empowered to appoint the Chairman of the Committee from amongst its Members. Hence
statement 2 is not correct.
• A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 3.A
• The Constitution (Article 143) authorizes the President to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in the
two categories of matters:
o On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or which is likely to arise. In
this case, the Supreme Court may tender or may refuse to tender its opinion to the President. Hence
statement 2 is not correct.
o .On any dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or
other similar instruments. In this case, the Supreme Court ‘must’ tender its opinion to the president.

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 The advice of the Supreme Court on any disputes arising out of any pre-constitutional treaty is not
binding on the President. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Q 4.D
• As per Article 74 of the Indian Constitution, there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister
at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance
with such advice.
• Usually, the members of Parliament, either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha, are appointed as ministers. A
person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can also be appointed as a minister.
• A minister who is not a member of the Parliament (either house) for any period of six consecutive months
shall cease to be a minister. But, such a minister can remain as a minister for the duration of 6 months
without being a Member of Parliament (MP). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The salaries and allowances of ministers are determined by the Parliament and not mentioned in the
Constitution. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Q 5.D
• As the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the Vice-President presides over the meetings of the House. As the
Presiding Officer, the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the unchallenged guardian of the prestige and
dignity of the House.
• It is the right of the Chairman to interpret the Constitution and rules so far as matters in or relating
to the House are concerned, and no one can enter into any argument or controversy with the Chairman
over such interpretation. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Chairman's rulings constitute precedents which are of a binding nature. The Chairman's rulings
cannot be questioned or criticized and to protest against the ruling of the Chairman is a contempt of the
House and the Chairman. The Chairman is not bound to give reasons for his decisions. The rulings are
generally delivered by the Chairman on the floor of the House but in some contingency, his ruling may be
read to the House by the Deputy Chairman, on his request. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Under the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, the Chairman determines the question as to
disqualification of a member of the Rajya Sabha on ground of defection; he also makes rules for
giving effect to the provisions of that Schedule. The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in
1985 by the 52nd Amendment Act. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 6.D
• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha derives his powers and duties from three sources, that is, the
Constitution of India, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and
Parliamentary Conventions (residuary powers that are unwritten or unspecified in the Rules).
Hence, the correct answer is option (d).
• The Speaker is the head of the Lok Sabha, and its representative. He is the guardian of powers and
privileges of the members, the House as a whole and its committees.
• He is the principal spokesman of the House, and his decision in all Parliamentary matters is final. In
these capacities, he is vested with vast, varied and vital responsibilities and enjoys great honour, high
dignity and supreme authority within the House.
• Example: He is the final interpreter of the provisions of (a) the Constitution of India, (b) the Rules of
Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and (c) the parliamentary precedents, within the House.

Q 7.A
• Recent Context: In May, the Ministry of Agriculture published a draft notification asking for suggestions
and objections for its plan to ban the 27 commonly-used pesticides, weedicides and fungicides due to their
bio-hazards.
• The Insecticides Act, 1968 was brought into force with effect from August 1971 with a view of regulating
the import, manufacture, sale, transport, distribution and use of insecticides/pesticide in order to prevent
risk to human beings and animals. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Pesticides (Prohibition) Order to ban the use of pesticides is issued by the Ministry of Agriculture and
Farmer’s Welfare. Based on the recommendations of the Anupam Verma Committee the Ministry of
Agriculture and Farmers Welfare had notified Pesticides (Prohibition) Order, 2018 under which use of 18
pesticides was banned. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• In India, pesticides continue to be advertised and promoted like consumer products, despite being deadly
chemicals. They are advertised through multiple media and targeted at farmers who are often unaware of
marketing tactics. Also, pesticide companies use is to aggressively promote their products through

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 representatives or dealers. They are often the last point of contact with farmers and are known to heavily
influence pesticide use. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 8.C
• Recent Context - With revenue sources drying up due to lockdown, States want the Centre to relax norms
regarding using money accumulated in funds such as Consolidated Sinking Fund (CSF).
• Consolidated Sinking Fund (CSF) was set up in 1999-2000 by the RBI to meet redemption of market
loans of the States. The CSF is a reserve fund created by states for amortization of their debt obligations.
State Governments maintain the Consolidated Sinking Fund (CSF) with the Reserve Bank as buffers for
repayment of their liabilities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Under the CSF scheme, a state government could contribute 1-3% of their annual outstanding debt
liabilities to the fund to create a buffer for repayment of their future liabilities. Set up in 1999-00, the CSF
has accumulated reserves worth Rs 1.3 lakh crore for 23 states as on March 31, 2020.
• Initially, 11 States set up sinking funds. Later, the 12th Finance Commission (2005-10) recommended that
all States should have sinking funds for amortisation of all loans, including loans from banks, liabilities on
account of NSSF (National Small Saving Fund), etc.
• This fund is maintained outside the consolidated fund of the States in the public account and is not to be
used for any other purpose, except for the redemption of loans. This ensures good fiscal
governance. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q 9.C
• In addition to the budget that contains the ordinary estimates of income and expenditure for one financial
year, various other grants are made by the Parliament under extraordinary or special circumstances like
Supplementary Grants, Additional Grant, Excess Grant, Vote of Credit, Exceptional Grant and Token
Grant.
• Vote of Credit: It is granted for meeting an unexpected demand upon the resources of India, when
on account of the magnitude or the indefinite character of the service, the demand cannot be stated with
the details ordinarily given in a budget. Hence, it is like a blank cheque given to the Executive by the
Lok Sabha. Hence both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Q 10.B
• Service voters are those who have service qualification. Service voter can cast their vote either
through postal ballot or through a proxy voter duly appointed by him and a service voter who opts
to vote through a proxy is called Classified Service Voter.
• In 2003, the facility to opt to vote through proxy was provided to the service voters belonging to the
Armed Forces and members belonging to a Force to which provisions of the Army Act apply. Such
service voters who opt to vote through proxy have to appoint a proxy in a prescribed format and intimate
the Returning Officer of the constituency.
• Options 2 and 3 are correct: According to the provisions of sub-section (8) of Section 20 of
Representation of People Act, 1950, Service Voters are:
o Those serving in the Armed Forces of the Union.
o Those serving in a Force to which the Army Act 1950 applies (Assam rifles, CRPF, BSF, ITBP, SSB,
NSG, GREF in BRO (Border Road Organisation), CISF etc.
o Member of an Armed Police Force of a State, serving outside that state.
o Those employed under the Government of India, in a post outside India (Indian diplomats).
• Option 1 is not correct: A citizen of India, absent from the country owing to employment, education etc.,
has not acquired citizenship of any other country and are otherwise eligible to be registered as a voter in
the address mentioned in your passport. However, they have been not yet permitted to vote through
proxy voting.

Q 11.A
• Lok Adalat is a forum where the cases (or disputes) which are pending in a court or which are at pre-
litigation stage (not yet brought before a court) are compromised or settled in an amicable manner.
• Lok Adalat has been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
• According to the Supreme Court, the benefits under Lok Adalat are as follows:
o There is no court fee and if court fee is already paid the amount will be refunded if the dispute is
settled at Lok Adalat.

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 o The basic features of Lok Adalat are the procedural flexibility and speedy trail of the disputes. There
is no strict application of procedural laws like the Civil Procedure laws like the Civil Procedure Code
and the Evidence Act while assessing the claim by Lok Adalat. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o The Parties to the dispute can directly interact with the judge through their counsel which is not
possible in regular courts of law.
o The award by the Lok Adalat is binding on the parties and it has the status of a decree of a civil court
and it is non appealable, which does not cause the delay in the settlement of disputes finally. Hence
statement 2 is not correct.

Q 12.C
• National Migrant Information System (NMIS) is a central online repository on Migrant Workers. It is
designed and developed to capture the information regarding the movement of migrants and facilitate the
smooth movement of stranded persons across States. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The online portal would maintain a central repository on migrant workers and help in speedy inter-State
communication/co-ordination to facilitate their smooth movement to native places. It has additional
advantages like contact tracing, which may be useful in overall COVID-19 response work. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.
• States will be able to visualize how many people are going out from where and how many are reaching
destination States. Ministry of Home Affairs has written to States to use NMIS for capturing the
information on the movement of migrants and for better inter-State coordination.
• National Migrant Information System (NMIS) is developed by the National Disaster Management
Authority (NDMA). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Q 13.D
• The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members. The date of election of the Speaker
is fixed by the President. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Though the Speaker being a member of the ruling party, whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the
Speaker does not vacate his office and continues till the newly-elected Lok Sabha meets, in order to
avoid interregnum. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• About Pro-tem Speaker:
o Pro-tem speaker is chosen for the conduct of the house when the Lok Sabha and Legislative
Assemblies have been elected and the vote for the speaker and deputy speaker has not taken place.
o The Pro-tem Speaker presides over the first sitting of the Lok Sabha, administers the oath of office to
the newly elected MPs, and oversees the election of the Speaker. Once the new Speaker is elected, the
office of the pro tem speaker ceases to exist. He also administers the floor test.
o Her/his Appointment: After a general election and the formation of a new government, a list of senior
Lok Sabha members prepared by the Legislative Section is submitted to the Minister of Parliamentary
Affairs, who selects a pro tem speaker. The appointment has to be approved by the President. The
President appoints a member of the newly-elected Lok Sabha as the Speaker Pro Tem immediately
before its first meeting.

Q 14.C
• Statement 1 is correct: A judge of a high court can be removed from his office by an order of the
President on the recommendation of the Parliament. He can be removed from his office only on the
grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. The procedure for the impeachment of a judge of a high
court is the same as that for a judge of the Supreme Court.
• The Judges Enquiry Act (1968) regulates the procedure relating to the removal of a judge of a high court
by the process of impeachment:-
o A removal motion signed by 100 members (in the case of Lok Sabha) or 50 members (in the case of
Rajya Sabha) is to be given to the Speaker/Chairman.
o The Speaker/Chairman may admit the motion or refuse to admit it.
o If it is admitted, then the Speaker/Chairman is to constitute a three-member committee to investigate
into the charges.
o The committee should consist of
▪ the Chief Justice or a judge of the Supreme Court,
▪ chief justice of a high court, and
▪ a distinguished jurist.-
o If the committee finds the judge to be guilty of misbehaviour or suffering from an incapacity, the
House can take up the consideration of the motion.
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 • Statement 2 is correct: After the motion is passed by each House of Parliament by special majority, an
address is presented to the president for removal of the judge.- Finally, the president passes an order
removing the judge.
• Statement 3 is correct: No judge of a high court has been impeached, so far.

Q 15.D
• The Constitution divides the taxing powers between the Centre and the states in the following ways:
o The Parliament has exclusive power to levy taxes on subjects enumerated in the Union List.
o The state legislatures have exclusive power to levy taxes on subjects enumerated in the State List.
o Both the parliament and the State legislature can levy taxes on subjects enumerated in the
Concurrent List.
• The residuary power of taxation (that is, the power to impose taxes not enumerated in any of the
three lists) is vested with the Parliament. Under this provision, the Parliament has imposed gift tax,
wealth tax and expenditure tax.
• The Constitution also draws a distinction between the power to levy and collect a tax and the power to
appropriate the proceeds of the tax. Income tax is levied and collected by the Centre but its proceeds are
distributed between the Centre and the states.
• Hence both the statements are not correct.

Q 16.A
• Recently, the US Congress has passed a bill that would impose sanctions on Chinese officials involved in
the mass surveillance and detention of Uighurs and other ethnic groups in the western Xinjiang region, a
campaign that has drawn muted international response because of China’s influence around the world.
• The Uighurs are Muslims native to the Xinjiang Uyghur Autonomous Region and they regard themselves
as culturally and ethnically close to Central Asian nations. In the early part of the 20th Century, the
Uighurs briefly declared independence. The region was brought under the complete control of communist
China in 1949. The region's economy has for centuries revolved around agriculture and trade, with towns
such as Kashgar thriving as hubs along the famous Silk Road. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Oromo, the largest ethnolinguistic group of Ethiopia, constituting more than one-third of the population
and speaking a language of the Cushitic branch of the Afro-Asiatic family. Originally confined to the
southeast of the country, the Oromo migrated in waves of invasions in the 16th century CE. They
occupied all of southern Ethiopia. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Kurds make up the fourth-largest ethnic group in the Middle East. They inhabit a mountainous region
straddling the borders of Turkey, Iraq, Syria, Iran and Armenia. They form a distinctive community,
united through race, culture and language, even though they have no standard dialect. They also adhere to
a number of different religions and creeds, although the majority are Sunni Muslims. Hence, pair 3 is not
correctly matched.

Q 17.C
• The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India under the provisions of the
Delimitation Act, 2002. It works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India. It is appointed
for the purpose of drawing up the boundaries of constituencies all over the country. A quota of
constituencies to be reserved in each State is fixed depending on the proportion of SC or ST in that State.
After drawing the boundaries, the Delimitation Commission looks at the composition of the population in
each constituency. Those constituencies that have the highest proportion of Scheduled Tribe population
are reserved for ST.
• In the case of Scheduled Castes, the Delimitation Commission looks at two things. It picks constituencies
that have a higher proportion of Scheduled Caste population. But it also spreads these constituencies in
different regions of the State. This is done because the Scheduled Caste population is generally spread
evenly throughout the country. These reserved constituencies can be rotated each time the Delimitation
exercise is undertaken.

Q 18.B
• The Constitution of India, there shall always be a President of India ( Article 52 ). He holds the highest
elective office in the country and is elected in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution and the
Presidential and vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952.

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 • Under Article 324 of the Constitution of India, the authority to conduct elections to the Office of President
is vested in the Election Commission of India.
• As per Article 55(3) of the Constitution of India, the election of the President shall be held in
accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote and
the voting at such election shall be by secret ballot. Hence statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
• An election to the Office of the President can be called in question by means of an election petition
presented to the Supreme Court after the election is over. Such election petition should be presented by a
candidate or twenty or more electors joined together as petitioners.
• Provisions of NOTA are not applicable in the election of the President . Hence the statement 3 is
correct.

Q 19.C
• The Constitution of India has adopted the system of proportional representation for the election to the
office of President, Vice-President and the members of the Rajya Sabha and Legislative Councils. Though
this system helps in giving representation to all sections of the people, it has not been adopted for the
election of members of Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies because:
o Difficult for the voters to understand the system (which is complicated) due to the low literacy
scale in the country.
o Unsuitability to the parliamentary government due to the tendency of the system to multiply
political parties leading to instability in government. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• Additionally, the system of proportional representation has the following demerits:
o It is highly expensive.
o It does not give any scope for organising by-elections.
o It eliminates intimate contacts between voters and representatives.
o It promotes minority thinking and group interests.
o It increases the significance of the party system and decreases that of voter. As the party
representing a particular section becomes more important than the voter. Hence, statement 3 is not
correct.

Q 20.B
• Option 1 is correct: Advisory Jurisdiction of Supreme Court under the Constitution (Article 143)
authorizes the President to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in case of any dispute arising out of any
pre-constitution treaty and on any question of law or fact of public importance.
• Option 2 is not correct: Public Interest Litigation (PIL) as a legal action initiated in a court of law for the
enforcement of public interest or general interest in which the public or a class of the community have
pecuniary interest or some interest by which their legal rights or liabilities are affected.
PIL can be filed either in the High Court or Supreme Court depending on the situation. Both the courts
have power to entertain the public interest litigation.
• Option 3 is not correct: Writ jurisdiction is provided to SC as well as HC. Article 32 and Article 226 of
the Constitution provide two separate but parallel provisions of writ jurisdiction with the Supreme Court
and High Courts respectively. Article 32 has been incorporated as a fundamental right and it provides for
the constitutional remedy against the violation of fundamental rights. This remedy is limited to the
violation of fundamental rights only under Article 32. The provision of Article 226 is a constitutional
provision, but it is not a fundamental right. There is no guarantee attached to it unlike Article 32. The
scope of Article 226 is wider than that of Article 32 because the operation of Article 226 is not limited to
violation of fundamental rights only, but it can be operated for other purposes also.

Q 21.B
• Statement 1 is correct: A person to be appointed as a judge of a high court, should have the following
qualifications:
o He should be a citizen of India.
o He should have held a judicial office for 10 years in the territory of India.
o He should have been an advocate for 10 years of a high court (or high courts in succession).
o It is clear from the above statements that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for
appointment as a judge of a high court.
o Moreover, unlike in the case of the Supreme Court, the Constitution makes no provision for
appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of a high court

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 • Statement 2 is not correct: The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of a judge of a high court.
However, following provisions are made in this regard:
o He can hold office until he attains the age of 62 years. He may tender his resignation from his office
by writing to the president of India.
o He can be removed from his office by the President of India on the recommendation of the
Parliament.
o He vacates his office when he is transferred to another high court or appointed as a judge of the
Supreme Court.(Job tenure is the measure of the length of time an employee has been employed by
his/her current employer. For Example the tenure of Chief Election Commissioner is of 6 years with
limitation of 65 years of age. Such limitation is not mentioned for Judges.)
• Statement 3 is correct: A person when appointed as a judge of a high court, has to make and subscribe
an oath before the governor of the state or some person appointed by him for this purpose, before entering
upon his office.

Q 22.D
• The Rules of Business provide for the establishment of Cabinet Committees. They are of two types
Standing and ad-hoc.
o The ad-hoc committees are appointed by the prime ministers according to the exigencies and
requirement. They usually include cabinet ministers as members but non-cabinet ministers can
also not debarred from its membership. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o They take decisions on behalf of the cabinet which can be reviewed by the cabinet. Hence, their
decisions are not completely final Hence statement 1 not correct. They are generally headed by the
prime minister, and for committees in which he is not a member other cabinet minister can head it.

Q 23.D
• The true test of any election system is its ability to ensure a free and fair electoral process. If we want
democracy to be translated into reality on the ground, it is important that the election system is impartial
and transparent. Democratic elections require that all adult citizens of the country must be eligible to
vote in the elections. This is known as universal adult franchise.
• The Constitution ensures the security of the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and
Election Commissioners. They are appointed for a six year term or continue till the age of 65, whichever
is earlier. The CEC can be removed before the expiry of the term, by the President if both Houses of
Parliament make such a recommendation with a special majority. This is done to ensure that a
ruling party cannot remove a CEC who refuses to favour it in elections. The Election Commissioners
can be removed by the president of India.
• VVPAT is an independent system attached to an EVM that allows the voters to verify that their votes are
cast as intended. When a vote is cast, a slip is printed on the VVPAT printer containing the serial number,
name and symbol of the candidate voted. This remains visible to you through a transparent window for
seven seconds. Thereafter, this printed slip automatically gets cut and falls into a sealed drop box. If need
be, these printouts can later be counted.
• In the world’s largest democracy, every vote counts and the EVMs and VVPATs try and ensure that the
massive election process is in tune with the latest technological advancements. Though the Commission
has never doubted the workings of EVMs and their utility in a free and fair electoral process, VVPATs
add another layer of transparency and reliability to convince voters about the sanctity of EVMs.

Q 24.D
• Article 243-D of the constitution provides for reservation of seats in the Panchayats.
o One third of the positions in all panchayat institutions are reserved for women. Reservations for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are also provided for at all the three levels, in
proportion to their population.
o If the States find it necessary, they can also provide for reservations for the other backward
classes (OBCs).
o It is important to note that these reservations apply not merely to ordinary members in Panchayats but
also to the positions of Chairpersons or ‘Adhyakshas‘ at all the three levels. Further, reservation of
one-third of the seats for women is not merely in the general category of seats but also within
the seats reserved for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and backward castes. This means that
a seat may be reserved simultaneously for a woman candidate and one belonging to the Scheduled
Castes or Scheduled Tribes. Thus, a Sarpanch would have to be a Dalit woman or an Adivasi woman.
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Q 25.C
• Option (a) is not correct: The Inter-State Council was set up in 1990, and Punchhi commission in 2007.
So, it is not possible that for the first time Punchhi Commission would recommend the establishment of an
inter-state council. The commission was constituted by the Government of India in 2007 to examine
Centre-State relations.
• Option (b) is not correct: Khusro Committee is also known as the Agricultural Review Committee
which was established in 1989. The committee examined the problems of agricultural and rural credits
and recommended major systematic improvements and not inter-state relations.
• Option (c) is correct: The Central government appointed a six-member Administrative Reforms
Commission (ARC) in 1966 under the chairmanship of Morarji Desai (followed by K Hanumanthayya).
Its terms of references included, among others, the examination of Centre-State relations. The First
Administrative Reforms Commission for the first time recommended the establishment of an Inter-State
Council under Article 263 of the Constitution. It also recommended transferring more financial resources
to the states to reduce their dependence upon the Centre and deployment of Central armed forces in the
states either on their request or otherwise. The recommendations were not accepted by the central
government.
• Option (d) is not correct: The Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 following the recommendations of
the Sarkaria Commission. But it was already recommended by the first ARC in 1966 itself. The clamour
for more autonomy by states led to the constitution of Sarkaria Commission in 1983 which was asked to
examine and review existing arrangements between the Centres and the States in all spheres and
recommend appropriate changes and measures.

Q 26.C
• Repo Rate is the rate of interest at which the RBI lends short term money to banks. Everything from
interest rates on loans to returns on deposits is influenced by repo rate. Reverse Repo Rate is the interest
rate at which the RBI borrows money from banks for the short term. Thus, the RBI absorbs surplus money
from banks by offering attractive interest rates.
• Recently, RBI announced a slew of monetary measures in order to support the economy amid weak
activity.
o Reducing the repo rate from 4.4 to 4 percent i.e. a cut in the repo rate by 40 basis points (bps). This
allows banks to borrow more money from RBI at low cost and lend money to businesses at a lower
interest rate. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o RBI also simultaneously reduced reverse repo rate to 3.75 percent. Low Reverse Repo Rate
disincentivizes banks to park money with the RBI. The banks are inclined to put less money into the
central bank, as it would fetch lower returns and lend more money to businesses. Hence, statement 2
is not correct.
o CRR is the percentage of money banks need to set aside with RBI. CRR has been cut to 3% from 4%.
o Under the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) window, banks can borrow funds from the RBI by
pledging government securities within the limits of the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). The RBI has
increased accommodation under the marginal standing facility from 2%of SLR to 3%.
o To ease financial stress, RB has announced a moratorium on repayment of loans for six
months. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 27.A
• Statement 1 is correct: Pressure groups resort to three different techniques in securing their purposes.
First, they can try to place in public office persons who are favourably disposed towards the interests they
seek to promote. This technique may be labelled electioneering. Second, they can try to persuade public
officers, whether they are initially favourably disposed toward them or not, to adopt and enforce the
policies that they think will prove most beneficial to their interests. This technique may be
labelled lobbying. Third, they can try to influence public opinion and thereby gain an indirect influence
over government, since the government in a democracy is substantially affected by public opinion. This
technique may be labelled propagandizing.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Lobbying is not yet recognized in a statutory or non-statutory form in
India. In India, the only law that has some relevance to lobbying is Section 7 of the Prevention of
Corruption Act, 1988, which makes it illegal for a “public servant taking gratification other than legal
remuneration in respect of an official Act”.

Q 28.D
• The term of the prime minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the President.
Hence statement 1 is not correct.
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 • However, this does not mean that the president can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time. So long as the
Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President.
• In accordance with the conventions of the Parliamentary system of Government, the President has to
appoint the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as Prime Minister. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
• Constitutionally the Prime Minister may be a member( elected or nominated) of the two houses of
Parliament. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 29.A
• The SARFAESI Act 2002, lays down processes to help Indian lenders recover their dues quickly. The
SARFAESI Act essentially empowers banks and other financial institutions to directly auction residential
or commercial properties that have been pledged with them to recover loans from borrowers. Before this
Act took effect, financial institutions had to take recourse to civil suits in the courts to recover their dues,
which is a lengthy and time-consuming process. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• As per the SARFAESI Act, if a borrower defaults on a loan financed by a bank against collateral, then the
bank gets sweeping powers to recover its dues from the borrower. After giving a notice period of 60 days,
the lender can take possession of the pledged assets of the borrower, take over the management of such
assets, appoint any person to manage them or ask debtors of the borrower to pay their dues too, with
respect to the asset. This recovery procedure saves banks and financial institutions a lot of time which
otherwise would be long drawn out due to the intervention of courts.
• Earlier there was confusion whether co-operative banks could use SARFAESI Act to recover bad
loans. Because in some states the high court had ruled that it does not apply to them and in some others,
high courts had said that it’s applicable. Recently, the apex court has ruled that the Act will apply to co-
operative banks as it does to commercial banks. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• A Co-operative bank is a financial entity which belongs to its members, who are at the same time the
owners and the customers of their bank. Co-operative banks in India are registered under the States
Cooperative Societies Act. The Co-operative banks are also regulated by the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI).

Q 30.A
• Dinesh Goswami committee (1990) was on electoral reforms in India. It suggested providing state
funding in kind to political parties. It also suggested that a candidate should not be allowed to contest
election from more than two constituencies.
• The Vohra (Committee) Report was submitted by the former Indian Home Secretary, N. N. Vohra, in
October 1993. It studied the problem of the criminalisation of politics and of the nexus among criminals,
politicians and bureaucrats in India.
• Tankha Committee was appointed in 2010. It was to look into the whole gamut of the election laws and
electoral reforms.

Q 31.D
• Statement 1 is not correct. The Constitution, under Article 239AA, establishes the Union Territory of
Delhi and its legislature. It does not provide for High Court of Delhi. High Court of Delhi was established
by enacting the Delhi High Court Act, 1966.
• Statement 2 is not correct. Article 241 of the Constitution states that Parliament by law can establish
High Court of any Union Territory. Hence no Constitutional amendment is required.

Q 32.D
• The resignation of the Council of Ministers may take place under the following circumstances:
• Automatic dissolution, that is, on the expiry of its tenure of five years.
• Whenever the President decides to dissolve the House, when:
o A No-Confidence Motion is passed by the Lok Sabha. Hence, option 1 is correct.
o Motion of Thanks i.e. the address of the President at the first session after each general election
and the first session of every fiscal year, is defeated in Lok Sabha. Hence, option 2 is correct.
o A Money Bill gets defeated in the Lok Sabha. With regard to Money Bill, Rajya Sabha has restricted
powers and can only make recommendations, which the Lok Sabha can either accept or reject. Hence,
option 3 is correct.
• The Censure Motion is moved for censuring the council of ministers for specific policies and actions. If
it is passed in Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers need not resign from the office.
Q 33.B
• The appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in a state are made by the governor of the state
in consultation with the high court. A person to be appointed as district judge should have the following
qualifications:
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 o He should not already be in the service of the Central or the state government. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
o He should have been an advocate or a pleader for seven years. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o He should be recommended by the high court for appointment. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 34.B
• Statement 1 is not correct: The Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 has been enacted to provide for the
establishment of the Gram Nyayalayas at the grass roots level for the purposes of providing access to
justice to the citizens at their doorsteps and toensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied
to any citizen due to social, economic or other disabilities.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Gram Nyayalaya shall be court of Judicial Magistrate of the first class and its
presiding officer (Nyayadhikari) shall be appointed by the State Government in consultation with the High
Court.The Gram Nyayalaya shall be established for every Panchayat at intermediate level or a group of
contiguous Panchayats at intermediate level in a district or where there is no Panchayat at intermediate
level in any State, for a group ofcontiguous Panchayats.The Nyayadhikaris who will preside over these
Gram Nyayalayas are strict judicial officers and will be drawing the same salary, deriving the same
powers at First Class Magistrates working under High courts.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Gram Nyayalaya shall be a mobile court and shall exercise the powers of
both Criminal and Civil Courts.The seat of the Gram Nyayalaya will be located at the headquarters of the
intermediate Panchayat, they will go to villages, work there and dispose of the cases.

Q 35.A
• Recently an experiment conducted by NASA using Antarctic Impulsive Transient Antenna (ANITA) has
indicated the possibility of a parallel universe. In a significant breakthrough, a team of researchers have
succeeded in finding "a fountain of high-energy particles erupting from the ice" in Antarctica which
according to the researchers could be proof of a parallel universe.
• ANITA instrument is a radio telescope which is used to detect ultra-high energy cosmic-ray neutrinos
from a scientific balloon flying over Antarctica. ANITA is the first NASA observatory for neutrinos of
any kind. Hence, option (a) is correct.
• Neutrinos: Neutrinos are subatomic particles that don’t have an electrical charge and very small mass are
one of the most abundant particles in the universe. Because they have such little interaction with physical
matter, they can be very hard to track down. ANITA flies a balloon over Antarctica with radio antennae
pointed to the ground.

Q 36.A
• Confederation of All India Traders (CAIT) announced that it would soon launch a national e-
commerce marketplace ‘Bharat market’ for all retail traders in collaboration with several technology
partners. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.
• The e-commerce portal will include nationwide participation by retailers and will integrate capabilities of
various technology companies to provide end-to-end services in the logistics and supply chains from
manufacturers to end consumers, including deliveries at home. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The e-commerce platform aims to bring 95 per cent of retail traders onboard the platform, who would
exclusively run the portal and make it the world’s largest and most-unique e-marketplace. Bharatmarket
initiative is actively being supported and guided by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Q 37.A
• The State of the World’s Forests (SOFO) is a biennial report published by the United Nations
Environment Programme and Food and Agriculture Organisation.
• Recently, The State of the World’s Forests: Forests, Biodiversity and People is published by UNEP and
FAO. As the United Nations Decade on Biodiversity 2011–2020 comes to a close and countries prepare to
adopt a post-2020 global biodiversity framework, 2020 edition of The State of the World’s Forests
(SOFO) examines the contributions of forests, and of the people who use and manage them, to the
conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity. Hence, option (a) is correct.
• The State of the World’s Forests 2020 assesses progress to date in meeting global targets and goals related
to forest biodiversity and examines the effectiveness of policies, actions and approaches, in terms of both
conservation and sustainable development outcomes. A series of case studies provide examples of
innovative practices that combine conservation and sustainable use of forest biodiversity to create
balanced solutions for both people and the planet.

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Q 38.A
• The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers, shall not exceed
15 percent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. This provision was added by 91st Amendment Act of
2003. (not mention in the original Constitution). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• A member of either house of Parliament belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground
of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister. This provision was added by the
91st Amendment Act of 2003. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q 39.D
• The National Integration Council was constituted in 1961, following a decision taken at a national
conference on ‘unity in diversity’, convened by the central government. It is chaired by the Prime
Minister of India. The members of the NIC include union ministers, leaders of the opposition in the
Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, chief ministers of all states and Union Territories, leaders of
national and regional political parties, chairpersons of national commissions, eminent journalists, and
other public figures in India.
• The objective of the National Integration Council is to promote guiding principles of the idea of India
such as unity in diversity, inclusiveness, equal rights for all, philosophy of coexistence & tolerance.
• Hence all the options are correct.

Q 40.D
• A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the
cantonment area. It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006—a legislation enacted
by the Central government. It works under the administrative control of the defence ministry of the
Central government. Thus, unlike the above four types of urban local bodies, which are created and
administered by the state government, a cantonment board is created as well as administered by the
Central government.
• A town area committee is set up for the administration of a small town. It is a semi-municipal authority
and is entrusted with a limited number of civic functions like drainage, roads, street lighting, and
conservancy. It is created by a separate act of a state legislature. Its composition, functions and other
matters are governed by the act. It may be wholly elected or wholly nominated by the state government or
partly elected and partly nominated.
• The port trusts are established in the port areas like Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai and so on for two
purposes: (a) to manage and protect the ports; and (b) to provide civic amenities. A port trust is created by
an Act of Parliament. It consists of both elected and nominated members. Its chairman is an official. Its
civic functions are more or less similar to those of a municipality.

Q 41.A
• Privilege Motion: It is concerned with the breach of parliamentary privileges by a minister. It is moved
by a member when he feels that a minister has committed a breach of privilege of the House or one or
more of its members by withholding facts of a case or by giving wrong or distorted facts. Its purpose is to
censure the concerned minister. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• Censure Motion: It can be moved against an individual minister or a group of ministers or the entire
council of ministers. It is moved for censuring the council of ministers for specific policies and
actions. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• Calling Attention Motion: It is introduced in the Parliament by a member to call the attention of a
minister to a matter of urgent public importance, and to seek an authoritative statement from him on that
matter. Hence, option 3 is not correct.

Q 42.A
• The members of the legislative councils are indirectly elected.
• Manner of election of the total number of members of a legislative council:
• 1/3 are elected by the members of local bodies in the state like municipalities, district boards, etc.,
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o 1/12 are elected by graduates of three years standing and residing within the state, Hence,
statement 2 is not correct.
o 1/12 are elected by teachers of three years standing in the state, not lower in standard than secondary
school,
o 1/3 are elected by the members of the legislative assembly of the state from amongst persons who
are not members of the assembly, Hence, statement 3 is not correct. and

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 o the remainder are nominated by the governor from amongst persons who have special knowledge or
practical experience of literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service.
• Thus, 5/6 of the total number of members of a legislative council are indirectly elected and 1/6 are
nominated by the governor. The members are elected in accordance with the system of proportional
representation by means of a single transferable vote. The bonafides or propriety of the governor’s
nomination, in any case, cannot be challenged in the courts.
• This scheme of the composition of a legislative council as laid down in the Constitution is tentative
and not final. The Parliament is authorised to modify or replace the same. However, it has not enacted
any such law so far.
Q 43.C
• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part XIV-A to the Constitution. This part is entitled as
‘Tribunals’ and consists of only two Articles—Article 323 A dealing with administrative tribunals and
Article 323 B dealing with tribunals for other matters.
• Article 323 B empowers the appropriate legislature (Parliament or state legislature) to establish a
tribunal for the adjudication of election disputes. It also provides for the exclusion of the jurisdiction of all
courts (except the special leave appeal jurisdiction of the Supreme Court) in such disputes. So far, no such
tribunal has been established.

Q 44.D
• In a first-past-the-post electoral system members of the electorate cast their vote for the candidate of their
choice and the candidate who receives the most votes wins, even if they did not receive more than half of
the votes. The FPTP system has proved to be simple and familiar to ordinary voters. It has helped larger
parties to win clear majorities at the centre and the State level. Proportional representation (PR)
characterizes electoral systems in which divisions in an electorate are reflected proportionately in
the elected body. If n% of the electorate support a particular political party as their favorite, then roughly
n% of seats will be won by that party. Therefore more sections of the society will get representation in the
legislature and consequently there may be greater possibility of formation of multi-party coalitions.

Q 45.D
• Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect coordination between the
states and between Centre and states. Thus, the President can establish such a council if at any time it
appears to him that the public interest would be served by its establishment.
• Statement 1 is not correct: The council is a recommendatory body on issues relating to inter-state,
Centre-state and Centre–union territories relations. It aims at promoting coordination between them by
examining, discussing and deliberating on such issues.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Council may meet at least thrice in a year. Its meetings are held in
camera and all questions are decided by consensus.
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 • Statement 3 is not correct: There is also a Standing Committee of the Council. It was set up in 1996 for
continuous consultation and processing of matters for the consideration of the Council. It consists of the
following members:
o Union Home Minister as the Chairman
o Five Union Cabinet Ministers
o Nine Chief Ministers

Q 46.A
• At present a party is recognized as a national party if any of the following conditions is fulfilled:
o If it secures six per cent of valid votes polled in any four or more states at a general election to the
Lok Sabha or to the legislative assembly; and, in addition, it wins four seats in the Lok Sabha from
any state or states; or Hence statement 1 is correct.
o If it wins two per cent of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election; and these candidates are elected
from three states; or Hence statement 2 is correct.
o If it is recognized as a state party in four states. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 47.A
• The Rajya Sabha (first constituted in 1952) is a continuing chamber, that is, it is a permanent body and
not subject to dissolution.
• The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of members of the Rajya Sabha and left it to the
Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Accordingly, the Parliament in the Representation of the People Act (1951) provided that the term of
office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years. The act also empowered the president of
India to curtail the term of members chosen in the first Rajya Sabha.
• In the first batch, it was decided by lottery as to who should retire. Further, the act also authorised the
President to make provisions to govern the order of retirement of the members of the Rajya Sabha.
• However, one-third of its members retire every second year. Their seats are filled up by fresh
elections and presidential nominations at the beginning of every third year. The retiring members are
eligible for re-election and renomination any number of times. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q 48.D
• The eleventh Schedule contains the following 29 functional items placed within the purview of
panchayats:
o Agriculture, including agricultural extension
o Land improvement, implementation of land reforms, land consolidation and soil conservation
o Minor irrigation, water management, and watershed development
o Animal husbandry, dairying, and poultry
o Fisheries
o Social forestry and farm forestry
o Minor forest produce
o Small-scale industries, including food processing industries
o Khadi, village and cottage industries
o Rural housing
o Drinking water
o Fuel and fodder
o Roads, culverts, bridges, ferries, waterways and other means of communication
o Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity
o Non-conventional energy sources
o Poverty alleviation programme
o Education, including primary and secondary schools
o Technical training and vocational education
o Adult and non-formal education
o Libraries
o Cultural activities
o Markets and fairs
o Health and sanitation including hospitals, primary health centres and dispensaries

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 o Family welfare
o Women and child development
o Social welfare, including welfare of the handicapped and mentally retarded
o Welfare of the weaker sections, and in particular, of the scheduled castes and the scheduled tribes
o Public distribution system
o Maintenance of community assets.
• Marriage and divorce is an item placed under List III—Concurrent List, of the seventh schedule of
the constitution.

Q 49.A
• Recently, forty gharials (Gavialis gangeticus) were released in the Ghaghara river by the Bahraich forest
division of Uttar Pradesh.The animals were brought from the Kukrail Gharial Rehabilitation Centre in
Lucknow.
• Gharials are critically endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List of
Species. The species is also listed under Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. Turtle
Survival Alliance (TSA) is involved in various conservation works across the country. Hence, statement
1 is correct.
• Gharial prefers deep fast flowing rivers, however adult gharial have also been observed in still
water branches (jheel) of rivers and in comparatively velocity-free aquatic environments of
deepholes (kunds) at river bends and confluences. Smaller animals seem to conserve energy by resting
out of the mainstream in sheltered backwaters, particularly during the monsoon (July-September). Sand
and rock outcrops are preferred basking sites and these animals show considerable site fidelity.
• Historically, gharial were found in the river system of India, Pakistan, Bangladesh and southern part of
Bhutan and Nepal. Today they survive only in the waters of India and Nepal. The surviving population
can be found within the tributaries of the Ganges river system: Girwa (Uttar Pradesh), Son
(Madhya Pradesh), Ramganga (Uttarakhand), Gandak (Bihar), Chambal (Uttar Pradesh, Madhya
Pradesh and Rajasthan) and Mahanadi (Orissa). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Ghaghara acts as an important aquatic corridor for gharials in Uttar Pradesh. The Ghaghara is one of
the cleanest rivers of India as there is hardly any pollution. Gharials are a good indicator of clean river
water.
• Unlike crocodiles, gharials do not pose any danger to humans. Gharials prefer sandbanks as suitable
habitats. Currently, they are facing several threats. Dogs as well as humans often destroy their eggs. Bihar
too is releasing gharials in the Valmiki Tiger Reserve as part of restocking the wild population.

Q 50.C
• Types of bills needed the prior recommendation of the president before introduction in the
Parliament are:
o Bills that seek to change or alter name, boundaries, area of a state, or form a new state by separation
of territory from any state under Article 3 of the Indian constitution. This is essential to preserve the
principle of federalism.
o Money bill under Article 110 and the financial bill under Article 117(I). This is to keep a check on
arbitrary state power in matters of taxation.
o State bills which impose a restriction upon freedom of trade under Article 304. This provision ensures
unrestricted trade between states except on reasonable and non-discriminatory grounds.
o Bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which states are interested under Article 274, to ensure
financial autonomy of state and fiscal federalism.
o A bill that would involve expenditure from the consolidated fund of India even though it may not be
a money bill.
o Article 113 (iii) prescribes that no demand for grants can be presented in the Lok Sabha without the
President of India's prior approval
o It should be noted here the Constitution amendment bill can be introduced either by a minister
or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the President.

Q 51.B
• Recently the US administration has chosen to withdraw from the pact, with Secretary of State accusing
Russia of “flagrantly and continuously violating the Treaty in various ways for years.
• The Open Skies Treaty was first proposed in 1955 by former US President Dwight Eisenhower as a means
to deescalate tensions during the Cold War, the landmark treaty was eventually signed in 1992
between NATO members and former Warsaw Pact countries following the demise of the Soviet
Union. It went into effect in 2002 and currently has 35 signatories along with one non-ratifying member
(Kyrgyzstan). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
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 • The Open Skies Treaty permits each state-party to conduct short-notice, unarmed, reconnaissance flights
over the others' entire territories to collect data on military forces and activities. Under the treaty, a
member state can “spy” on any part of the host nation, with the latter’s consent. A country can
undertake aerial imaging over the host state after giving notice 72 hours before, and sharing its exact flight
path 24 hours before. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Observation aircraft used to fly the missions must be equipped with sensors that enable the observing
party to identify significant military equipment, such as artillery, fighter aircraft, and armored combat
vehicles. The treaty is also aimed at building confidence and familiarity among states-parties through their
participation in the overflights. The information gathered, such as on troop movements, military exercises
and missile deployments, has to be shared with all member states.

Q 52.A
• Under “Make in India”, the Government has accorded high priority to the development of the
manufacturing base of Defence and Aerospace sectors in the country to reduce dependence on
imports. One of the main impediments for domestic defence production is the lack of easily accessible
state-of-the-art testing infrastructure.
• The objective of the Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme is to promote indigenous defence production,
with a special focus on the participation of MSMEs and Start-Ups by bridging gaps in defence testing
infrastructure in the country. Setting up of Defence Testing Infrastructure will provide easy access and
thus meet the testing needs of the domestic defence industry. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Scheme aims at setting up of Greenfield Defence Testing Infrastructure (required for defence and
aerospace-related production), as a common facility under private sector with Government assistance
mainly in DICs.
• The projects under the Scheme will be provided with up to 75 per cent government funding in the form of
‘Grant-in-Aid’. The remaining 25 per cent of the project cost will have to be borne by the Special Purpose
Vehicle (SPV) whose constituents will be Indian private entities and State Governments. The SPVs under
the Scheme will be registered under Companies Act 2013 and shall also operate and maintain all assets
under the Scheme, in a self-sustainable manner by collecting user charges. The equipment/systems tested
will be certified as per appropriate accreditation.
• The Defence Industrial Corridors (DICs) in UP and TN may be given preference for setting up of DTIs,
being the focus areas. These corridors have been selected as they are expected to support a large number
of industries involved in defence and aerospace manufacturing in the future. However, the Scheme is not
limited to setting up DTIs in the DICs only. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Q 53.B
Article 136 of the Indian Constitution
• The Supreme Court is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any
judgement in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country (except military tribunal
and court martial). It is a discretionary power and hence, cannot be claimed as a matter of right.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It can be granted in any judgment whether final or interlocutor.
• It may be related to any matter—constitutional, civil, criminal, income tax, labour, revenue,
advocates, etc. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• On the exercise of this power, the Supreme Court itself held that being an exceptional and overriding
power, it has to be exercised sparingly and with caution and only in special extraordinary situations.

Q 54.D
• When the Constitution was prepared, the subject of the local government was assigned to the States
(mentioned in the State List under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution). It was also mentioned
in the Directive Principles as one of the policy directives to all governments in the country.
• Regarding the application of Part IX to the union territories, the Article 243L of the constitution states that
the “provisions of this Part shall apply to the Union territories and shall, in their application to a
Union territory, have effect as if the references to the Governor of a State were references to the
Administrator of the Union territory appointed under article 239 and references to the Legislature or the
Legislative Assembly of a State were references, in relation to a Union territory having a Legislative
Assembly, to that Legislative Assembly provided that the President may, by public notification, direct
that the provisions of this Part shall apply to any Union territory or part thereof subject to such exceptions
and modifications as he may specify in the notification”.
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Q 55.C
• The Constitution under Article 114 states that ‘no money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated
Fund of India except under appropriation made by law’. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Accordingly, an appropriation bill is introduced to provide for the appropriation, out of the Consolidated
Fund of India, all money required to meet:(a) The grants voted by the Lok Sabha.(b) The expenditure
charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
• Post the discussions on Budget proposals and the Voting on Demand for Grants, the government
introduces the Appropriation Bill in the Lok Sabha. It cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
• The Appropriation Bill becomes the Appropriation Act after it is assented to by the President. This act
authorizes (or legalises) the payments from the Consolidated Fund of India. This means that the
government cannot withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India till the enactment of the
appropriation bill.
• The passing of the Appropriation Bill takes time and usually goes on till the end of April. But the
government needs money to carry on its normal activities after 31 March (the end of the financial year).
To overcome this functional difficulty, the Constitution under Article 116 has authorised the Lok Sabha
to make any grant in advance in respect to the estimated expenditure for a part of the financial year,
pending the completion of the voting of the demands for grants and the enactment of the appropriation
bill.
• This provision is known as the ‘vote on account’. It is passed (or granted) after the general discussion on
budget is over. It is generally granted for two months for an amount equivalent to one-sixth of the
total estimation.
• To avoid the 'vote on account' and the delay in the enactment of the Budget, the government in 2018
shifted the budget session ahead by 1 month i.e in the last week of January.

Q 56.D
• A registered party is recognized as a National Party only if it fulfils any one of the following three
conditions: The party wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha (as of 2014, 11 seats) from at least 3 different
States. Benefits/ Facilities to National Party are as follows;
o Recognition as a national or a State party ensures that the election symbol of that party can't be
used by any other political party in polls across India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o Recognized 'State' and 'National' party requires only one proposer to file nomination.
o The recognized 'state' and National Parties are given two sets of electoral rolls free of cost by
the Election Commission. In addition to this the candidates contesting on the ticket of National or
state party get a copy of the electoral roll free of cost during the general elections. Hence statement 1
is correct.
o The National parties receive land or building from the government to establish their party
office. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o National parties can have up to 40 star campaigners while others can have up to 20-star campaigners.
The expenditure incurred on the travelling and other expenses of star campaigners is not included in
the election expenditure of the party candidate.
o National Parties get the time slot on the national and state television & Radio to address the people
and convey their message to the mass people.

Q 57.A
• The Constitution provides that every state shall constitute at the district level, a district planning
committee to consolidate the plans prepared by panchayats and municipalities in the district, and to
prepare a draft development plan for the district as a whole. The state legislature may make
provisions with respect to the following:
o The composition of such committees;
o The manner of election of members of such committees;
o The functions of such committees in relation to district planning; and
o The manner of the election of the chairpersons of such committees.
• The act lays down that four-fifths of the members of a district planning committee should be elected
by the elected members of the district panchayat and municipalities in the district from amongst
themselves.
• The representation of these members in the committee should be in proportion to the ratio between
the rural and urban populations in the district.
• The chairperson of such committee shall forward the development plan to the state government.

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Q 58.C
• Under the PESA Act, the reservation of seats in the Scheduled Areas in every Panchayat shall be in
proportion to the population of the communities for whom reservation is sought to be given under Part IX
of the Constitution. However, the reservation for the Scheduled Tribes shall not be less than one-half
of the total number of seats.
• Further, all seats of Chairpersons of Panchayats at all levels shall be reserved for the Scheduled
Tribes.

Q 59.D
• Parliamentary privileges can be classified into two broad categories:
o those that are enjoyed by each House of Parliament collectively, and
o those that are enjoyed by the members individually.
• Collective Privileges: The privileges belonging to each House of Parliament collectively are:
o In has the right to publish its reports, debates and proceedings and also the right to prohibit others
from publishing the same. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restored the freedom of the press to
publish true reports of parliamentary proceedings without prior permission of the House. But this is
not applicable in the case of a secret sitting of the House. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o It can exclude strangers from its proceedings and hold secret sittings to discuss some important
matters.
o It can make rules to regulate its own procedure and the conduct of its business and to adjudicate upon
such matters.
o It can punish members as well as outsiders for breach of its privileges or its contempt by reprimand,
admonition or imprisonment (also suspension or expulsion, in case of members). Hence, statement 2
is correct.
o It has the right to receive immediate information of the arrest, detention, conviction, imprisonment
and release of a member. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
o It can institute inquiries and order the attendance of witnesses and send for relevant papers and
records.
o The courts are prohibited to inquire into the proceedings of a House or its committees.
o No person (either a member or outsider) can be arrested, and no legal process (civil or criminal) can
be served within the precincts of the House without the permission of the presiding officer.
Q 60.C
• The Constitution has empowered the Parliament to prescribe the manner of choosing the
representatives of the union territories in the Lok Sabha.
• Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Union Territories (Direct Election to the House of the
People) Act, 1965, by which the members of Lok Sabha from the union territories are also chosen by
direct election. Hence option (c) is correct.

Q 61.C
• The International Energy Agency (IEA) was born with the 1973-1974 oil crisis when industrialised
countries found they were not adequately equipped to deal with the oil embargo imposed by major
producers that pushed prices to historically high levels.
• It is an autonomous intergovernmental organization established in the framework of the Organization for
Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) in 1974 to help countries collectively respond to oil
supply disruptions. It is headquartered in Paris. Hence option (c) is correct.
• The framework was anchored in the IEA treaty called the “Agreement on an International Energy
Program”. A candidate country to the IEA must be a member country of the OECD. The IEA family now
represents about 75% of global energy consumption. IEA is made up of 30 member countries and 8
association countries. India became an Associate Member in 2017.
• Recently, the International Energy Agency (IEA) has released Global Energy Review:2020 which studies
the impact of the Covid-19 crisis on global energy demand and CO2 emissions.
• The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a group consisting of 14 of the
world’s major oil-exporting nations. OPEC was founded in 1960 to coordinate the petroleum policies of
its members and to provide member states with technical and economic aid. OPEC is a cartel that aims to
manage the supply of oil in an effort to set the price of oil on the world market, in order to avoid
fluctuations that might affect the economies of both producing and purchasing countries.

Q 62.D
• The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 provided special status to the Union Territory of Delhi,
and redesignated it as the National Capital Territory of Delhi and designated the administrator of Delhi as

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 the Lieutenant (Lt) Governor. It led to the insertion of two new articles in the form of Article 239AA and
Article 239AB. The following provisions were made under them.
o It created a legislative assembly and a council of ministers for Delhi: there shall be a Legislative
Assembly for the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the seats in such Assembly shall be filled by
members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the National Capital Territory.
o Subject to the provisions of the Constitution, the Legislative Assembly shall have the power to make
laws for the whole or any part of the National Capital Territory with respect to any of the matters
enumerated in the State List or in the Concurrent List in so far as any such matter is applicable to
Union territories except matters with respect to Entries 1(Public order),2(Police), and 18(Land) of the
State List
o But in case, a law made by the Legislative Assembly for the National Capital Territory of Delhi is in
opposition to the laws made by Parliament, the laws of Parliament prevail over those made by the
Assembly.
• The Chief Minister is appointed by the President (not by the Lt. Governor). The other ministers are
appointed by the President on the advice of the Chief Minister. The ministers hold office during the
pleasure of the President. Hence statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
• According to Article 239AA (4), the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister aid and advise the
Lieutenant Governor in the exercise of his functions except in so far as he is required to act in his
discretion. In the case of difference of opinion between the lt. Governor and his ministers, the lt. Governor
is to refer the matter to the President for decision and act accordingly (also mentioned in Article
239AA(4).

Q 63.C
• The vice president holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
However he can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the President.
• A formal impeachment is not required for his removal. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• He can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority (i.e. a majority of
the total members of the House) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• But, no such resolution can be moved unless at least 14 days advance notice has been given.
• Notably, no ground has been mentioned in the Constitution for his removal. Hence statement 3 is
correct.

Q 64.B
• Voting is a formal expression of will or opinion in an electoral process. Right to reject implies that a voter
while voting has every right not to opt for any of the candidates during an election. Such a right implies a
choice to remain neutral. This may happen when a voter feels that none of the candidates in a candidacy
deserves to be elected. It happens, by the way, of his choice, belief, thinking and expression. Right to
reject has its genus in freedom of speech and expression.
• NOTA means "None of the Above" options which enables the voter to officially register a vote of
rejection for all candidates who are contesting. If a voter chooses to press NOTA on the EVM, it indicates
that the voter has not chosen to vote for any party. It protects the identity of a voter, thus keeping the
concept of secret balloting intact.
• The ECI while introducing NOTA indicated that although votes cast as NOTA are counted, they are
invalid votes so they will not impact the result of the election process. Therefore, whether NOTA gets
more or fewer votes, it is not taken into account for calculating the total valid votes. The ECI introduced a
particular symbol for ‘None of the Above’ option to allow the voters to exercise NOTA. This symbol
appears in the last panel on all Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs).
• NOTA is not the same as "right-to-reject" system, whereby, if the majority of voters opt for "none
of the above" option, no candidate will be declared the winner and a fresh election will be called.

Q 65.B
• A person to be elected to it must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state. This
provision is provided in the Representation of People Act 1951 and not in the constitution. Hence
statement 1 is not correct.
• The council cannot remove the council of ministers by passing a no-confidence motion. This is
because the council of ministers is collectively responsible only to the Assembly. But the council can
discuss and criticize the policies and activities of the Government.

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 • A money bill can be introduced only in the assembly and not in the council. The council cannot amend or
reject a money bill. It should return the bill to the assembly within 14 days, either with
recommendations or without recommendations. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• According to the constitution, the Chief Minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of a
State Legislature. Usually, Chief Minister has been selected from the lower house, but on a number of
occasions, a member of upper house (legislative council) has also been appointed as Chief
Minister. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Q 66.D
The Tenth Schedule contains the following provisions with respect to the disqualification of members of
Parliament and the state legislatures on the ground of defection:
• Members of Political Parties: A member of a House belonging to any political party becomes
disqualified for being a member of the House (a) if he voluntarily gives up his membership of such
political party, or (b) if he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by
his political party without obtaining prior permission of such party and such act has not been condoned by
the party within 15 days.
• Independent Members: An independent member of a House (elected without being set up as a candidate
by any political party) becomes disqualified to remain a member of the house if he joins any political
party after such an election.
• Nominated Members: A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the
House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat
in the House. This means that he may join any political party within six months of taking his seat in the
House without inviting this disqualification. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 67.B
• The Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary, also known as the Jeypore Rainforest is a part of Dehing Patkai
Elephant Reserve. It is located in the districts of Dibrugarh and Tinsukia. It is famous for Assam Valley
Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests bordering Arunachal Pradesh. Dehing Patkai is a deciduous rainforest
interspersed with semi-evergreen and lush green flora, the only patch of virgin rainforest in Assam.
• It comprises of Jeypore, Upper Dehing and Dirok. Dehing is the name of the river that flows through this
forest and Patkai is the hill at the foot of which the sanctuary lies. The Wildlife Sanctuary is endowed with
rich bio-diversity. The dense forest with unique vegetation is mesmerizing.
• Recently, the Standing Committee of the National Board of Wild Life under the Union Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change has granted approval for coal mining inside Assam’s Dehing
Patkai elephant reserve. Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q 68.D
• The government in 2016 ordered the constitution of the Committee of Experts (CoE) under Lt Gen
Shekatkar with a mandate to ‘suggest measures to enhance combat capability and rebalance defence
expenditure of the armed forces’. Hence, option (d) is correct.
• The CoE submitted its report in December 2016. Some of the recommendations have been implemented,
including the creation of the post of Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) and a department of military affairs.
• Recently, Government has accepted and implemented three important recommendations of the Committee
of Experts (CoE) under the Chairmanship of Lt General D B Shekatkar (Retd) relating to border
Infrastructure. These were related to speeding up road construction, leading to socio-economic
development in the border areas. On the matter related to creating border infrastructure, the Government
has implemented the recommendation of CoE to outsource road construction work beyond the optimal
capacity of Border Roads Organisation (BRO). It has been made mandatory to adopt Engineering
Procurement Contract (EPC) mode for execution of all works costing more than Rs 100 crore.
Q 69.D
• The Council has been given much lesser significance, position and authority than that of the assembly. In
case of the passage of the bill the ultimate power is vested in the assembly. At most, the council can detain
or delay the bill for a period of four months—three months in the first instance and one month in the
second instance.
• The Constitution does not provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of both the Houses to resolve
the disagreement between the two Houses over a bill. Moreover, when a bill, which has originated in the
council and was sent to the assembly, is rejected by the assembly, the bill ends and becomes dead. Hence,
statement 1 is not correct.
• Every bill, after it is passed by the assembly or by both the Houses in case of a bicameral legislature, is
presented to the governor for his assent. There are four alternatives before the governor:
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 o Notification of General Elections
o Administrative machinery for the conduct of elections
o Registration of political parties
o Conduct of elections
o Free supply of certain material to candidates of recognized political parties
o Disputes regarding elections
o Corrupt practices and electoral offenses
• Qualification of voters is provided under Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1950

Q 77.C
• The state judiciary consists of a high court and a hierarchy of subordinate courts, also known as lower
courts. The subordinate courts are so called because of their subordination to the state high court. They
function below and under the high court at district and lower levels.
• The district judge is the highest judicial authority in the district. He possesses original and appellate
jurisdiction in both civil as well as criminal matters. When he deals with civil cases, he is known as the
district judge and when he hears the criminal cases, he is called as the sessions judge. The district judge
exercises both judicial and administrative powers. He also has supervisory powers over all the subordinate
courts in the district. Appeals against his orders and judgements lie to the High Court. The sessions judge
has the power to impose any sentence including life imprisonment and capital punishment (death
sentence). However, a capital punishment passed by him is subject to confirmation by the High
Court, whether there is an appeal or not. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Below the District and Sessions Court stands the Court of Subordinate Judge on the civil side and the
Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate on the criminal side. The subordinate judge exercises unlimited
pecuniary jurisdiction over civil suits. The chief judicial magistrate decides criminal cases which are
punishable with imprisonment for a term up to seven years. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 78.D
• Every member of either House of Parliament, before taking his seat in the House, has to make and
subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the President or some person appointed by him for this purpose.
• Unless a member takes the oath, he cannot vote and participate in the proceedings of the House and
does not become eligible to parliamentary privileges and immunities. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are
not correct.
• A person is liable to a penalty of Rs 500 for each day he sits or votes as a member in a House in the
following conditions:
o Before taking and subscribing to the prescribed oath or affirmation; or
o When he knows that he is not qualified or that he is disqualified for its membership; or
o When he knows that he is prohibited from sitting or voting in the House by virtue of any
parliamentary law.
Q 79.C
• The freedom guaranteed by Article 301 is a freedom from all restrictions, except those which are provided
for in the other provisions (Articles 302 to 305) of Part XIII of the Constitution itself.
• Statement 1 is correct: Article 302 deals with the power of Parliament to impose restrictions on trade,
commerce and intercourse. Parliament may by law impose such restrictions on the freedom of trade,
commerce or intercourse between one State and another or within any part of the territory of India
as may be required in the public interest.
• Statement 2 is correct: Article 303 deals with the restrictions on the legislative powers of the Union and
of the States with regard to trade and commerce.
o However, notwithstanding anything in article 302, neither Parliament nor the Legislature of a State
shall have power to make any law giving, or authorising the giving of, any preference to one State
over another, or making, or authorising the making of, any discrimination between one State and
another, by virtue of any entry relating to trade and commerce in any of the Lists in the Seventh
Schedule.
o Nothing in clause (1) shall prevent Parliament from making any law giving, or authorising the
giving of, any preference or making, or authorising the making of, any discrimination if it is
declared by such law that it is necessary to do so for the purpose of dealing with a situation
arising from scarcity of goods in any part of the territory of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Parliament cannot discriminate between the states or give preference to one state over the other except in
the case of scarcity of goods in any part of India.

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 • The freedom (under Article 301) is subject to the nationalization laws. Nationalization laws are the laws
that provide for monopolies in favour of the Centre or the states. Thus, the state legislature or the
parliament can make laws for the carrying on by the respective government of any industry, business,
trade, or service, whether to the complete or partial exclusion, of citizens or otherwise.

Q 80.C
• Mission Sagar is India’s helping hand across the Indian Ocean Region. Responding to their requests for
assistance in dealing with the Covid-19 pandemic, Government of India has sent Indian Naval Ship to
Maldives, Mauritius, Madagascar, Comoros and Seychelles, carrying onboard Medical Assistance Teams,
consignments of COVID related essential medicines and essential food items. Mission Sagar’ is inspired
by the Prime Minister’s vision of SAGAR - Security and Growth for All in the Region. Hence, pair 1 is
not correctly matched.
• Indian Navy has launched Operation “Samudra Setu” - meaning “Sea Bridge”, as a part of national
effort to repatriate Indian citizens from overseas. Indian Naval Ships Jalashwa and Magar are
presently en-route to the port of Malè, the Republic of Maldives to commence evacuation operations. The
evacuated personnel would be provided with the basic amenities and medical facilities during the sea-
passage. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Operation Warp Speed is a public-private partnership, initiated by the Federal Government of the United
States, to facilitate and accelerate the development, manufacturing, and distribution of COVID-19
vaccines, therapeutics, and diagnostics. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

Q 81.C
• The term Panchayati Raj in India signifies the system of rural local self-government. It has
been established in all the states of India by the Acts of the state legislatures to build democracy at the
grass-root level. It is entrusted with rural development. It was constitutionalized through the 73rd
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The constitution provides for a three-tier system of Panchayati raj in every state, that is, panchayats at the
village, intermediate, and district levels. Thus, the act brings about uniformity in the structure of
Panchayati raj throughout the country. However, a state having a population not exceeding 20 lakh
may not constitute panchayats at the intermediate level.
• The State government is required to appoint a State Election Commissioner who would be responsible for
conducting elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions. However, the State Election Commissioner is an
independent officer and is not linked to nor is this officer under the control of the Election
Commission of India.

Q 82.C
Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established under the States Reorganisation Act 1956. They are only
deliberative and advisory bodies. The main objectives of the Zonal Councils are to bring out national
integration, arrest the growth of state consciousness and foster a climate of co-operation among states.
• Chairman – The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils.
• Vice-Chairman – The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of the
Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time.
• Members– Chief Minister and two other Ministers as nominated by the Governor from each of the States
and two members from Union Territories included in the zone.
• Advisers– One person nominated by the Planning Commission (which has been replaced by NITI Ayog
now) for each of the Zonal Councils, Chief Secretaries and another officer/Development Commissioner
nominated by each of the States included in the Zone.
• Union Ministers are also invited to participate in the meetings of Zonal Councils depending upon
necessity.
• The present composition of each of these Zonal Councils is as under:
• The Northern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir,
Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Chandigarh;
o The Central Zonal Council, comprising the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and
Madhya Pradesh;
o The Eastern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West
Bengal;

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 o The Western Zonal Council, comprising the States of Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and the Union
Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli;
o The Southern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil
Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
• The North Eastern States i.e. (i) Assam (ii) Arunachal Pradesh (iii) Manipur (iv) Tripura (v) Mizoram (vi)
Meghalaya and (vii) Nagaland are not included in the Zonal Councils and their special problems are
looked after by the North Eastern Council, set up under the North Eastern Council Act, 1972.

Q 83.B
• The Rules of Lok Sabha mention, the ‘Leader of the House’ as the prime minister, if he is a member of
the Lok Sabha or a minister who is a member of the Lok Sabha and is nominated by the prime minister to
function as the Leader of the House.
• Similarly, under the Rules of Rajya Sabha, there is also a ‘Leader of the House’ in the Rajya Sabha.
He is a minister and a member of the Rajya Sabha and is nominated by the prime minister to function as
such. Hence, the correct option is B.
• The leader of the house in either House is an important functionary and exercises direct influence on the
conduct of business. He can also nominate a deputy leader of the House.
• The same functionary in the USA is known as the ‘majority leader’.

Q 84.C
• Rules Committee of the Lok Sabha recommended setting-up of 17 Department Related Standing
Committees (DRSCs).
• Accordingly, 17 Department Related Standing Committees were set up on 8 April 1993. In July 2004,
rules were amended to provide for the constitution of seven more such committees, thus raising the
number of DRSCs from 17 to 24.
• Each of the Standing Committees constituted under Rule 268 shall consist of not more than 31 members,
10 members nominated by the Chairman from amongst the members of the Council, and 21 members
nominated by the Speaker from amongst the members of the House. The main objective of the standing
committees is to secure more accountability of the Executive (i.e., the Council of Ministers) to the
Parliament, particularly financial accountability. They also assist the Parliament in debating the budget
more effectively.
• The functions of these Committees are:
o To consider the Demands for Grants of various Ministries/Departments of Government of India
and make reports to the Houses.
o To examine such Bills as are referred to the Committee by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha or the Speaker,
Lok Sabha, as the case may be, and make reports thereon;
o To consider Annual Reports of ministries/departments and make reports thereon; and
o To consider policy documents presented to the Houses, if referred to the Committee by the Chairman,
Rajya Sabha or the Speaker, Lok Sabha, as the case may be, and make reports thereon.
• Hence option c is correct.

Q 85.D
• The property and income of local authorities situated within a state are not exempted from the Central
taxation. Similarly, the property or income of corporations and companies owned by a state can be taxed
by the Centre. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The property of Centre is exempted from all taxes imposed by a state or any authority within a state like
municipalities, district boards, panchayats and so on. But, the Parliament is empowered to remove this
ban. The word ‘property’ includes lands, buildings, chattels, shares, debts, everything that has a money
value, and every kind of property— movable or immovable and tangible or intangible. Further, the
property may be used for sovereign (like armed forces) or commercial purposes. Hence statement 2 is
not correct.

Q 86.A
• The strength of the legislative council depends on the total strength of the legislative assembly. The
Legislative Council must not have more than a third of the total membership of the Assembly of that state,
and in no case fewer than 40 members. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• About 1/3rd of members are elected by which members of the Assembly, another 1/3rd by electorates
consisting of members of municipalities, district boards and other local authorities in the state, 1/12th by
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 an electorate consisting of teachers, and 1/12th by registered graduates. Hence statement 3 is not
correct.
• The remaining members are nominated by the Governor from among those who have distinguished
themselves in literature, science, art, the cooperative movement, and social service. Legislative Councils
are permanent Houses, and like Rajya Sabha, one-third of their members retire every two years. .
• Apart from Andhra Pradesh (58 members), five other states have Legislative Councils: Bihar (58),
Karnataka (75), Maharashtra (78), Telangana (40), Uttar Pradesh (100). Jammu and Kashmir too had a
Council, until the state was bifurcated into the Union Territories of J&K and Ladakh. Thus , c are 6 states
which have a legislative council. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q 87.C
• Initially, the Constitution under Article 326 provided for the elections to the House of the People and to
the Legislative Assembly of every State shall be on the basis of adult suffrage, i.e. person who is a
citizen of India and not less than 21 years of age.
• However, by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 this was reduced and made as Universal
adult suffrage i.e. person not less than 18 years of age were provided with the Constitutional Right to
Vote.
• Since this Act amends Article 326 which is also related to States and ensures uniformity of elections it
requires to be passed by the Special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of
the State legislatures by a simple majority. Hence, the option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 88.D
• Tribal communities are often identified by some specific signs such as primitive traits, distinctive culture,
geographical isolation, shyness to contact with the community at large and backwardness. Along with
these, some tribal groups have some specific features such as dependency on hunting, gathering for food,
having a pre-agriculture level of technology, zero or negative growth of population and extremely low
level of literacy. These groups are called Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG)s.
• Katkari is one of the 75 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups, as per the classification by Ministry of
Home Affairs. It is a primitive tribe found in Maharashtra (Pune, Raigad and Thane districts) and parts
of Gujarat. Katkaris are also known as Kathodis because of their old occupation of making Katha
(Catechu) the thickened sap from wood of Khair (Acacia catechu).
• They serve as agricultural labourers and sell firewood and some jungle fruits. They also take up fishing
for domestic consumption, coal making and brick manufacturing. Poor literacy rates, health conditions
and minimal livelihood opportunities are some of the issues faced by the tribal people.
• Recently, a group of tribal youth from the Katkari community in Shahpur has come together to market
Giloy, a herb used in the treatment of viral fever, malaria as well as diabetes. The herb has a huge demand
from pharmaceutical companies. The group set up Adivasi Ekatmik Samajik Sanstha, which attracted
locals from the community.
• They received assistance from the government under Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Yojana run by TRIFED,
Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Yojana (PMVDY) is a retail marketing-led value
addition plan for Minor Forest Produce (MFP), meant for forest-based tribes to optimize the tribal income,
locally. Under the program, MFP-based tribal groups/enterprises of around 300 members are formed for
collection, value addition, packaging & marketing of Minor Forest Produces (MFPs).

Q 89.D
• All modern forms of democracy give central place to a legislative and deliberative assembly, the members
of which are chosen by universal suffrage through free, fair, regular and competitive elections. There are
concerns, however, about the ability of one elected assembly to adequately represent a diverse a society.
A second legislative body may enable a more nuanced and comprehensive representation of society
with greater representation for territorial, communal or other minorities. Hence statements 1 and 2
are correct.
• A bicameral legislature makes it possible to have every decision reconsidered. Every decision taken by
one house goes to the other house for its decision. This means that every bill and policy would be
discussed twice. This ensures a double check on every matter. It also acts as a check over the potential
abuse of power by the executive or the government with the majority. Hence statement 3 is correct.

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Q 90.C
• Part-IX was added to the constitution by the 73rd Amendment Act Of 1992.This part provides for
provisions related to Panchayats from Articles 243 to 243 O.
• Voluntary provisions under Part IX of the constitution include:
o Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses) and the state legislature
(both the Houses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies.
o Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in
panchayats at any level.
o Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self-
government (in brief, making them autonomous bodies).
o Devolution of powers and responsibilities upon panchayats to prepare plans for economic
development and social justice; and to perform some or all of the 29 functions listed in the Eleventh
Schedule of the Constitution.
o Granting financial powers to the panchayats, that is, authorizing them to levy, collect and appropriate
taxes, duties, tolls and fees.
• Some of the Compulsory Provisions are:
o Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.
o Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
o Direct election to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels is
mandatory under the constitution.
o Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
o 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.

Q 91.C
• The legislative council, being a permanent house, is not subject to dissolution. Only the legislative
assembly is subject to dissolution. Unlike a prorogation, a dissolution ends the very life of the existing
House, and a new House is constituted after the general elections are held.
• The position with respect to lapsing of bills on the dissolution of the assembly is mentioned below:
o A Bill pending in the assembly lapses (whether originating in the assembly or transmitted to it
by the council). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
o A Bill passed by the assembly but pending in the council lapses.
o A Bill pending in the council but not passed by the assembly does not lapse. Hence, statement 1
is correct.
o A Bill passed by the assembly (in a unicameral state) or passed by both the houses (in a
bicameral state) but pending assent of the governor or the President does not lapse. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.
o A Bill passed by the assembly (in a unicameral state) or passed by both the Houses (in a bicameral
state) but returned by the president for reconsideration of House (s) does not lapse.

Q 92.A
• Under the Rules of Rajya Sabha, the Chairman (Vice-President) nominates from amongst
the members a panel of vice-chairpersons. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Anyone of them can preside over the House in the absence of the Chairman or the Deputy Chairman. He
has the same powers as the Chairman when so presiding. He holds office until a new panel of vice-
chairpersons is nominated.
• When a member of the panel of vice-chairpersons is also not present, any other person as determined by
the House acts as the Chairman.
• It must be emphasized here that a member of the panel of vice-chairpersons cannot preside over the
House when the office of the Chairman or the Deputy Chairman is vacant. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
• During such time, the Chairman’s duties are to be performed by such member of the House as the
President may appoint for the purpose. The elections are held, as soon as possible, to fill the vacant posts.

Q 93.B
The powers of Governor with regard to Bills:
• All the bills passed by the state legislatures are sent to the Governor for assent. Once a bill is sent to
Governor for assent, he can:
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 o give his assent to the bill
o withhold the assent to the bill
o return the bill to the legislature for reconsideration (if it is not a money bill) .
• If the bill is re-passed by the legislature with or without amendment, the governor has to give assent to the
bill.
o Reserve the bills for the consideration of the President. In one case such reservation is obligatory,
that is where the bill passed by the State Legislature endangers the position of the state high
court. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• When a state bill is reserved by the governor for the consideration of the President, the president
has three alternatives :
o He may give his assent to the bill, the bill then become and act.
o He may withhold his assent to the bill, the bill then ends and does not become an Act.
o He may return the bill for reconsideration of the House or Houses of the State Legislature.
When a bill is so returned, the house or houses have to consider it within six months. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
• If the bill is passed by the house or houses again with or without amendments and presented to the
President for his assent, the president is not bound to give his assent to the bill. Hence statement 2 is
not correct.
• He may give his assent to such a bill or withhold his assent.

Q 94.C
• Article 243E of the Constitution provides that every Panchayat unless sooner dissolved under any law
for the time being in force, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting. (No
ground for dissolution of panchayats is provided by the constitution). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• As per the ruling of Punjab and Haryana Court in 2002, the panchayats could be dissolved before the
expiry of five years only in accordance with the law, if any, promulgated by the state. There is no general
power with the state government to dissolve the panchayats prior to expiry of the prescribed term of five
years.
• Further, fresh elections to constitute a panchayat shall be completed (a) before the expiry of its duration of
five years; or (b) in case of dissolution, before the expiry of a period of six months from the date of its
dissolution.
• But, where the remainder of the period (for which the dissolved panchayat would have continued) is less
than six months, it shall not be necessary to hold any election for constituting the new panchayat for such
period.
• Moreover, a panchayat constituted upon the dissolution of a panchayat before the expiration of its
duration shall continue only for the remainder of the period for which the dissolved panchayat
would have continued had it not been so dissolved. In other words, a panchayat reconstituted after
premature dissolution does not enjoy the full period of five years but remains in office only for the
remainder of the period.

Q 95.B
• The constitution lays down only two qualifications for the appointment of A person as Governor. These
are:
o He should be a citizen of India
o He should have completed the age of 35 years. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct.
• Additionally, two conventions have also developed in this regard over the years. These are:
o First, he should be an outsider, that is he should not belong to the State where he is appointed., so he
is free from local politics.
o Second, while appointing the governor, the President is required to consult the Chief Minister of the
concerned state, so that the smooth functioning of the constitutional machinery in the state is ensured.
• However, both conventions have been violated in some cases.

Q 96.C
• The governor is the chief executive head of the state. But, like the president, he is a nominal executive
head (titular or constitutional head). The governor also acts as an agent of the central government.
Therefore, the office of governor has a dual role.

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 • Usually, there is a governor for each State, but the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 facilitated the
appointment of the same person as a governor of two or more states. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Governor is entitled to such emoluments, allowances, and privileges as may be determined by Parliament.
Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Since the Governor holds the office under the pleasure of the President, his office has no fixed term.
President can remove the Governor and the grounds upon which he may be removed are not laid down in
the constitution. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 97.C
• In December 1977, the Janata Government appointed a committee on panchayati raj institutions under the
chairmanship of Ashok Mehta. It submitted its report in August 1978 and made 132 recommendations to
revive and strengthen the declining panchayati raj system in the country. Its main recommendations were:
o The three-tier system of panchayati raj should be replaced by the two-tier system, that is, zila
parishad at the district level, and below it, the mandal panchayat consisting of a group of villages with
a total population of 15,000 to 20,000.
o A district should be the first point for decentralisation under popular supervision below the state level.
o Zila parishad should be the executive body and made responsible for planning at the district level.
o There should be an official participation of political parties at all levels of panchayat elections.
o The panchayati raj institutions should have compulsory powers of taxation to mobilise their own
financial resources.
o There should be a regular social audit by a district level agency and by a committee of legislators to
check whether the funds allotted for the vulnerable social and economic groups are actually spent on
them.
o The state government should not supersede the panchayati raj institutions. In case of an imperative
supersession, elections should be held within six months from the date of supersession.
o The nyaya panchayats should be kept as separate bodies from that of development panchayats. They
should be presided over by a qualified judge.
o The chief electoral officer of a state in consultation with the chief election commissioner should
organise and conduct the panchayati raj elections.
o Development functions should be transferred to the zila parishad and all development staff should
work under its control and supervision.
o The voluntary agencies should play an important role in mobilising the support of the people for
panchayati raj.
o A minister for panchayati raj should be appointed in the state council of ministers to look after the
affairs of the panchayati raj institutions.
o Seats for SCs and STs should be reserved on the basis of their population.
o A constitutional recognition should be accorded to the Panchayati Raj institutions. This would give
them the requisite status (sanctity and stature) and an assurance of continuous functioning.
• Due to the collapse of the Janata Government before the completion of its term, no action could be taken
on the recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Committee at the central level.
• All the other committees mentioned - Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, Thungon Committee and Gadgil
Committee – recommended a three-tier system of panchayati raj.

Q 98.B
• The high courts of India are the principal civil courts of original jurisdiction in each state and union
territory. However, some of the union territories does not have a dedicated High Court. They come under
the purview of the following High Courts.
• Andaman and Nicobar Islands are under the territorial jurisdiction of Calcutta High Court. Lakshadweep
Islands are under the territorial jurisdiction of Kerala High Court.
• Bombay HC has jurisdiction over Daman and Diu and Dadra and Nagar Haveli. Bombay HC has
jurisdiction over Goa also.

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Q 99.B
Estimates Committee:
• The committee was first constituted in 1950 on the recommendations of John Mathai the then
finance minister. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Estimates Committee is a Committee of Lok Sabha. The Committee consist of not more than 30
Members from Lok Sabha who shall be elected by the House every year from amongst its members
according principle of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. Hence statement
2 is correct.
• The Speaker is empowered to appoint the Chairman of the Committee from amongst its members.
• Estimates committee has powers to examine the Budget Estimates and
o to report what economies, improvements in organisation, efficiency or administrative reform,
consistent with the policy underlying the estimates, may be effected.
o to suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration
o to examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates;
and
o to suggest the form in which the estimates shall be presented to Parliament.

Q 100.A
Executive powers and function of the Governor:
1. All the executive actions that the state government take, are to be taken in his name.
2. He can make rules specifying the manners in which orders and other instruments made and executed in
his name shall be authenticated.
3. He can makes rules for more convenient transactions of the business of a state government and for the
allocation among the ministers of the said business.
4. Chief Ministers and other ministers of the states are appointed by him. They hold office during the
pleasure of the Governor
5. They should also appoint Tribal Welfare Minister in the states of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya
Pradesh, Odisha.
6. He appoints the advocate general of states and determines their remuneration.
7. He appoints the State Election Commissioner and determines his service of condition and tenure.
However, State Election Commissioner can be removed only in like manner and on the grounds as a
judge of a high court. Hence statement 1 is correct.
8. He appoints the Chairman and member of the state public service Commission. However, they can
be removed only by the President and not by the Governor. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
9. He can seek any information relating to the administration of affairs of the state and proposal for
legislation from the Chief Minister.
10. He can require the Chief Minister to submit for the consideration of the council of ministers any matter on
which a decision had been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the council.
11. A constitutional emergency in the state is recommended to the President by him.
12. The governor enjoys extensive executive powers as an agent of the President during the President’s rule in
the state.

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