VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, THANJAVUR (2021-2022)

GRADE: X
SUBJECT: ENGLISH
PROSE – NELSON MANDELA – A LONG WALK TO FREEDOM
1. When was the inauguration day?
A) 10 May B) 10 March C) 20 May D) 20 March

2. It was a celebration of South Africa’s first ______ government.

A) autocratic, racial B) democratic, non-racial
C) democratic, racial D) monarch, non-racial

3. How many deputy presidents were elected?

A) two B) three C) one D) none

4. Why did other countries broke off diplomatic relations with South Africa?
A) White rulers B) Other countries are racial
C) It is a poor country D) Apartheid policy

5. What change brought international leaders to South Africa?

A) End of Apartheid B) humanity
C) peace D) trade negotiations

6."We thank all of our distinguished international guests for having come to take possession
with the people of our country of what is, after all, a common victory for ____."
A) justice B) peace C) human dignity D) all of the above

7.What was it that the nation needed to be liberated from?

A) poverty B) gender discrimination
C) deprivation D) all of the above

8. "We have achieved our political emancipation." What is the meaning of emancipation?
A) freedom from restriction B) enslavement
C) slavery D) both 2 and 3

9. The spectacular array of South African jets was a display of ---------------------

A) military’s precision B) military’s loyalty to democracy
C) none of the above D) both 1 and 2

10. What colours does the new South African flag possess?
A) black, red, green, blue and gold B) black, red, yellow, blue and gold
C) orange, black, yellow, blue and silver D) black, blue, violet, saffron and green

11. The tiger has vivid means bright coloured ------------------------

 (a) Skin (b) Eyes (c) Strips (d) Hair

12. The tiger was moving in the -----------------------

(a) Forest (b) Bushes (c) Cage (d) Locality

13. The tiger should take few steps as the cage is too -------------------

(a) Big (b) Small (c) Moving (d) Not male for him

14.The tiger has velvet like -----------------------

(a) Paws (b) Nose (c) Body (d) Hair

15.The tiger is angry because he -----------------

(a) is hungry (b) is ill (c) Is bitten (d) Is imprisoned

16.The free tiger could hide itself behind the -----------------

(a) Banayan tree (b) Long grass (c) Cage (d) Big stone

17.Snarling means ---------------------

(a) Buzzing sound in the jungle (b) Sound to make afraid the animals

(c) Sound in the water bodies (d) Sound made by animal

18. Pangs means ---------------------------

(a) Sharp tooth of animal (b) Paws of tiger

(c) One kind of animal (d) White hair of the animal body

19. The free tiger could snarled around the -----------------------

(a) Zoo (b) Forest (c) Houses near the forest (d) City

20. The free tiger would terrorise the village people by showing his -----------------

(a) Eyes (b) Black stripes (c) Tooth and claws (d) Huge body

21.In reality the tiger is in the --------------------

(a) Circus tent (b) Jungle (c) Cave (d) Concrete cell

22. Along with the tiger his ------------- is also confined believed the cell.

(a) Strength (b) Cuts (c) Wishes (d) Freedom

23.At night the tiger hear the sound of --------------

 (a) A hunter (b) A patrolling car (c) An another tiger (d) A deer

24.At night the tiger imprisoned could only do of -------------------

(a) Moving inside the cage (b) Grambling

(c) Eating his stored food (d) Staring the stars

25. The patrolling cars come to --------------- at night.

(a) Vigilate the zoo (b) Kill the tiger (c) Take the animals (d) Visit the place

26. By “ignoring visitors”, what is the poet trying to say?

(a) tiger knows his power is restricted (b) there is no use of showing rage

(c) he is less terrorising because of the cage (d) all of the above

27. Name the poetic device used in the line “Baring his white fangs,his claws”.

(a) metaphor (b) assonance (c) Oxymoron (d) Consonance

28. Name the poetic device used in the line “He stalks in his vivid stripes”.

(a) metaphor (b) assonance (c) Oxymoron (d) Consonance

29. What has been personified in the poem?

(a) tiger (b) forest (c) zoo (d) all of the above

30. Name the poetic device used in the line “In his quiet rage”.

(a) metaphor (b) assonance (c) Oxymoron (d) Consonance

Read the passage given below:

1. While coronavirus cases continue to rise at an
alarming rate in north America and Europe, one
of the creators of the Covid-19 vaccine developed
by Pfizer and Germany’s BioNTech says normal
life will return by next winter.
2. BioNTech CEO Ugur Sahin said he was “very
confident that transmission between people will be
reduced by such a highly effective vaccine, may be
not 90% but may be 50%”.
3. It’s essential that all immunisation programmes
are finished before the autumn, he said on Sunday
on the BBC’s Andrew Marr Show.
4. North Dakota earlier became the 35th US state to require face
coverings be worn in public as governors across the country are grappling with a
surge in coronavirus infections. North Dakota joined 38 other states this month in
 reporting record daily jumps in new cases.
5. New cases nationwide rose on Friday to a daily record of over 1,77,000 the fourth
straight day an all-
time high was set, according to a Reuters tally of figures from US public health
agencies.
6. The US Center for Disease Control and Prevention has recommended mask
wearing, and a widely cited model estimated that a nationwide mandate could save
68,000 lives by next spring.
7. In France, the number of confirmed new cases and deaths rose sharply in the last
24 hours. France
registered 32,095 new cases and deaths in hospitals from Covid-19 rose by 359.

8. Ten people died on Saturday in a fire at a Romanian hospital treating coronavirus

patients the country agency for emergency situations said. The blaze broke out in
the ICU of the Piatra Neamt country hospital and spread to an adjoining room.
On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer ANY TEN questions from the
twelve that follow.
31.Ugur Sahin is confident that the vaccine will reduce transmission between people by:

(i) 90% (ii) 50% (iii) 38% (iv) 35%

32. North Dakota is the 35th US state to:

(i) see a surge in coronavirus infections. (ii) witness a grapple among
governors.
(iii) require face coverings be won in public. (iv) record daily jumps in new
cases.

33.The number of cases in Brazil are less than that of India and deaths in India are
………….. than Brazil.
(i) more (ii) higher (iii) lower (iv) decreasing

34.Choose the option that lists the statement that is NOT TRUE:
(i) Coronavirus cases are increasing in north America

(ii) It is necessary to complete immunisation programmes after autumn.

(ii) New cases and deaths have risen significantly in France.

(iii) The deaths in hospitals in France rose by 359.
35.Reuters tally of figures reported:
 (i) an all time spike in cases on the fourth straight day.

(ii) a rise in new cases nationwide.

(iii) mandatory mask wearing.

(iv) 68,000 lives could be saved.

36.The word ‘grappling’ in Para 4 DOES NOT mean the same as:

(i) struggling (ii) strenuous attempt (iii) laboured effort (iv)

managing

37.Ten people died at a Romanian hospital:

(i) while treating coronavirus patients (ii) due to fire

(iii) due to coronavirus (iv) none of the above

38.Brazil is at the ..... position among the worst nations superceding France and Russia.
(i)second (ii) fifth (iii) fourth (iv) third

39.The word ‘ recommended’ in Para 6 means the same as:

(i) proposed (ii) advised (iii) advocated (iv) all the above

40.There is not too much difference between the number of Covid cases in France and
Russia but the number of deaths are in France.
(i) higher (ii) lower (iii) decreasing (iv) increasing

41. I __________ working all afternoon and have just finished the assignment.
A) have been B) had been C) shall be D) am

42. Rohan __________ the movie before he read the review.

A) watches B) have watched C) had watched D) was watching

43. He __________ in the States but he still does not have a command over the English
language.
A) have been living B) has been living C) have lived D) living

44. By the next month, we shall __________ the project.

A) has completed B) completing C) completed D) have completed
45. Every boy and girl __________ in the class today.
A) are present B) is present C) have present D) had present

46. He __________ daily for a year now.

A) exercises B) was exercising C) has been exercising D) have been exercising

47. I __________ this book since morning.

A) had been reading B) has been reading C) have had read D) shall be reading

48. Which tense is used to express general truths and facts?

A) Present continuous tense B) Present perfect tense
C) Past perfect tense D) Present indefinite tense

49. According to the prevailing rate, two dozen __________ rupees one hundred.
A) costs B) cost C) costing D) costed

50. The Council __________ made its decision.

A) have B) have had C) has D) having

HINDI

Q1- मैिथिल शरण गु� का जनम कब और कहाँ हुआ?

A) १८८६ म� झाँसी के िचरगांव म� B) १८८७ म� झाँसी
C) १८८९ म� महोबा म� म� महोबा म� D) वाराणसी म�

Q2- मैिथिल शरण गु� का �कन भाषाओं पर समान अिधकार था ?

A) संस्कृ त B) बांग्ला C) मराठ� और अंगर्ेजी D) बर्ज और संस्कृ त

Q3- कवी ने �कन पं��य� म� गवर् र�हत जीवन जीने क� सलाह द� है ?

A) सहानुभूित चा�हए, महा�वभूित है यह� B) रहो न भूल के कभी मगांघ तुच्छ �व� म�,
C) सनाथ जान आपको करो न गवर् िच� म�। D) मनुष्य मातर् बन्धु है कोई नह�ं

Q4- गु� जी क� िचरसंिचत अिभलाषा क्या थी?

A) भगवान राम का क�ितर्मान B) शर्ी कृ ष्ण का क�ितर्मान
C) अपने �पता का क�ितर्मान D) अपने माता �पता का क�ितर्मान
Q5- गु� जी क� क�वताओं म� कौन सी भाषा का पर्भाव है ?
A) संस्कृ त B) �हं द� C) गुजराती D) सभी

Q6- गु� जी क� काव्य क� कथावस्तु पाठक के सामने क्या पर्स्तुत करती है ?

A) भारत के अतीत का स्वणर् िचतर् B) भारत के भ�वष्य का स्वणर् िचतर्
C) भारत के वतर्मान का स्वणर् िचतर् D) सभी

Q7- गु� जी क� पर्मुख कृ ितय� के नाम बताये |

A) साकेत B) यशोधरा C) जय दर्थ वध D) सभी

Q8- गु� जी के �पता कौन थे ?

A) सेठ रामचरण दास B) सेठ चरणदास C) सेठ तरणदास D) कोई नह�ं

Q9- गु� जी के छोटे भाई कौन थे ?

A) िसयाराम शरण B) रामनाथ शरण C) भरतनाथ शरण D) कोई नह�ं

Q10- इस क�वता म�, क�व �कन मनुष्यो को महान मानते ह� ?

A) परोपकार� मनुष्यो को B) अपना भला करने वाले मनुष्यो को
C) अपने �रश्ते नाटो का भला करने वालो को D) सभी को

Q11- उदार व्य�� क� पहचान कैसे हो सकती है ?

A) उसके चेहरे से B) उसके महं गे कपड़ो से
C) उसक� गाड� से D) उसके परोपकार� एवं �वनमर् व्यवहार से

Q12- क�व ने �कसक� मृत्यु को सुमत्ृ यु माना है ?

A) परोपकार� व्य�� क� B) पढ़े िलखे व्य�� क� C) अमीर व्य�� क� D) ज्ञानी क�

Q13- क�व ने मनुष्यता के िलए क्या सन्दे श �दया है ?

A) परोपकार और अच्छे कमर् ह� मनुष्यता क� पहचान है
B) अपना भला करना मनुष्य का काम है
C) अपन� का ध्यान रखना मनुष्य का काम है |
D) ई�र का स्मरण करने का
Q14- "मनुष्य मातर् बंधू है " से क�व का क्या भाव है ?
A) हम सब एक ईशवर क� संतान भाई बंधू ह� B) हम सब एक ह�
C) ईशवर एक है | D) सभी

Q15 – क�व ने �कस बात क� पर्ेरणा सब को द� है ?

A) एक होकर चलने क� B) अनेकता क� C) एकता म� अनेकता क� D) िभन्नता क�

Q16- क�व ने सब को एक होकर चलने को क्य� कहा है ?

A) कल्याण और समृ�� के िलए B) आपसी समझ न �बगाड़ने के िलए
C) भेदभाव न हो D) सभी

Q17- व्य�� को �कस पर्कार का जीवन जीना चा�हए ?

A) परोपकार� एवं सवर्�हतकार� B) स्वाथर्कार�
C) अपन� के बारे म� सोचते हुए D) सभी

Q18- सहानुभिू त चा�हए , महा�वभूित है यह� " का क्या भाव है ?

A) दया और करुणा का भाव सबसे बड़ा धन है B) धन ह� सबसे बड़ा है
C) दया नह�ं करनी चा�हए D) दौलत

Q19- रं ितदे व कौन थे ?

A) एक राजा B) महाराजा C) एक परम दानी राजा D) कोई नह�ं

Q20- उशीनर शब्द का क्या अथर् है ?

A) गांधार दे श B) दे श C) गांधार दे श का राजा िश�ब D) कोई नह�ं

Q21- �क्षतीश का क्या अथर् है ?

A) गांधार दे श B) दे श C) राजा D) मंतर्ी

Q22- महा�वभूित का क्या अथर् है ?

A) बहुत बड़ा सागर B) बहुत बड़ा धन C) बहुत बड़ा व्य�� D) दे श का राजा
 Q23- मदांध का क्या अथर् है ?
A) गवर् से भरा B) गवर् से महान C) गवर् से भरपूर D) गवर् से अँधा

Q24- क�व ने असली मनुष्य �कसको माना है ?

A) जो संसार को भाईचारे के भाव म� बांधता है B) जो दस
ू रो क� िचंता करता है
C) जो दया और परोपकार� भाव रखता है D) सभी

Q25- �कन महान व्य��य� का गुणगान पुस्तक� म� �कया जाता है ?

A) जो अपना स्वाथर् िस� करते ह� B) जो धनी होते ह�
C) जो परोपकार करते ह� D) जो अहं कार करते ह�

Part – B

Q1- तताँरा वामीरो कथा के लेखक कौन ह� ?

A) शर्ी लीलाधर मंडलोई B) शर्ी पर्ेम चंद C) पर्�ाद अगर्वाल D) कोई नह�ं

Q2- शर्ी लीलाधर का जन्म कब हुआ ?

A) १९५४ म� B) १९४५ म� C) १९६४ म� D) कोई नह�ं

Q3- इनका जन्म कहाँ हुआ ?

A) िछं दवाड़ा के गांव गुड़� म� B) भोपाल म� C) रायपुर म� D) कोई नह�ं

Q4- मंडलोई जी ने कौन सी शैली पर्योग क� है ?

A) व्यवहारात्मक B) उपमायु� C) वणार्त्मक और संवेदात्मक D) कोई नह�ं

Q5- �कस के पर्योग से मंडलोई जी क� भाषा पर्भावशाली हो गई है ?

A) लोक कथा से B) गीत� से C) मुहावर� के पर्योग से D) कोई नह�ं

Q6- लीलाधर मंडलोई �कस पर्कार का लेखन िलखते ह� ?

A) लेख B) कहानी C) क�वता D) गीत

Q7- इनके �ारा अंडमान िनकोबार ��प समूह पर िलखा ग� �कसका अध्यन है ?
A) समाज शा� का B) अथर् शा� का C) राजनीती का D) भूगोल का
Q8- मंडलोई जी क� क�वताये �कस से संब�न्धत ह� ?
A) छ�ीसगढ़ अंचल से B) मध्यपर्दे श भोपाल से C) रायपुर से D) उ�राखंड से

Q9- मंडलोई जी क� पर्मुख रचनाओं के नाम बताएं |

A) घर घर घूमा B) रात �बरात C) दे खा अनदे खा और कला पानी D) सभी

Q10- तताँरा वामीरो कथा �कस पर आधा�रत है ?

A) अंडमान िनकोबार ��प समूह क� लोक कथा पर B) मुहावर� पर
c) लोक गीत� पर D) �कसी पर नह�ं

Q11- यह �कसक� कथा है ?

A) तताँरा नामक युवक और वामीरो नमक युवती क� पर्ेम कथा B) पर्ेरक कथा
C) लोक कथा D) कोई नह�ं

Q12- तताँरा �कस तरह का युवक था ?

A) सूंदर , नेक B) मददगार C) श��शाली D) सभी

Q13- आस पास के लोग तताँरा को क्य� आमं�तर्त करते थे?

A) उसके आत्मीय स्वभाव के कारण B) उसके सूद
ं र होने के कारण
C) उसके लोकल होने के कारण D) श��शाली होने के कारण

Q14- तताँरा कमर पे क्या बांधता था ?

A) तलवार B) लकड़� क� तलवार C) लोहे क� तलवार D) ताम्बे क� तलवार

Q15- वामीरो क� त्यागमयी मृत्यु से क्या प�रवतर्न हुआ ?

A) िनकोबार के लोग पर्ेम से रहने लगे
B) िनकोबार के लोग दस
ू रो को अपनाने लगे
C) िनकोबार के लोग दस
ू रे गांव म� भी वैवा�हक सम्बन्ध बनाने लगे
D) कोई नह�ं
Q16- तताँरा और वामीरो क� कथा कहाँ सुनाई जाती है ?
A) अंडमान िनकोबार म� B) अंडमान म�
C) अंडमान िनकोबार के हर घर म� D) कोई नह�ं

Q17- तताँरा के पासा गांव म� �कसका आयोजन हुआ ?

A) पशु पवर् का B) पवर् का C) मेले का D) कोई नह�ं

Q18- अंडमान िनकोबार ��प समूह का अंितम द�क्षणी ��प कौन सा है ?

A) िनकोबार B) अंडमान C) िल�टल अंडमान D) कोई नह�ं

Q19- िल�टल अंडमान पोटर् ब्लेयर से �कतनी दरू � पर है ?

A) १५० �कलोमीटर B) १२५ �कलोमीटर C) १०० �कलोमीटर D) ५०० �कलोमीटर

Q20- कार िनकोबार िल�टल अंडमान से �कतनी दरू � पर है ?

A) ६९ �कलोमीटर B) ८६ �कलोमीटर C) ९६ �कलोमीटर क� दरू � पर D) ९ �कलोमीटर क� दरू � पर

Q21- लोग� का तताँरा क� तलवार को लेकर क्या �वचार था?

A) तलवार बेकार है B) तलवार बहुत तेज़ है
C) तलवार म� अ�त
ु दै वीय श�� है D) कोई नह�ं

Q22- तताँरा क� �वशेषताएं बताएं |

A) श��शाली एवं आकषर्क B) िमलनसार C) मददगार D) सभी

Q23- तताँरा अपनी सुध बुध क्य� खो बैठा था ?

A) मधुर गीत क� धुन सुन कर B) धूप बहुत तेज़ थी C) मौसम खराब था D) कोई नह�ं

Q24- तताँरा �कसको िनहार रहा था ?

A) सूरज को B) सागर को C) युवती को D) कोई नह�ं

Q25- युवती को गीत गाने के िलए कौन कह रहा था ?

 A) उसक� माता जी B) आस पास के लोग C) तताँरा D) कोई नह�ं

Part-C

पर्� 1 – ‘आप घर जाएँग� या पाकर् जाएँगे।’ वाक्य संबिं धत है -

(क) संय�
ु वाक्य से (ख) सरल वाक्य से (ग) िमशर् वाक्य से (घ) पर्� वाक्य से
पर्� 2 – ‘राम आया; सब पर्सन्न हो गए।’ वाक्य का संय�
ु वाक्य रूपांतरण है -
(क) राम आया और सब पर्सन्न हो गए। (ख) जैसे ह� राम आया सभी पर्सन्न हो गए।
(ग) राम के आते ह� सभी पर्सन्न हो गए। (घ) उपरो� कोई नह�ं
पर्� 3 – ‘उसने �पज्जा खाया और चक्कर खाकर िगर पड़ा’ वाक्य का िमशर् वाक्य रूपांतरण होगा-
(क) उसने जैसे ह� �पज्जा खाया, वैसे ह� चक्कर खाकर िगर पड़ा।
(ख) �पज्जा खाते ह� वह चक्कर खाकर िगर पड़ा।
(ग) वह �पज्जा खाकर चकराकर िगर पड़ा।
(घ) �पज्जा वह जैसे ह� खाया चक्कर खाकर िगर पड़ा।
पर्� 4 – ‘राधा दौड़कर मेरे पास आई।’ वाक्य का संयु� रूप है -
(क) राधा दौड़� और मेरे पास आई। (ख) राधा तेजी से दौड़कर मेरे पास आयेगी।
(ग) राधा जल्द�-जल्द� दौड़� एवं मेरे पास आई। (घ) राधा जैसे ह� दौड़� मेरे पास आ आई।
पर्� 5 – ‘ममता आई और चली गई। वाक्य का सरल रूप िनम्न �वकल्प� से चुन�-
(क) जैसे ह� ममता आई वह चली गई। (ख) ममता आई और गई।
(ग) ममता आकर चली गई। (घ) ममता आई और खड़े -खड़े चली गई।
पर्� 6 – ‘कमाने वाला खाएगा।’ वाक्य का िमशर् वाक्य म� रूप होगा-
(क) कमाने वाला ह� खाता है । (ख) कमाने वाला ह� खाएगा।
(ग) जैसे ह� वह कमाएगा तबसे खाएगा। (घ) जो कमाएगा वह खाएगा।
पर्� 7 – ‘जब मजदरू � ने अपना काम पूरा कर िलया तब वे चले गए।’ वाक्य का संय�
ु रूप है -
(क) मजदरू अपना काम पूरा कर के चले गए।
(ख) मजदरू � ने अपना काम पूरा �कया और वे चले गए।
(ग) जैसे ह� मजदरू � ने अपना काम पूरा कर िलया वे चले गए।
(घ) मजदरू � ने अपना कायर् �कया और चले गए।
पर्� 8 – ‘सांझ हुई और पक्षी घ�सले म� आ गए।’ वाक्य का िमशर् वाक्य रूपांतरण है -
(क) जैसे ह� सांझ हुई पक्षी घ�सले म� आ गए।
(ख) शाम होते ह� पक्षी घ�सले म� आ गए।
(ग) सांझ को पक्षी घोसले म� आ गए।
(घ) उपरो� कोई नह�ं
पर्� 9 – ‘जैसे ह� िसपाह� ने इशारा �कया गाड़� चल द�।’ वाक्य का भेद है -
(क) सरल वाक्य (ख) िमशर् वाक्य (ग) संयु� वाक्य (घ) दे शज वाक्य
पर्� 10 – ‘आपके इसिलए अच्छे अंक गए क्य��क अपने कड़� मेहनत क� थी।’ वाक्य �कस भेद से संबिं धत है ?
(क) िमशर् वाक्य (ख) संयु� वाक्य (ग) सरल वाक्य (घ) आिशर्त वाक्य
पर्� 11 – ‘सत्य बोलो, परं तु कटु सत्य न बोलो।’ वाक्य संबंिधत है -
(क) िमशर् वाक्य (ख) सरल वाक्य (ग) संयु� वाक्य (घ) कटु वाक्य
पर्� 12 – ‘आप पानी �पएँगे अथवा जूस।’ वाक्य का भेद है -
(क) सरल वाक्य (ख) िमशर् वाक्य (ग) संयु� वाक्य (घ) पर्�वाचक वाक्य
पर्� 13 – पुष्प �खले, सभी पर्सन्न हो गए। वाक्य का संय�
ु वाक्य म� रूपांतरण है -
(क) पुष्प के �खलते ह� सभी पर्सन्न हो गए। (ख) जैसे ह� पुष्प �खले सभी पर्सन्न हो गए।
(ग) पुष्प �खले और सभी पर्सन्न हो गए। (घ) इन म� से कोई नह�ं
पर्� 14 – ‘सुमेश ने फुटबॉल खेला और चला गया।’ वाक्य का सरल रूप है -
(क) सुमेश फुटबॉल खेलते-खेलते चला गया। (ख) सुमेश फुटबॉल का खेल खेलकर चला गया।
(ग) सुमेश फुटबॉल खेलकर कर चला गया। (घ) सुमेश फुटबॉल खेलते ह� चला गया।
पर्� 15 – ‘लाभदायक कायर् करो।’ वाक्य का िमशर् वाक्य रूपांतरण होगा-
(क) लाभ वाला कायर् करो। (ख) वह� कायर् करो जो लाभदायक हो।
(ग) लाभ वाला कायर् ह� करो। (घ) ऐसा कायर् करो �जसम� लाभ हो।

पर्� 16 – ‘नीरजा पर्ेम पर्काश �तर्वेद� के पास गई क्य��क उसे अपनी �हं द� भाषा म� सुधार करना है ।’ वाक्य का संयु� वाक्य
रूपांतरण होगा-
(क) नीरजा अपनी �हं द� भाषा म� सुधार करने पर्ेम पर्काश �तर्वेद� के पास गई।
(ख) पर्ेम पर्काश �तर्वेद� के पास नीरजा अपनी �हं द� भाषा म� सुधार के िलए गई।
(ग) पर्ेम पर्काश �तर्वेद� के पास नीरजा इसिलए गई क्य��क उसे अपनी �हं द� भाषा म� सुधार करना था।
(घ) नीरजा को अपनी �हं द� भाषा म� सुधार करना है इसिलए वह पर्ेम पर्काश �तर्वेद� के पास गई।
पर्� 17 – ‘िगलास नीचे िगरा और टू ट गया।’ वाक्य संय�
ु वाक्य रूपांतरण होगा-
(क) िगलास नीचे िगरा और टू ट गया।। (ख) िगलास नीचे िगरकर टू ट गया।
(ग) िगलास नीचे िगरते ह� टू ट गया। (घ) जैसे ह� िगलास नीचे िगरा वह टू ट गया।
पर्� 18 – ‘अं�कत क� कलम छूटकर िगर गई।’ वाक्य संय�
ु वाक्य रूपांतरण होगा-
(क) अं�कत क� कलम छूटते ह� िगर गई। (ख) अं�कत क� कलम छूटकर िगर गई।
(ग) अं�कत क� कलम छूट� और िगर गई। (घ) जैसे ह� अं�कत क� कलम छूट� वह िगर गई।
पर्� 19 – ‘ बादल िघरे और मोर नाचने लगा।’ वाक्य संबंिधत है -
(क) संयु� वाक्य से (ख) सरल वाक्य से (ग) िमशर् वाक्य से (घ) पर्� वाक्य से
पर्� 20 – ‘राम पर्थम आते ह� खेलने लगा।’ वाक्य का संयु� वाक्य रूपांतरण है -
(क) राम पर्थम आया और खेलने लगा। (ख) जैसे ह� राम पर्थम आया वह खेलने लगा।
(ग) राम के पर्थम आते ह� वह खेलने लगा। (घ) उपरो� कोई नह�ं
पर्� 21 – ‘तुम पढ़कर सो जाना।’ वाक्य का िमशर् वाक्य रूपांतरण होगा-
(क) जब तुम पढ़ लोगे तब सो जाना। (ख) तुम पढ़ना और सो जाना।
(ग) वह पढ़कर सो गया। (घ) जैसे ह� उसने पढ़ा वह सो गया।
पर्� 22 – ‘सूरज के िनकलते ह� फूल �खल उठे ।’ वाक्य का संयु� रूप है -
(क) सूरज िनकला और फूल �खल उठे । (ख) सूरज के िनकलते ह� फूल �खल उठे ।
(ग) सूरज के िनकलने के कारण फूल �खल गए। (घ) जैसे ह� सूरज िनकला फूल �खल गए।
पर्� 23 – ‘द�पक आया और खेलने लगा।’ वाक्य का सरल रूप िनम्न �वकल्प� से चुन�-
(क) जैसे ह� द�पक आया वह खेलने लगा। (ख) द�पक आया और खेलने लगा।
(ग) द�पक आकर खेलने लगा। (घ) द�पक आया और खेल कर चला लगा।
पर्� 24 – ‘अं�कत क� कलम छूटकर िगर गई।’ वाक्य का िमशर् वाक्य म� रूप होगा-
(क) अं�कत क� कलम छूट� और िगर गई। (ख) अं�कत क� कलम जैसे ह� छूट� वह िगर गई।
(ग) जो कलम छूटकर िगर गई वह अं�कत क� है । (घ) जो कलम अं�कत से छूट�, वह िगर गई।
पर्� 25 – ‘सूरज पढ़-िलखकर अिधकार� बना।’ वाक्य का संयु� रूप है -
(क) सूरज पढ़-िलखकर बड़ा अिधकार� बन गया। (ख) सूरज पढ़ा-िलखा और अिधकार� बना।
(ग) सूरज पढ़-िलखकर अिधकार� बना। (घ) पढ़-िलखकर जो अिधकार� बना वह सूरज था।
Part – D

Q1- सपनो के से �दन के लेखक कौन ह� ?

A) िमिथले�र B) रह� मासूम C) गुरदयाल िसंह D) कोई नह�ं

Q2- स्कूल के पी ट� सर का क्या नाम था ?

A) मास्टर पर्ीतम चंद B) हर�श चंद C) मुकुंद लाल D) कोई नह�ं

Q3- मास्टर पर्ीतम चंद कतार� के पीछे खड़े खड़े क्या दे खते थे ?
A) लड़क� को B) कौन सा लड़का कतार म� ठ�क से नह�ं खड़ा
C) कोई नह�ं D) कता

Q4- लड़के �कसके डर से कतार खड़े रहते ?

A) मास्टर पर्ीतम चंद क� घुड़क� के डर से B) मार के डर से
C) कोई नह�ं D) घुड़क� के डर से

Q5- पी. ट� सर कौन से मुहावरे को पर्त्यक्ष कर �दखाते थे ?

A) खाल खींचने B) खाल झाड़ने C) कान मरोड़ने D) कोई नह�ं

Q6- पी. ट� सर खाल खींचने के मुहावरे को कब पर्त्यक्ष �दखाते थे ?

A) जब कोई लड़का अपना सर �हलाता B) ज ब कोई लड़का �पंडली खुजलाता
C) कोई नह�ं D) दोन�

Q7- अब �कस दं ड पर पूर� तरह पर्ितबंध है ?

A) मानिसक B) कोई भी दं ड C) शार��रक दं ड D) कोई नह�ं

Q8- इस पाठ के माध्यम से लेखक ने �कन �दन� का वणर्न �कया है ?

A) आज़ाद� के �दन� का B) अंगर्ेजो के �दन� का C) अपने स्कूल के �दन� का D) कोई नह�ं

Q9- बच्च� को स्कूल म� अपनी पढ़ाई से अिधक क्या अच्छा लगता है ?

A) कंप्यूटर क्लास B) �जम C) अपने सािथओं के साथ खेलना D) कोई नह�ं
Q10- है ड मास्टर लड़के क� �कताबे क्य� लाकर दे ते थे ?
A) उसे पढ़ने का श�क था B) �कताबे इकठ� करने का श�क था
C) लेखक के प�रवार क� आिथर्क �स्तिथ अच्छ� नह�ं थी D) कोई नह�ं

Q11- लेखक �कसक� मदद से अपनी पढ़ाई जार� रख सका ?

A) अपने घर वालो क� मदद से b) दोस्त� क� मदद से c) हे डमास्टर सा�हब क� मदद से D) कोई नह�ं

Q12- लेखक के समय म� अिभभावक बच्चो को स्कूल भेजने म� �दलचस्पी क्य� नह�ं लेते थे ?
A) बच्चो को अपने साथ काम म� लगा लेते थे
B) उनको लगता था इन्होने कौन सा है तहसीलदार बनना है
C) दोन�
D) कोई नह�ं

Q13- बचपन म� घास अिधक हर� और फूल� क� सुगध

ं अिधक मनमोहक लगती है इस कथन से क्या भाव है ?
A) बच्चे अपनी दिु नया म� मस्त होते है B) बच्चे अल्हड़ होते ह�
C) दोन� D) कोई नह�

Q14- है डमास्टर सा�हब का �व�ािथर्यो के साथ कैसा व्यवहार था ?

A) कड़क B) कठोर बहुत ह� मृदल
ु था ,
C) वे बच्च� को �बलकुल डांटते नह�ं थे D) कोई नह�ं

Q15- लेखक के समय िशक्षा का क्या मह�व था ?

A) बहुत ह� गहरा
B) िशक्षा बहुत मायने रखती थी
C) लोग िशक्षा के मह�व से पूर� तरह अन्जान थे
D) कोई नह�ं

Q16- सपनो के से �दन पाठ पाठक को कैसा अनुभव करवाता है ?

A) लेखक ने हमारे बचपन क� बात िलख द� B) अच्छा C) बुरा D) कोई नह�ं

Q17- बच्चे �पटाई होने पर भी खेलने क्य� जाते ह� ?

 A) बच्चो को खेल प्यारा होता है B) उनको �पटाई जैसी ह� लगती है C) दोन� D) कोई नह�ं

Q18- बच्चे "रे ल बम्बा" �कसको कहते थे ?

A) अपने नेता ओमा के सर क� टक्कर को B) रे ल क� सीट� को C) रे ल इं जन को D) कोई नह�ं

Q19- ओमा कैसा बच्चा था ?

A) िनडर और बहादरु B) शरारती C) तेज तरार्र D) कोई नह�ं

Q20- लेखक को बचपन म� स्कूल जाते हुए �कन चीज� क� महक आज भी याद है ?
A) नीम के प�ो क� B) फूलो क� तेज गंद C) दोन� D) कोई नह�ं

Q21- निनहाल जाने पर लेखक को क्या सुख िमलता था ?

A) खूब खाने को िमलता था B) नानी का प्यार भी खूब िमलता था C) दोन� D) कोई नह�ं

Q22- आज का बचपन पुराने समय के बचपन से कैसे िभन्न है ?

A) बच्चो के पास खुला समय नह�ं है b) बच्चे भोले होते थे
C) बच्चे माता �पता का कहना मानते थे D) बच्चो के पास खुला समय नह�ं है

Q23- लेखक ने अपना बचपन कैसे व्यतीत �कया ?

A) अपने सािथओ के साथ आनंद के साथ B) बहुत रो धो कर C) कोई नह�ं D) दोन�

Q24- लेखक गिमर्य� क� छु�ट्टयां कैसे व्यतीत करता था ?

A) नानी के घर जाकर B) मौज मस्ती करते हुए C) दोन� D) कोई नह�ं

Q25- लेखक को गम� क� छु�ट्टय� म� क्या बात दख

ु ी करती थी ?
A) छु�ट्टय� म� िमला काम B) दोस्त� संग खेलना C) नानी का घर छोड़ के जाना D) कोई नह�ं
 MATHS

1. The pair of equations 6x – 10y = 7 and – 6x + 10y = 9 have

(a) a unique solution (b) infinitely many solutions
(c) no solution (d) two solutions

2. Graphically, the pair of equations 7x – y = 5; 28x – 4y = 11 represents two lines which are
(a) intersecting at one point (b) parallel
(c) intersecting at two points (d) coincident

3. The graph of x = -2 is a line parallel to the

(a) x-axis (b) y-axis (c) both x- and y-axis (d) none of these

4. The pair of equation x = – 4 and y = – 5 graphically represents lines which are

(a) intersecting at (- 5, – 4) (b) intersecting at (- 4, – 5)
(c) intersecting at (5, 4) (d) intersecting at (4, 5)

5. If in the equation x + 3y = 10, the value of y is 4, then the value of x will be

(a) -2 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5

6. One equation of a pair of dependent linear equations is 2x + 5y = 3. The second equation will
be
(a) 2x + 5y = 6 (b) 3x + 5y = 3
(c) -10x – 25y + 15 = 0 (d) 10x + 25y = 15

7. The graph of y = 4x is a line

(a) parallel to x-axis (b) parallel to y-axis
(c) perpendicular to y-axis (d) passing through the origin

8. The value of k, for which the system of equations x + (k + l)y = 5 and (k + l)x + 9y = 8k – 1
has infinitely many solutions is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

9. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 9. If 27 is added to it, the digits of the number
get reversed. The number is
(a) 27 (b) 72 (c) 45 (d) 36

10. Asha has only ₹1 and ₹2 coins with her. If the total number of coins that she has is 50 and
the amount of money with her is ₹75, then the number of ₹1 and ₹2 coins are, respectively

(a) 35 and 15 (b) 15 and 35 (c) 35 and 20 (d) 25 and 25

11. The value of k for which the equations (3k + 1)x + 3y = 2; (k2 + 1)x + (k – 2)y = 5 has no
solution, then k is equal to
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) -1

12. The father’s age is six times his son’s age. Four years hence, the age of the father will be
four times his son’s age. The present ages of the son and the father are, respectively
(a) 4 and 24 (b) 5 and 30 (c) 6 and 36 (d) 3 and 24

13. If a pair of linear equations is consistent, then the lines are:

(a)Parallel (b)Always coincident
(c)Always intersecting (d)Intersecting or coincident

14. The pair of equations 9x – 5y – 7=0 and 3x – 10y – 9=0 have

(a) a unique solution (b) infinitely many solutions
(c) no solution (d) two solutions

15. If 29x + 37y = 103, 37x + 29y = 95 then :

(a) x = 1, y = 2 (b) x = 2, y = 1 (c) x = 2, y = 3 (d) x = 3, y = 2

16. Graphically, the pair of equations 7x - y = 5; 21x - 3y = 10 represents two lines which are
(a) intersecting at one point (b) parallel
(c) intersecting at two points (d) coincident

17.The pair of equations 3x - 5y = 7 and - 6x + 10y = 7 have

(a) a unique solution (b) infinitely many solutions
(c) no solution (d) two solutions

18. The pair of equations x = 0 and x = 5 has

(a) no solution (b) unique/one solution
(c) two solutions (d) infinitely many solutions

19. The pair of equation x = - 4 and y = - 5 graphically represents lines which are
(a) intersecting at (- 5, - 4) (b) intersecting at (- 4, - 5)
(c) intersecting at (5, 4) (d) intersecting at (4, 5)

20..One equation of a pair of dependent linear equations is 2x + 5y = 3. The second equation

will be
(a) 2x + 5y = 6 (b) 3x + 5y = 3 (c) -10x - 25y + 15 = 0 (d) 10x + 25y = 15

21. If x = a, y = b is the solution of the equations x + y = 5 and 2x - 3y = 4, then the values of a

and b are respectively
(a) 6, -1 (b) 2, 3 (c) 1, 4 (d) 19/5, 6/5

22. The graph of x = -2 is a line parallel to the

(a) x-axis (b) y-axis (c) both x- and y-axis (d) none of these
23.The graph of y = 4x is a line
(a) parallel to x-axis (b) parallel to y-axis
(c) perpendicular to y-axis (d) passing through the origin

24. The graph of y = 5 is a line parallel to the

(a) x-axis (b) y-axis (c) both axis (d) none of these

25. Two equations in two variables taken together are called

(a) linear equations (b) quadratic equations
(c) simultaneous equations (d) none of these

26.If in the equation x + 2y = 10, the value of y is 6, then the value of x will be
(a) -2 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5

27.The graph of the equation 2x + 3y = 5 is a

(a) vertical line (b) straight line (c) horizontal line (d) none of these

28. The value of k, for which equations 3x + 5y = 0 and kx + 10 y = 0 has a non-zero solution is
(a) 6 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 5

29. The value of k, for which the system of equations x + (k + l)y = 5 and (k + l)x + 9y = 8k - 1
has infinitely many solutions is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

30.The value of k for which the equations (3k + l)x + 3y = 2; (k2 + l)x + (k - 2)y = 5 has no
solution, then k is equal to
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) -1

31.The pair of equations x = a and y = b graphically represents lines which are

(a) parallel (b) intersecting at (b, a) (c) coincident (d) intersecting at (a, b)

32.Asha has only ₹1 and ₹2 coins with her. If the total number of coins that she has is 50 and
the amount of money with her is ₹75, then the number of ₹1 and ₹2 coins are, respectively
(a) 35 and 15 (b) 15 and 35 (c) 35 and 20 (d) 25 and 25

33.The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 9. If 27 is added to it, the digits of the number
get reversed. The number is
(a) 27 (b) 72 (c) 45 (d) 36

34. The pair of linear equations 2x + 3y = 5 and 4x + 6y= 10 is

(a) inconsistent (b) consistent (c) dependent consistent (d) none of these

35. The pair of equations y = 0 and y = -7 has

(a) one solution (b) two solutions

(c) infinitely many solutions (d) no solution
36.The pair of equations x = 4 and y = 3 graphically represents lines which are
(a) parallel (b) intersecting at (3, 4)
(c) coincident (d) intersecting at (4, 3)

37.A pair of linear equations which has a unique solution x = 2, y = -3 is

(a) x + y = 1; 2x - 3y = -5 (b) 2x + 5y = -11; 4x + 10y = -22

(c) 2x - y = 1 ; 3x + 2y = 0 (d) x-4y- 14 = 0; 5x-y- 13 = 0

38. If x = a, y = b is the solution of the pair of equations x - y = 2 and x + y = 4, then the

respective values of a and b are
(a) 3, 5 (b) 5, 3 (c) 3, 1 (d) -1, -3

39. The difference between a two digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the
digits is 27. What is the difference betw een the two digits of the number?
(a) 9 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 3

40.The pair of equations ax + 2y = 7 and 3x + by = 16 represent parallel lines if

(a) a = b (b) 3a = 2b (c) 2 a = 3 b (d) ab = 6

41.The sides of a triangle are AB, BC and AC whose equations are respectively y-2 = 0; y = 3x
– 7 and 2y + x = 0, The coordinates of points A and B are :

(a) A(3,2), B(-4,2) (b) A(-4,2), B(3,2) (c) A(3,2), B(2,-l) (d) A(-4,2), B(2, -1)

42. 10 students of class X took part in a Mathematics quiz. If the number of girls is 4 more than
the number of boys, find the number of boys who took part in the quiz.

(a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 2 (d) 8

43.5 pencils and 7 pens together cost Rs. 50 whereas 7 pencils and 5 pens cost Rs. 46. Find the
cost of 2 pencils and 3 pens.

(a) Rs. 42 (b) Rs. 39 (c) Rs. 21 (d) Rs. 16

44. A linear equation in two variables has:

(a) 1 solution (b) 2 solutions (c) no solution (d) infinitely many

45.A pair of linear equations is not consistent if:

(a) if has one solution (b) it has many solutions

(c) graph intersect or coincide (d) graph is parallel

46.The pair of equations y = 0 and y = –7 has

(a) One solution (b) Two solutions

 (c) Infinitely many solutions (d) No solution

47.Rakshita has only Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins with her. If the total number of coins that she has is
50 and the amount of money with her is Rs 75, then the number of Rs.1 andRs.2 coins is,
respectively

(a) 35 and 15 (b) 35 and 20 (c) 15 and 35 (d) 25 and 25

48.For what value of k, will the equations, x + 2y + (11 – k) = 0 and 2x + ky + (10 + k) = 0

represent the coincident lines :

(a) k = 12 (b) k = 4 (c) k = 36 (d) k = 2

49. An equation ax + by + c = 0 is a linear equation in 2 variables, where a, b, c are :

(a) natural numbers (b) whole numbers (c) integers (d) real numbers

50. The pair of equations y = 9 and y = – 7 has:

(a) one solution (b) two solutions (c) infinitely many (d) no solution solutions

51.If the system of equations kx – 5y = 2, 6x + 2y = 7 has no solution, then k =

(a) – 10 (b) – 5 (c) – 6 (d) – 15

52. A shopkeeper gives books on rent for reading. She takes a fixed charge for the first two
days, and an additional charge for each day thereafter. Reema paid Rs. 22 for a book kept for
six days, while Ruchika paid Rs 16 for the book kept for four days, then the charge for each
extra day is:

(a) Rs 5 (b) Rs 4 (c) Rs 3 (d) Rs.2

53. The sum of a two digit number is 8. The number obtained by reversing the digits exceeds
the number by 18. Then the given number is :

(a) 53 (b) 35 (c) 26 (d) 62

54. In a triangle, the sum of two angles is equal to the third angle. If the difference between two
angles is 30°, find the angles.

55. 19. If x + 5y = 34 and x – 5y = – 6, find the value of 5y – 2x.

(a) – 8 (b) 14 (c) 8 (d) 20

56. Two equations in two variables taken together are called

(a) linear equations (b) quadratic equations

(c) simultaneous equations (d) none of these

57. Graphically, the pair of equations 7x – y = 5; 21x – 3y = 10 represents two lines which are
(a) intersecting at one point (b) parallel
(c) intersecting at two points (d) coincident

58.The pair of equations 3x – 5y = 7 and – 6x + 10y = 7 have

(a) a unique solution (b) infinitely many solutions
(c) no solution (d) two solutions

59... The pair of equations x = 0 and x = 5 has

(a) no solution (b) unique/one solution (c) two solutions (d) infinitely many solutions

60.The pair of equation x = – 4 and y = – 5 graphically represents lines which are

(a) intersecting at (- 5, – 4) (b) intersecting at (- 4, – 5)
(c) intersecting at (5, 4) (d) intersecting at (4, 5)

61. One equation of a pair of dependent linear equations is 2x + 5y = 3. The second equation
will be
(a) 2x + 5y = 6 (b) 3x + 5y = 3 (c) -10x – 25y + 15 = 0 (d) 10x + 25y = 15

62. If x = a, y = b is the solution of the equations x + y = 5 and 2x – 3y = 4, then the values of a

and b are respectively
(a) 6, -1 (b) 2, 3 (c) 1, 4 (d) 19/5, 6/5

63.The graph of x = -2 is a line parallel to the

(a) x-axis (b) y-axis (c) both x- and y-axis (d) none of these

64.The graph of y = 4x is a line

(a) parallel to x-axis (b) parallel to y-axis
(c) perpendicular to y-axis (d) passing through the origin

65.The graph of y = 5 is a line parallel to the

(a) x-axis (b) y-axis (c) both axis (d) none of these

66Two equations in two variables taken together are called

(a) linear equations (b) quadratic equations
(c) simultaneous equations (d) none of these

67. If in the equation x + 2y = 10, the value of y is 6, then the value of x will be
(a) -2 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5

68.The graph of the equation 2x + 3y = 5 is a

(a) vertical line (b) straight line (c) horizontal line (d) none of these

69. The value of k, for which the system of equations x + (k + l)y = 5 and (k + l)x + 9y = 8k – 1
has infinitely many solutions is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
70. The value of k for which the equations (3k + l)x + 3y = 2; (k2 + l)x + (k – 2)y = 5 has no
solution, then k is equal to
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) -1

71. The pair of equations x = a and y = b graphically represents lines which are
(a) parallel (b) intersecting at (b, a) (c) coincident (d) intersecting at (a, b)

72. Asha has only Rs1 and Rs2 coins with her. If the total number of coins that she has is 50
and the amount of money with her is Rs75, then the number of Rs1 and Rs2 coins are,
respectively
(a) 35 and 15 (b) 15 and 35 (c) 35 and 20 (d) 25 and 25

73. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 9. If 27 is added to it, the digits of the
number get reversed. The number is
(a) 27 (b) 72 (c) 45 (d) 36

74. Customers are asked to stand in the lines. If one customer is extra in a line, then there
would be two less lines. If one customer is less in line, there would be three more lines. Find
the number of students in the class.

(a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 70

75. 8 girls and 12 boys can finish work in 10 days while 6 girls and 8 boys can finish it in 14
days. Find the time taken by the one girl alone that by one boy alone to finish the work.

(a) 120, 130 (b) 140,280 (c) 240,280 (d) 100,120

76. The sum of two digits and the number formed by interchanging its digit is 110. If ten is
subtracted from the first number, the new number is 4 more than 5 times of the sum of the
digits in the first number. Find the first number.

(a) 46 (b) 48 (c) 64 (d) 84

77.. A fraction becomes . when subtracted from the numerator and it becomes . when 8 is
added to its denominator. Find the fraction.

(a) 4/12 (b) 3/13 (c) 5/12 (d) 11/7

78. Five years ago, A was thrice as old as B and ten years later, A shall be twice as old as B.
What is the present age of A.

(a) 20 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 40

79. What will be the solution of these equations ax+by=a-b, bx-ay=a+b

(a) x=1, y=2 (b) x=2,y=-1 (c) x=-2, y=-2 (d) x=1, y=-1
80. If x=a, y=b is the solution of the pair of equation x-y=2 and x+y=4 then what will be value
of a and b

(a) 2,1 (b) 3,1 (c) 4,6 (d) 1,2

81.Rozly can row downstream 20km in 2 hours, and the upstream 4km in 2 hours. What will be
the speed of rowing in still water?

(a) 6km/hr (b) 4km/hr (c) 3km/hr (d) 7km/hr

82. The pairs of equations x+2y-5 = 0 and -4x-8y+20=0 have:

(a) Unique solution (b) Exactly two solutions
(c) Infinitely many solutions (d) No solution
83. If a pair of linear equations is consistent, then the lines are:
(a) Parallel (b) Always coincident
(c) Always intersecting (d) Intersecting or coincident
84.The pairs of equations 9x + 3y + 12 = 0 and 18x + 6y + 26 = 0 have
(a) Unique solution (b) Exactly two solutions
(c) Infinitely many solutions (d) No solution
85. If the lines 3x+2ky – 2 = 0 and 2x+5y+1 = 0 are parallel, then what is the value of k?
(a) 4/15 (b) 15/4 (c) ⅘ (d) 5/4
86.. If one equation of a pair of dependent linear equations is -3x+5y-2=0. The second equation
will be:
(a) -6x+10y-4=0 (b) 6x-10y-4=0 (c) 6x+10y-4=0 (d) -6x+10y+4=0
87.The solution of the equations x-y=2 and x+y=4 is:
(a) 3 and 1 (b) 4 and 3 (c) 5 and 1 (d) -1 and -3
88.A fraction becomes 1/3 when 1 is subtracted from the numerator and it becomes 1/4 when 8
is added to its denominator. The fraction obtained is:
(a) 3/12 (b) 4/12 (c) 5/12 (d) 7/12
89.The solution of 4/x+3y=14 and 3/x-4y=23 is:
(a) ⅕ and -2 (b) ⅓ and ½ (c) 3 and ½ (d) 2 and ⅓
90. Ritu can row downstream 20 km in 2 hours, and upstream 4 km in 2 hours. Her speed of
rowing in still water and the speed of the current is:
(a) 6km/hr and 3km/hr (b) 7km/hr and 4km/hr
(c) 6km/hr and 4km/hr (d) 10km/hr and 6km/hr
91.The pair of equations x = a and y = b graphically represents lines which are
(a) parallel (b) intersecting at (b, a)
(c) coincident (d) intersecting at (a, b)
92.The pair of equations 5x – 15y = 8 and 3x – 9y = 24/5 has
(a) one solution (b) two solutions (c) infinitely many solutions (d) no solution
93. The pair of equations x + 2y + 5 = 0 and –3x – 6y + 1 = 0 have
(a) a unique solution (b) exactly two solutions
(c) infinitely many solutions (d) no solution
94.The value of c for which the pair of equations cx – y = 2 and 6x – 2y = 3 will have infinitely
many solutions is
(a) 3 (b) -3 (c) -12 (d) no value
95.. If the lines representing the pair of linear equations a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 =
0 are coincident, then
(a) a1/a2 = b1/b2 (b) a1/a2 = b1/b2 = c1/c2
(c) a1/a2 ≠ b1/b2 (d) a1/a2 = b1/b2 ≠ c1/c2
96. A pair of linear equations which has a unique solution x = 2, y = -3 is
(a) x + y = -1; 2x – 3y = -5 (b) 2x + 5y = -11; 4x + 10y = -22
(c) 2x – y = 1; 3x + 2y = 0 (d) x – 4y – 14 = 0; 5x – y – 13 = 0
97.If the pair of linear equations has a unique solution, then the lines representing these
equations will
(a) coincide (b) intersect at one point (c) parallel to each other (d) parallel to x-axis
98.Which of the following method(s) is/are used to find the solution of a pair of linear
equations algebraically?
(a) Substitution Method (b) Elimination Method
(c) Cross- multiplication Method (d) All the above
99.The graphical representation of a pair of equations 4x + 3y – 1 = 5 and 12x + 9y = 15 will
be________
(a) parallel lines (b) coincident lines (c) intersecting lines (d) perpendicular lines
100. Suresh has a rectangular sketch, which he needs to draw on a paper of length and breadth
32 units and 16 units respectively, using a plotter. Plotter is a device which is attached to a
computer like a printer. It is used for drawing complicated sketches. Plotter accepts only
positive coordinates where the point (0,0) is the left-bottom corner of the paper . The sketch
ABCD needs to be centrally aligned on the paper. Find the coordinates of A,B,C and D to be
plotted to get the sketch plotted as needed.

( Sketch 1 ) ( Sketch 2 )

(a) The coordinates of point O in the sketch 2 is .

(i) ( 0, 0 ) (ii) ( 16, 8 ) ( iii) ( 8, 16 ) (iv) ( 16, 32 )

(b) The coordinates of A, B, C, D are :

(i) (32, 10), (32, −10), (32, 6), (32, −6) (ii) (19, 10), (19, −10), (13, 6), (13, −6)
(iii) (13, 10), (19, 10), (19, 6), (13, 6) (iv) (13, −10), (19, 10), (13, −6), (19, −6)

(c)
In the sketch 2, if the point O divides ̅A̅C̅ in the ratio k : 1 , then the value of k is .

1/2
(i) 2 (ii) 1 (iii) (iv) 3

(d) The point on the y-axis (in sketch 2) which is equidistant from the points B and
C is . (i) ( 0, 8 ) (ii) ( 8, 0 ) (iii) ( −8, 0 ) (iv) ( 0, −8 )

(e) The point on the x-axis (in sketch 2) which is equidistant from the points C and
D is . (i) ( 0, −16 ) (ii) ( 16, 0 ) (iii) ( −16, 0 ) (iv) ( 0, 16 )
 DEMOCRATIC POLITICS

1.Belgium shifted from a unitary form of government to:

(a)democratic (b) federal (c) authoritarian (d) none of the above
2.Which type of government does the Belgium have?
(a)Federal (b) Communist (c) Unitary (d) Central
3.In federalism, power is divided between various constituent units and:
(a)central authority (b) states (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
4.Which countries follow the unitary system of government?
(a)Belgium, Spain and India (b)USA Japan and Belgium
(c)United Arab Emirates, China and Sri Lanka (d)France, Germany and India
5.In federal system, central government cannot order the:
(a)principal (b) local government (c) state government (d) none of the above
6.A system of government in which power is divided between a central authority and various
constituent unit of the country is called
(a)Federalism (b) Communal-ism (c)Socialism (d) Democracy
7.State government has powers of its own for which it is not answerable to the:
(a)central government (b) judiciary (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
8.Which country is an example of coming together federation?
(a) Belgium (b) USA (c) Sri Lanka (d) India
9.Power to interpret the constitution is with the:
(a)courts (b) judiciary (c) state government (d) none of the above
10.In Unitary form of government
(a)all the power is divided between the centre/union and the state provincial government.
(b)all the power is with the citizens.
(c)State Government has all the powers
(d)power is concentrated with the Central Government.
11.The place of Rajasthan where India conducted its nuclear tests is
(a)Kalikat (b) Pokharan (c)Kavaratti (d) Karaikal
12.The coming together federation is:
(a)India (b) Spain (c) USA (d) Australia
13.The first and major test for democratic politics in our country was
(a)caste problem (b)language problem
(c)problems related to union territories (d)creation of linguistic state
14.Indian official language is:
(a)Hindi (b) English (c) Urdu (d) None of these
15.How many languages are included in the Eight Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(a) 15 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 21
16.Which language has status of the national language in India?
(a)Tamil (b) Hindi (c) English (d) None of these

17.The municipal corporation officers are called:

(a)Mayors (b) MLAs (c) Sarpanchs (d) none of these
18.Who can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the Union list?
(a)Local Government (b) State Government
(c) Union Government (d) State and Union
19.Federations have been formed with the two kinds of:
(a)states (b) routes (c) people (d) none of the above
20.The state which violently demanded that the use of English for official purpose should be
continued, is
(a)Kerala (b) Karnataka (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh
21. To make India a strong federation, we need:
(a)written constitution (b) rigid constitution
(c) independent judiciary (d) all of the above
22.Major step towards decentralisation in India was taken up in
(a) 1992 (b) 1993 (c) 1991 (d) 1990
23.Who is the head of urban local government?
(a)Sarpanch (b) Ward commissioner (c) Mukhiya (d) Mayor
24.The System of Panchayati Raj involves
(a) The village, block and district levels (b) The village, and state levels
(c) The village district and state levels (d) The village, state and Union levels
25.In case of a clash between the laws made by the centre and a state on a subject in the
concurrent list:
(a) the state law prevails.
(b) the central law prevails.
(c) both the laws prevail within their respective jurisdictions.
(d) the Supreme Court has to intervene to decide.
26.Which of the following subjects is not included in the state list?
(a) Law and order (b) National defence (c) Education (d) Agriculture
27.In India’s federal system, the state governments have the power to legislate on all those
subjects which are included in the:
(a) Union list (b) State list (c) Concurrent list (d) Residuary subjects
28. The Constitution of India
(a) divided powers between centre and states in three lists.
(b) divided powers between centre and states in two lists.
(c) listed the powers of the states and left the undefined powers to the state.
(d) Specified the powers of the states and left the residuary powers with the centre.
29. When was the constitution amended to make the third-tier of democracy more powerful and
effective?
(a) 1990 (b) 1992 (c) 1989 (d) 1993
30. In the local government elections at least ……... of all positions are reserved for women?
(a) One – third (b) Two- third (c) 50% (d) 25%
31.Which of the following government has two or more levels?
(a) Community Government (b) Coalition Government
(c) Federal Government (d) Unitary Government
32. Which among the following are examples of ‘Coming together federations’?
(a) India, Spain and Belgium
(b) India, USA and Spain
(c) USA, Switzerland and Australia
(d) Belgium and Sri Lanka
33. The Union List includes subjects such as:
(a) Education, forests, trade unions, marriages, adoption and succession.
(b) Police, trade, commerce, agriculture and irrigation.
 (c) Residuary subjects like computer software.
(d) Defence, foreign affairs, banking, currency, communications.
34. Subjects like computer software comes in the
(a) Union List (b) State List (c) Concurrent List (d) Residuary List
35. The number of Scheduled Languages in India is
(a) 21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (d) 25
36. How many scheduled languages are recognized by the constitution?
a) Besides Hindus, there are 18 scheduled, languages.
b) Besides Hindi, there are 21 scheduled languages.
c) Besides Hindi there are 22 scheduled languages.
d) Besides Hindi there are 19 scheduled languages
37. What is the government at Block level called?
a) Gram Sabha b) Gram Panchyat
c) Panchayat Samiti d) Nayay Panchyat
38. Which local govt works at district level?
a) Panchayat samiti b) Village panchayat
c) Zila Parishad d) None of the mention above
39. By what name local govt at urban area called?
A) Municipality B) Municipal corporation C) Panchayat samiti
a) Only A is true b) Only B is true
c) Both B and C are true d) Both A and B are true
40. Who is the chairperson of Municipal Corporation?
a) Block development officer b) Mayor
c) Sarpanch d) Member of Lok Sabha
41.The system of government in which there is only one level of government is known as ……
42.Banking and Defence are the subjects of …………………….
43.In 1947 the boundaries of several old states were changed on the basis of…………………
44.The popular name of rural government is …………………….
45.The chairperson of the municipal corporation is known as the ………………….
46. The highest institution of Panchayati Raj in rural areas is …………………….
47. The chairperson of the municipal corporation is known as the…………………….
48……………………………. are the areas run by both the Union and the State Government.
49. Local self-government exists only in ……………….

50.Holding together country decides to divide its power between the .......... and .......... .

51.First major test of democratic politics in our country was the creation of .......... .

52.Under the system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are
subordinate to the central government.

53........... list includes subjects of national importance such as defence of the country, foreign
affairs etc.

54.The …….......... overseas the implementation of constitutional and procedures.

55.
Match the columns
Column A Column B
(a) National Defence (i) rural areas
(b) Education (ii) District
(c) Local selfgovernment (iii) urban areas
(d) Municipal Corporation (iv) State list
(e) Zila Parishad (v) Union list

a) (a) (v), (b) (iv), (c) (i), (d) (iii), (e) (ii).
b) (a) (iv), (b) (v), (c) (i), (d) (iii), (e) (ii).
c) (a) (v), (b) (iv), (c) (iii), (d) (i), (e) (ii).
d) (a) (v), (b) (iv), (c) (i), (d) (ii), (e) (iii).
56. In the following questions (From 56 to 65), a statement of assertion is followed by a
statement of reason. Mark the correct choice as :
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
 (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

(d) Both assertion and reason are false.

Assertion : India has a federal system.
Reason : Under a unitary system, either there is only one level of government or
the sub-units are subordinate to central government.
57.Assertion : Zilla Parishad Chairperson is the political head of the zilla parishad.
Reason : Mayor is the head of municipalities.

58.Assertion : A major step towards decentralization was taken in 1992 by amending the
constitution.
Reason : Constitution was amended to make the third tier of democracy more powerful and
effective.

59. Assertion : Third-tier of government is local government.

Reason : It made democracy weak.

60. Assertion : India is a federation
Reason : Power resides with the central authority.
61. Assertion : Belgium and Spain has ‘holding together’ federation.
Reason : A big country divides power between constituent states and national government.

62. Assertion : Hindi is identified as the only official language of India.

Reason : It helped in creating supremacy of Hindi speaking people over others.

63. Assertion : It is very simple to make the changes in the basic structure of the constitution.
Reason : Both the houses have power to amend the constitution independently.

64. Assertion : Coalition government is formed during dearth of coal in the country.
Reason : It helps in overcoming coal crisis.

65. Assertion : The subjects which are not included in Union List, State List and Concurrent
List are considered as residuary subjects.
Reason : The subjects included that came after constitution was made and thus could not be
classified.
66. Besides Hindi, India has 21 official languages.

67.1980s was the era of coalition governments.

68.Second test for the Indian Federation was the language policy

69.When the power is taken from the local and state government and given to central
government, it is called decentralisation.

70.Decentralisation helps to build effective communication.

71. The Constitution divides federal power among three branches of government.

72. The ………… Government alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the
Union List

73. The Union Government has the power to legislate on ………… subjects which do not fall in
any of the three lists.

74. The ………… plays an important role in overseeing the implementation of constitutional
provisions and procedures.

75. If there is a conflict in the laws made in the concurrent list, the law made by the …………
Government will prevail.

76. A third tier of government is called ………… government.

77. When power is taken away from Central and State governments and given to local
government, it is called …………

78. ………… are the local governing bodies in the villages and ………… in urban areas.

79. The political head of a Municipal Corporation is called the ………… .

80. Since the United States is a ………… type of federation, all the constituent States have equal
powers and States are ………… vis-à-vis the federal government. But India is a ………… type of
federation and some States have more power than others. In India, the ………… government has
more powers.
81. A few subjects in various Lists of the Indian Constitution are given here. Group them under
the Union, State and Concurrent Lists as provided in the table below.
A. Defence

B. Police

C. Agriculture

D. Education

E. Banking

F. Forests

G. Communications

H. Trade

I. Marriages

Union List

State List

Concurrent
List

82. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

1. Union of India A. Prime Minister

2. State B. Sarpanch

3. Municipal Corporation C. Governor

4. Gram Panchayat D. Mayor

a) 1 A 2 C 3 D 4 B
b) 1 B 2 A 3 D 4 B
c) 1 A 2 C 3 B 4 D
d) 1 C 2 A 3 B 4 D
83. When was the use of English stopped for official purpose in India?
a)The use of English was stopped for official purpose in 1947 in India.
b)The use of English was stopped for official purpose in 1991 in India.
c)The use of English was stopped for official purpose in 1965 in India.
d)The use of English was stopped for official purpose in 1960 in India.
84. Which other language was continued along with English for official purpose?
a) Urdu was continued along with English for official purpose.
b) Punjabi was continued along with English for official purpose.
c) Tamil was continued along with English for official purpose
d) Hindi was continued along with English for official purpose.
85. Which state demanded the use of English to continue?
a) Tamil Nadu demanded the use of English to continue.
b) Mizoram demanded the use of English to continue.
c) Punjab demanded the use of English to continue.
d) Delhi demanded the use of English to continue.
86. Which other country also witnessed a similar mass movement on imposition of an official
language?
a) Pakistan witnessed a mass movement against the imposition of an official language.
b) Singapore witnessed a mass movement against the imposition of an official language.
c) Sri Lanka witnessed a mass movement against the imposition of an official language.
d) Egypt witnessed a mass movement against the imposition of an official language.
87. Who can make laws pertaining to this Union List?
a) Only the State Government alone can make laws on the subjects pertaining to the Union List.
b) Only the Union Government alone can make laws on the subjects pertaining to the Union List.
c) Only the local governments alone can make laws on the subjects pertaining to the Union List.
d) Both the Union Government as well as the State Government can make laws on the subjects
pertaining to the Union List.
88. Which of these is a subject in the Union List?
a) Agriculture is subject in the Union List.
b) Adoption and succession is subject in the Union List.
c) Banking is subject in the Union List.
 d) Trade Unions is subject in the Union List.
89. Which of these is not a subject under the Union List?
a) Foreign Affairs is not a subject under Union List.
b) Currency is not a subject under Union List.
c) Communications is not a subject under Union List.
d) Marriage is not a subject under Union List.
90. Which of these is not a subject under the Concurrent List?
a) Forest is not a subject under Concurrent List.
b) Education is not a subject under Concurrent List.
c) Adoption and succession is not a subject under Concurrent List.
d) Agriculture is not a subject under Concurrent List.
91. Consider the following statements on the practice of federalism in India. Identify those
which hold true for decentralisation after 1992.
A. Local governments did not have any power or resources of their own.
B. It became constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government bodies.
C. The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local
government bodies.
D. No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other
backward classes.
(a) B and C
(b) A and C
(c) A and D
(d) B and D
92. In a ‘Holding together federation’:
A. A large country divides its power between constituent states and the national government.
B. The Central government tends to be more powerful vis-a-vis the States.
C. All the constituent states usually have equal powers.
D. Constituent states have unequal powers.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) A, B, C and D
(b) A and D
 (c) B and C
(d) A, B and D
93. How many countries in the world have a federal political system?
(a) 42 (b) 33 (c) 25 (d) 18
94. In a federal system, the central government ………. order the state government to do
something?
(a) Can (b) Cannot (c) May (d) A & C
95. Can the fundamental provisions of the constitution be unilaterally changed by one level of
government in federalism?
(a) Yes (b) No (c ) May be in special provisions (d) A & C
96. States such as Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram enjoy special powers
under certain provisions of the Constitution of India (Article 371), under which context do they
get these provisions?
(a) Because of trade and commerce

(b) Protection of land rights of indigenous people

(c) Special provisions for agriculture

(d) For Defence purposes

97. Give one feature of Union territories?

(a) They have powers of a state

(b) They enjoy independent power

(c ) The Central Government has special powers in running these areas.

(d) These are areas which are too small to become an independent State but which can be

merged with any of the existing States

98. Sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments is basic to the
structure of the Constitution. The Parliament cannot on its own change this arrangement. Any
change to it has to be first passed by both the Houses of Parliament with at least ……….
majority?
(a) 50 % (b) Three- fourth (c ) Two- third (d) 25%
99. The creation of ………….. was the first and a major test for democratic politics in our
country
(a) States according to religion (b) States according to culture
(c)Linguistic states (d) States according to topography
100. On which basis were states like Nagaland, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand created?
(a) On the basis of language (b) On the basis of culture, ethnicity
(c) On the basis of religion (d) On the basis of commerce and trade

GEOGRAPHY CH-4 AGRICULTURE

1. Which of the following crops are grown with the onset of monsoons and are harvested in the
months of September-October? [CBSE 2011]

(a) Rabi (b) Kharif (c) Zaid (d) None of the above

2. ‘Slash and bum’ agriculture is a [CBSE 2011]

(a) Shifting agriculture (b) Intensive agriculture

(c) Commercial agriculture (d) None of these

3. Grapes are mainly produced in the state of ____________ .

(a) Meghalaya (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Mizoram (d) Andhra Pradesh

4. Bhoodan – Gramdan movement was initiated by

(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

(c) VinobaBhave (d) BalGangadharTilak

5. Grouping of small land holdings into a bigger one is called

(a) ceiling on land holdings. (b) collectivisation.

(c) cooperative farming. (d) consolidation of land holdings.

6. Oranges are mainly produced in the state of ____________ .

(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu

7. Intensive subsistence farming is practised in area of ____________ . [CBSE 2012]

(a) high population (b) low population (c) deserts (d) thick forests

8. Which one of the following statements is incorrect as regards to commercial farming?

 (a) Use of heavy doses of modem inputs.

(b) Crops are grown for sale.

(c) Family members are involved in growing crops.

(d) Practised on large land holdings.

9. Which one of the following is a rabi crop? [CBSE 2011]

(a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Bajra (d) Jowar

10. The largest tea producing state of India is

(a) Karnataka (b) Assam (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Arunachal Pradesh

11. A type of millet rich in iron, calcium, other micro nutrients and roughage is

(a) Bajra (b) Rajma (c) Jowar (d) Ragi

12. Specialised cultivation of fruits and vegetables is called

(a) Agriculture b) Horticulture (c) Sericulture (d) Pisciculture

13. Punjab and Haryana grow rice mainly due to

(a) availability of cheap labour (b) development of canal irrigation and tubewells

(c) fertile soil. (d) development of transport network.

14. Rabi crops are sown in

(a) Winter (b) Summer (c) Autumn (d) Spring

15. Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture where a single crop is grown
on a large area?

(a) Shifting agriculture (b) Plantation agriculture

(c) Horticulture (d) Intensive agriculture

16. Which one of the following is a rabi crop?

(a) Rice (b) Millets (c) Gram (d) Cotton

17. Which one of the following is a leguminous crop?

(a) Pulses (b) Jawar (c) Millets (d) Sesamum

18. Which one of the following is announced by the government in support of a crop?

(a) Maximum support price (b) Minimum support price

 (c) Moderate support price (d) Influential support price

19. Primitive subsistence farming is also known as:

(a) Mixed farming (b) Cooperative farming

(c) Slash and bum agriculture (d) Commercial farming

20. Plantation agriculture is a type of:

(a) Subsistence farming (b) Commercial farming

(c) Mixed farming (d) None of the above

21. Which of the following is not correct about plantation farming?

(a) In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area.

(b) The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry.

(c) Plantations cover large tracts of land called estates.

(d) Farmers clear a patch of land by felling trees and burning them, to produce cereals and
other food crops.

22. Which of the following are plantation crops?

(a) Rice and maize (b) Wheat and pulses

(c) Tea, coffee, banana and sugarcane (d) None of the above

23. The three major cropping seasons of India are:

(a) Aus, Aman and Boro (b) Rabi, Kharif and Zaid

(c) Baisakh, Paus and Chait (d) None of the above

24. Rabi crops are:

(a) sown in winter and harvested in summer

(b) sown during rainy season and harvested in winter

(c) sown in summer and harvested in winter

(d) None of the above

25. Kharif crops are grown:

(a) with the onset of monsoon and harvested in September-October

(b) with the onset of winter and harvested in summer

 (c) with onset of Autumn and harvested in summer

(d) None of the above

26. The main food crop of Kharif season is:

(a) Mustard (b) Pulses (c) Rice (d) Wheat

27. The main food crop of Rabi season is:

(a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Maize (d) Jowar

28. A short season between the rabi and kharif season is known as:

(a) Aus (b) Boro (c) Zaid (d) None of the above

29. Important non-food crops of our country are:

(a) Tea and coffee (b) Millets and pulses c) Cotton and jute (d) None of the above

30. Which is the main food crop of the eastern and southern part of the country?

(a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Maize (d) Sugarcane

31. The two main wheat growing regions are:

(a) The Ganga-Sutlej plains and the Deccan Trap

(b) North-eastern part and eastern-coastal plains

(c) Deccan plateau and Konkan coast

(d) None of the above

32. Wheat requires annual rainfall between:

(a) 50 and 75 cm (b) about 200 cm

(c) 200 and 300 cm (d) less than 20 cm

33. The third most important food crop of our country is:

(a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Jowar (d) Ragi

34. Which State is the largest producer of bajra?

(a) Rajasthan (b) Maharashtra (c) Gujarat (d) Haryana

35. Which is the right condition for the growth of maize?

(a) Temperature between 21 °C to 27°C and old alluvial soil

 (b) Temperature below 17°C and shallow black soil

(c) Temperature of 25°C and 200 cm of rainfall

(d) None of the above

36. Which of the following crops is a major source of protein in a vegetarian diet?

(a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Pulses (d) Oilseeds

37. Which one of the following is not true for pulses?

(a) Pulses are grown in both rabi and kharif season

(b) Pulses are leguminous crops

(c) They are grown in rotation with other crops

(d) Pulses require intensive irrigation facilities

38. Which is the ideal condition for the growth of sugarcane?

(a) Temperature of 21°C to 27°C and an annual rainfall between 75 cm and 100 cm

(b) Temperature below 17°C and 50 to 75 cm rainfall

(c) Temperature of 25°C and 200 cm of rainfall

(d) none of the above

39. What percentage of our cropped area is covered by oilseeds?

(a) 21 (b) 12 (c) 2 (d) 4

40. Which of the following conditions can spoil tea crop?

(a) Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year

(b) Frost free climate

(c) Deep fertile well drained soil

(d) Clayey soil which has high water holding capacity

41. Coffee cultivation was first introduced in:

(a) Himalayas (b) Aravalli Hills (c) Garo Hills (d) Baba Budan Hills

42. Which of the following crops is an important raw material for automobile industry?

(a) Pulses (b) Ragi (c) Rubber (d) None of the above
43. Rearing of silk worms for the production of silk fibre is known as:

(a) Sericulture (b) Aquaculture (c) Apeculture (d) Pisciculture

44. Which of the following is known as golden fibre?

(a) Cotton (b) Jute (c) Hemp (d) Silk

45. India is the second largest producer of sugarcane only after ____________ .

46. ____________ is the Golden fibre of India.

47. ____________ is a programme introduced by the Government that has resulted in increased
production of food grains.

48. Kerala is the largest producer of ____________ in India.

49. The slash and bum agriculture is known as_______ in the north-eastern states of India.

50. India is the largest producer and consumer of ____________ in the world.

51. White revolution refers to

a) Increased production of flowers c) Increased production of eggs

b) Increased production of milk d) Increased production of fish

52. ICAR refers to

a) International Council of Aeronautical Research

b) Indian Council of Agricultural Research

c) Indian Council of Animal Research

d) International Commission for Agricultural Research

53.The Boodhan Gramdhan movement initiated by Vinobabhave is also known as bloodless

revolution. (True / False)

54. Minimum Support Price is declared for the benefits of farmers (True / False)

55. Sugarcane needs standing water to increase juice content in it. (True / False)

56. Commercial farming gives higher yields and production of crops. (True/ False)

57. Pulses are major source of protein, therefore suits Indian diet. (True / False)

58. Indian coffee is known in the world for its good quality. (True / False)
59. Match the following:

1.Zaid A. Millet
2.Jute B. Industrial crop
3.Rubber C. Golden fibre
4.Coffee D. Agricultural season
5.Jowar E. Plantation crop
a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-E, 5-A
b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-E
c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-E, 4-A, 5-D
d) 1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-D, 5-A
60. Match the Following:

1. Milpa A. Brazil
2. Conuco B. Venezuela
3. Masole C. Central Africa
4. Ray D. Mexico and Central America
5. Roca E. Vietnam
a) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B, 5-E
b) 1-E, 2-A,3-B, 4-D, 5-C
c) 1-A, 2-E, 3-D, 4-B, 5-C
d) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-E, 5-A
61. Match the Following:

1. Tea A. Maharashtra
2. Coffee B. Uttar Pradesh
3. Rubber C. Karnataka
4. Sugarcane D. Assam
5. Banana E. Kerala
a) 1-E, 2-B,3-A, 4-C, 5-D
b) 1-D, 2-C,3-E, 4-B, 5-A
c) 1-A, 2-D,3-E, 4-C, 5-B
d) 1-E, 2-C,3-B, 4-A, 5-D
62. Match the Following:

1. Cash crop A. Jute

2. Coarse grain B. Maize
3. Fodder crop C. Tea
4. Fibre crop D. Millet
a) 1-B,2-A,3-D,4-C
b) 1-D,2-B,3-A,4-C
c) 1-C,2-D,3-B,4-A
d) 1-B,2-C,3-D,4-A
 (Qn. 63 to Qn. 70) are Assertion (A) and Reason (R) questions. You are to examine these
two statements carefully and select the answer to these items using the code given below.

Code:

1) Both (A) and (R) are true

2) (A) is true but (R) is false
3) (A) is False but (R) is true
4) Both (A) and (R) are false
63. Assertion: The cultivation of Jute is confined only in Assam and West Bengal

Reason: It is the traditional crop there.

64. A: Tea and Coffee are both grown in Nilgiri hills.

R: Both crops require same conditions for growth.

65. A: Maharashtra is the leading cotton producing state.

R: There is a great demand of cotton in Maharashtra.

66. A: Genetic engineering is related to powerful supplement of hybrid varieties of seeds.

R: White Revolution is a part of genetic engineering.

67. A: GDP has registered declining trend

R: Population increase and livelihood are other reasons of its declining trend.

68. A: India holds first rank in the production of Rice.

R: Rice is the staple food of India.

69. A: Tea is an important beverage crop Introduced in India initially by the British

R: In 2015, India was the second largest producer of Tea after China.

70. A: Agriculture is an old economic activity

R: Farming varies from susbsistence to commercial type.

Feature Based MCQs:

71. On the basis of following feature identify the correct option:

I. It is an equatorial crop
II. It requires moist and humid climate
 III. It is mainly grown in Kerala and Garo hills
IV. It is a raw material
a) Cotton b) silk c) Jute d) Rubber
72. On the basis of following feature identify the correct option:
I. It is the second largest producing grain in the world.
II. It is a commercial crop of Punjab and Haryana
III. It is a subsistence crop in Orissa
IV. Delta and valley soils are suitable for its growth.
a) Maize b) Rice c) Wheat d) Millets.
73. On the basis of following feature identify the correct option:

I. It is practiced in Western, NW and Central India.

II. Only one crop is cultivated in this type of farming
III. Peas and Gram are the examples
IV. Moisture is maintained to grow crops.
a) Wet farming b) plantation farming c) Dry farming d) Intensive farming
74. On the basis of following feature identify the correct option:

I. It is practiced for earning money through export

II. It is also known as cash crop
III. Tea and Cotton are the examples
IV. It is extensive in nature.
a) Primitive subsistence farming c) commercial farming
b) Collective farming d) Intensive subsistence farming
75. On the basis of following feature identify the correct option:

I. It is a cash crop as well as commercial crop

II. It is also known as Golden fibre
III. It is high cost crop
IV. High temperature is required during its growth.
a) Wheat b) Maize c) Silk d) Jute
76. On the basis of following feature identify the correct option:

I. High yielding varieties of seeds are used

 II. High increase in the production of food grains

III. Number of labor has increased

IV. Size of land is increased.

a) Gene revolution b) white revolution c) green revolution d) wheat revolution

77. Passage based questions:

Indian economy is based on agriculture. Around 70% of people depend on it for their
livelihood. It contributes 38% to the G.D.P. of India. Agriculture provides foodgrains
as well as raw materials. According to 1980-91 survey, agriculture’s share in GDP was
3.6% which was raised to 4% in 2002-07 but it decreased in 1992-2001 and registered
3.3%. It definitely affected the economy of the country. Government took measures to
overcome this problem to modernise agriculture so that productivity can be
increased. Despite being a leading producer of rice, rubber, sugar, spices, cotton and
other materials, India is still an economically weak country. But Green revolution and
genetic engineering played crucial role in increasing the GDP.
1. What is the primary activity of Indian population?
(1) Industry (2) Agriculture (3) Defence (4) Technology
2. What is the new methodology to increase productivity?
(1) White revolution (2) Green revolution
(3) Commercialisation (4) Globalisation
3. What is GDP?
(1) Gross Domestic Profit (2) Gross Domestic Product
(3) Gross Domestic Productivity (4) Gross Development Profit
4. How much Agriculture contributes to Indian economy?
(1) 40% (2) 70% (3) 38% (4) 13%
5. What was the share of agriculture in GDP in 1992?
(1) 3.6% (2) 3.3% (3) 3.2% (4) 3.1%

Find out the correct option:

78. What is Jhumming?
a) Intensive subsistence farming c) Plantation farming
b) Slash and burn agriculture. D) Commercial farming

79.Who was considered as Gandhiji’s spiritual heir?

a) J. L. Nehru c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
b) Subash Chandra Bose d) Vinoba Bhave

80. KCC is the abbreviated form of

a) Kisan Credit Card b) Kisan Cyber Card c)Kisan Cash Card d) Kisan crisis card

81. PAIS are beneficial for–

a) Zamindars c) Government
b) Farmers d) Consumers

82. Shri Ram Chandra Reddy offered–

a) 70 acres land c) 85 acres land
b) 90 acres land d) 80 acres land

83. Sericulture is related to

a) jute b) silk c) cotton d) rubber

84. Horticulture means the production of

a) Fodder crops b) Fruits and vegetables c) Sugarcane d) Millets

85. What does India rank among the world’s rubber producers–
a) II nd b)I st c)VII th d) V th

86. Vinoba Bhave’s movement is known as–

a) Satyagrah b) Non-cooperation
c) Bhoodan-Gramdan d) Quit India Movement

87. Bamboo plantation is done widely in–

a) Maharashtra b) Karnataka c) Bihar d) North east

88. Which is a commercial crop of Haryana and Punjab?

a) Wheat b) Rice c) Maize d) Pulses

89. Cotton fibre is obtained from the –

a)Stem b) Leaf c) Root d) Fruit
 90. One of the most prominent crops of dry farming in India is–
a) Paddy b) Wheat c) Bajra d) Cotton

91. The cultivation of rice in West Bengal is an example of–

a) Commercial grain farming b) Commercial plantation agriculture
b) Subsistence grain farming d) Multiple cropping
92.Jute is obtained from which part of the plant?
a) Flower b) fruit c) stem d) leaf
93. Gujarat is the chief producer of–
a) Wheat b) Sugarcane c) Bajra d) Coconut
94. The temperature needed for the cultivation of rubber is–
a) 25°C b) 30°C c) 35°C d) 40°C

95. ‘Operation Flood’ is concerned with–

a) Flood b) Irrigation c) Food grains d) Milk
96. Which State is known as ‘Sugar Bowl’ of India?
a) Punjab b) Haryana c) Uttar Pradesh d) Bihar
97.PDS is a programe to provide food grains in subsidized prices to
a) Poors b) Rich c) Zamindars d) Middlemen
98. FCI is the abbreviated form of–
a) Food Corporation of India b) Flood Corporation of India
b) Finance Corporation of India d) Federal Cooperative Industry
99. Tur, Urad, Moong are the varieties of
a) Millets b) Maize c) Rice d) Pulses

100. Pomlon is the name of shifting agriculture in–

a) Chhatisgarh b) Maharashtra c) U.P. d) Manipur
 Economics: Ln.2: SECTORS OF THE INDIAN ECONOMY

1. GDP stands for Gross Domestic Product. What does it show? Pick up the correct
statement given below:
(a) It shows how big the economy of a country is in a given year in terms of its total
output.
(b) It shows what the total product of a country in a given year without counting the
country’s total resources.
(c) It shows the number of people involved in production in a particular year.
(d) It shows the total value of trade trans-actions of a country in a particular year.
2. Employment figures of a country are based on data collected from 5-yearly survey on
employment and unemployment. Which organization conducts this survey?
(a) NSSO—National Sample Survey Organization
(b) NREGA 2005—National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
(c) ILO — International Labour Organization
(d) Census of India
3. Identify the natural product from the list of items given below:
(a) Textile (b) Wheat flour (c) Cotton (d) Tomato sauce
4. Which of the following examples does not fall under unorganized sector?
(a) A farmer irrigating his field.
(b) A daily wage labourer working for a contractor.
(c) A doctor in a hospital treating a patient.
(d) A handloom weaver working on a loom in her house.
5. Identify the correct answer from the alternatives provided.
Both Tisco and Reliance Industries are owned by:
(a) The government (b) Private company
(c) A cooperative society (d) Jointly by private companies and the
govt.
6. NREGA (National Rural Employment Guarantee Act of 2005) has guaranteed ……….
days of employment in a year in many districts of India. What are the correct numbers of
days?
(a) 200 days (b) 100 days (c) 30 days (d) 60 days
7. Choose one correct statement from the following:
Underemployment occurs —
(a) When people are not willing to work.
(b) When people are working slowly.
(c) When people are working less than what they are capable of doing.
(d) When people are not paid for their jobs.

8. Which sector has emerged as the largest producing sector in India. Select one from the
following alternatives:
(a) Secondary sector (b) Tertiary sector
 (c) Primary sector (d) Science and Technology
sector
9. Where will you find the disguised unemployment most? Select the correct option from
those given below:
(a) Among agricultural workers working for small farm lands
(b) Among part-time industrial workers
(c) In most of the government offices
(d) In big private companies
10. How do big private companies contribute in the development of a nation?
(a) By increasing the demands for their products through advertisements.
(b) By increasing their profits.
(c) By increasing productivity of the country in the manufacturing of industrial goods.
(d) By providing private hospital facilities for the rich.
11. Which of the following activities does not belong to the primary sector?
(a) Fishing (b) Banking (c) Mining (d) Forestry
12. Which of the following sectors is the largest employer in India?
(a) Primary Sector (b) Secondary Sector (c) Tertiary Sector (d) IT Sector
13. The task of measuring GDP is undertaken by the
(a) central government (b) State government
(c) Provincial government (d) all of the above
14. Life insurance is an activity of the
(a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector (c) Service sector (d) None of the above
15. The motive of the public sector enterprises is
(a) Profit making (b) Entertainment
(c) Social welfare and security (d) None of the above
16. How do big private companies contribute in the development of a nation?
(a) By increasing the demands for their products through advertisements.
(b) By increasing their profits.
(c) By increasing productivity of the country in the manufacturing of industrial goods.
(d) By providing private hospital facilities for the rich.
17. Which sector has emerged as the largest producing sector in India. Select one from
the following alternatives:
(a) Secondary sector (b) Tertiary sector
(c) Primary sector (d) Science and Technology sector
18. Which of the following examples does not fall under unorganized sector?
(a) A farmer irrigating his field.
(b) A daily wage labourer working for a contractor.
(c) A doctor in a hospital treating a patient.
(d) A handloom weaver working on a loom in her house.
19. The money value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a
particular year is called:
(a) Gross domestic product (b) Net domestic product
 (c) National product (d) Production of secondary
sector
20. Which of the following economic activity does not come under the primary sector?
(a) Fishing (b) Farming (c) Mining (d) Banking
21. Which of the following activities is not the activity of Primary Sector?
(a) Milking (b) Fishing (c) Making of sugar (d) Farming
22. What is meant by GDP?
(a) Gross Dairy Product (b) Gross Domestic Product
(c) Great Development Project (d) Great Domestic Product
23. Agriculture, dairy farming is activities belonging to which of the following sectors?
(a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d) Scientific technology
24. Which of the following is not applicable for a worker, who works in the organised
sector?
(a) She gets a regular salary at the end of the month
(b) She is not paid for leave
(c) She gets medical allowance
(d) She got an appointment letter stating the terms and conditions of work when she
joins work.
25. The motive of public sector enterprises is:
(a) Profit making (b) Entertainment
(c) Social welfare and security (d) None of the above
26. Which one of the following economic activities is not in the tertiary sector?
(a) Banking (b) Bee keeping
(c) Teaching (d) Working in a call centre
27. The service sector includes activities such as
(a) Agriculture, dairy, fishing and forestry
(b) Making sugar, gur and bricks
(c) Transport, communication and banking
(d) None of these
28. Which of the following types of activities are covered in the secondary sector?
(a) It generates services rather than goods.
(b) Natural products are changed through manufacturing.
(c) Goods are produced by exploiting natural resources.
(d) It includes agriculture, forestry and dairy.
29. As per NREGA 2005 (National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005) the number
of days of employment guaranteed by government is
(a) 100 days (b) 80 days (c) 150 days (d) 120 days
30. Information and communication technology is associated with
(a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector (d) None of the above
31. In which sector activities are not guided by profit motive?
(a) Organized sector (b) Public sector
(c) Private sector (d) Unorganized sector
 32. Manufacturing sector is associated with
(a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector (c) Tertiary sector (d) Private sector
33. Primary sector is related to
(a) Agriculture (b) Dairy, forestry (c) Fishing, mining (d) All the above
34. Who carries economic activities?
(a) Individuals (b) Firms (c) Government (d) All the above
35. The economy is classified into public and private sectors on the basis of:
(a) Employment conditions
(b) The nature of economic activity
(c) Ownership of enterprises
(d) Number of workers employed in the enterprise
36. Name one type of classification of the economy?
(a). Urban (b). Rural (c). Public/private (d). State/national
37. Where are the employment and non-employment figures taken from to study the
data?
(a). Real-Time Handbook of Statistics on Indian Economy.
(b). National Statistical Office (NSO)
(c). NITI Aayog
(d). Statistics information Bureau
38. What are the groups of classification of an economy called?
(a). Sectors (b). Centers (c). Types (d). Categories
39. When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources it is called……..?
(a). Tertiary sector (b). Primary sector (c). Service sector (d). Public
sector
40. Which activities come under the agriculture and related sectors?
(a). Dairy
(b). Mineral excavation
(c). Using cotton fiber from the plant
(d). Selling agricultural products in the market
41. What is the secondary sector?
(a). production of a good by exploiting natural resources
(b). Activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of
manufacturing
(c). Activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or support for
the production process.
(d). Mineral excavation
42. Using sugarcane as raw material, we make sugar or gur, under what sector does this
activity come?
(a). Primary (b). Private (c). Industrial (d). Tertiary

43. Those activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or support
for the production process, are called……….?
(a). Primary (b). Private (c). Industrial (d). Tertiary
 44. Name one functioning activity of the Tertiary sector?
(a). Goods that are produced would need to be transported by trucks or trains and then
sold in wholesale and retail shops
(b). This sector gradually became associated with the different kinds of industries
(c). Activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of
manufacturing
(d). Produce a good by exploiting natural resources
45. Which sector is also called the service sector?
(a). Primary (b). Public (c). Industrial (d). Tertiary
46. The sum of production in the three sectors gives what is called the …………. of a
country?
(a). Gross income (b). Gross Domestic Product
(c). Net Domestic Product (d). Net income
47. The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year
provides the………..
(a). Average Production of the sector for that year
(b). Net Production of the sector for that year
(c). Total production of the sector for that year.
(d). Gross production of the sector for that year
48. ……………gradually became the most important in total production and
employment?
(a). Secondary sector (b). Tertiary sector (c). Public sector (d). Primary
sector
49. Which one is a primary occupation?
(a). Tailor (b). Basket weaver (c). Flower cultivator (d). Milk vendor
50. Not every good (or service) that is produced and sold needs to be counted. It makes
sense only to include the ………… to get the total production?
(a). values of goods and services in production (b). Final goods and services
(c). Adding up the actual numbers of goods (d). Goods and services in the three
sectors
51. Give an example of an intermediate good?
(a). Woven basket (b). Chair production from wood
(c). Wheat flour (d). Biscuits
52. It has been noted from the histories of many, now developed, countries that at initial
stages of development… sector was the most important sector of economic activity.
(a). Public (b). Tertiary (c). Secondary (d). Primary
53. As the methods of farming changed and the agriculture sector began to prosper, most
of the goods produced were ………….. from the primary sector and most people were also
employed in this sector?
(a). Synthetic products (b). Involved machines
(c). Natural products (d). Mixed products
54. Why did the Secondary sector later become the most important sector?
 (a). People began to use many more goods that were produced in factories at cheap
rates
(b). Employment increased
(c). Agriculture declined
(d). A & B
55. In developed countries, the ………… sector has become the most important in terms
of total production.
(a). Primary (b). Industrial (c). Service (d). Public
56. In the data given of GDP, which was the most productive sector in 1974?
(a). Primary (b). Tertiary (c). Secondary (d). Equal
production
57. The primary sector is also called…….?
(a). Service sector (b). Agriculture and related sector
(c). Pre- industry sector (d). Unorganized sector
58. In the data given of GDP which was the most productive sector in 2013-14?
(a). Primary (b). Tertiary (c). Secondary (d). Equal production
59. The secondary sector is also called……..?
(a). Organized sector (b). Service sector
(c). Industrial sector (d). Public sector
60. Which sector has grown the most over forty years?
(a). Primary (b). Tertiary (c). Secondary (d). Equal
production
61. Which of these can be considered as basic services?
(a). Growing of wheat (b). Transport (c). Storage (d). Police station
62. Greater the development of the primary and secondary sectors … would be the
demand for such services?
(a). Equal (b). More (c). Less (d). Uneven
63. When income levels rise, certain sections of people start demanding many more
services like………..
(a). More food (b). Hospitals (c). Defense (d). Tourism
64. Over the past decade or so, certain new services such as …………. have become
important and essential?
(a). private hospitals (b). Professional training
(c). Information and communication technology (d). Insurance
65. Underemployment is hidden in contrast to someone who does not have a job and is
clearly visible as unemployed. It is also called ………………
(a). Hidden employment (b). Disguised unemployment.
(c). Unstable employment (d). Less employment
66. Which of the following is not an activity of unorganized sector?
(a) teacher taking a class in KendriyaVidyalaya
(b) a nurse working in a Government hospital
(c) a farmer irrigating his field
(d) a clerk working in the post office
 67. Which of the following statements is true in respect of Public Sector?
(a) Big companies own most of the assets
(b) Government owns the assets
(c) A group of people owns most of the assets
(d) An individual own most of the assets
68. Workers in agricultural sector are
(a) underemployed (b) over employed (c) unemployed (d) None of these
69. Which of the following is also known as disguised employment?
(a) Over-employment (b) Factory employment
(c) Under-employment (d) Unemployment
70. Which of the following Acts would not apply to a company like TISCO?
(a) Minimum Wages Act (b) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(c) Factories Act (d) Payment of Gratuity Act
71. Disguised Unemployment means a situation where people are:
(a) Unemployed (b) Employed but earning less salary
(c) Employed but productivity is nil (d) Unemployed for a short period of
time
72. Choose the correct meaning of organized sector.
(a) It covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are not regular.
(b) It is outside the control of the government.
(c) Jobs are not regular.
(d) It provides low salaries.
73. Workers in this sector do not produce goods:
(a) tertiary sector (b) secondary sector (c) primary sector (d) none of the above
74. Manufacturing units in unorganized sector are:
(a) not subject to government regulations
(b) subject to government regulations
(c) subject to central bank’s regulations
(d) none of the above
75. Which of the following types of activities are covered in the secondary sector?
(a) It generates services rather than goods.
(b) Natural products are changed through manufacturing.
(c) Goods are produced by exploiting natural resources.
(d) It includes agriculture, forestry and dairy.
76. Which sector includes the units producing services?
(a) Primary sector (b) secondary sector
(c) tertiary sector (d) all the above
77. In which type of unemployment more people are employed than required?
(a) Seasonal unemployment (b) disguised unemployment
(c) educated unemployment (d) all the above
78. Which sector converts goods into goods?
(a) Primary sector (b) secondary sector
(c) unorganized sector (d) organized sector
 79. The money value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a
particular year is called:
(a) Gross domestic product (b) Net domestic product
(c) National product (d) Production of secondary sector
80. Tertiary is a larger sector in …………… country.
81. Unorganized sector are registered with the government. (True / False)
82. Maximum share of GDP comes from Public Sector. (True / False)
83. Provision of appointment letter is not there in unorganized sector. (True / False)
84. Tertiary sector is gaining importance in India. (True / False)
85. People cannot expect job security in an organized sector. (True / False)
86. Assertion: Rakesh is an educated and skilled worker who earns a high monthly
salary as he is employed in a private bank in a city.
Reason: All service sectors in India are growing extremely well and each individual
engaged in any kind of tertiary activity earns a high income.
1. Assertion is false, but reason is true
2. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
3. Both assertion and reason are false.
4. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
87. Assertion: Leela works five days a week, receives her income on the last day of each
month and gets medical facilities from her firm.
Reason: Leela is working in organized sector.
(a) Assertion is false, but reason is true
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) Both assertion and reason are false.
(d) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
88. Assertion: Mohan is a shopkeeper who pays his taxes on time. He has employed two
workers Rakesh and Raghu in his shop. He pays them well; however, none of the workers
get
any paid leaves in the year.
Reason: Rakesh and Raghu are employed in unorganized sector.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are false.
(c) (a) Assertion is false, but reason is true
(d) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
89. Assertion: When calculating the total value of goods and services produced in a
country, the value of all goods and services at each stage of production should be
calculated.
Reason: At each stage of production some value is added to a good or service,
therefore, the value added at each stage of production is added to derive the total value of
goods and services in an economy.
(a) Assertion is false, but reason is true
 (b) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Both assertion and reason are false.
(d) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
90. Assertion: There are several goods and services that the society needs; however, the
private sector does not produce all of them.
Reason: Private sector is profit driven.
(a) Assertion is false, but reason is true
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Both assertion and reason are false.
(d) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
91. Assertion: In India, the primary sector is the largest employer.
Reason: The demand for services has increased enormously.
(iii) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(iv) Both assertion and reason are false.
(v) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(vi) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
92. Assertion: A Reliance industry is a privately-owned firm.
Reason: Government is a major stakeholder is reliance industries.
(a) Assertion is false, but reason is true
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Both assertion and reason are false.
(d) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
93. Assertion: An individual who manufactures flour from wheat is engaged in primary
sector.
Reason: When some process of manufacturing is used the product is a part of
secondary sector.
(a) Both assertion and reason are false.
(b) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(c) Assertion is false, but reason is true
(d) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
94. Assertion: The development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of
service sector.
Reason: As the primary and secondary sectors develops, the demand for transport,
storage structures, banks, insurance, etc., increases.
(a) Both assertion and reason are false.
(b) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(c) Assertion is false, but reason is true
(d) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
95. Assertion: GDP shows how big an economy is.
 Reason: GDP is the value of all goods and services produced within the domestic
territory of a country in a year.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are false.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
96. Service is
(a) Tangible (b) Intangible (c) Both a and b (d) Physical
Product
97. The secondary sector is also known as ……….. , as this sector produces useful items
from
natural products.
(a) Manufacturing (b) Construction (c) Building (d) Making
98. Converting iron is a part of
(a) Primary activity (b) Secondary activity (c) Tertiary sector (d) All of these
99. The sum total of production of all goods and services in the three sectors are
combined
(a) NDP (b) NI (c) GNI (d) GDP
100. Which among the following is a feature of unorganized sector?
(a) Fixed number of work hours (b) Paid holidays
(c) Employment is insecure (d) Registered with the government