1.Constitution of India guarantees which of the following to the states of India?

[A] Territorial Integrity

[B] Sovereignty
[C] Right to secede from Union
[D] None of them
d
2.Which among the following authorities decides , how far the fundamental rights can apply
to the members of the armed forces in India?
[A] President of India
[B] Parliament of India
[C] Arms Forces themselves
[D] Arms Forces Tribunal
b
3.What is the correct chronological order of creation of Assam, Nagaland, Goa & Mizoram?
[A] Assam, Nagaland, Goa , Mizoram
[B] Assam, Mizoram, Nagaland,. Goa
[C] Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, Goa
[D] Assam, Goa, Mizoram, Nagaland
Correct Answer: C [Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, Goa]
Notes:
Nagaland was formed in 1963
Mizoram was formed in 20th Feb1987
Goa as a state was formed in 30th May 1987

4.By which among the following acts, the East India Company lost its monopoly of trade with
China?
[A] Pitts India act 1784
[B] The Charter Act of 1813
[C] The Charter Act of 1833
[D] The Charter Act of 1853
Correct Answer: C [The Charter Act of 1833]
Notes:
Charter Act 1833 or the Saint Helena Act 1833  was passed by the British Parliament to
renew the charter of East India Company which was last renewed in 1813. Via this act, the
charter was renewed for 20 years but the East India Company was deprived of its
commercial privileges which it enjoyed so far.

5.Delhi was called national Capital Territory by which amendment Act ?

[A] 63rd
[B] 69th
[C] 91st
[D] 93rd
Correct Answer: B [69th]
Notes:
Constitution (69th) Amendment Act, 1991 granted special status to Delhi and declared it the
National Capital Territory. A Lieutenant Governor was nominated as Administrator of Delhi
and legislative assembly was created for Delhi.

6.Which among the following formed as 22nd state of Indian union ?

[A]Goa
[B]ArunachalPradesh
[C]Sikkim
[D] Telangan
Correct Answer: C [Sikkim]
Notes:
Sikkim emerged as India’s 22nd state on 26th April, 1975. The Sikkim State day is observed
on 16th May of every year because this was the day when the first Chief Minister of Sikkim
assumed office.

7.Which among the following is the most appropriate definition of Political liberty of Citizens
of India ?
[A] Right to participate in the government and assume equal opportunity to assume
highestoffice
[B] right to cast vote and participate in the election process

[C] Equal opportunity to freely move in the Political territories of India

[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: A [Right to participate in the government and assume equal opportunity to
assume highest office]
Notes:
The rights to life and personal liberty apply for persons of any nationality, while others, such
as the freedom of speech and expression are applicable only to the citizens of
India (including non-resident  Indian citizens).

8.JVP committee which was constituted in 1948-49 was related to which of the following ?
[A] Industrialization of India
[B] Formation of new states on linguistic basis
[C] National language of India
[D] Reservation for SC & STS
Correct Answer: B [Formation of new states on linguistic basis]
Notes:
JVP committee was set up by the Congress to study the recommendations of Linguistic
Provinces Commission (Dar Commission) . It comprised Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai
Patel and Pattabhi Sitaramayya. The committee gave its report on 1 April 1949 and said that
time was NOT suitable for formation of new provinces. However, it also accepted presence of
strong public sentiment towards linguistic states in the country.
9.Which among the following was not a Union Territory before it was accorded the status of
Full Fledged state ?
[A] Himachal Pradesh
[B] Manipur
[C] Tripura
[D] Sikkim
Correct Answer: D [Sikkim]
Notes:
Himachal Pradesh, Manipur and Tripura were Union Territories before they were upgraded
to full fledged state. Sikkim was admitted in India as a full fledged state only.

10.In which case, Supreme court held that any Constitutional amendment that takes away or
abridges a Fundamental Right conferred by Part III is void?
[A] SR Bommai Vs. Union of India, 1994
[B] Kesavananda Bharati Vs. State of Kerala (1973)
[C] Golaknath v. State of Punjab, 1967
[D] Minerva Mills v. Union of India, 1980
Correct Answer: C [Golaknath v. State of Punjab, 1967]
Notes:
In Golaknath v. State of Punjab case, the Supreme Court held that an amendment of the
Constitution is a legislative process, and that an amendment under article 368 is “law”
within the meaning of article 13 of the Constitution and therefore, if an amendment “takes
away or abridged” a Fundamental Right conferred by Part III, it is void.

11.Which of the following parts/ provisions of the Indian Constitution cannot be amended?
[A] Preamble to the Constitution
[B] Directive Principles of State Policy
[C] Fundamental Rights
[D] Judicial Review
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: D [Judicial Review]
Notes:
Judicial Review forms the part of the basic structure of the Constitution which cannot be
altered by the amendment procedure.
12.The president of India can summon joint session of the Parliament in case of a deadlock
between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha during the passage of which of the following?
Ordinary Legislation
Money Bill
Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Correct Answer: A [Only 1]
Notes:
Joint sitting is called in the following situation:
1. Bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House and it is rejected by
the other House
2. Both houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the Bill
3. More than 6 months elapse from the date of the reception of the Bill by the other House
without the Bill being passed by it.
Please note that if there is a deadlock between the two houses on a Constitution amendment
Bill, there cannot be a joint sitting. In case of Money bills, the rejection of Rajya Sabha is
immaterial.
13.Which of the following must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee before being
submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting?
[A] Supplementary grant
[B] Exceptional grant
[C] Token grant
[D] Excess grant
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: D [Excess grant]
Notes:
Excess Grant is granted when money has been spent in a year in excess of the amount
granted in budget for that year for a particular service. It is voted by the Lok Sabha after the
financial year. Before the demands for excess grants are submitted to the Lok Sabha for
voting, they must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament
14.The principle of dyarchy introduced by British in India refers to which of the following?
[A] Rule by two
[B] Separation legislature and executive
[C] Division of subjects transferred to provinces into two categories
[D] Two parallel governments
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [ Division of subjects transferred to provinces into two categories ]
Notes:
In the Indian context, dyarchy refers to the division of legislation subjects into central and
provincial categories. The subjects delegated to the provinces were further divided into
‘reserved’ and ‘transferred’ categories.
15.Which act provided for the establishment of Public Service Commission?
[A] Indian Councils Act, 1909
[B] Government of India Act, 1919
[C] Government of India act, 1935
[D] Independence of India act, 1947
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B [ Government of India Act, 1919 ]
Notes:
The Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the establishment of a Public Service
Commission. Hence, a central public service commission was set up in 1926 for recruiting
the civil servants.
16.Who held the portfolio of finance in the interim government of 1946?
[A] Dr. Rajendra Prasad
[B] Liaquat Ali khan
[C] C. Rajagopalachari
[D] Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Correct Answer: B [ Liaquat Ali khan ]
Notes:
The portfolio of finance was held by Liaquat Ali khan in the interim government of 1946. The
members of interim government were members of the Viceroy’s executive council. The
Viceroy continued to be the head of the council.
17.Who was the Vice-President of the Executive council in the Interim Government formed in
1946?
[A] C. Rajagopalachari
[B] Dr. Rajendra Prasad
[C] Jawaharlal Nehru
[D] H C Mukherjee
Correct Answer: C [Jawaharlal Nehru]
Notes:
Jawaharlal Nehru was the Vice-President of the Executive Council in the Interim
Government formed in 1946. On the other hand, Viceroy was appointed as the President of
the Executive Council.
18.Who was the head of Union Powers Committee?
[A] Dr. Rajendra Prasad
[B] Jawaharlal Nehru
[C] B. R. Ambedkar
[D] Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B [Jawaharlal Nehru]
Notes:
Union Powers Committee was headed by Jawaharlal Nehru. He also headed the Union
Constitution Committee. He was the first President of India and held office from 1950 to
1962.
19.Which Article of Indian Constitution contains the definition of Money bills?
[A] Article 110
[B] Article 111
[C] Article 112
[D] Article 123
Correct Answer: A [Article 110]
Notes:
The Article 110 of the Indian Constitution covers the definition of money bills. Money bills
are introduced in Lok Sabha and generally cover the issues of receipt and expenditures of the
government of India.
20.The original constitution of India had included 14 languages in the 8th schedule. Which of
the following was the 15th language to be included in this schedule?
[A] Konkani
[B] Dogri
[C] Sindhi
[D] Manipuri
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Sindhi]
Notes:
Eighth Schedule mentions the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Originally
it contained 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages. Sindhi was added by the 21st
Amendment Act of 1967. Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added in 1992 by 71st
Constitutional Amendment Act; and Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santali were added in 2003
by 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act.[

21.Who said that – India is an indestructible Union of destructible states?

[A] Jawaharlal Nehru
[B] B R Ambedkar
[C] B N Rau
[D] Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B [ B R Ambedkar ]
Notes:
Article 1(1) of the constitution of India says that “India, that is Bharat, shall be Union of
States”. The word Union was deliberately chosen in place of Federation to indicate that
Indian Union is not the result of an agreement between states (which can be broken at whim)
and its component states have no freedom to secede from it. Thus, while states can be broken,
reorganized by alternation of boundaries, the country is a union which cannot be broken.
Central Government can change the name, boundaries of the states without their permission
also. That is why Dr. B R Ambedkar called India as an “indestructible Union of destructible
states”.
22.Which of the following right is available to both foreigners and Indians?
[A] Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste ,sex or place of birth
[B] Right to equality of opportunity in matter of public employment
[C] Protection of life and personal property
[D] Protection of language , script and cluster of minorities
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Protection of life and personal property]
Notes:
Not all the Fundamental Rights are available to foreigners in India. Right to life and
personal property covered in Article 21 of the Constitution of India is available both to
foreigners and Indians.
23.Which of the following are eligible for the office of President in India?
[A] Naturalised citizen
[B] Citizen by incorporation of territory
[C] Citizen by descent
[D] Citizen by registration
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: A [Naturalised citizen]
Notes:
Both the citizens by birth as well as naturalised citizen are eligible for the office of President
in India. While in U.S.A. only a citizen by birth and not a naturalised citizen is eligible for
the office of President.
24.Which part of the Constitution is described as the ‘Magna Carta’ of India?
[A] Part I
[B] Part II
[C] Part III
[D] Part IV
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Part III]
Notes:
The Part III of the Constitution of India is described as the Magna Carta of India. The
Fundamental Rights which are found in Indian Constitution are more elaborate than those
found in the Constitution of any other country of the world.
25.Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with promotion of
international peace and security?
[A] Article 48 A
[B] Article 41
[C] Article 43 A
[D] Article 51
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: 0 []
Notes:
Article 51 of the Directive Principles of State Policy seeks to promote international peace
and security and maintain just and honourable relations between nations; to foster respect
for international law and treaty obligations, and to encourage settlement of international
disputes by arbitration.
26.Which of the following can be amended by special majority of Parliament and consent of
states?
[A] Election of the President and its manner
[B] Citizenship–acquisition and termination
[C] Use of official language
[D] Rules of procedure in Parliament
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: 0 []
Notes:
Election of the President and its manner is related to the federal structure of the polity and
can be amended by a special
majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a
simple majority.
27.The principle of collective responsibility is enshrined in which article of the Constitution?
[A] Article 75
[B] Article 76
[C] Article 77
[D] Article 78
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: A [Article 75]
Notes:
The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the
Lok Sabha in particular according to Article 75 of the Constitution. They act as a team, and
swim and sink together.
28.Which of the following are the demerits of the presidential form of government?
1. Conflict between legislature and executive
2. Non-responsible government
3. May lead to autocracy
4. Narrow representation
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 1, 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: D [1, 2, 3 & 4 ]
Notes:
The following constitute the demerits of the presidential form of government: (1) Conflict
between legislature and executive, (2) Non-responsible government, (3) May lead to
autocracy and (4) Narrow representation.
29.On which country’s model is the Indian federal system is based?
[A] USA
[B] Britain
[C] Canada
[D] France
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Canada]
Notes:
The federal system of India is based on the ‘Canadian model’ and not on the ‘American
model’. The ‘Canadian model’ differs fundamentally from the ‘American model’  as it
establishes a very strong centre.
30.Which Articles of the Indian Constitution deal with the Union executive?
[A] Articles 42 to 68
[B] Articles 48 to 60
[C] Articles 52 to 78
[D] Articles 82 to 98
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Articles 52 to 78]
Notes:
Articles 52 to 78 in Part V of the Constitution of India deal with the Union executive. It is the
Prime Minister of India who leads the Union Executive of the government of India.
31.According to which Constitutional Amendment defectors have no more protection on
grounds of splits?
[A] 91st
[B] 96th
[C] 99th
[D] 100th
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: A [91st]
Notes:
According to the 91st Amendment Act of 2003 the provision of the 10th Schedule (anti-
defection law) pertaining to exemption from disqualification in case of split by one-third
members of legislature party has been deleted. Accordingly the defectors have no more
protection on grounds of splits.
32.How many parliaments are there in the Inter Parliamentary Union at present?
[A] 152
[B] 153
[C] 154
[D] 155
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B [153]
Notes:
The Inter Parliamentary Union is an international organisation of the parliaments of the
sovereign states. At present, the Inter Parliamentary Union consists of total 153 parliaments
of  the sovereign nations.
33.Who has the power to appoint the officers and servants of the Supreme Court?
[A] Chief Justice of India
[B] Parliament
[C] Prime Minister
[D] President
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: A [Chief Justice of India]
Notes:
The Chief Justice of India is empowered to appoint officers and servants of the Supreme
Court of India without any interference from the executive. He also has the power
to prescribe their conditions of service.
34.How many subjects are there in the Concurrent List of the Constitution of India?
[A] 52
[B] 53
[C] 54
[D] 56
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: A [52]
Notes:
The Parliament and state legislature both can make laws with respect to any of the matters
enumerated in the Concurrent List. The list has presently 52 subjects (originally 473
subjects).
35.Who establishes a river board on the request of the State government?
[A] The Lok Sabha
[B] The President
[C] The Prime Minister
[D] The Central government
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: D [The Central government]
Notes:
The Central government establish a river board when a the government of a state requests
the central government  or advises them to do so. The Inter-State Water Disputes Act of the
Parliament empowers the Central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for the
adjudication of inter-state river water disputes.
36.Who establishes inter-state council?
[A] The Parliament
[B] The Vice President
[C] The President
[D] The Prime Minister
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [The President]
Notes:
The President under Article 263 establishes the Inter-State Council to effect coordination
between the states and between Centre and states. The President can establish such a council
if at any time it appears to him that the public interest would be served by its establishment.
37.Which of the following statements are correct with respect to National Emergency?
1. President can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or
external aggression or armed         rebellion
2. President can also issue different proclamations whether or not there is a proclamation
already issued by him and             such proclamation is in operation       
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 & 2
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Both 1 & 2]
Notes:
The president of India can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence
of war or external aggression or armed rebellion, if he is satisfied that there is an imminent
danger. According to the 38th Amendment Act of 1975   President can also issue different
proclamations on grounds of war, external aggression, armed rebellion, or imminent danger
thereof, whether or not there is a proclamation already issued by him and such proclamation
is in operation.
38.Which Commission was appointed to investigate the circumstances that warranted the
declaration of an Emergency in
1975?
[A] Shah Commission
[B] Khosla Commission
[C] Sarkaria Commission
[D] Nanavati Commission
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: A [Shah Commission]
Notes:
When Congress Party led by Indira Gandhi lost and the Janta Party came to power. The new
government appointed the Shah Commission to investigate the circumstances that led to the
declaration of an Emergency in 1975.
39.Who wrote the book “The Spirit of Laws”?
[A] Machiavelli
[B] Montesquieu
[C] Thomas Hobbes
[D] Jean-Jacques Rousseau
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B [Montesquieu]
Notes:
In asking the Indian courts to maintain judicial restraint in 2007, Supreme Court quoted
from the book ‘The Spirit of Laws’ by Montesquieu criticizing judiciary for “overreach” and
encroachment on the domain of the other two organs”.
40.What is the meaning of ‘judicial restraint’?
[A] Judges should expand their role in social policy making
[B] Judges should overstep to protect the rights of the individual
[C] Judges should not indulge in lawmaking
[D] Progressive political values should influence judicial opinion
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Judges should not indulge in lawmaking]
Notes:
Judicial restraint means that the judges should play a limited role of saying what the law is,
leaving the job of lawmaking for legislators and the executives. Moreover, judges must not
allow their personal political values to influence their judicial opinions.
41.Under which Article of the Constitution the President is empowered to consult the
Supreme Court?
[A] Article 143
[B] Article 133
[C] Article 129
[D] Article 32
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: A [Article 143]
Notes:
The Article 143 of the constitution of India empowers the President to consult the Supreme
Court on the question of law or fact, but he is not bound to accept the advice given by the
Supreme Court.
42.What is the minimum age required to be a Prime Minister of India?
[A] 21 years
[B] 25 years
[C] 30 years
[D] 35 years
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B [25 years]
Notes:
The minimum age requirement to become the Prime Minister of India is 25 years. It is same
as required by a person to be a member of the Lok Sabha, that is, 25 years. However to be a
member of Rajya Sabha the age requirement is 30 years.
43.Who said that the “The Cabinet is the central directing instrument of Government”?
[A] Gladstone
[B] Barker
[C] L.S. Amery
[D] Sir Ivor Jennings
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [L.S. Amery]
Notes:
L.S. Amery opined that “The Cabinet is the central directing instrument of Government”. He
was a British Politician. He is remembered for his part in bringing about the fall of the
government of Neville Chamberlain in 1940.
44.Who is the chairman of Parliamentary Affairs Committee?
[A] Prime Minister
[B] Finance Minister
[C] Home Minister
[D] Speaker
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Home Minister]
Notes:
Parliamentary Affairs Committee is chaired by the Union Home Minister. The Parliamentary
Affairs Committee looks after the progress of government business in the Parliament of
India. This is one of the most important cabinet committees.
45.What the minimum age for a person seeking election to the Lok Sabha?
[A] 18 years
[B] 20 years
[C] 25 years
[D] 35 years
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [25 years]
Notes:
The minimum age of a person seeking election to the Lok Sabha (House of People) 
according to Artcle 84 (1) (b) is not less than 25 years of age. And for Rajya Sabha it is not
less than 30 years of age.
46.Who is authorized to prorogue the session of Lok Sabha?
[A] President
[B] Speaker
[C] Vice President
[D] Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: A [President ]
Notes:
The House of People of the Lok Sabha can be dissolved and prorogued by the President of
India under Article 85 (2) of the Constitution of India. Adjournment is done by speaker of
Lok Sabha.
47.In which year, hindi names ‘Rajya Sabha’ and ‘Lok Sabha’ were adopted for the Council
of States and the House of People respectively?
[A] 1950
[B] 1947
[C] 1954
[D] 1962
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [1954]
Notes:
In 1954, the Hindi names ‘Rajya Sabha’ and ‘Lok Sabha’ were adopted for the Council of
States and the House of People. The Rajya Sabha represented the states and the union
territories, and the Lok Sabha represented the people of India in collective.
48.Which Article of the Constitution deals with the definition of money bills?
[A] Article 109
[B] Article 110
[C] Article 112
[D] Article 113
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B [Article 110]
Notes:
Article 110 of the Constitution of India deals with the definition of money bills. It states that a
bill is deemed to be a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with imposition,
abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax, regulation of the borrowing of
money by the Union government etc.
49.Which Constitutional Amendment Act provided for establishment of common high courts
for two or more states?
[A] 5th Amendment
[B] 6th Amendment
[C] 7th Amendment
[D] 9th Amendment
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [7th Amendment]
Notes:
The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 provided for the establishment of a common
high court for two or more states. It also provided for the appointment of additional and
acting judges of the high court.
50.Which Amendment abolished the system of Election Tribunals?
[A] 12th
[B] 14th
[C] 17th
[D] 19th
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: D [19th]
Notes:
The Nineteenth Constitutional Amendment Act of 1966 abolished the system of Election
Tribunals. It also vested the power to hear election petitions in the High Courts.
51.A motion for removal of judge of High Court should be signed by how many members in
case of Rajya Sabha?
[A] 40
[B] 50
[C] 60
[D] 70
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B [50]
Notes:
A motion for removal of a judge of High Court should be signed by 100 members (in the case
of Lok Sabha) or 50 members (in the case of Rajya Sabha) and be given to the
Speaker/Chairman.
52.In which of the following cases the Supreme Court ruled that the sole opinion of the chief
justice of India does not constitute the ‘consultation’ process in case of transfer of judges?
[A] First Judges case (1981)
[B] Second Judges case (1993)
[C] Third Judges case (1998)
[D] None of the above
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Third Judges case (1998)]
Notes:
In the Third Judges case of the year 1998, the Supreme Court of India opined sole opinion of
the chief justice of India alone does not constitute the ‘consultation’ process in matters of
transfer of judges.
53.Both the additional or acting judge cannot hold office after attaining the age?
[A] 62
[B] 65
[C] 70
[D] None of the above
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: A [62]
Notes:
An acting judge of High Court holds office until the permanent judge resumes his office.
However, both the additional or acting judge of High Court cannot hold office after attaining
the age of 62 years.
54.Which committee has been constituted to administer and implement the legal services
programme in India?
[A] CJI Legal Services Committee
[B] Supreme Court Legal Services Committee
[C] High Court Legal Services Committee
[D] Legal Services Committee
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B [Supreme Court Legal Services Committee]
Notes:
The Supreme Court Legal Services Committee has been constituted by the Parliament to
administer and implement the legal services programme insofar as it relates to the Supreme
Court of India.
55.Which of the following are the merits of Lok Adalats?
1. There is no court fee and if court fee is already paid the amount will be refunded if the
dispute is settled at Lok Adalat.
2. The parties to the dispute cannot directly interact with the judge through their counsel.
3. The award by the Lok Adalat is binding on the parties.
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Only 1 & 3]
Notes:
The following are the merits of Lok Adalats: (1) there is no court fee and if court fee is
already paid the amount will be refunded if the dispute is settled at Lok Adalat, (2) the
parties to the dispute can directly interact with the judge through their counsel, (3) the award
by the Lok Adalat is binding on the parties involved in the dispute.
56.The family courts are established by state governments in consultation with?
[A] Supreme Court
[B] Chief Justice of India
[C] High Court
[D] Cabinet
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [High Court]
Notes:
Family Courts Act, 1984 provides for the establishment of Family Courts by the State
Governments in consultation with the High Courts of the respective states. It is obligatory for
the State Governments to set up a Family Court in every city or town with a population
exceeding 1 million.
57.Gram Nyayalaya is guided by which of the following?
[A] Indian Evidence Act, 1872
[B] Principles of natural justice
[C] Indian Penal Code
[D] Indian Evidence Act, 1888
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B [Principles of natural justice]
Notes:
The Gram Nyayalaya is not be bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872. It shall be guided by the principles of natural justice and subject to any
rule made by the High Court.
58.Who headed the National Commission on Urbanisation?
[A] Girijapati Mukharji
[B] Rafiq Zakaria
[C] C.M. Correa
[D] K.N. Sahaya
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [C.M. Correa]
Notes:
C.M. Correa headed the National Commission on Urbanisation from 1985 to 1988.
Girijapati Mukharji headed the Committee on Budgetary Reform in Municipal
Administration in 1974.
Rafiq Zakaria headed the Committee of Ministers on Augmentation of Financial Resources of
Urban Local Bodies in 1963.
K.N. Sahaya headed the Study Group on Constitution, Powers and Laws of Urban Local
Bodies and Municipal Corporations in 1982.
59.To which of the following areas, the provisions of municipality do not apply?
[A] Scheduled areas
[B] Tribal areas
[C] Both of them
[D] None of them
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Both of them]
Notes:
Scheduled areas and tribal areas in various states are exempted from the application of
provisions of urban local government or municipality. It is also not allowed to affect the
functions and powers of the Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council of the West Bengal.
60.Which among the following are other names for the municipality?
[A] Borough municipality
[B] Municipal committee
[C] City municipality
[D] All of the above
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: D [All of the above]
Notes:
Municipality is also known by other names like municipal council, municipal board,
municipal committee, borough municipality, city municipality, etc.

61.Which of the following ends the very life of the existing House?
[A] Summoning
[B] Adjournment sine die
[C] Prorogation
[D] Dissolution
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: D [Dissolution]
Notes:
Unlike a prorogation which only terminates a session, a dissolution ends the very life of the
existing House. Therefore, a new House is constituted after the general elections are held.
62.How many high court judges have been impeached so far?
[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 4
[D] None
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: D [None]
Notes:
The procedure for the impeachment of a judge of a high court is the same as that for a judge
of the Supreme Court of India. No judge of a high court has been impeached so far.
63.What is the maximum period for the President can appoint duly qualified persons as
additional judges of a high court?
[A] 6 months
[B] 9 months
[C] 1 year
[D] 2 years
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: D [2 years]
Notes:
The President of India can appoint duly qualified persons as additional judges of a high
court of a state for a temporary period not exceeding two years according to the Constitution
of India.
64.Which of the following persons are eligible for getting free legal services?
1. Women and children
2. Members of SC/ST
3. Farmers whose annual income does not exceed 5 lakhs.
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 2
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Only 1 & 2]
Notes:
The following persons are eligible for getting free legal services: (i) Women and children,
(ii) Members of SC/ST, (iii) Industrial workmen, (iv) Victims of mass disaster, violence,
flood, drought, earthquake, industrial disaster, (v) Disabled persons, (vi) Persons in custody,
(vii) Persons whose annual income does not exceed ₹1 lakh , (viii) Victims of trafficking in
human beings or beggar.
65.Lok Adalats are based on the principles of?
[A] B.R. Amedkar
[B] M.K. Gandhi
[C] Jai Prakash Narayan
[D] Subhash Chandra Bose
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B [M.K. Gandhi]
Notes:
The word ‘Lok Adalat’ refers to ‘People’s Court’. This system is based on Gandhian
principles. and is one of the components of ADR (Alternative Dispute Resolution) system in
India.
66.Which of the following are the advantages of ADR (Alternative Dispute Resolution)
summarized by the Law Commission of India?
1. Less expensive
2. Time-consuming & effective
3. Parties are free to discuss their differences of opinion
4. Parties have the feeling that there is no losing or winning side
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1 & 3
[C] Only 1, 3 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Only 1, 3 & 4]
Notes:
The following are the advantages of ADR (Alternative Dispute Resolution) summarized by
the Law Commission of India: (1) the process is less expensive, (2) it less time-consuming,
(4) parties are free to discuss their differences of opinion and (4) parties have the feeling that
there is no losing or winning side.
67.Which of the following can be the chairman of Permanent Lok Adalat?
1. A person has been a district judge
2. A person who has held the post of additional district judge
3. A person who has held judicial office higher in rank than that of the district judge
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: D [1, 2 & 3]
Notes:
The Permanent Lok Adalat shall consist of a Chairman. The chairman can be a person who
is or has been a district judge or additional district judge or has held judicial office higher in
rank than that of the district judge and two other persons having adequate experience in
public utility
services.
68.Which Article states that a regional council consisting of 35 members should be
established for the Tuensang district?
[A] Article 371
[B] Article 371 A
[C] Article 371 B
[D] Article 371 C
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B [Article 371 A]
Notes:
The Article 371 A of the Constitution of India states that a regional council consisting of 35
members should be established for the Tuensang district of the state Nagaland. The
Governor should make rules for the composition of the council.
69.Which committee recommended the establishment of a three-tier panchayati raj system?
[A] Study Team on Panchayati Raj Administration
[B] Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
[C] Ashok Mehta Committee
[D] G.V.K. Rao Committee
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B [Balwant Rai Mehta Committee]
Notes:
The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee which was established in the year 1957 by the
government of India recommended for the establishment of a three-tier panchayati raj system
at the local level in India.
70.How much seats are reserved for Scheduled Tribes in Panchayats out of total seats under
PESA Act?
[A] 1/2
[B] 1/3
[C] 1/4
[D] 1/5
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: A [1/2]
Notes:
Under the PESA Act the reservation for the Scheduled Tribes shall not be less than one-half
of the total number of seats. Further, all seats of the Chairpersons of Panchayats at all levels
shall be reserved for the Scheduled Tribes.
71.Which act provided for the establishment of Railway Claims Tribunal?
[A] Railway Claims Tribunal Act,1987
[B] Railway Claims Tribunal Act, 1995
[C] Railway Claims Tribunal Act, 2000
[D] Railway Claims Tribunal Act, 2015
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: A [Railway Claims Tribunal Act,1987]
Notes:
The Railway Claims Tribunal Act,1987 provided for the establishment of Railway Claims
Tribunal fro inquiring into and determining claims against a railway administration for loss,
destruction damage etc.
72.Which of the following is the consequence if NOTA votes exceeds 50%?
[A] Elections are cancelled
[B] It does not affect the election results
[C] Election is again organised in constituencies where NOTA vote was more than 50%
[D] None of the above
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B [It does not affect the election results ]
Notes:
NOTA votes does not affect the election results even if the NOTA votes exceed 50% of the
total votes cast. The winner is selected on the basis of rest of votes by first past the post
system.
73.Which of the following rejected the idea of making voting compulsory?
[A] K.M. Munshi
[B] Jawaharlal Nehru
[C] Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
[D] Mahatma Gandhi
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Dr. B.R. Ambedkar]
Notes:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar rejected the idea of making voting compulsory on account of practical
difficulties during the discussion on the People’s Representation Bill in Parliament of India
in the year 1951.
74.Who determines the conditions of service of the chairman and other members of the
Union Public Service Commission?
[A] Parliament
[B] Council of Ministers
[C] Prime MInister
[D] President
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: D [President]
Notes:
The Constitution also authorises the president of India to determine the conditions of service
of the chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission. Usually, the
Commission consists of nine to eleven members including the chairman.
75.The State Public Service Commission presents a report on its performance to which of the
following?
[A] Parliament
[B] State Legialature
[C] President
[D] Governor
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: 0 []
Notes:
The State Public Service Commission presents to the governor a report on its performance,
annually. The governor of the state places this report before both the Houses of the state
legislature.
76.Which of the following constitute the All-India services?
1. Indian Administrative Service (IAS)
2. Indian Police Service (IPS)
3. Indian Forest Service (IFS)
4. Indian Economic Service (IES)
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1 & 3
[C] Only 1, 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Only 1, 2 & 3]
Notes:
Presently there are only three all-India services. They are: (1) Indian Administrative Service
(IAS), (2) Indian Police Service (IPS) and (3) Indian Forest Service (IFS).
77.How many group A Central services are there at present?
[A] 50
[B] 60
[C] 62
[D] 70
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [62]
Notes:
Presently there are 62 group A Central services. Some of them are: (1) Central Engineering
Service, (2) Central Health Service, (3) Central Information Service, (4) Central Legal
Service, (5) Central Secretariat Service etc.
78.Which article empowers the Parliament and the state legislatures to regulate the
recruitment and the conditions of service of the persons appointed to public services?
[A] 306
[B] 307
[C] 308
[D] 309
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: 0 []
Notes:
The Article 309 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament of India and the state
legislatures to regulate the recruitment and the conditions of service of the persons
appointed to public services and posts under the Centre and the states, respectively.
79.Who determines the salaries, allowances and other conditions of service of the
chairperson or a member of National Human Rights Commission?
[A] Rajya Sabha
[B] A committee is composed for the same
[C] Central government
[D] President
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Central government]
Notes:
The salaries, allowances and other conditions of service of the chairperson or a member of
National Human Rights Commission are determined by the Central government. Also they
cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
80.Who appoints the advocate general of the state?
[A] President
[B] Parliament
[C] Prime Minister
[D] Governor
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: D [Governor]
Notes:
The advocate general of the state is appointed by the governor of the state. He must be a
person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of a high court of the state.

81.Who all are included in the jurisdiction of Lokpal?

[A] Prime Minister
[B] Ministers
[C] Members of Parliament
[D] All of the above
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: D [All of the above]
Notes:
Prime Minister, Ministers, Members of Parliament, Groups A, B, C and D officers and
officials of the Central Government are all included in the jurisdiction of the Lokpal.
82.Who appoints the lokayukta?
[A] Chief Minister
[B] High Court judge
[C] Governor
[D] None of the above
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Governor]
Notes:
The governor of a state appoints the lokyukta. He consults the following officials in making
the appointment-
(a) the chief justice of the state high court
(b) the leader of Opposition in the state legislative assembly
83.Which article of the constitution gave constitutional status and protection to co-operative
societies?
[A] 95th Constitutional Amendment Act
[B] 96th Constitutional Amendment Act
[C] 97th Constitutional Amendment Act
[D] 98th Constitutional Amendment Act
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [97th Constitutional Amendment Act]
Notes:
The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of the year 2011 gave constitutional status and
protection to co-operative societies. The co-operative societies in India has made significant
contribution to various sectors of national economy and has achieved voluminous growth.
84.Which part of the Constitution of India deals with the official languages?
[A] Part XV
[B] Part XVII
[C] Part XIX
[D] Part XX
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B [Part XVII]
Notes:
The Part XVII of the Constitution of India deals with the official language in Articles 343 to
351. The provisions of the Part XVII are divided into four heads–Language of the Union,
Regional languages, Language of the judiciary and texts of laws and Special directives.
85.In which of the following year the President of India appointed an Official Language
Commission under the chairmanship of B.G. Kher?
[A] 1950
[B] 1955
[C] 1957
[D] 1965
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B [1955]
Notes:
The president  in the year 1955 appointed an Official Language Commission under the
chairmanship of B.G. Kher. The commission submitted its report to the President of India in
1956.
86.Which of the following appoints the chairman and members of the State Administrative
Tribunals (SATs)?
[A] Parliament
[B] President
[C] Governor
[D] Prime Minister
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B [President]
Notes:
The chairman and members of the State Administrative Tribunals (SATs) are appointed by
the president of India after consultation with the governor of the state concerned.
87.In which of the following cases the property accrues to the government as there is no
rightful owner?
1. Escheat
2. Lapse
3. Bona vacantia
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Only 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: D [1, 2 & 3]
Notes:
In three cases, the property accrues to the government as there is no rightful owner
(claimant). These include: by escheat (death of a person inte-state without any heir), lapse
(termination of rights through disuse or failure to follow appropriate procedures) or bona
vacantia (property found without any owner).
88.According to which section of IPC if anyone commits any offence which is punishable in
our country is liable to be convicted and punished if he commits the same crime in foreign
countries?
[A] Section 1
[B] Section 2
[C] Section 3
[D] Section 4
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Section 3]
Notes:
According to section 3 of IPC if anyone commits any offence which is punishable in our
country is liable to be convicted and punished if he commits the same crime in foreign
countries
89.Which of the following section of IPC will not apply to a criminal act done by one person
even if there are a series of acts and applies to several people committing the act?
[A] Section 22
[B] Section 24
[C] Section 34
[D] None of the above
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Section 34]
Notes:
The section 34 of Indian Penal Code will not apply to a criminal act done by one person even
if there are a series of acts and applies to several people committing the act.
90.The Whistle Blower Act, 2014 has overridden the Official Secrets Act of which year?
[A] 1922
[B] 1923
[C] 1924
[D] 1925
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B [1923]
Notes:
The Whistle Blower Act of the year 2014 has overridden the Official Secrets act of 1923
which implies that the complain will not be violating of the later.
91.In which year Sati was first banned under Bengal Sati Regulation?
[A] 1829
[B] 1830
[C] 1831
[D] 1832
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: A [1829]
Notes:
Sati was first banned under Bengal Sati Regulation of 1829. Sati (Prevention) Act, 1987
seeks to prevent Sati practice or the voluntary or forced burning or burying widows alive.
92.Which of the following are the functions of National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)?
1. Regulation of acts prohibited under the Act
2. Advise the Government of India on conservation of biodiversity
3. Advise the Government of India on selection of biological heritage sites
4. Take appropriate steps for opposing grant of intellectual property rights in foreign
countries, arising from the use of biological resources or
     associated traditional knowledge
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1, 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: D [1, 2, 3 & 4]
Notes:
The functions of National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) are as follows:
1. Regulation of acts prohibited under the Act.
2. Advise the Government of India on conservation of biodiversity.
3. Advise the Government of India on selection of biological heritage sites.
4. Take appropriate measures for opposing grant of intellectual property rights in foreign
countries, arising from the use of biological resources or associated traditional knowledge.
93.The National Compensatory Afforestation Fund is established under which of the
following?
[A] Contingency Fund of India
[B] Consolidated Fund of India
[C] Public Account of India
[D] None of the above
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Public Account of India]
Notes:
The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act of 2016 establishes the National Compensatory
Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of India, and a State Compensatory
Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of each state.
94.The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act was enacted in which year?
[A] 1950
[B] 1960
[C] 1970
[D] 1980
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B [1960]
Notes:
The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act was enacted in the year 1960 by the Parliament of
India to prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals and to amend the
laws relating to the prevention of cruelty to animals.
95.Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 was prepared on the recommendations of which
committee?
[A] Hartog Committee
[B] Fazl Ali Committee
[C] Chopra Committee
[D] None of the above
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Chopra Committee]
Notes:
Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 was prepared on the recommendations of Chopra Committee
formed in 1930.  This act was originally known as the Drug Act.   The act has undergone
several amendments and is now known as the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
96.The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act was passed in which year?
[A] 2005
[B] 2006
[C] 2007
[D] 2008
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B [2006]
Notes:
The Government of India passed the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act in 2006. I came into
force came into force on 1 November 2007. The objective was to prohibit solemnization of
child marriage and connected and incidental matters in India.
97.
The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights)
Act was passed in which year ?
[A] 2003
[B] 2004
[C] 2005
[D] 2006
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: D [2006]
Notes:
The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights)
Act was passed in the year 2006. The Act protects the rights of forest-dwelling communities,
of land and other resources which were denied to them over decades as a result of the
continuance of colonial forest laws in India.
98.
Which section of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition
of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 lays out a procedure by which people can be resettled from areas
if it is found to be necessary for wildlife conservation?
[A] Section 3(1)
[B] Section 6(1)
[C] Section 4(2)
[D] None of the above
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [Section 4(2)]
Notes:
The section 4(2) of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition
of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 lays out a procedure by which people can be resettled from areas
if it is found to be necessary for wildlife conservation.
99.Assam Accord was signed in which year between the All Assam Students Union (AASU),
the All Assam Gana Sangram Parishad and the then Central Government led by Rajiv
Gandhi to bring stability in the state?
[A] 1985
[B] 1990
[C] 1995
[D] 2000
Correct Answer: A [1985]
Notes:
Assam Accord was signed in the year 1985. It was signed between the All Assam Students
Union (AASU), the All Assam Gana Sangram Parishad and the then Central Government led
by Rajiv Gandhi to bring stability in the state.
100.Which among the following State taxes are subsumed under GST?
1. State VAT
2. Purchase Tax
3. Entertainment and Amusement Tax
4. Octroi and Entry Tax
Choose the correct option from the codes given below :
[A] 1 & 2
[B] 1, 2 & 3
[C] 1, 3 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Correct Answer: D [1, 2, 3 & 4]
Notes:
The State taxes which are subsumed under GST are State VAT, Purchase Tax, Entertainment
and Amusement Tax, Octroi and Entry Tax, Luxury Tax, Central Sales Tax, Taxes on
lotteries, betting and gambling, Taxes on advertisements.