1. Which of the following factors are associated 8.

An example of an auxillary label

with a patient’s non-adherence to the prescribed I. Shake well II. Take with food
therapeutic regimen? III. May cause drowsiness
A. How do often the medication is taken A. I only
B. The cost of the medication B. III only
C. The duration of therapy C. I and II only
D. All of these D. II and III
E. None of these E. I, II and III
2. The part of the prescription that is understood to 9. A sample of dispensing error
mean “thou take” or “you take” I. Providing the incorrect medication
A. Medications prescribed II. Providing the incorrect dosage strength
B. Signatura and dosage form
C. Rx symbol III.Undetected interactions with other
D. Superscription medications
E. Subscription A. I only
3. The part of the prescription that is also known as B. III only
the inscription C. I and II only
A. Medications prescribed D. II and III
B. Signatura E. I, II and III
C. Rx symbol 10. A risk factor for adverse drug reactions
D. Superscription I. Patient age
E. Subscription II. Concurrent medications taken
4. The part of the prescription that refers to the III. Ethnicity and genetics
dispensing directions to the pharmacist A. I only
A. Medications prescribed B. III only
B. Signatura C. I and II only
C. Rx symbol D. II and III
D. Superscription E. I, II and III
E. Subscription 11. Factor contributing to the occurrence of a drug
5. Which of the following is a dispensing direction interaction
for the pharmacist? I. Multiple pharmacological effects
A. Gtt i-ii ou BID II. Multiple prescribers
B. M ft caps dtd #50 III. Use of over the counter products
C. Inh 2 puffs PO q 4 to 6 h prn difficulty A. I only
breathing B. III only
D. Ii tabs PO q 4 h C. I and II only
E. 50 units SC q AM D. II and III
6. The packaging suitable for dispensing bulk E. I, II and III
powders 12. Which of the following statements is TRUE
A. Round vials regarding patient variables affecting drug
B. Wide-mouth bottles response?
C. Dropper bottles I. Taking sedatives and alcoholic beverages
D. Ointment jars together could result to an excessive
E. Collapsible tubes depressive response.
7. Which is TRUE regarding auxillary labells? II. Food may often affect the rate of extent of
I. Emphasizes important aspects of absorption of a drug from the GIT
the dispensed medication III.Renal and hepatic function do not affect
II. Provides cautionary statements the patient’s response to a medication
from the pharmacist regarding the A. I only
dispensed medication B. III only
III. Are available in different colors to C. I and II only
give them prominence once D. II and III
attached to the medication container E. I, II and III
A. I only 13. How could you counsel a patient who is
B. III only prescribed a ketoconazole and an antacid,
C. I and II only knowing that the ketoconazole requires an acidic
D. II and III environment to achieve dissolution after oral
E. I,II and III administration?
 A. Advice the patient that both drugs could II. Consider an alternative to phenobarbital
be taken together. such as benzodiazepines which are not
B. Advice the patient to go back to the likely to interact with warfarin
doctor and have the ketoconazole III.There is no need to make any
replaced with another drug. recommendation to the prescriber
C. Advice the patient to take the antacid A. I only
two hours after taking the ketoconazole. B. III only
D. Advice the patient to go to the doctor C. I and II only
and have both drugs changed. D. II and III
E. Advice the patient to stop taking both E. I, II and III
medications. 19. The following are examples of a drug with a
14. A patient is prescribed ciprofloxacin to treat a narrow therapeutic index, EXCEPT
respiratory tract infection. What would you A. Theophylline
advice the patient? B. Warfarin
I. Do not take with milk and or dairy C. Digoxin
products D. Penicillin
II. Take aluminum or magnesium E. Lithium
containing antacids when stomach 20. An example of a type A adverse drug reaction
upset occurs A. Carcinogenesis
III. The patient may continue taking iron B. Anaphylaxis from penicillins
supplements even while on the C. Tachycardia from salbutamol
medication D. Teratogenesis
A. I only E. None of these
B. III only 21. As a pharmacist, what would you advice your
C. I and II only patient when dispensing ophthalmic solutions:
D. II and III I. Never allow the tip of the dropper to
E. I, II and III touch any surface
15. The mechanism of drug interaction between II. Never rinse the dropper
tetracycline and milk, tetracycline and aluminum III. Never use eyedrops that have
or magnesium-containing antacids changed color
A. Alteration of gastric emptying rate A. I only
B. Complexation B. III only
C. Alteration of pH C. I and II only
D. Alteration of GI absorption D. II and III
E. Alteration of distribution E. I, II and III
16. The mechanism of drug interaction between 22. During medication review, the patient reveals
oral contraceptives and antibiotics that he is an avid fan of grapefruit and takes his
A. Alteration of GI flora medications, including verapamil, with grapefruit
B. Alteration of pH juice. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
C. Complexation and adsorption verapamil and grapefruit juice?
D. Alteration of distribution I. Avoid taking medications with grapefruit
E. Alteration of metabolism in the GIT juice
17. The mechanism of drug interaction between II. The combination may inhibit the
phenytoin aand valproic acid metabolism of the drug (verapamil) resulting
A. Displacement form protein binding site to increased pharmacologic effects and
B. Drug-food interaction increased risk of adrs
C. Alteration of GI flora III.The combination may increase the
D. Stimulation of metabolism metabolism of the drug (verapamil) resulting
E. Alteration of active transport to decreased pharmacologic activity
18. Phenobarbital causes enzyme induction hence, A. Only I
increases the rate of metabolism of warfarin B. Only III
when taken together. As the pharmacist, what C. I and II
would be your recommendation to the D. II and III
prescriber? E. I, II and III
I. Increase the dose of warfarin while on 23. A patient complains of extreme muscle
phenobarbital then lower it down once weakness and myopathy. Which of his
phenobarbital is discontinued medications may have caused this?
A. Metformin 500 mg BID
 B. Atorvastatin 80 mg hs 29. A common side effect of minoxidil
C. Losartan 50 mg qam A. Persistent dry cough
D. Multivitamins B. Peripheral edema
E. Paracetamol 500 mg Q 4 to 6 h prn C. Reflex tachycardia
24. A patient with hypertension complains of D. Drowsiness
swelling in her feet and mentions that this E. Hypertrichosis
started when she was given her new 30. A patient’s routine lab results showed an
antihypertensive drug. Which of the following increase in her serum potassium levels. Her
medications may have caused this? physician informed her that her hypertensive
A. Metoprolol medication which one initiated three months ago
B. Hydrochlorothiazide may have caused this increase. Which of the
C. Valsartan following is her medication?
D. Furosemide A. Furosemide
E. Amlodipine besylate B. Hydrochlorothiazide
25. A patient with infection was given levofloxacin C. Losartan
500 mg once daily for 10 days. The patient D. Nifedipine
noticed no improvement of symptoms on the E. Chlorthalidone
seventh day of therapy. A review of the patient’s 31. A patient who is hypertensive and has history of
medication profile reveals that he is taking which gout was placed by his physician on a diuretic.
of the following drugs that may have interacted He develops an attack of gout a few weeks after
with the antibiotic? starting therapy. Which of the following diuretics
A. Ferrous sulphate was he taking?
B. Vitamin C A. Spironolactone
C. Guaifenesin B. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Ibuprofen C. Triamterene
E. Paracetamol D. Urea
26. A patient comes to the pharmacy asking for a E. Chlorthalidone
recommendation for a cough medicine because 32. This antihypertensive drug is associated with
of persistent cough. A review of the patient’s drug-induced lupus that resolves upon cessation
medication profile revealed that one of his of the drug.
medications is causing this symptom. What drug A. Digoxin
is this? B. Hydralazine
A. Enalapril C. Minoxidil
B. Losartan D. Labetalol
C. Metoprolol E. Valsartan
D. Hydrochlorothiazide 33. A patient on an antiarrhythmic medication
E. Furosemide complains of dry mouth, blurred vision, and
27. Which of the following drugs may cause postural urinary hesitancy. Which of the following
hypertension and reflex tachycardia once the medications is the patient taking?
drug is initiated and when increasing doses? A. Disopyramide
A. Prazosin B. Flecainide
B. Amlodipine C. Lidocaine
C. Labetalol D. Amiodarone
D. Propranolol E. Sotalol
E. Furosemide 34. This antiarrythmic may induced the symptoms of
28. A patient’s blood pressure has been well cinchonism.
controlled for years using a thiazide diuretic. But A. Quinidine
lately there has been an increase in his diastolic B. Flecainide
blood pressure warranting an additional blood C. Procainamide
pressure medication. However, he noticed that D. Mexiletene
lately he has been experiencing erectile E. Sotalol
dysfunction. Which of the following medication 35. A common adverse effect of mexiletine
classes may have caused this? A. Bleeding
A. Thiazide diuretics B. Anorexia
B. Beta blockers C. Dyspepsia
C. ACE inhibitors D. Somnolence
D. ARBS E. Shortness of breath
E. Loop diuretics
36. An antiarrythmic that should be avoided by A. I only
patient’s with asthma B. III only
A. Propafenone C. I and II only
B. Flecainide D. II and III
C. Quinidine E. I, II and III
D. Sotalol
E. Mexiletine 42. A treatment for excessive bleeding due to heparin
37. The following are adverse effects of amiodarone therapy
EXCEPT I. Vitamin K
A. Pulmonary fibrosis II. Discontinue heparin
B. Neuropathy III.Protamine sulfate
C. Blue-gray skin discoloration A. I only
D. Hypo- or hyperthyroidism B. III only
E. Bleeding C. I and II only
38. A patient comes inti the pharmacy and hands D. II and III
you, the pharmacist, a prescription for sildenafil. E. I, II and III
You recall that you just counselled this same
patient two weeks ago regarding the use of 43. A consequence of long tern heparin therapy
sublingual nitroglycerin. What would be the
A. Osteoporosis
result of the interaction between the two
B. Persistent cough
medications?
C. Obesity
I. Potentiate the effects of sildenafil
D. Weight gain
II. Dangerous hypertension
E. Hair loss
III. Dangerous hypotension
A. I only 44. A patient brought in a new prescription for
B. III only fluconazole. A review of her medication profile revealed
C. I and II only that she is on warfarin therapy. Which of the following
D. II and III statements is TRUE regarding the combination of these
E. I, II and III two drugs?
39. The interaction between aspirin and ketorolac
would result to which of the following: I. The two drugs are safe to
A. Increased bleeding be taken together
B. Dry mouth II. Fluconazole inhibits the
C. Blurred vision metabolism of warfarin
D. All of these III.The combination of these
E. None of these two medications could lead to
40. A patient who is on probenecid for his gout serious bleeding
reports that he has been experiencing attacks of A. I only
his gout when he was on daily aspirin therapy. B. III only
This is due to which of the following: C. I and II only
I. Increased metabolism of aspirin D. II and III
II. Increased vasodilation E. I, II and III
III.Decreased uricosuric effect of probenecid
45. A patient complains of weakness and muscle
A. I only
achiness that will not resolve. He said that his symptoms
B. III only
are interfering with his daily activities for he feels too
C. I and II only
weak even to get out of bed. You reviewed his
D. II and III
medication profile and found out that one of his
E. I, II and III
medications may be the cause of his condition. Which of
41. A patient is on clopidogrel for her arrythmia and
the following medications may have caused these
she came to you to bring in a prescription for
symptoms?
omeprazole from her doctor. What can you say
about this combination? A. Losartan 50 mg daily
I. The two drugs could be given B. Lipitor 80 mg daily
together C. Ibuprofen 200 mg q 4 to 6 h prn
II. The combination is not pain
recommended D. Multivitamins 1 cap daily
III. Patients on clopidogrel should avoid E. Metformin 500 mg daily
omeprazole
46. The following are adverse effects of niacin, EXCEPT D. Patients with renal insufficiency
E. Patients with hypertriglyceridemia
A. Intense cutaneous flush
B. Pruritus 51. The most serious and common adverse reaction to
C. Hepatotoxicity insulin.
D. Anorexia
E. Abdominal pain A. Hypotension
B. Hypoglycemia
47. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding C. Hypertension
simvastatin and gemfibrozil? D. Hyperglycemia
E. Hypercholesterolemia
I. The use of gemfibrozil is
contraindicated with simvastatin 52. How can lipodystrophy, an adverse effect of insulin
II. The combination increases the risk use, be minimized?
for myopathy and rhabdomyolysis
III. There is no interaction between the A. Switch to an oral medication
two medications B. Rotate injection sites
A. I only C. Inject insulin into the muscle
B. III only D. Inject once daily only
C. I and II E. Use insulin pens
D. II and III 53. Major adverse effects of sulfonylureas
E. I, II and III
I. Weight gain
48. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding II. Hypoglycemia
bile acid sequestrants? III. Hyperinsulinemia
I. Most common side effects include A. I only
constipation, nausea, and flatulence B. III only
II. They may impair the absorption of C. I and II only
Vitamin A,D,E,K D. II and III
III. They may impair the absorption of E. I, II and III
many drugs, such as warfarin, 54. A rare, but serious side effect of metformin
digoxin, etc.
A. I only A. Candidiasis
B. III only B. Lactic acidosis
C. I and II only C. Pancreatitis
D. II and III D. Urinary tract infection
E. I, II and III E. Heart failure

49. A counselling point when dispensing colesevelam to 55. Adverse effect associated with estrogen therapy
a patient on a warfarin therapy.
A. Breast tenderness
A. Stop taking warfarin for his B. Nausea
interacts with colesevelam C. Thromboembolism
B. Take warfarin 1 to 2 hours before D. Breast cancer
or 4 to 6 hours after the bile E. All of these
acid-binding resin
56. Which of the following antidiabetic drugs is
C. Switch colesevelam to
associated with a risk of pancreatitis?
cholestyramine
D. Take both drugs at the same time A. Metformin
with food B. Liraglutide
E. Take both drugs at the same time C. Glimepiride
on an empty stomach D. Insulin
E. Nateglinide
50. Which of the following patient groups would be more
likely to experience the adverse effect of HMG coa 57. A patient on warfarin therapy brought in a
reductase inhibitors (myopathy and rhabdomyolysis)? prescription for naproxen. Upon consult, you were
informed that he did not tell his prescriber that he is
A. Patients with on blood thinners
taking warfarin. You recall that warfarin is 97% protein
B. Patients with heperuriemia
C. Patients with hypertension
bound and naproxen is 99% protein bound. What would C. Biopharmaceutical
happen if this patient takes naproxen? D. Pharmacodynamic
E. Pharmaceutical
A. The patient will benefit from this
combination 63. A contraindication for the use of ergotamine and
B. The pain and inflammation will be dihydroergotamine
treated
C. There is no interaction between I. Angina
the two drugs II. Peripheral vascular disease
D. The patient may experience III. Diabetes
bleeding A. I only
E. The patient would have blood B. III only
clots C. I and II only
D. II and III
58. This should be checked by the pharmacist when E. I, II and III
dispensing suppositories
64. An antimicrobial agent that have the potential to
A. Excessive softening cause interstitial nephritis
B. Oil stains on packaging
C. Presence of precipitate A. Methicillin
D. A and B B. Ceftriaxone
E. B and C C. Naproxen
D. Cephalexin
59. The following are common side effects encountered E. Sertraline
when using ophthalmic preparations EXCEPT
65. Red man syndrome is an adverse event associated
A. Persistent burning sensation with which medication
B. Tearing
C. Decreased vision A. Erythromycin
D. Foreign body sensation B. Vancomycin
E. Margin crusting C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Moxifloxacin
60. A patient brought in a prescription for finasteride. E. Daptomycin
Your pharmacy technician assigned at the filling station
is in her 1st trimester of pregnancy. What precautions 66. An adverse effect associated with the use of
should be observed? daptomycin

I. Let her fill the prescription A. Red man syndrome

II. Tell her not to fill the prescription B. Rhabdomyolysis
and have somebody else fill it. C. Bleeding
III. Remind her not to touch the D. Flushing
medication E. Ototoxicity
A. I only 67. Phototoxicity is associated with the use of which
B. III only antibiotic
C. I and II only
D. II and III A. Tetracycline
E. I, II and III B. Gentamicin
C. Erythromycin
61. Drug interaction includes the following D. Amoxicillin
A. Drug-drug interaction E. Neomycin
B. Drug-lab test interaction 68. A patient maintained on warfarin was given a
C. Drug-food interaction prescription for clarithromycin for an upper respiratory
D. Drug-herb interaction tract infection. Which of the following statements is
E. All of these TRUE?
62. The type of interaction that occurs when the I. The prescriber needs to be informed
pharmacokinetic disposition of the drug is altered by that the patient is on warfarin
genetic polymorphism in affecting processes therapy
A. Pharmacokinetic
B. Pharmacogenetic
 II. Clarithromycin inhibits the C. I and II only
metabolism of warfarin which could D. II and III
lead to bleeding E. I, II and III
III. There is no need to contact the
prescribers, it is safe to take both 74. The co-administration of triazolam and any protease
medications together inhibitor (ritonavir, saquinavir, indinavir, etc.) is
A. I only contraindicated because
B. III only A. This could result to excessive
C. I and II only sedation
D. II and III B. This could lead to treatment
E. I, II and III failure of the protease inhibitor
69. A contraindication for the use of tetracycline is C. There is no interaction between
children below 8 years old because tetracyclines the two drugs
D. Both drugs are expensive
A. Crosses the blood brain barrier E. None of these
B. Do not cross into the
cerebrospinal fluid 75. Paclitaxel is associated with serious hypersensitivity
C. Deposits into the bones and teeth reactions. Premedications necessary for a patient who
D. Do not cross into the would be administered paclitaxel include:
cerebrospinal fluid I. Dexamethasone
E. Can cause blood disorders II. Ranitidine
70. A drug that colors body fluids III. Diphenhydramine
A.I only
A. Tetracycline B. III only
B. Lexofloxacin C. I and II only
C. Bacitracin D. II and III
D. Rifampin E. I, II and III
E. Neomycin
76. The toxicity associated with this agent is interstitial
71. Rifampin and oral contraceptives nephritis

I. Reduced effect of oral contraceptives A. Bleomycin

II. Increased metabolism of oral B. Cyclophosphamide
contraceptives C. Cytarabine
III.Need for back-up contraception while D. Cisplatin
on rifampicin E. Doxorubicin
A. I only
B. III only 77. The drug, chemical or food elemet causing the
C. I and II only imteraction.
D. II and III A. Object drug
E. I, II and III B. Precipitant drug
72. A drug that causes optic neuritis with blurred vision, C. Target drug
and also red-green color blindness D. Precipitated drug
E. None of these
A. Pyrazinamide
B. Streptomycin 78. Mechanism of interaction between an antacid and an
C. Dapsone enteric-coated tablet
D. Ethambutol A. Alteration of gastric pH
E. Capreomycin B. Increased GI motility
73. The interaction between simvastatin and C. Alteration of intestinal flora
itraconazole would result to: D. Complexation
E. Decreased GI motility
I. Treatment failure of itraconazole
II. Increased exposure to simvastatin 79. Mechanism of interaction between digoxin and
III. Increased risk of rhabdomyolysis antibiotics resulting an increase in digoxin levels
A. I only A. Alteration of gastric pH
B. III only B. Increased in GI motility
 C. Alteration of intestinal flora B. III only
D. Complexation C. I and II
E. Decreased GI motility D. II and III
E. I, II and III
80. Which of the following herbal preparations increase
bleeding in patients on warfarin therapy? 85. A type of chemical incompatibility

A. Garlic A. Complexation
B. Ginger B. Reduction
C. Feverfew C. Photolysis
D. A and B D. Oxidation
E. A,B, and C E. All of these

81. Interaction between St. John’s wort and calcium 86. Factors affecting IV compatibility
channel blockers result to:
A. Ph
A. Failure of therapy of calcium B. Order of mixing
channel blockers C. Length of time in solution
B. Failure of therapy of St. John’s D. Temperature
wort E. All of these
C. There is no interaction between
St. John’s wort and calcium channel 87. Therapeutic hazards for IV preparations
blockers A. Drug instability
D. Elevated levels of St. John’s wort B. Labelling errors
E. Elevated levels of calcium C. Preservative and solubilizing agent toxicity
channel blockers D. Incompatibility
82. A patient asks you for a recommendation for an over E. All of these
the counter product for hot flashes due to menopause. 88. The interaction between ginkgo biloba and warfarin
Black cohosh is a common herbal supplement indicated could result to
for hot flashes. However further interview revealed that
she has maintenance medications for hypertension. I. Increased risk of bleeding
What would happen if she takes black cohosh together II. Decreased risk of bleeding
with her antihypertensive? III.Antagonism
A. I only
A. Hypertension B. III only
B. No interaction C. I and II only
C. Treatment failure of black cohosh D. II and III
D. Hypotension E. I, II and III
E. None of these
89. The mechanism for the interaction between ethanol
83. Factors that increase the chances of a drug and phenobarbital
interaction to occur
A. Increased metabolism of phenobarbital
I. Multiple prescribers B. Decreased metabolism of phenobarbital
II. Multiple drug therapy C. Decreased absorption of phenobarbital
III. Geriatric therapy D. Decreased metabolism of ethanol
A. I only E. None of these
B. III only
C. I and II only 90. False-positive urine ketone tests may result in
D. II and III patients taking valproic acid. This is significant for this
E. I, II and III type of patients when using urine tests

84. The interaction between probenecid and penicillin A. Hypertensive patients

B. Diabetic patients
I. Is beneficial C. Seizure patients
II. Inhibits renal tubular secretion of D. Asthma patients
penicillin E. All of these
III. Decreases the plasma half-life of
penicillin 91. The following are adverse effects of anticholinergic
A. I only drugs, EXCEPT
 A. Dry mouth 97. An extrapyramidal side effect that describes sudden
B. Increased urination muscle spasms that primarily occur in the eye, neck,
C. Constipation face, and throat muscles.
D. Urinary retention
E. Decreased sweating A. Acute dystonia
B. Tardive dyskinesia
92. These agents potentiate the side effects of C. Akathisia
anticholinergics D. Pseudoparkinsonism
E. None of these
I. Antihistamines
II. Antidepressants 98. An extrapyramidal side effect that is defined as the
III.Phenothiazines inability to sit still and as being functionally motor
A. I only restless.
B. III only
C. I and II only A. Acute dystonia
D. II and III B. Tardive dyskinesia
E. I, II and III C. Akathisia
D. Pseudoparkinsonism
93. Taking which of the following drugs could result to a E. None of these
false-positive Coombs test
99. Which of the following is considered most sedating
A. Levodopa antipsychotics?
B. Amantadine
C. Bromocriptine A. Chlorpromazine
D. Selegiline B. Clozapine
E. Phenothiazine C. Olanzapine
D. Thioridazine
94. The combination of levodopa and phenelzine is E. All of these
avoided because it could result to
100. An uncommon but potentially fatal adverse effect of
A. Hypertensive crisis antipsychotics, characterized by fever, severe rigidity,
B. Urinary incontinence altered mental status, unstable blood pressure,
C nausea and vomiting tachycardia, incontinence, elevated creatinine kinase,
D. Hypotension and increased WBC count.
E. Profuse sweating
A. Stevens-Johnsons syndrome
95. Pyridoxine should be taken with caution in B. Tardive dyskinesia
Parkinson’s patients on levodopa because C. Serotonin syndrome
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
A. Pyridoxine increases the peripheral E. None of these
metabolism of levodopa
B. The effect of levodopa will be decreased 101. Cholestyramine can bind with digoxin. Which of the
C. The effect of levodopa will be increases following is TRUE regarding this drug interaction?
D. A and B
E. B and C I. Cholestyramine is the object drug
II. Digoxin is the precipitant
96. A patient was prescribed amantadine. A review of his III.Digoxin is the object drug
medication profile revealed that he has A. I only
hydrochlorothiazide-triamterene tablets for the B. III only
management of his hypertension. What could be the C. I and II only
result if these are given together? D. II and III
E. I, II and III
A. There would be an increase in the plasma
concentration of amantadine 102. Which of the following is paired correctly?
B. There will be a decrease in the urinary
excretion of amantadine A. Tetracycline -object drug
C. There will be no interaction between the two Antacid – precipitant drug
medications B. Ciprofloxacin – precipitant
D. A and B Milk – object drug
E. B and C C. Cimetidine – object drug
Atorvastatin – precipitant drug
D. Tetracycline – precipitant
 Antacid – object drug D. Ensure proper storage of the medication
E.Penicillin – precipitant E. Warm against taking with food or other drugs
Probenecid – object drug
107. An alcoholic taking paracetamol 500 mg every 6
103. A patient asks you about using Coenzyme Q10 hours prn back pain, is exposed to:
since he has read about its benefits in a magazine.
Further interview of the patient revealed that he is A. Increased risk of renal toxicity
maintained on 2 mg daily dose of warfarin. What would B. Increased risk of hepatotoxicity
be the recommendation for this patient? C. Increased risk of photosensitivity
D. Decreased effect of paracetamol
A. There is no reason for concern, the patient E. All of these
could take Coenzyme Q10
B. Coenzyme Q10 may antagonize the activity 108. A patient refills a prescription for oral
of warfarin, use of which warrants a consult with contraceptives. You recall seeing this patient in the
the doctor parking lot smoking cigarettes with a couple of friends a
C. Warfarin antagonizes the effect of Coenzyme few minutes before she came into the pharmacy. This
Q10, do not take warfarin patient is at an increased risk for developing
D. Tell the patient to tell the doctor to remove his A. Cardiovascular disease
warfarin so he could take Coenzyme Q10 B. Hepatic disease
E. It is not safe to take both medications C. Lung disease
together, so stop taking warfarin before taking D. Renal disease
Coenzyme Q10 E. There is no reason for concern regarding this
104. A patient comes in complaining that the diazepam patient
that was dispensed to him was not working. Upon 109. A monitoring parameter for a patient on warfarin
reviewing the patient profile and further interview, it was therapy
revealed that the patient still has not stopped smoking
despite the doctor’s and your recommendations to do so. A. ANC
What could be the cause for the patient’s complaint? B. CBC
C. ECG
A. Smoking does not affect the activity of D. INR
diazepam. There might be another reason. E. Platelet count
B. Smoking decreases the activity of diazepam
by inducing its metabolism 110. A patient comes to you complaining of sleepiness,
C. Smoking decreases the activity of diazepam feeling lethargic, and seems like not in the mood to do
by inhibiting its metabolism anything. Which of the following medications that the
D. Smoking increases the activity of diazepam, patient is currently on could cause the patient’s
by inducing its metabolism complaints?
E. Alcohol decreases the activity of diazepam by
A. Gabapentin
inhibiting its metabolism
B. Lorazepam
105. A safety technique observed in community C. Hydrocodone/Acetaminophen
pharmacies to minimize medication errors. D. All of these
E. None of these
I. Organized and simplified work procedures
II. Working on one prescription at a time, instead 111. An antiseizure drug associated with gingival
of handling several prescriptions at once. hyperplasia
III.Using a magnifying lens when necessary
A. Carbamazepine
A. I only
B. Phenytoin
B. III only
C. Divalproex
C. I and II only
D. Lamotrigine
D. II and III
E. Topiramate
E. I, II and III
112. Inhibitors of platelet aggregation, EXCEPT
106. Purpose of auxillary labels, EXCEPT
A. Heparin
A. Ensure proper use of medications
B. Dipyridamole
B. Reinforce information given during
C. Absiximab
counselling
D. Clopidogrel
C. To minimize verbal patient counselling
E. Ticlopidine
113. TRUE about thrombolytic agents D. Scopolamine – treatment of COPD
E. Atropine – to produce miosis
A. Hemorrhage is a major adverse effect
B. Contraindicated in pregnancy 120. An antidiarrheal agent contains diphenoxylate and
C. Cannot be given to patients with a history of atropine. What is the effect of atropine in the
cerebrovascular accident preparation?
D. Head trauma and intracranial bleeding are
also contraindications A. Increases GI motility
E. All of these B. Decreases GI motility
C. Increases urination
114. Which of the following effects is associated to D. Increases salivation
physostigmine? E. Increases acid secretion

A. Miosis 121. A patient who is going on a cruise comes to the

B. Bradycardia pharmacy to pick up her prescription for scopolamine
C. Hypotension patches. She informed you that she knows the patch is
D. Contraction of visceral smooth muscles applied behind the ear, but wonders why only three
E. All of these patches were dispensed when she would be on the
cruise for 7days. What should you tell her?
115. The following cholinergic agonists are matched
correctly with the effects, EXCEPT A. There was an error in filling her prescription.
B. The doctor only prescribed three patches and
A. Bethanecol – treat urinary retention that is what she’s getting
B. Neostigmine - treat myasthenia gravis C. The patched is designed for the drug to be
C. Pilocarpine – reduces intraocular pressure delivered over a period of three days and the
D. Carbachol – produce miosis during ocular patch should be replaced every three days.
surgery D. The wrong quantity was dispensed
E. Acetylcholine -produce mydriasis in eye E. You will call the doctor to check for the
surgery correctness of the prescription
116. Which of the following effects is associated with 122. Which of the following adverse effects is observed
atropine? with adrenergic agonists?
A. Atropine A. Arrythmia
B. Antispasmodic B. Insomnia
C. Xerostomia C. Nausea
D. Cycloplegia D. Hyperactivity
E. All of these E. All of these
117. Scopolamine as an anti- motion sickness drug is 123. An adrenergic agonist used in the management of
available in what dosage form? anaphylactic shock
A. Oral tablet A. Phenylephrine
B. Chewable tablet B. Oxymetazoline
C. Transdermal patch C. Epinephrine
D. Effervescent tablet D. Pseudoephedrine
E. Suppository E. Clonidine
118. Antimuscarinic agents approved as bronchodilators 124. An adrenergic agonist commonly used in over the
A. Ipratropium counter nasal sprays for nasal congestion
B. Tiotropium A. Oxymetazoline
C. Cyclopentolate B. Clonidine
D. A and B C. Albuterol
E. B and C D. Isoproterenol
119. Which of the following antimuscarinic agents is E. Dobutamine
correctly matched with its therapeutic use? 125. Counselling points regarding the use of OTC nasal
A. Oxybutinin- treatment of overactive bladder decongestant sprays
B. Benztropine -treatment of alzheimer’s I. Topical nasal decongestants should not be
C. Nicotine – smoking cessation shared with others
 II. Use should be limited for 3 to 5 days only E. I, II and III
III.This could be used as long as the patient is
still congested 131. Isotretinoin, a vitamin A derivative, is used in the
A. I only treatment of severe acne. How would you counsel a
B. III only patient on this medication?
C. I and II only I. This is a potent teratogen and should be
D. II and III avoided in pregnancy
E. I, II and III II. If the patient plans to get pregnant she should
126. An important counselling point when dispensing talk with her doctor and plan to stop the use of
first generation antihistamines the medication
III.Isotretinoin is perfectly safe for even if she
I. This may cause drowsiness becomes pregnant
II. Do not drink, drive or operate machinery while A. I only
on this medication B. III only
III.Avoid activities that would require you full C. I and II only
attention while on this medication D. II and III
A. I only E. I, II and III
B. III only
C. I and II only 132. A patient on theophylline is also taking cimetidine
D. II and III prescribed by another doctor. What would be the result
E. I, II and III of the interaction between these two medications.

127. The following are adverse effects commonly A. Increased clearance of theophylline
observed in patients treated with propranolol, EXCEPT B. Decreased clearance of theophylline
C. Decreased clearance of cimetidine
A. Bronchodilation D. Increased clearance of cimetidine
B. Sexual impairment E. No change in clearance profiles of both drugs
C. Arrythmia (with abrupt withdrawal)
D. Fatigue 133. Sudden cessation of beta blockers could result in
E. Bronchoconstriction A. Cardiac arrythmia
128. These substances may liquefy or form eutectic B. Hypotension
mixtures when in close, prolonged contact with one C. Angina
another D. Bronchodilation
E. None of these
A. Aspirin
B. Phenol 134. Common side effect of colchicine
C. Camphor A. Nausea
D. Menthol B. Alopecia
E. All of these C. Aplastic anemia
129. All of the following are drugs with narrow D. Diarrhea
therapeutic indices, EXCEPT E. All of these

A. Amoxicillin 135. A patient who was recently started on allopurinol

B. Levothyroxine therapy comes to the pharmacy complaining that his
C. Warfarin medication is not working, for he has had more gouty
D. Heparin attacks than before. What should you tell this patient?
E. Quinidine I. Acute gouty attacks do occur more frequently
130. Adverse effects of cimetidine associated with its during the first few months of therapy
action as a nonsteroidal antiandrogen II. Ensure patient is prescribed colchicine,
NSAIDS or corticosteroids to minimize
I. Gynecomastia symptoms
II. Galactorrhea III.Agree with the patient that there was indeed
III.Hirsutism an error in filling the prescription
A. I only A. I only
B. III only B. III only
C. I and II only C. I and II only
D. II and III D. II and III
 E. I, II and III I. These could be given together safely
II. A wash out period of at least 2 weeks is
136. A patient who was given diphenhydramine capsules necessary before the other type is administered
for the management of an allergic reaction continues to III.Fluoxetine should be discontinued at least 6
drink alcohol. What could be the result of taking both weeks before a MAOI is initiated
together? A. I only
A. Increased alertness B. III only
B. Increased craving for alcohol C. I and II only
C. Increased sedation D. II and III
D. Decreased effect of diphenhydramine E. I, II and III
E. There would be no effect to the patient 142. The drug interaction between levodopa and
137. The concurrent administration of antihistamines phenelzine could result to which of the following
with MAO inhibitors could result to A. Serotonin syndrome
A. Increased anticholinergic effect B. Hypertensive crisis
B. Decreased anticholinergic effect C. Hyperthyroidism
C. Hypertensive crisis D. Hyperthermia
D. Arrythmia E. None of these
E. None of these 143. A patient takes levodopa together with his Vitamin
138. A patient with Alzheimer’s disease is on donepezil. B complex vitamins. The B complex preparation contains
Concurrent administration with diphenhydramine could vitamins B1, B6 and B12. What should you tell the
result to which of the following patient about this?

A. Increased effect of diphenhydramine A. Levodopa should not be co-administered with

B. Decreased effect of diphenhydramine vitamin B6
C. Increased effect of donepezil B. The B complex vitamins enhance the effects
D. Decreased effect of donepezil of levodopa
E. None of these C. There is a risk of developing hypervitaminosis
D. Take vitamin C and minerals with his B
139. A patient on phenelzine had smoked fish and red complex
wine for dinner, what could happen to this patient? E. There is no interaction between the two drugs
I. This patient would not be able to metabolize 144. Celecoxib, a COX-2 inhibitor, has a black box
tyramine from the diet. warning because it is linked with which of the following
II. This patient would experience a hypertensive
crisis A. Increased risk of peptic ulcer
III.This patient should be on a restricted diet free B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
of tyramine-containing foods. C. Contraindicated in patients with sulfa allergy
A. I only D. Is associated with alopecia
B. III only E. None of these
C. I and II only 145. Aspirin should not be used in patients being treated
D. II and III with methotrexate because
E. I, II and III
A. The combination increases the toxicity of
140. The co-administration of MAO inhibitors with SSRIs methotrexate
is contraindicated because B. The combination decreases the toxicity of
A. The combination will decrease the effect of methotrexate
MAO inhibitors C. The combination increases the effect of
B. The combination will decrease the effect of aspirin
SSRIs D. The combination decreases the effect of
C. The patient will be more depressed aspirin
D. The combination could cause serotonin E. None of these
syndrome 146. Common adverse effect associated with narcotic
E. None of these pain relievers
141. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE A. Constipation
regarding the use of MAO inhibitors and SSRIs? B. Nausea
 C. Vomiting E. Spironolactone
D. Sedation
E. All of these 154. Thiazide diuretic use increases the risk for

147. The most serious adverse effect accompanying A. Hyperkalemia

narcotic overdose B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
A. Respiratory depression D. Hypocalcemia
B. Renal toxicity E. None of these
C. Hemorrhage
D. Hepatotoxicity 155. All are broad spectrum antibiotics, EXCEPT
E. Neuralgia A. Ceftriaxone
148. Narcotic analgesics, when used together with B. Ciprofloxacin
benzodiazepines could result to C. Imipenem
D. Isoniazid
A. Sedation E. Tetracycline
B. Cardiovascular event
C. Bleeding 156. A patient comes to you asking for a
D. GI upset recommendation for an over the counter cough
E. None of these preparation. You were informed that it is a dry form of
cough that is bothersome especially in the evening. You
149. Adverse effects commonly seen in patients on went ahead and reviewed the patient’s medication profile
opioid therapy. and found out that one of her medications is causing the
dry cough. Which medication is this?
A. Constipation
B. Nausea A. Metformin
C. Hypotension B. Captopril
D. Sedation C. Multivitamins
E. All of these D. Paracetamol
E. Furosemide
150. Which of the following is a clinical use of opioids?
157. ACE inhibitors should be used with caution in which
A. Analgesia of the following patients
B. Relief cough
C. Anesthesia A. Patients who are on potassium sparing
D. Treatment of diarrhea diuretics
E. All of these B. Patients with renal disease
C. Pregnant hypertensive women
151. Major adverse effect associated with the use of D. A and B
triptans E. B and C
A. Cardiovascular effects 158. A commonly encountered side effect of calcium
B. Renal toxicity channel blockers
C. CNS depression
D. Hepatotoxicity A. Peripheral edema
E. None of these B. Dry mouth
C. Pruritus
152. An incompatibility where there is migration of the D. Hypertension
packaging material into the drug product E. All of these
A. Permeation 159. Which of the following agents is used in the
B. Leaching management of gestational hypertension
C. Lamination
D. Sorption A. Propranolol
E. None of these B. Benazepril
C. Labetalol
153. An example of loop diuretic D. Losartan
A. Triematerene E. Terazosin
B. Hydrochlorothiazide 160. This group of diuretics may cause ototoxicity
C. Furosemide
D. Chlorthalidone I. Loop diuretics
 II. Thiazide diuretics E. B and C
III.Potassium sparing diuretics
A. I only 167. Rifampin when co-administered with
B. III only carbamazepine would result to
C. I and II only A. Increased rifampin effects
D. II and III B. Decreased rifampin effects
E. I, II and III C. Increased carbamazepine effects
161. This drug is contraindicated in a patient with a D. Decreased carbamazepine effects
history of severe allergic reaction to a sulfa drug E. None of these

A. Spironolactone 168. Cimetidine when co-administered with metoprolol

B. Hydrochlorothiazide would result to
C. Amiloride A. Hypotension
D. Mannitol B. Sedation
E. Furosemide C. Anorexia
162. A condition that predisposes a patient to digoxin D. Hypertension
toxicity E. None of these

A. Hypokalemia 169. Protease inhibitors taken together with St. John’s

B. Hyperkalemia wort could result in
C. Anorexia A. Lower levels of protease inhibitors
D. Hypotension B. Induced metabolism of protease inhibitors
E. All of these C. Inhibit metabolism of protease inhibitors
163. The type of interaction when two drugs taken D. A and B
concurrently producing additive effects E. B and C

A. Pharmacokinetic 170. Evening primrose oil when taken by patients on

B. Pharmacogenetic antiplatelet therapy would lead to
C. Pharmacodynamic A. Increased antiplatelet effect
D. Pharmaceutical B. Bleeding
E. All of these C. Failure of antiplatelet therapy
164. Drugs that are highly protein bound to a carrier D. A and B
protein can be displaced if the second drug introduced E. B and C
has a higher binding affinity to the carrier protein. This is 171. When dispensing amoxicillin 500 mg capsules, it is
what type of drug interaction? important to tell the patient to take this on an empty
A. Pharmacokinetic stomach because
B. Pharmacogenetic A. Food delays the absorption of amoxicillin
C. Pharmacodynamics B. Food would minimize stomach upset
D. Pharmaceutical C. Food would alter the taste of amoxicillin
E. None of these D. Food enhances the absorption of amoxicillin
165. Promethazine taken together with OTC E. All of these
antihistamines could result to 172. Which of the following statements is TRUE
A. Excessive dryness of the mouth regarding chemical-drug interaction
B. Blurred vision I. Smoking induces the metabolism of
C. Urinary retention theophylline
D. All of these II. Chronic alcoholism increases the rate of
E. None of these metabolism of warfarin
166. Atypical antipsychotics taken together with III.Acute alcohol intoxication can inhibit hepatic
amiodarone may result to enzymes in nonalcoholics
A. I only
A. Prolongation of QT interval B. III only
B. Increased anticholinergic effect C. I and II only
C. Decreased antipsychotic effect D. II and III
D. A and B E. I, II and III
173. Disulfiram and alcohol (ethanol) when taken I. Decrease
together results in II. Increase
III. No effect
I. Severe alcohol intolerance A. I only
II. Disulfiram inhibits aldehyde B. III only
dehydrogenase C. I and II only
III. The metabolism of ethanol is limited D. II and III
in the presence of disulfiram E. I, II and III
A. I only
B. III only 180. Thiazide diuretics should be used with caution in
C. I and II only which of the following patient groups
D. II and III
E. I, II and III A. Those with sulfa allergy
B. Those with gout
174. Which of the following when given in large doses C. Those with diabetes
produce symptoms of cinchonism D. All of these
E. None of these
A. Colchicine
B. Procainamide 181. A patient on warfarin therapy is started on
C. Sotalol erythromycin, the patient’s INR would be
D. Quinidine
E. Amiodarone I. Increased
II. Decreased
175. The following are adverse effects of amiodarone, III. No effect
EXCEPT A. I only
B. III only
A. Pulmonary fibrosis C. I and II only
B. Hepatotoxicity D. II and III
C. Blue-gray skin discoloration E. I, II and III
D. Neuropathy
E. Cinchonism 182. Bradycardia, hypotension, increased airway
resistance, and congestive heart failure are adverse
176. Concomitant administration of quinidine and events associated with which class of drugs
nitroglycerin could result to
A. Nitrites and nitrates
A. Hypertension B. Cardiac glycosides
B. Hemorrhage C. Angiotensin converting enzyme
C. Myalgia inhibitors
D. Severe orthostatic hypotension D. Calcium channel blockers
E. Arthralgia E. Beta adrenergic antagonists
177. Which of the following drugs antagonize quinidine 183. Possible hyperkalemia, acute renal failure,
activity and may reduce the therapeutic activity of angioedema, persistent dry cough and birth defects
quinidine when taken during early pregnancy are adverse events
A. Phenytoin associated with which drug class
B. Antacid A. Nitrites and nitrates
C. Sodium bicarbonate B. Cardiac glycosides
D. All of these C. Angiotensin converting enzyme
E. None of these inhibitors
178. Amiodarone may increase the pharmacologic D. Calcium channel blockers
effects of which of the following E. Beta adrenergic agonists

A. Beta blockers 184. Anorexia, nausea and vomiting, halos,

B. Calcium channel blockers photophobia, visual disturbances (yellow-green vision),
C. Warfarin confusion, AV block, ventricular tachycardia are adverse
D. All of these events associated with which drug class
E. None of these A. Nitrites and nitrates
179. NSAIDS ______ the effect of loop and thiazide B. Cardiac glycosides
diuretics C. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
 D. Calcium channel blockers E. I, II and III
E. Beta adrenergic blockers
191. The process of calling the prescriber to discuss
185. Patients on furosemide and digoxin should be concerns identified during a drug utilization review
monitored for which of the following
A. Pharmaceutical intervention
A. Liver enzymes B. Therapeutic intervention
B. Creatinine clearance C. Comprehensive medication review
C. Pulmonary function D. Therapeutic substitution
D. INR E. Medication therapy
E. Electrolyte levels
192. The information that should be provided when
186. Abrupt cessation of which of the following drugs conducting a therapeutic intervention
could lead to rebound hypertension
A. A brief description of the problem
A. Clonidine B. A reference source that documents the
B. Gaunfacine problem
C. Guanabenz C. A description of the clinical significance of the
D. Methyldopa problem
E. All of these D. A suggestion of a solution to the problem
E. All of these
187. Long term adverse effects of proton pump inhibitors
193. An example of a drug therapy problem
A. Hypomagnesemia
B. Bone fractures A. A prescribed drug with no indication
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency B. There is a more effective drug for the
D. All of these condition indicated
E. None of these C. Incorrect dosing frequency resulting to
insufficient dose to the patient
188. The most common side effect of sulfonylureas D. The patient is only taking half tablet instead of
A. Hyperglycemia whole tablet because of cost
B. Hypoglycemia E. All of these
C. Hyperthermia 194. A patient brought in new prescription for his
D. Hypertension medications for peptic ulcer. While counselling this
E. Hypotension patient, you mentioned that if he smokes he needs to try
189. Trimethoprim is known to increase repaglinide (a to quit smoking. Why?
short-acting insulin secretagogue) levels by 60%. Which I. Cigarette smoking impairs ulcer healing
of the following statements is true? II. Cigarette smoking increases ulcer recurrence
I. The dosage of repaglinide needs to be III.Cigarette smoking increases ulcer risk
adjusted while the patient is on trimethoprim A. I only
II. Increased repaglinide levels may result to B. III only
prolonged hypoglycemic reactions C. I and II only
III.Increased repaglinide levels may result to D. II and III
inefficient hypoglycemic control E. I, II and III
A. I only 195. A patient’s drug regimen for the management of his
B. III only peptic ulcer includes the following:
C. I and II only
D. II and III Proton pump inhibitor bid
E. I, II and III Clarithromycin 500mg bid
Amoxicillin 1 g BID
190. A contraindication for the use of tetracyclines All medications to be taken for 14 days
I. Neonate The patient wanted to know why there is an antibiotic
II. Breast feeding women included in the medications that were prescribed to him.
III.Women on their 2nd trimester of pregnancy The antibiotics would
A. I only
B. III only A. Decreased acid secretion
C. I and II only B. Eradicate H. pylori which is the bacteria
D. II and III present in PUD
 C. Eradicate all intestinal flora that may cause A. Dextromethorphan
PUD B. Codeine
D. Increase the effect of other drugs C. Guaifenesin
E. None of these D. A and B
E. B and C
196. Which of the following statements is TRUE
regarding drug distribution? 202. The combination of bisacodyl and antacids could
result to
I. Drugs distribute rapidly to tissues with
limited blood flow A. Decreased effect of bisacodyl
II. Drugs distribute rapidly to tissues with B. Increased effect of bisacodyl
high blood flow C. Decreased effect of antacid
III.The liver is an example of a highly D. Increased effect of antacid
perfused organ where drugs could distribute E. There is no interaction
rapidly
A. I only 203. What would you advice a patient on bisacodyl and
B. III only antacids?
C. I and II only A. Take both drugs with a full glass of water
D. II and III B. Take both drugs with foods
E. I, II and III C. Take bisacodyl at least an hour before the
197. Aside from tissue perfusion (blood flow in tissues), antacid
what are other factors affecting drug distribution D. There is no need to space the two drugs
E. Do not take antacids
I. Protein binding
II. Drug permeability 204. As part of colon prep for a colonoscopy procedure,
III.Presence or absence of disease the patient purchases a bottle of magnesium citrate.
A. I only What should you tell the patient regarding the use of
B. III only magnesium?
C. I and II only I. The whole bottle should be consumed
D. II and III II. Refrigeration of the product helps improve
E. I, II and III palatability
198. Which of the following is match correctly? III.Keep the product at room temperature
only
A. Cyanocobalamin – B12 A. I only
B. Pyridoxine – B1 B. III only
C. Thiamine – B5 C. I and II only
D. Nicotinic acid – B3 D. II and III
E. Biotin – B6 E. I, II and III

199. The following are adverse effects of nicotine 205. Counselling points for patients on oral
lozenges, EXCEPT bisphosphonates such as alendronate (Fosamax)

A. Skin irritation on application site I. Take this on an empty stomach first thing
B. Nausea in the morning
C. Insomnia II. Take with a full glass of water
D. Dyspepsia III.Remain in an upright position for at least
E. Coughing 30 minutes after taking the drug
A. I only
200. Which of the following is used as an over the B. III only
counter sleep aid? C. I and II only
A. Melatonin D. II and III
B. Valerian root E. I, II and III
C. Doxylamine 206. Food – alendronate interaction results in
D. Diphenhydramine
E. All of these A. Decreased absorption of alendronate
B. Increased absorption of alendronate
201. An over the counter cough preparation that is C. Decreased elimination of alendronate
recommended for non-productive cough D. Increased metabolism of alendronate
 E. None of these C. Direct GI feeding
D. Parenteral admixtures
207. A prostaglandin analog used in the treatment of E. None of these
open angle glaucoma that increases eyelash
prominence, length and darkness. 213. Visible color change or darkening of color is a type
of
A. Latanoprost
B. Bimatoprost I. Physical incompatibility
C. Travoprost II. Chemical incompatibility
D. Tafluprost III. Therapeutic incompatibility
E. Epoprostenol A. I only
B. III only
208. Sildenafil is contraindicated in patients maintained C. I and II only
on nitrates because of D. II and III
A. Severe hypotension E. I, II and III
B. Sexual dysfunction 214. The manifestation of the incompatibility when
C. Priapism phosphate and calcium are combined in solution
D. Severe hypertension
E. Therapeutic failure of nitroglycerin A. Evolution of gas
B. Dark discoloration of solution
209. Which of the following drugs is matched correctly C. Precipitate formation
with its therapeutic use? D. Visible color change
A. Oxybutynin – overactive bladder E. Formation of separate layers
B. Tamsulosin – BPH 215. When penicillin G is given after tetracycline when
C. Tadalafil – erectile dysfunction treating a patient with infection, a reduction in the
D. Androgel – testosterone replacement bactericidal activity of the former is observed
therapy
E. All of these I. Physical incompatibility
II. Chemical incompatibility
210. A precaution when using D5W in parenteral III. Therapeutic incompatibility
preparations A. I only
I. Instability when used with acid-sensitive B. III only
drugs C. I and II only
II. Must be used cautiously in diabetic D. II and III
patients E. I, II and III
III.Instability when used with acidic drugs 216. The following drug classes may cause tinnitus,
A. I only EXCEPT
B. III only
C. I and II only A. Salicylates
D. II and III B. Aminoglycosides
E. I, II and III C. Loop diuretics
D. Penicillins
211. The most serious problem that may occur during E. Chemotherapeutic agents
infusion of antineoplastics
217. A patient was given cefdinir but continued to take
I. too long infusion time iron supplements. What could be the result of this drug
II. Inflammation of a vein interaction?
III.Extravasations
A. I only A. Failure of antibiotic therapy
B. III only B. Patients develop iron- deficiency
C. I and II only anemia
D. II and III C. Cefdinir toxicity
E. I, II and III D. Decreased effect of iron
E. None of these
212. These are large volume admixtures that are used
when enteral nutrition cannot be tolerated. 218. The interaction between theophylline and
erythromycin could result in
A. NGT feeding
B. Total parenteral nutrition
 A. Inhibition of metabolism of D. Failure of antibiotic therapy
theophylline E. None of these
B. Toxic accumulation of
theophylline 225. Norfloxacin when taken together with antacids
C. Induction of metabolism of results in
theophylline A. Increased antibiotic effect
D. A and B B. Decreased antibiotic effect
E. B and C C. There is no interaction between
219. Patients treated for 1 week or longer with the two
erythromycin estolate may develop D. Increased CNS effect
E. None of these
A. Cholestatic hepatitis
B. Hypertension 226. The antibiotic associated with gray-baby syndrome
C. Ototoxicity in neonates
D. Renal failure A. Ciprofloxacin
E. None of these B. Sulfamethoxazole
220. Clarithromycin co-administered with cisapride could C. Clindamycin
result in D. Chloramphenicol
E. Trimethoprim
A. Serious cardiac arrythmias
B. Difficulty breathing 227. Fluconazole is prescribed to a patient taking
C. Enzyme depletion sulfonylureas, this could lead to
D. Bradycardia A. Decreased antibiotic effect
E. None of these B. Increased antibiotic effect
221. Clarithromycin and oral anticoagulants when given C. Decreased hypoglycemic effect
together D. Increased hypoglycemic effect
E. None of these
A. Potentiate anticoagulant effect
B. Prothrombin time needs to be 228. Co-administration of ketoconazole with terfenadine
monitored will cause
C. Diminish anticoagulant effect I. Increased terfenadine levels
D. A and B II. Life-threatening dysrrythmias and death
E. B and C III.Increased ketoconazole levesl
222. Tetracycline when given together with phenytoin A. I only
would result to B. III only
C. I and II only
A. Decreased antibiotic effect D. II and III
B. Increased antibiotic effect E. I, II and III
C. Increased phenytoin effect
D. Decreases phenytoin effect 229. Chloroquine and hydrochloroquine are known to
E. None of these concentrate in the liver. These should be used with
caution in this patient group
223. An antibiotic drug class that may cause QT
prolongation A. Those with hepatic disease
B. Those with pulmonary disease
A. Fluoroquinolones C. Those with cardiac disease
B. Tetracyclines D. Those with renal disease
C. Penicillins E. Those with diabetes
D. Macrolides
E. None of these 230. Quinine is contraindicated in patients with

224. Concurrent use of fluoroquinolones with I. G6PD deficiency

antiarrythmics could result in II. Tinnitus
III. Optic neuritis
A. QT prolongation A. I only
B. Increased CNS stimulation B. III only
C. Decreased fluoroquinolone C. I and II only
absorption D. II and III
 E. I, II and III D. Do not drive
E. No refills
231. Quinine should be used with caution in patients with
238. A contraindication for sulfa drugs because of the
A. Hepatic disease danger of kernicterus
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Diabetes A. Adult patients with renal disease
D. Bone disease B. Adult patients with hepatic
E. Respiratory tract infection disease
C. Neonates and infants less than 2
232. A patient prescribed with metronidazole still months of age
continues to drink alcohol, what could this patient D. Patients with diabetes
experience? E. Children above 6 years of age
A. Alcohol intolerance 239. Which of the following drugs is correctly matched
B. Anorexia with its adverse effect?
C. Diarrhea
D. Euphoria A. Nitrofurantoin- pulmonary fibrosis
E. Sedation B. Tetracycline- phototoxicity
C. Fluoroquinolone- tendonitis
233. An adverse effect associated with the use of D. Sulfa drugs – SJS
daptomycin E. All of these
A. QT prolongation 240. The most serious side effect of isoniazid
B. Hypertension
C. Hot flashes A. Hepatitis
D. Rhabdomyolysis B. Hypoglycemia
E. Wheezing C. Hypotension
D. Optic neuritis
234. A concern in elderly patients on aminoglycoside E. None of these
antibiotics
241. Which of the following anti – TB drugs causes
A. Nephrotoxicity peripheral neuropathy?
B. Ototoxicity
C. Diabetes A. Rifampicin
D. A and B B. Isoniazid
E. B and C C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol
235. An adverse effect of aminoglycoside antibiotics E. Streptomycin
associated with a rapid increase in concentrations or
concurrent administration with neuromuscular blockers 242. A patient came back to the pharmacy to refill his
prescription for anti – tubercular drugs. He informs you
A. Bone resorption that he is doing well, except that he seems to be having
B. Neuromuscular paralysis difficulty reading books and has actually set an
C. Aplastic anemia appointment with an ophthalmologist and plans to get
D. CNS depression glasses. Which of his medications may be causing his
E. None of these decline in vision?
236. The safest antibiotic to give a pregnant patient with A. Isoniazid
MRSA B. Pyrazinamide
A. Tetracycline C. Rifabutin
B. Clindamycin D. Ethambutol
C. Methicillin E. Rifampicin
D. Doxycycline 243. What should be determined prior to intiation of anti-
E. Tigecycline TB therapy because the drugs may cause hepatitis
237. An auxillary label when dispensing nystatin to treat A. Renal function test
oral candidiasis B. Baseline hepatic enzyme measurement
A. Shake well C. ECG
B. Dispense 30ml D. CBC
C. Drink with a full glass of water E. Lung function test
244. IV administration of amphotericin B may cause 251. These are mild protein precipitants that result in
thrombophlebitis, this could be prevented by adding contraction of tissue, which in turn decreases the local
____ to the infusion edema and inflammation

A. Heparin A. Cytostatic agents

B. Aspirin B. Keratolytic agents
C. Diphenhydramine C. Tocolytic agents
D. Warfarin D. Astringents
E. Paracetamol E. Antimetabolites

245. A contraindication for azole antifungals 252. An example of an astringent

A. Pregnancy A. Coal tar

B. Hypertension B. Salicylic acid
C. Asthma C. Hydrocortisone OTC
D. Pneumonia D. Selenium sulphide
E. Diabetes E. Burow’s solution

246. Itraconazole has a negative inotropic effect and 253. The major plasma protein involved in drug protein
should be avoided by which patients binding

A. Diabetic patients A. Alpha 1 – glycoprotein

B. Asthmatic patients B. Transcortin
C. Those with heart failure C. Lipoprotein
D. Those with hypertension D. Albumin
E. None of these E. None of these

247. Common adverse effects of zidovudine (AZT) 254. The process by which drugs are eliminated through
the kidneys into the urine
A. Anemia
B. Neutropenia I. Glomerular filtration
C. Headaches II. Tubular reabsorption
D. All of these III.Active tubular secretion
E. None of these A. I only
B. III only
248. A major adverse effect of didanosine (ddl) C. I and II only
A. Pancreatitis D. II and III
B. Renal failure E. I, II and III
C. Headache 255. The effect of the administration of sodium
D. Hepatitis bicarbonate to weakly acidic drugs such as salicylates
E. Diarrhea
A. No effect
249. These agents work by dissolving or breaking down B. Decreased excretion
the outermost layer of skin, causing peeling of the C. Increased excretion
stratum corneum D. All of these
A. Cytostatic agents E. None of these
B. Keratolytic agents 256. Most biologic products are sensitive to which of the
C. Tocolytic agents following
D. Astringents
E. Antimetabolites A. Extreme heat
B. Light
250. An example of a keratolytic agent C. Freezing
A. Coal tar D. Shaking
B. Salicylic acid E. All of these
C. Hydrocortisone OTC 257. Adalimumab (Humira), a monoclonal antibody used
D. Selenium sulphide for treating autoimmune disorders, has a black box
E. Burow’s solution warning of

A. Increased risk of lactic acidosis

 B. Increased infections C. Metabolism
C. Increased cardiovascular events D. Excretion
D. All of these E. Elimination
E. None of these
265. When drawing cisplatin from vials, a stainless- steel
258. The type of incompatibility between oxidizing needle should be used instead of aluminum because
agents and reducing agents aluminum displaces the platinum in cisplatin. What type
of incompatibility is described?
A. Physical incompatibility
B. Chemical incompatibility A. Chemical incompatibility
C. Therapeutic incompatibility B. Therapeutic incompatibility
D. A and B C. Physical incompatibility
E. B and C D. All of these
E. Nome of these
259. In TPN preparations, a potential problem that may
occur is between 266. An auxillary label that ensures proper preparation,
storage and disposal of medicines
A. Potassium chloride and sodium chloride
B. Potassium phosphate and calcium gluconate A. Keep refrigerated. Do not freeze.
C. Potassium phosphate and magnesium B. Shake well
chloride C. Protect from light
D. Zinc chloride and sodium chloride D. Keep out of reach of children
E. None of these E. All of these

260. Strategy to manage drug metabolism 267. An auxillary label that is also a warning label about
potential adverse drug reactions, EXCEPT
A. Use of different dosage forms
B. Modification of key functional groups A. Avoid sun exposure
C. Concurrent use of enzyme inhibitors B. May cause drowsiness. Do not drink, drive or
D. All of these operate machinery
E. None of these C. External use only
D. May cause discoloration of urine or feces
261. A patient who is a slow acetylator of isoniazid will E. All of these
experience ________
268. An auxillary label that ensures appropriate dosing
A. Hypertension considerations
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Hypotension A. Take with food
D. Hypertrophy B. Take with a full glass of water
E. Arthritis C. Finish all this medication
D. Take on an empty stomach
262. These are morphine-related toxicities E. All of these
A. Diarrhea 269. A patient comes to the pharmacy telling you that
B. Constipation her salbutamol inhaler is not working properly. You recall
C. Respiratory depression that this is a new medication for the patient and this
D. A and B patient denied to be counselled regarding the use of this
E. B and C new medication. What is the best thing to do?
263. A therapeutic advantage of using prodrugs I. Ask the patient to demonstrate how the inhaler
A. Increases water solubility is used
B. Increased oral absorption II. Tell the patient that the device may be
C. Increased duration of action defective
D. Decreased GI irritation III.Remind the patient that she refused
E. All of these counselling regarding this medication
A. I only
264. The process by which a drug reversibly leaves the B. III only
bloodstream and enters the extracellular fluid and the C. I and II only
tissues is known as D. II and III
E. I, II and III
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
270. Patients on which of the following medications B. Mirtazapine (Remeron)
should be strongly reminded that they should always C. Paroxetine (Paxil)
have these with them for emergency use D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
E. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
A. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets
B. Salbutamol inhaler 277. When counselling patients with depression who are
C. Injectable epinephrine on antidepressant medications, they should be informed
D. All of these of which of the following
E. None of these
I. Adherence to the treatment plan is essential to
271. Information that is included during patient achieve a successful outcome
counselling II. The adverse effects of the drugs may occur
immediately, while the resolution of symptoms
A. Route of administration may take 2 to 4 weeks or longer
B. Missed dose instruction III.The resolution of symptoms is immediate
C. Directions for use while the adverse effects may take a while to
D. Frequency of taking the drug occur
E. All of these A. I only
272. These powders contain water of hydration that may B. III only
be released when the powders are triturated or when C. I and II only
stored in an environment of low relative humidity D. II and III
resulting to powders that are damp or pasty. E. I, II and III

A. Hygroscopic powders 278. The following medications should be used with

B. Deliquescent powders caution in patients on MAO inhibitors because of a risk
C. Efflorescent powders of hypertensive crisis
D. Amorphous powders A. Topical and systemic decongestants
E. None of these B. Epinephrine
273. An agent that softens the skin or soothes irritation C. Other MAOIs
in skin or mucus membranes D. All of these
E. None of these
A. Humectant
B. Occlusive 279. The interaction between fluoxetine and other
C. Protective MAOIs could result in
D. Emollient A. Hypertensive crisis
E. None of these B. Serotonin syndrome
274. Primary adverse effects associated with the use of C. Hypotension
lithium D. A and B
E. B and C
A. Tremors
B. Edema 280. Which of the following may be experienced when
C. Loss of sensitivity to antidiuretic hormone bupropion is given to a patient who are on medications
D. Decreased thyroid function that lower the seizure threshold?
E. All of these A. Increased incidence of seizures
275. You have a patient on tramadol, who was also B. Decreases incidence of seizures
prescribed lactulose to be taken prn. Lactulose is for the C. No effect on seizure activity
management of which side effect of tramadol? D. All of these
E. None of these
A. Sedation
B. Vomiting 281. A serious ADR that is common to all
C. Constipation antidepressants
D. Nausea A. Hypotension
E. Diarrhea B. Suicidality
276. An SNRI that is also used for the management of C. QT interval prolongation
bone and muscle pain D. Serotonin syndrome
E. All of these
A. Venlafaxine (Effexor)
282. When carbamazepine is administered together with E. Androgen therapy
valproate, valproate displaces carbamazepine from
protein binding sites. What type of drug interaction was 288. The following drugs are known to sorb to glass or
described? plastics

A. Pharmacokinetic interaction I. Insulin

B. Pharmacodynamics interaction II. Nitroglycerin
C. Pharmaceutical interaction III.Diazepam
D. All of these A. I only
E. None of these B. III only
C. I and II only
283. The combination of clozapine and carbamazepine D. II and III
is not recommended because of the possibility of bone E. I, II and III
marrow suppression with both agents. What is the type
of interaction described? 289. This chemotherapeutic drug in a co-solvent system
requires the use of non- PVC containers and
A. Pharmacokinetic interaction administration set because of the problem of leaching
B. Pharmacodynamics interaction
C. Pharmaceutical interaction A. Paclitaxel
D. All of these B. Cyclosporine
E. None of these C. Propofol
D. Vitamin A
284. Valproate is often prescribed together with E. All of these
lamotrigine, resulting in an augmentation of mood
stabilizing and antidepressant properties as well as a 290. The most concerning adverse effect of amiodarone
reduction in the clearance of lamotrigine. What type of used in the management of arrythmia
interaction is involved in the drug combination? A. Hypertension
A. Pharmacokinetic interaction B. Pulmonary fibrosis
B. Pharmacodynamics interaction C. Bronchospasm
C. Pharmaceutical interaction D. Hypoglycemia
D. A and B E. Renal toxicity
E. B and C 291. A patient counselling point for asthmatic patients
285. A patient on alprazolam continues to take alcohol maintained on inhaled corticosteroids
which results in additive CNS depressant effects. The I. Rinse mouth after using the inhaler
type of interaction is II. Using a spacer may help minimize fungal
A. Pharmacokinetic interaction infections
B. Pharmacodynamics interaction III.Inhaled corticosteroids are not for acute
C. Pharmaceutical interaction asthma attacks
D. A and B A. I only
E. B and C B. III only
C. I and II only
286. Concurrent use of a benzodiazepine with St. John’s D. II and III
wort results in a reduction of benzodiazepine levels. The E. I, II and III
combination could result in
292. Drug absorption in the gastrointestinal tract is
A. Toxicity of benzodiazepine affected by the following, EXCEPT
B. Increased CNS depression
C. Decreased benzodiazepine effect A. Changes in gastric pH
D. A and B B. Increased or decreaed GI motility
E. B and C C. Enzyme induction or inhibition
D. Complexation or chelation
287. You were called to counsel a patient regarding E. Alteration of GI flora
sildenafil. However, this is a female patient, what could
she be using this drug for? 293. The effect of laxatives and cathartics on drug
absorption
A. Erectile dysfunction
B. Pulmonary hypertension A. Increased absorption
C. Hormone replacement therapy B. Decreased absorption
D. Hypotension C. No effect on drug absorption
 D. All of these D. II and III
E. None of these E. I, II and III

294. The interaction between epinephrine and lidocaine, 298. A common side effect of nitrates
a local anesthetic is
A. Hypertension
I. A desired drug interaction B. Headaches
II. Allows local anesthesia with minimal bleeding C. Dry cough
and without systemic absorption while repairing D. Bronchospasm
a skin wound E. Vasoconstriction
III.Epinephrine and lidocaine should not be
administered together 299. A manifestation of aa chemical incompatibility,
A. I only EXCEPT
B. III only A. Evolution of gas
C. I and II only B. Gel formation
D. II and III C. Immiscibility
E. I, II and III D. Photolysis
295. A patient on salbutamol (Ventolin) and salmeterol E. None of these
and fluticasone (Advair) should be informed of the 300. Oral antidiabetic drugs that are structurally different
following with sulfonylureas however exert the blood glucose
I. Salbutamol inhaler should be used during lowering action by the same mechanism
acute asthma attacks A. Metformin
II. Salmeterol and fluticasone is the maintenance B. Insulin
inhaler to be used daily to minimize asthma C. Meglitinides
attacks D. Tolazamide
III.If there is a need to administer both at the E. None of these
same time, administer salbutamol first
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III
E. I, II and III

296. Carbamazepine is both a substrate and an inducer

of the CYP3A4 isoenzyme. Which of the following
statements is TRUE?

I. Carbamazepine induces its own metabolism

II. It may take 3 to 4 weeks to achieve stable
blood levels of carbamazepine
III.Carbamazepine induces the metabolism of
other drugs metabolized via the same pathway
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III
E. I, II and III

297. A patient who is taking methadone to manage pain

from a sports injury continues to drink grapefruit juice.
What could happen to this patient?

I. No effect on the patient

II. Failure of therapy of the pain medication
III.May experience toxicity due to methadone
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
ANSWER KEY A.pharmacokinetic interactions
B.pharmacologic interactions
DISPENSING, INCOMPATIBILITIES AND ADVERSE C.pharmacodynamic interactions
DRUG REACTIONS. – RED PACOP D.pharmacogenomic interactions
E.pharmacotoxicologic interactions
1.The alteration of the prescription in order to correct
or prevent therapeutic incompatability requires the 11.Tobacco and cigarettes are potent enzyme
permission of a: inducers. As consequence
A.subscriber D. Relative A.ones needs to increase the dose of drug
B.prescriber E.none B.this lead to drug tolerance
C.pharmacist C.this is an ADR
D.all of the above
2.The following are guidelines for reducing drug E.none
interaction, EXCEPT:
A.employ combination therapy D.know properties 12.camphor, menthol, acetophenetidine and phenol
B. identify the patient risk factor of drugs will form
C.educate the patient E.avoid multiple A.eutectic combination D.precipitation
drug therapy B.liquefication E. Cementation
C. explosive combination
3.Oxidizing agents are incompatible with reducing
agents. This is a: 13. the manifestation in number 12 is a result of a
A.physical incompatibility D.both a and b A.therapeutic incompatibility D.ADR
B. therapeutic incompatibility E.neither B.chemical incompatability E.drug interaction
C.chemical incompatibilty C.physical incompatability

4.The following are manifestations of chemical 14. the transport of a substance from one part of the
incompatibility,EXCEPT: body to another by means of blood
A.immiscibility D.evolution of gas A.absorption D.excretion
B.photolysis E.none B.distribution E.administration
C.get formation C.metabolism

5.The precipitation of an organic substance from a 15.the conversion of an optically active form to an
saturated solution when highly soluble salts are optically inactive form is called
added is know as: A.polymorphism D.enantiomorphism
A.polymorpism D.eutexia B.racemization E.precipitation
B.salting-out E.precipitation C.polymerzation
C.racemization
16.these are functions of pharmacist, EXCEPT
6.Acacia in the presence of Bismuth salts can form a A.drug information D.monitoring
cake at the bottom of the container. This B.diagnosis E.purchasing
manifestation is known as: C.counselling
A.gelatination D.cementation
B.hydrolysis E.sedimentation 17. Skills for patients centered pharmacy practice
C.emulsification include which of the following?
A. therapeutic planning and monitoring
7.A mathemartical model for a potentiating drug B.physical assessment skill
effect. C.communication skill
A.1+1=2 D.1+1=0 D. all of the above
B.1+1=3 E.1+1=1 E. none of the above
C.0+1=2
18.Compounding is concerned with
8.Which of the following is not an outcome included in A. supply of medicine
the definition of pharmaceutical care? B.preparation and distribution of drugs
A.Cure of disease of symptoms C.order for medicine
B.Elimination or reduction D.preparation of medicine
C.Arresting or slowing of disease procesess
D.Prevention of disease or symptoms 19. The supply of medicine to an individual patient in
E.Reducing health care costs accordance to the prescription given by the physician.
A.compounding D.prescribing
9.The following are the physiologic effects of food on B.formulation E.administration
drug action,EXCEPT: C.dispensing
A.reduces gastric emplying rate
B.milk reduces absorption of tetracycline 20. A prescription should be refused when
C.tea increase absorption of paracetamol A. the patient is terribly sick
D.vegetables potentiates anticoagulant B.there is no available delivery service
E.none C.essential information is missing
D. it is not signed by the pharmacist
10.Drug-drug interactions that occur when one drug E.no relative available
alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism and
excretion of the drug.
21. An example of subscription. 31. Problems that occur when two or more drugs are
A.M.ft.sol D.250mg capsule administered to a patient and the patient response is
B.1tab q 6 hours E.As directed different from the intended are known
C.shake well before using A. drug interactions D.only Aand C
B.physical incompatibilities E. All
22. a fiiled prescription for ethical drugs must be C.therapeutic incompatibilities
A. returned to the patient
B.filled for future references 32. Which of the following factors may contribute to
C. discarded after recording the occurence of a drug interaction?
D. forwarded to the FDA I. multiple pharmacologic effects
E. kept by the patient II. drug abuse
III.multiple prescriber
23. Which of the following correctly applies to this A. I and III D.I,II and III
group of drugs products? Paracetamol 325mg tablet, B. I only E. II and only
Cortal 323mg tablet and Alvedon 325mg tablet. C. I and II
A.all are generecally equivalent
B.all are brand names 33. What would be the appropriate auxillary label one
C.all are OTC drugs can cause use in dispensing dispersed system?
D.all are prescription drugs A. For external use only D.Both B and C
E.all are non prescription drugs B. Store in a cool dry place E. all
C. Shake the bottle before using
24. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
A. freshly boiled and cooled purified water must be 34. Which is not a routine procedure for dispensing
used when making suspensions. prescription
B. all suspensions will attract a 4 week discard date A. Check the legal requirements
C. all suspensions need a direction to shake the bottle B. Dispense the correct product
D.suspension containing a suspending agent do not C. Provide patient advice
need a direction to shake the bottle. D. Inaptness of the prescription
E. None E. all

25. Active listening consist of which of the following 35. In evaluating the appropriateness of the
tasks? prescription and medication order, the pharmacist
A. focusing on what the other person says should check the following EXCEPT
B. assesing the way the other person communicates A. the patient’s disease or condition
C. convenying an open, relaxed and unhurried B. the prescribed route of administration
attitude C. the biological action of the prescribed product
D. all of the above D. the auxilary and cautionary labels
E. None of the above E. none

26. Which of the following drugs is indicated as 36. In selection of the proper package or container,
uterine relaxantfor woman in labor the pharmacist chooses the container that
A. ephedrine D. metaproterenol A.ensure the product stability
B terbutaline E. None B.comply with the legal requirements
C. Isoethane C.promote patient compliance
D. all of the above
27. A STAT order means that the drug should be E. None of these
administered
A. As needed by the patient D. Before surgery 37.In a drug interaction, the drug whose action is
B.immediately E. After an hour affected by the combination with other drug, foods, or
C. before sleep chemicals is called
A. object drug D.action drug
28. Characterizes the first exposure of the fraction of B. precipitant drug E. None
the drug metabolized in the liver C. interactant drug
A a first pass effect D. Pharmacokinetics
B. drug receptor Interaction E NONE 38.In the drug interaction, the drug causing the
C. biotransformation interaction is called the
A. target drug D.action drug
29. Milk and other Dairy products__________the B.object drug E.subject drug
absorption of tetracycline and fluoroquinolones. C.precipitant drug
A. increase D.all of the given choices
B. decrease E.none 39. When two interacting drugs results to the
C.does not effect alteration of ADME, it is classified as
A. pharmacokinetic interaction
30. levodopa-carbidopa combination has the popular B. pharmacodynamic interaction
brandname. C. therapeutic interaction
A.Tagamet D.Naproxen D. physical incompatibility
B. Sinemet E. Voltaren E. therapeutic incompatibility
C. Dilantin
40. Which branch of pharmacology studies the way 49. If the prices of the prescriptions counts based on
drug works in the body the percent marked up. What would be the dispensing
A. Pharmacotherapeutics D. Pharmacodynamics price of a drug that costs $20.00? Assume that mark
B. Pharmacokinetics E. ADR up is 50%.
C. Drug interactions A. $10 D.$ 35
B $25 E. $ 20
41. While teaching a patient about drug therapy for C. $ 30
diabetes, you review the absorption, distribution,
metabolism and excretion of insulin and oral 50. Substance which absorb moisture from air but not
antidiabetic agents. Which principle of pharmacology in the dissolve are called
are you describing? A. hygroscopic powders D. Anhydrous powders
A. Pharmcokinetics D. Drug potency B. effervescent powders E. Amorphous powder
B. Pharmcodynamics E. Alternative therapy C. deliquescent powders
C. Pharmacotherapeutics
51. A smoker was prescribed with Diazepam. What
42. A patient asked why he’s taking antibiotics for an would likely happen if he continously smokes while on
ulcer. The pharmacist explains that antibiotics will the drug therapy?
A. destroy the bacteria causing the ulcer A. enhanced. effect of the drug
B. destroy the virus causing the ulcer B. decrease effectiveness of the drug
C. prevent infection from entering through open areas C. no effect
in the gastric mucosa D. delayed elemination of the drug
D. prevent infection occuring. E. none of the above
E. None of the above
52. It is the movement of drug molecules across
43. When caring for a patient taking a different body compartments.
hydrochlorothiazide, you should monitor the patient A. Distribution D. Absorption
for B. Liberation E. None of the above
A. hypertension D. Hypoglycemia C. Excretion
B. hypernatremia E. None of the above
C. hypokalemia 53. Which of the following factors affect drug
distribution in the body?
44. What’s the difference between a sedative and a A. Drug structure D. All of the above
hypnotic? B.Capillary permeability E. None of the above
A. sedatives produces physical dependence, C. Blood flow
hypnotics don’t
B. sedatives reduces anxiety or excitement, hypnotic 54. The degradation of Aspirin to salycylic acid and
induce sleep. acetic acid in the presence of water is generally
C. sedatives require larger doses than hypnotics to known as:
produce desired doses A. oxidation D. Empimerization
D. sedatives increase anxiety, hypnotics reduce B. hydrolysis E. Lyophilization
anxiety. C. photolysis
E. none
55. Which of the following committees should review
45. Barriers to verbal communication are minimized in the reported adverse drug reaction (ADR)?
which of the following settings? A. FDA D. DDB
A. The interview takes place through a window with B. P and T committee E. PRC
security bars. C. FTC
B. The interview takes place in front of three of the
patients roomates. 56. The concept of drug interaction includes
C. The interview is conducted over the telephone I. Drug food interactions
D. The patient is interviewed in a private consultation II. Drug laboratory interactions
office III Drug disease interaction
E. The patient is interviewed throug a drive in window. A. I only D. I and III
B.II only E. I, II, and III
46. Which of the following drugs is found to be C. III only
mucolytic or reduces viscosity of mocous?
A. Dextromethorphan D. Benzonate 57. It is the transfer of a drug from its site of
B. Acetylcysteine E. Benzocaine administration to the bloodstream.
C. Terbutaline A. Distribution D. Absorption
B. Liberation E. Elimination
47.Which of the following is a cough expectorant? C. Excretion
A. Guiafenesin D. Diphenhydramine
B. Dextromethorphan E. None of these 58. Which of the following drug is classified as Loop
C. Benzonatate diuretics.
A. Furosemide D. Mannitol
48. Used to dispense semi solid dosage form B. Spironolactone E. Acetaminophen
A. sifter type container D.wide mouth bottles C. Acetazolamide
B. slide boxes E. Round vials
C. collapsible tubes/ointment jar
59. Factors that contribute to the occurence of drug 69. Which of the following anesthetics is useful for
interactions. producing a short term anesthesia?
A. Self medication D. All of the above A. Lidocaine D. Nitrous oxide
B. Use of OTC drugs E. None of the above B. Thiopental sodium E. None of the above
C. multiple prescribers C. Chloroform

60. What mechanism does of Bisacodyl interacts with 70. Drugs loss due to drug and excipients with high
milk? vapor pressure.
A. alteration of pH D.alteration of motility rate A. Polymorphism D. Gelatinization
B. Complexation E. Conjugation B. Volatilization E. None of the above
C. adsorption C. Racemization

61. A patient came to a drugstore and asked for 71. Cyanocobalmine is a/an
Bisacodyl for his conatipation. Upon asking his A. Steroid D. Enzyme
current medication, the pharmacist knew that the B. hallucinogen E. Narcotic
patient is in antacid therapy. Which of the following C. Vitamin
should the pharmacist tell to patient?
A. He can take both drugs rigth after meal 72. The first dose syncope is normally reported with
B. Take the other drug at least one hour or two hours A. Prazosin D. Captopril
after intake of the first drug B. Hydralazine E. None of the above
C. Follow the intake of laxative with milk for enhanced C. Minoxidil
effect.
D. Any of these. 73. Which of the following is NOT a water soluble
E. None of the above vitamin?
A. Thiamine D. Pyridoxine
62. This the body or the pricipal part of prescription B. Vitamin D E. None of the above
order contains the names and quatities of the C. Niacin
prescribed ingredient.
A. Subcription D. Signa 74. The factor in compounding prescription is
B. Inscription E. Transcription A. Equipment D. Chemical and supplies
C. Superscription B. Stability E. Environment’
C. Training and experience
63. Type of packaging incopatibility caused by the
migration of substance from the packaging material 75. The degradation of aspirin involves
into the drug product A. Hydrolysis D. Photolysis
A. sorption D. Lamination B. Racemization E. None of the above
B. permeation E. Transfer C Oxidation
C. leaching
76. Occurs when one drug increases the action of
64. Loop diuregtics like furosemide inhibit sodium and another drug
chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle, promoting A. Potentiation D. Incopatability
water excretion. This agent may cause B. Antagonism E. None of the above
A. hypecalcemia D. All of the above C. Summation
B. hypermagnesemia E. None of the above
C. hypokalemia 77. When the response of a patient in to one or more
drugs is different nature than that intended by the
65. Phenomenon by which drug can exist in more prescriber is called
than one crystalline form. A. Antagonistic incompatability
A. vaporization D. Polymorphism B. Chemical incompatability
B. votalization E. Reduction C. Therapeutic incompatability
C. oxidation D. Physical incompatability
E. None of the above
66. Heroine, morphine and opiuum are classified as
A. Prohibited drugs. D.OTC drugs 78. The reaction between sodium biacarbonate and
B. Regulated drugs E. All of the above aspirin would result to.
C. Exempt regulated drugs A. Formation of precipitate D.Invisibe changes
B. Evolution of gas E.color changes
67. Which of the following is NOT an example of live C. Hydrolytic changes
attenuated vaccine?
A. measles D. Mumps 79. when an oxidizing agent is tritated in a mortar with
B. diptheria E. None of the above a reducing agent, this would likely result to.
C. rubella A. Formation of damp mass
B. Discoloration of powders
68. the major biotransformation of drug in humans is C Violent explosion
the D. Volatilization of ingredients
A. Spleen D. Intestines E. Formation of heat
B. Liver E. Stomach
C. Kidney 80. The antiseptic property of hydrogen peroxide is
due to
A. Ozone D. Oxygen
B. Acetanilide E. Hydrogen C. Buccal
C. Peroxidase
92. Which of the following does not cause therapeutic
81.Part of the label that is most likely to be presented, incompatibility
shown or examined under customary for display for A. Errors in pricing D. Storage errors
reatail sale. B. Dosage form errors E. None of the above
A. Outer label D. Auxilary label C. Prescription writing errors
B. Principal display panel E. All of the above
C. Inner label 93. An auxilary label, EXCEPT
A. Do not repeat. D. Opthalmic use
82. Instruction for patient in taking the medication. B. For external use E. None of the above
A. Transcription D. Subscription C. Shake well before using
B. Inscription E. Signa
C. Superscription 94. Mathematical model for synergism
A. 1+1 = 2 D. 1+1 =0
83. Patient-related decision factors B. 1+1 = 3 E. 1+1 = 1
A. Age D. Past medication use C. 0+1 = 2
B. Duration of the condition E. All of the above
C. Demographic variables 95. Group of drugs commonly abused by athletes
A. Anabolic steroids D. Vitamins
84. Breakdown of tablets into smaller particles or B. Dexamethasone E. None of the above
granules is defined as the process of C. Antibiotics
A. Disintegration D. Granulations
B. Dissolution E. Trituration 96. The suffix FR ( Alaxan FR) means
C. Rupturization A. Fine release D. For release
B. Fast release E. None of the above
85. Petition for favor of healing and warning from C. Form release
great care and precaution
A. Rx D. Mark thou 97. Migration of drug into a container
B. Signa E. As directed A. Sorption D. Vaporization
C. Magistral pharmacy B. leaching E. None of the above
C. Permeation
86. Amlodipine is classified as
A. Beta blocker D. Vasodilator 98. Causes mydriasis by blocking the
B. Ace inhibitor E. None of the above parasympathetic impulses to the sphincter muscle of
C. Calcium channel blocker the iris
A. Atropine D. Pilocarpine
87. Principal site of drug metabolism B. Lidocaine E. None of these
A. Liver D. Intestines C. Procaine
B. kidney E. Heart
C. stomach 99. A drug used to treat chronic alcoholism
A. Diazepam D. Disulfiram
88. Which of the following antifungal is/are useful in B. Flumazenil E. Lorazepam
cadidiasis? C. Zolpidem
I. Traconazole
II. Clotrimazole 100. Illustrate the drug margin of safety
III. Nystatin A. therapeutic index D. Effective dose
A. I only D. I and III B. Pharmacologic category E. Normal dose
B. I and II E. I, II, and III C. Safety index
C. II and III
101. Medication order differ fro prescription order in
89. Occur immediately upon compounding like which following ways? They
presence of precipitate, effervescence color changes A. are intended for ambulatory use
A. Minor incompatibility D.Major incompatibility B. contain only the generic name of the medication
B. Delayed incompatibility E. All of the above C. are intended for institutional use
C. Immediate incompatibility D. may be transmitted electronically
E. contain the quantity of the medication to be
90. Remedy when a solid substance fail to dissolve in dispensed.
a liquid.
A. Addition of inert ingredients 102. If a therapeutic intervention is necessary, all of
B. Prepare an emulsion the following information should be communicated to
C. prepare a suspension the prescriber, EXCEPT
D. dispense the ingredients separately A. a declaration that “a mistake is made”
E. none of the above B. a brief description of the problem
C. a reference that documents the problem
91. Route of drug administration where are drug are D. an alternative or suggestion to resolve the problem
applied to the skin surface to be absorbed slowly in E. a description of the clinical significance of the
the systemic circulation problem
A. Transdermal D. Rectal
B. inhalation E. Sublingual
103. The following information should be recorded on include hemplytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and
the prescription EXCEPT the granulocytopenia.
A. Prescription number D.product and the quantity A. cytotoxic reactions
B. Date of filling E.pharmacist initiate B. anaphylactic reactions
C. expiration date C. Immune-complex-mediated reactions
D. cell-mediated reactions
104. A prescription label should contain all of the E. all of the above
following EXCEPT the
A. Quantity dispensed D. Expiration date 113 What specific effect exemplified in the use of an
B. Lot number E. Presccriber’s name adrenal corticoid to enhance the vasoconstrictor
C. Patient’s diagnosis response to epinephrine?
A. Additive D. Antagonism
105. auxilary and cautionary label should be utilized B. Synergism E. All of the abive
for all the following purposes EXCEPT to C. Potentiation
A. Substitute for verbal consultation
B. ensure proper usage 114. This is the phenomenon in which the
C. inform storage requirements physiological and/or physiological response to a
D. comply with regulatory requirements substance is decreased with continous use of the
E. warn against the concomitant use of certain drugs same dose of the substance
or foods A. Tolerance D. Insanity
B. Dependence E. All of the above
106. The following item are essential for a patient C. Withdrawal
profile system EXCEPT;
A. The patients name 115. Cimetidine will cause
B. The prescriber’s DEA registration number A.alteration of absorption D.alteration of elimination
C. The patient’s allergies B.alteration of distribution E.Both a and b
D. The patient birth date C.alteration of the metabolism
E. instruction for medication use
116. Cimetidine-Propranolol combination results in
107. The following are drug- related problems A. Inhibition of drug metabolism
EXCEPT B. Hepatic enzyme induction
A. An adverse effect in the medication C. Competition for protein binding sites
B. Symptoms due to under treatment D. Both a and b
C. A drug- drug interactions E. Both b and c
D. An undiagnosed condition
E. An allergic reaction to a medication 117. Smoking which stimulates drug metabolizing
hepatic enzymes result in
108.The the following definition ‘one is noxious and A. an increase in pharmacologic effect of the drug
unintented and which occurs at doses normally used B. a decrease in the pharmacologic effect of the drug
in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis, or therapy or C. a longer duration of action of the drug
disease, or for the modification of physiological D. a slower rate of excretion of the drug
function desribes E. all of the above
A. as side effect D. Both a and b
B. an adverse drug reaction E. Both b and c 118. Warfarin and vitamin K interacts by;
C. an adverse drug event A. Antagonism D. No interaction
B. Synergitism E. Addition
109. Type A reaction are characterized by which of C. Potentiation
the following
A.Idiosyncratic reactions D. All of the above 119. The act of pharmacist in supplying one or more
B.a function of patient susceptibilityE. None of these drugs to/or to a patient, usually in supply response to
C. caused by a drug-drug interactions an order from a doctor
A. administering D. Dispensing
110. Preventable ADR’s B. Procuring E. None of the above
A. Generally display mild symptoms C. Prescribing
B. Are always easily recognized
C. Are problems that are easily medically managed 120. Teratogenic drug cause physical defects in the
D. All of the above developing fetus. Which pregnancy drug category is
E. None of the above characterized if adequate, well controlled studies in
pregnant women have not shown an increased risk of
111. A smoker was prescribed with diazepam. What fetal abnormalities?
would likely to happen if he continously smokes while A. Category A D. Category D
on drug therapy B. Category B E. Category X
A. enhanced the effect of drug C. Category C
B. decreased the effect of the drug
C. no effect 121. Teratogenic drugs cause physical defects in the
D. delayed elimination of the drug developing fetus. Which pregnancy drug category is
E. none of the above characterized if the use of the product is
contraindicated in women who are may become
112. These reactions involves the interaction of IgG or pregnant.
IgM. Clinical manifestations of this type of reaction A. Category A D. Category D
B. Category B E. Category X B. Steven Johnson syndrome E. Both a and b
C. Category C C. Hypertension

122. Extension effect of Lidocaine 133. Providing the correct medicines at the right time
A. Electyrolyte imbalance D. Arrythmia at the right dose and using the right patient is;
B. Hypoglycemia E. Anorexia A. Pharmacy care D. Homeopathy
C. Bleeding B. Rational drug therapy E. Both a and b
C. Osteopathy
123. In the stomach, which drug would exist in it non-
ionized form? 134. The following are possible remedies for
A. Aspirin D. Hormones liquefication of solid substance except
B. chlorpheramine E. All of the above A. Triturate separately and mix by tumbling
C. Dextroamphetamine B. Add adsorbents to liquid combination
C. Dispense powder separately
124. Carcinogenicity is under what type of ADR? D, Incorporate cotton in packaging
A. Type A. D. Type D E. None of the above
B. Type B E. Type E
C. Type C 135. Drugs bound to plasma protein are considered;
A. Pharmacologically active D.Bioavailable drugs
125. Anaphylaxis is; B. Pharmacologically inactive E. All of the above
A. Type A. D. Type D C. Free drugs
B. Type B E. Type E
C. Type C 136. The following arev true regarding
incompatibilities except.
126. The intake of phenelzine with cheddar or pickled A. Problems arising during compounding, dispensing,
fish might result to; and drug administration
A. Hypertensive crisis D. Hypotension B. Easier to correct than to prevent
B. Sedation E. Both b and c C. Maybe intentional
C. Hypoglycemia D. Must be recognized by pharmacist
E. None of the above
127. Sudden withdrawal of steroids can result in;
A. Anemia D. Addison’s disease 137. In metabolizing a standard dose of INH, filipinos
B. Hypertension E. None of the above are considered:
C. Parkinson’s disease A. Fast acetylators D.Same as the caucasians
B. Slow acetylators E. None of the above
128. Drug-drug interactions that occur when one drug C. Neither slow nor fast
alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism and
excretion of the drug. 138. The following are true regarding
A. Pharmacokinetic interactions D.All of the above biotransformation except
B. Pharmacologic interactions E.None A. Occurs after drug distribution
C. Pharmacodynamic interactions B. Converts polar to non-polar drugs
C. Converts lipohilic gto hydrophilic
129. Displacement of plasma-protein bound drug D. Can influence drug elimination
such in Warfarin-Phenylburazone interactions result E. None
in:
A. Hemorrhage 139. Any drug reaction which does not necessarily
B. Increased concentration of warfarin have a casual relationship with the treatment is called
C. Decreased activity of warfarin’ an/a
D. Both a and b A. Both ba & c D. ADR
E Both a and c B. Therapeutic incompatibility E. Both C and D
C. Adverse drug event
130. Tobacco and cigarettes are potent enzyme
inducers. As consequence, 140. The transport of a substance from one part of the
A. One need to increase dose of drug body to another by means of blood
B. This lead to drug tolerance A. Absorption D. Excretion
C. This is an ADR B. Distribution E. Storage
D. All of the above C. Metabolism
E. none of the above
141. The presence of food in the gastrointestinal tract
131. Important characteristics of idiosyncratic drug will most likely to reduce the absorption of some
reactions except; drugs like;
A. Congenital hypersensitivities A. Griseofulvin D. Vancomycin
B. Genetic or hereditary in origin B. Tetracycline E. Erythromycin
C. Metabolic abnormality C. Amoxicillin
D. All of the above
E. none of the above 142. The degradation reaction of ASA involves
A. Hydrolysis D. Reduction
132. A drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction cause B. Oxidation E. Conjugation
by sulfonamides C. Racemization
A. Parkinson’s disease D. Contact dermititis
143. The unsual result of triturating camphor + 154. This drug may enhance the hepatic potential of
menthol overdose of acetaminophen.
A. Eutectuic mixture D. Hygroscopic mixture
B. Solidification E. Synergistic effect A. phenytion D. Vitamin E
C. Lowering of the melting point B. Vitamin C E. sodium bicarbonate
C. Silymarin
144. Extension/s effect of furosemide 155. A system that exhibit infinite viscosity
A. Electrolyte imbalance D. Both A & B
B. Hypoglycemia E. Both B & C A. Pseudoplastic system D. Dilatant system
C. Bleeding B. Plastic system E. Non Newtonian
system
145. The precipitation of an organic substance from a C. Thixotrophy
saturated solution when highly soluble salts are
added known as:
156. Semi synthetic cellulose derivatives, except:
A. Polymorphism D. Eutexia
B. salting out E. Hygroscopy A. Methylcellulose, USP D. Hydroxypropyl
C. Racemization cellulose
B. Carboxymthyl E. Poloxamer
146. This refers to the distributing effects resulting cellulose sodium, USP
from cessation of or reduction in the prolonged or C. Hypromellose, USP
heavy use of a substance.
A. Tolerance D. insanity
B. Dependence E. All of the above 157. You have an anti-biotic suspension that is
C. Withdrawal 250mg/ml and a pediatric patient who needs 100mg.
Calculate the number of millilitres of the suspension
147. This refers to the physiological or psychological that will contain the desired 100mg.
adaptions taht occur in response to the frequent
administration of the drug A. 2ml D. 1.2ml
A. Tolerance D. Withdrawal B. 2.5ml E. 1ml
B. Dependence E. Insanity C. 5.2ml
C. Both a and B
158. Standards for chemical being used in
148. _________occurs when one drug increasev the extemporaneous compounding are found in the:
action of another drug.
A. Potentiation D. Synergism A. FDA Good D. Merck index
B. Antagonism E. Both A & B Manufacturing Process
C. Summation B. USP/NF E. USP/DI
C. Remington
149. Factors which affect GET;
A. fatty food D. All of the above 159. The active ingredient in Burrow’s solution is:
B. Large food particles E. None
C. Cold beverages A. Acetic acid D. Alum
B. Aluminium acetate E. Hydrogen peroxide
150. Bisacodyl interacts with milk through what C. Aluminium chloride
mechanism
A. Alteration of pH D. Alteration of metabolism
160. The process of wetting Zinc Oxide with Mineral
B. Adsorption E. Delay gastric emptying
Oil in preparation for incorporation into an ointment
C. Alteration of Motility Rate
base is:
151. The Primary site of absorption of orally
administered drug: A. Attrition D. Pulverization by
intervention
A. Stomach D. Large intestine
B. Levigation E. Tituration
B. Small intestine E. All of the above C. Milling
C. Blood
161. The ideal weight for a vaginal suppository will be
152. Side-effects to be expected with Simvastatin approximately
include:
A. 1g D. 10g
A. Headache D. None of the above B. 2g E. 15g
B. Nausea E. All of the above C. 5g
C. Abdominal pain
162. A lotion formulation calls for coal tar solution.
153. Penicillin G is: Which of the following statements concerning coal tar
A. D. Piperacillin solution is NOT TRUE?
Phenoxymethylpenicillin A. Alcohol is used as a D. Solution is usually
B. Benzylpenicillin E. Pevmecillinam solvent diluted 1:9 with water or
C. Penicillin V ointment base
B. L.C.D is another name E. The solution contains
of the solution only coal tar and volatile
 solvent
C. The solution is for 171. Large overdose of acetaminophen are likely to
external use only cause

A. Tinnitus D. Renal tubular necrosis

163. Methyl Salicylate is also known as: B. Seizure E. Pseudomembranous
enterocolitis
A. Camphorated oil D. Oil of Wintergreen C. Hepatic necrosis
B. Peppermint oil E. Sweet oil
c. Salicylamide 172. Which of the following would likely to render
benzalkonium chloride solution inactive?
164. Before placing a patient on a fatty oil emulsions, A. Acetic acid D. Sodium chlorate
the clinical pharmacist should confirm that the patient B. Pseudomonas E. Ethanol
does not have aeruginosa
C. sodium stearate
A. Egg allergies D. Lactose intolerance
B. Sensitivities to E. Sensitivities to 173. Also known as the shear thinning system
disulfites tartrazine
C. milk intolerance A. Pseudoplastic system D. Dilatant system
B. Plastic system E. Non- Newtonian
165. Which of the following metals is NOT included in system
M.T.E- 4 or multiple trace element solutions? C. Thixotropy
A. Chromium D. Manganese 174. A property which pertains to the lost of
B. Copper E. Zinc consistency when shear is applied and takes a minute
C. Iron of time for recovery
166. Another trace element that the physician is likely A. Pseudoplastic system D. Dilatant system
to include in TPN is B. Plastic system E. Non- Newtonian
system
A. Lithium D. Silcon C. Thixotropy
B. Sodium E. Fluoride
C. Selenium
175. Also knows as the shear thickening system
167. A dermatologist requests a prescription for
Tetracycline HCL 4% in sufficirnt Lubriderm lotion to A. Pseudoplastic system D. Dilatant system
make 45g. How many 500mg capsule of the antibiotic B. Plastic system E. Non- Newtonian
do you need for compounding this order? system
C. Thixotropy
A. 1 D. 8
B. 3 E. 16 176. A natural polymer, which is incompatible with
C. 4 sodium CMC, and some drugs such as amitryptyline,
tamoxifen, verapanil, and aluminium hydroxide gel.
168. Which one of the following ingredients is most
likely to be utilized in the formulation of a topical gel? A. Tragacanth D.sodium alginate
B. Acacia E. Carrageenan
A. Carbomer D. Mineral oil C. Xanthan gum
B. Edetate E. Vegetable oil
C. Lanolin 177. A natural polymer that is incompatible with
polyvalent ions calcium and magnesium.
169. Which of the following agents has NOT been
suggested as an agent to be use to eradicate A. Tragacanth D.sodium alginate
Helicobacter pylori form the GI tract? B. Acacia E. Carrageenan
C. Xanthan gum
A. Clarithromycin D. Itraconazole
B. Bismuth Subsalicylate E. Tetracycline
178. A synthetic polymer which is incompatible with
c. Metronidazole
phenol, resorcinol, and high concentration of
electrolytes.
170. Patients taking anti-tubercular drug Rifampicin
should be told that the drug A. Carbomer D. Polyvinylpyrolidone
B. Poloxamer E. All of the above
A. May cause diarrhoea D. May produce nausea
C. Polyvinyl alcohol
and vomiting if used with
alcohol
179. Flocculation or break down of the suspension
B. May cause them to be E. Should be swallowed
may result upon the addition of electrolytes or
sun burn more easily whole (not chewed) to
positively charged suspensions.
prevent staining of the
teeth A. Carboxymetylicellulose D. Colooidal silicon
C. may impart an orange dioxide
colour to their urine and B. Silicon Dioxide E. bentonite
sweet
C. Microcrystalline A. Pharmacologically D. bioavailable drugs
cellulose active
B. Pharmacologically
180. Any drug reactions which does not necessarily inactive
have any casual relationship with the treatment is C. Free drugs
called an:
190. A remedy for tablet granulation containing
A. Adverse effect D. None of the above vitamin C:
B. therapeutic E. All of the above
incompatibility A. Prepare by dry D. None of the above
C. Adverse drug event granulation
B. Use pre coated E. All of the above
181. Teratogenicity is a/an: ascorbic acid granules
C. Both A and B
A. type A ADR D. type D ADR
B. type B ADR E. None of the above
C. type C ADR 191. The precipitation of an organic substance from a
saturated solution when highly soluble salts are
182. The following are guidelines for reducing drug added is known as:
interaction except:
A. Polymorphism D. Eutexia
A. Employ combination D. Know properties of B. Salting out E. All of the above
therapy drugs C. Racemization
B. identify patient risk E. None of the above
factor 192. Acacia in the presence of bismuth salts can form
C. Educate the patient a “cake” at the bottom of the container. This
manifestation is known as:
183. Enzyme inhibition Coumarins can lead to:
A. Gelatinization D. Cementation
A. Hypoglycaemia D. Convulsion B. Hydrolysis E. None of the above
B. Profuse bleeding E. None of the above C. Emulsification
C. Blood clotting

184. Anaphylaxis is a: 193. Camphor, menthol, acetophenetidine, phenol will

form:
A. type A ADR D. type D ADR
B. type B ADR E. None of the above A. Eutectic combination D. Both A and B
C. type C ADR B. Liquefication E. None of the above
C. Explosive combination
185. In metabolizing a standard dose INH, Filipinos
are considered: 194. The manifestation in no.19 is a result of a:

A. Fast acetylators D. Same as the A. Therapeutic D. Adverse drug reaction

Caucasians incompatibility
B. Slow acetylators E. None of the above B. Chemical E. None of the above
C. Either slow or fast incompatibility
C. Physical
186. The following are true about biotransformation incompatibility
except:
195. Most important protein to which drug can bind in
A. Occurs after drug D. Can influence drug plasma:
distribution elimination
B. Converts polar to non E. All of the above A. Lipoprotein D. none of the above
polar drugs B. albumin E. all of the above
C. Converts lipophylic to C. glycoprotein
hydrophilic drugs
196. The following are the physiologic effects on drug
187. Sudden withdrawal of steroids can lead to action except:

A. Anaemia D. Addison’s disease A. reduces gastric D. vegetable potentiate

B. Hypertension E. None of the above emptying rate anticoagulants
C. Parkinson’s disease B. milk reduces E. all of the above
absorption
188. A mathematical model for potentiating drug C. tea increases
effects: absorption of
paracetamol
A. 1+1=2 D.1+1=0
B. 1+1=3 E. None of the above 197. The following condition/s will amplify the activity
C.1+0=2 of cardiac glycosides:

189. Drugs bound to plasma proteins are considered: A. hypercalcemia D. none of the above
B. hypokalemia E. all of the above
C. both A and B more lipid soluble & increased when taken
absorbable with an antacid
198. Drug- drug interaction that occur when, one drug B. ionized form is more E. all of the above
alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism, lipid soluble & absorbable
excretion of the other drug. C. polar form is more
readily absorbed
A. pharmacokinetic D. all of the above
interactions
B. pharmacologic E. none of the above 207. The transport of a substance from one part of the
interaction body to another by means of blood:
C. pharmacodynamic
interaction A. absorption D. excretion
B. distribution E. all of the above
199. Displacement of plasma protein bound drug such C. metabolism
as in warfarin- phenylbutazone interaction, results in:

A. hemmorhage D. both A and B 208. Enzyme induction of Phenobarbital with oral

B. increased E. none of the above contraceptives can lead to:
concentration of warfarin
C. decreased A. decreased D. none of the above
concentration of warfarin Phenobarbital action
B. increased E. all of the above
200. A drug induced hypersensitivity reaction caused contraceptive action
by sulfonamide: C. unreliable
contraception
A. parkinson’s disease D. contact dermatitis
B. steven johnson’s E. none of the above
syndrome 209. Characterizes the first exposure of the fraction of
C. hypertension the drug metabolized in the liver:

A. first pass effect D. pharmacokinetics

201. chloramphenicol can lead to this untoward drug
B. drug receptor E. none of the above
reaction:
interaction
A. agranulocytosis D. none of the above C. biotransformation
B. gray baby syndrome E. all of the above
C. both A and B
210. The only insulin preparation that can be given
intravenously is:
202. A physiological state resulting from drug
administration: A. lente insulin D. potassium zinc insulin
B. semilente insulin E. all of the above
A. drug dependence D. drug tolerance
C. ultralente insulin
B. drug habituation
C. drug addiction
211. The conversion of an optically active form to an
optically inactive form is called:
203. An ADR experienced as a consequence of
receiving an inappropriate high dose of the drug due A. polymorphism D. enantiomorphism
to patient characteristics: B. racemization E. all of the above
C. polymerization
A. idiosyncratic D. type D
B. extension effect E. none of the above
C. side effect 212. Precipitation can be:

A. physical incompatibility D. A or B
204. Immediate remedy for anaphylaxis B. chemical E. none of the above
incompatibility
A. epinephrine inj. D. antibiotic
C. adverse drug reaction
B. aspirin E. all of the above
C. antihistamine
213. An impossible prescription is described by the
following, except:
205. Side effects of streptomycin:
A. only the generic name D. the generic name is
A. headache D. none of the above
is written but not legible not legible and the brand
B. dryness of mouth E. all of the above
name is written legibly
C. ototoxicity
B. both generic and E. none of the above
brand names are not
206. The following is/are true regarding absorption of legible
salicylic acid: C. the generic name does
not correspond to the
A. non-ionized from is D. absorption is brand name
214. Providing the correct medicine at the right time, A. reduces D. insoluble in water
at the right dose and using the right route of B. increases E. all of the above
administration to the right patient is: C. remain unchanged

A. primary care D. homeopathy

B. rational drug therapy E. none of the above 221. The degradation of penicillin G procaine is
C. osteopathy highest in:

A. solution D. tablet
215. Which of the following is not true about adverse B. suspension E. all of the above
drug reaction? C. elixir

A. it is a significant cause D. the suffering that the

of morbidity and mortality patient experience 222. Hypertrichosis is generally associated with the
to patients of all areas of because of the drug use of:
health care today related events cannot be
quantified A. hydralazine D. clonidine
B. it has been estimated E. none of the above B. minoxidil E. all the above
that from 1/3 to as high C. methyldopa
as ½ of ADR’s are not
preventable
C. the institute of 223. An overdose of sodium nitroprusside generally
medicine reported in causes:
January 2000 that an
A. severe hypotension D. severe edema
estimated 7000 deaths
B. hypertension E. all of the above
occur each year as a
C. renal failure
result of medication error

224. Which of the following is a common side effect of

216. Which of the following description of type A ADR
metolazone?
is not true?
A. seizure D. neuroleptic malignant
A. it is an extension of the D. it is predictable
syndrome
drugs known
B. electrolyte loss E. all of the above
pharmacology
C. SLE
B. it is dose dependent E. all of the above
C. it is generally serious
and life threatening 225. Which of the following may not cause hemolysis
in patients with G6PD deficiency?
217. All of the following are type B reactions, except: A. quinine D. erythromycin
B. sulfonamide E. all of the above
A. idiosyncratic reaction D. drug drug interaction
C. nitrofurantoin
B. immunological reaction E. carcinogenic
interaction
C. teratogenic interaction 226. Pigmented retinopathy is hughly associated with:

A. chlorpromazine D. haloperidol
218. Reporting of adverse reactions that are serious, B. thioridazine E. none of the above
even if causality is not proven, includes: C. clozaril
A. a patient’s death that D. congenital anomaly
is not suspected of being 227. The increase in mutual solubility of two partially
a direct outcome of ADR miscible liquids by the addition of a third substance is
B. not life threatening E. none of the above defined as:
disease
C. listed in the A. catalyst D. levigation
manufacturer’s insert as B. blending E. none of the above
a known side effect C. promoter

219. It is the process of degradation of ionic 228. Which of the following factors does not affect the
compounds into cations and anions in the presence of flow properties of a particle?
water is defined as:
A. porosity D. density
A. salvation D. degradation B. shape E. none of the above
B. hydration E. all of the above C. color
C. activation

229. The principal adverse effect of clozanil:

220. What happens to the solubility of alcohol as the
molecular weight of alcohol increases? A. hypotension D. renal failure
B. hypertrichosis E. all of the above 238. All of the following are the adverse effects of
C. agranulocytosis atropine, except:

A. photophobia D. sedation
230. Which of the following salts produces an acidic B. tachycardia E. dry mouth
solution? C. diarrhoea

A. salt of weak acid with D. salt of strong acid with

strong base weak base 239. Which of the following is not a manifestation of
B. salt of strong acid with E. all of the above adverse effect of cholinergic agonist?
strong base
C. salt of weak acid with A. lacrimation D. bronchoconstriction
weak base B. bradycardia E. xerostomia
C. myopic
accommodation
231. All of the following drugs are teratogenic in
nature and should be avoided by pregnant women,
except: 240. Which of the following anti ulcer medication is
most likely to cause drug interaction and endocrine
A. finasterine D. lithium carbonate side effects?
B. triretinoine E. all of the above
C. benztropine A. ranitidine D. cimetidine
B. omeprazole E. lanoprazole
C. famotidine
232. Which of the following is the principal adverse
effect of anabolic steroid?
241. Which of the following salicylates has been
A. hypercholesteronemia D. anutia linked to male reproductive toxicity with chronic
B. peliosis hepatitis E. all of the above dosing?
C. amennorrhea
A. aspirin D. olsalazine
B. difflunisal E. sulfasalazine
233. Which of the following diabetic agent has the C. sodium thiosalicylate
greatest risk of hepatotoxicity?

A. metformin D. insulin 242. Which of the following anti gout medication act
B. troglitazone E. none of the above by decreasing serum levels but increasing urine level
C. glyburide of uric acid, thus increasing the risk of kidney stones
development?

234. Severe headaches are commonly associated A. allopurinol D. all of the following
with: B. colchicines E. none of the above
C. probenecid
A. isosorbide dinitrate D. propranolol
B. furosemide E. none of the above
C. bumetanide 243. The selective cyclooxygenase (COX) 2 inhibtor
have been associated with which of the following
adverse drug reaction?
235. The most frequently reported adverse effect of
sucralfate is: A. chrge strauss D. torsades de pointes
syndrome
A. diarrhoea D. constipation B. acute liver failure E.sever ischemic colitis
B. vomiting E. body malaise C. cardiovascular
C. bleeding thrombotic events

236. Which of the following NSAIDS causes the least 244. Which of the following statement regarding drug
side effects? interaction is true?
A. ibuprofen D. rofecoxib A. all rug interaction can D. if the patient prescribe
B. naproxen E. diazepam potentially cause an drug that can potentially
C. ketoprofen adverse response in interact, the prescriber
patients should be called and a
different precipitant drug
237. Which of the following is the major effect of should be suggested
doxorubicin? B. the clinical significance E. none of the above
of each potential drug
A. pulmonary fibrosis D. agranulocytosis
interaction must be
B. seizure
considered individually
C. myocardial toxicity
C. a precipitant drug that
inhibit the metabolism of
the object drug causes a
more serious drug 250. Levodopa_carbidopa combination has the
interaction than a popular brand name of
precipitant drug causing a
increase in the A. tagamet D. naproxen
bioavailability of the B. cinemet E. aspirin
object drug C. dilantin

245. Which of the following is a valid therapeutic use 251. Myopathy is an aadverse effect of all the
of a drug interaction? following agents, except:

A. the use of probenacid D. the treatment of A. lovastatin D. gemfibrosil

with penicillin G to depression with a B. simvastatin E. colestipol
prolong high levels to combination of citalopram C. pravastatin
treat STD and MAO Inhibitor
B. giving aspirin to E. none of the above
warfarin to enhance 252. Patient with angina pectoris receiving
anticoagulation propranolol plus diltiazem must be monitored for
C. instructing the patient which adverse effects?
to take levofloxacin with
A. decreased cardiac D. both A and B
milk or antacid to
output
decrease GI intolerance
B. decreased heart rate E. both A and C
to oral therapy
C. increased heart rate

246. Which of the following is not a harmful food drug

253. Which of the following drug has a limited anti
interaction?
arrhythmic use due to its strong anticholinergic effect?
A. raw green salads for D. milk and doxycycline
A. disopyramide D. procainamide
patient on warfarin deep to treat helicobacter pylori
B. flecainide E. quinidind
vein thrombosis
C. tocainide
B. grapefruit juice and E. none of the above
cyclosporin to prevent
graft vesus host rejection 254. Which of the following type III anti arrhythmic has
of a transplanted kidney been reported as causing the torsaded de pointes
C. omeprazole beads in type of ventricular tachyarrythmia
applesauce for patients
with problem swallowing A. diltiazem D.amiodarone
capsule secondary to B. flecainide E.prazosin
GERD. C. quinidine

247. Asians are at greatest risk of all ethnic group for 255. It is used as an anti hypertensive agent is limited
genetic polymorphism in which one of the following due to its adverse effect as reflex tachycardia,
cytochrome p450 (CYP) isoenzymes. headache and postural hypertension:
A. CYP 2D6 D. CYP 1A2 A. hydralazine D. captopril
B. CYP 3A4 E. all of the above B. guanabenz E. prazosin
C. CYP 2C19 C. methyldopa

248. Preventable adverse drug reaction

256. All of the following factors may increase the risk
A. generally display mild D. all of the above of nephrotoxicity from gentamicin therapy except one.
symptoms
B. are always easily E. none of the above A. concurrent cisplatin D. prolonged courses of
recognized therapy gentamikici n therapy
C. are problems that are B. trough gentamicin E. aged. 70y/o
easily medically managed levels, 2mg/ml
C. concurrent
amphoteracin B therapy
249. The phrase “one which is noxious and
unintended and which occurs on dosses normally
used in man for the prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy 257. Which of the following anticonvulsant is
of disease, or for the modification of physiological contraindicated in patient with a history of
function”, describes: hypersensitivity to TCA?

A. a side effect D. medication error A. phenobarbital D. ethosuximide

B. an adverse drug E. all of the above B. carbamazepine E. phenytoin
reaction C. acetazolamide
C. an adverse drug event
258. What are the most common adverse effects of C. gel formation
anticonvulsive drugs?

A. adverse effects on D. gastrointestinal 266. MAOI and food rich in tyramine like cheese will
appetite and body weight symptoms lead too:
B. alteration of cognition E. headache and
and mentation dizziness A.accumulation of D. all of the above
C. all of the choices pressor amines
B. increase in BP E. none of the above
C. non-metabolism of
259. Which of the following anticonvulsive drug has a tyramine
higher incidence of kidney stones?

A. tiagabine D. phenytoin 267. the following are true regarding excretion of

B. topiramate E. B,C and D acidic drugs except:
C. gabapentine
A. Exists in the ionized D. none of the above
state in acidic urine
260. Levodopa is associated with which of the B. exist in non ionized E. both A & B
following problems? form in alkaline urine
C. acidic urine increases
A. GIT problem D. all of the above drug interaction
B. involuntary movement E. none of the above
C. decline in efficacy
after 3-5 years 268. Phenobarbital and griseofulvin are _________of
coumarins.

261. The following are true regarding incompatibilities A. enzyme induces D. agonist
except: B. enzyme inhibitor E. none of the above
C. antagonists
A. problem arising during D. must be recognized by
compounding, dispensing the pharmacist
and drug administration 269. Tobacco and cigarettes are potent enzyme
B. easier to correct than E. all of the above inducers. As a consequences,
to prevent
C. maybe intentional or A. one needs to increase D. all of the above
unintentional the dose of drug
B. this lead to drug E. none of the above
tolerance
262. oxidizingare incompatible with reducing agents. C. this is an ADR
This is a:

A. physical incompatibility D. both A & B 270. Type F ADR’S can occur as a result of the
B. chemical E. both A & C following, except
incompatibility
C. therapeutic A. antimicrobial drug D. drug instability
incompatibility resistance
B. patient compliance E. none of the above
C. counterfeit drugs
263. Alkaline salts like potassium penicillin when
placed on an acidc solution can result in:
271. Which of the following characteristic of
A. A conversion into free D. all of the following idiosyncratic drug reactions is the least important?
acid
B. precipitation of E. none of the following A. congenital D. none of the above
penicillin hypersensitivity
C. insolubility B. genetic and hereditary E. all of the above
in origin
C. metabolic abnormality
264. Chloramphenicol palmitate exist in 3 different
polymorphs, each differ in the following properties
except. 272. A fever response to antibiotic therapy caused by
the sudden release of endotoxin from various killed
A. solubility D. none of the above microorganism is called:
B. free energy E. all of the above
C. melting point A. herxheimer reaction D. anaphylactic reaction
B. lyell’s syndrome E. none of the above
C. skin reaction
265. The following are manifestation of chemical
incompatibilities, except:
273. A potential problem in TPN formulation is the
A. immiscibility D. evolution of gas incompatibility between:
B. protolysis E. none of the above
A. potassium phosphate D. insulin and zinc 280. Pharmacokinetically, enzyme induction will
and calcium gluconate chloride result to the following except:
B. potassium choloride E. none of the above
and calcium gluconate A. peak level decreases D. pharmacological
C. potassium phosphate response are decreased
and zinc chloride B. accelerates E. none of the above
metabolism
C. increased overall
274. Which of the following is the least possible elimination rate
remedies for liquefaction of solid substance?

A. triturate separately and D. incorporate cotton in

281. In basic urine, acidic drugs are:
mix with tumbling packaging
B. add adsorbent to liquid E. none of the above A. unionized, hence D. unionized, not
combination reabsorbed, decreases reabsorbed, increases
C. dispense powders half life. elimination rate
separately B. more ionized, not E. none of the above
reabsorbed, decrease
275. Which of the following solvents is the least half life
considered as a co-solvent. C. more unionized, not
reabsorbed, increase half
A. water and mineral oil D. glycerol and sorbitol life
B. ethyl alcohol and E. none of the above
sorbitol
C. sorbitols and glycols 282. Which statement is incorrect regarding
interaction involving tyramine containing substance
and MAO inhibitor?
276. Combinations liable to produce therapeutic
incompatibilities when administered at the same time, A. inhibition of MaO D. large amount of stored
except: results in the epinephrine can cause
accumulation of large hypotensive crisis
A. sedatives and D. aspirin and warfarin amounts of
stimulants norepinephrine
B. tannins and aloins E. all of the above B. decrease ion the rate E. none of the above
C. caffeine and chloral of intracellular
hydrate metabolism
C. large amount of
norepinephrine can
277. Water is most likely to cause instability on the cause severe headache
following drugs, except: and hypertension
A. penicillins D. benzodiazepines
B. cephalosporins E. macrolides 283. Petition for favour of healing and warming from
C. alkaloids great care and precaution:

A. Rx D. Mark thou
278. It occurs when drugs are inappropriately in B. signa E. subscription
syringes or infusion fluids prior to administration C. magistral pharmacy
A. pharmacodynamic D. all of the above
interaction 284. Instruction for patient in taking medication:
B. pharmaceutical E. none of the above
interaction A. transcription D. subscription
C. pharmacokinetic B. inscription E. signa
interaction C. superscription

279. Which statement is not true regarding lithium- 285. Combination of salt substitute and potassium
NSAId Combination? sparring drugs will result to:
A. AID impair renal D. AID inhibit
A. hyperkalemia D. calcemia
synthesis of broncho prostaglandin dependent
B. tachycardia E. acidosis
dilator prostaglandin renal excretion of lithium
C. alkalosis
B. AID antagonize the E. all of the above
renal excretion of lithium
C. AID may cause
286. Drugs that should not be given to children with
sodium and water
retention. chicken pox or flu symtoms:

A. acetaminophen D. paracetamol
B. aspirin E. mefenamic acid
C. ibuprofen 294. The precipitation of an organic substance from a
saturated solution when highly soluble salts are
added is known as:
287. Which of the following factors may make it
necessary to give lower doses of drugs to geriatric A. polymorphism D. eutexia
patients? B. salting out E. chelation
C. racemisation
A. reduced enzyme D. enhanced metabolism
activity
B. reduced kidney E. A and B 295. Chloramphenicol palmitate exist in 3 different
function polymorphs, each differ in the following properties,
C. enhanced absorption except:

A. solubility D. chelation
288. Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase and thus B. free energy E. NOTA
increases the plasma levels of: C. melting point

A. mercaptopurine D. aspirin
B. chloral hydrate E. NOTA 296. MAOI and food rich in tyramine like cheese will
C. disulfiram lead to:

A. accumulation of D. AOTA
289. Clindamycin is closely related to which of the pressor amines
following in effective spectrum B. increase in blood E. both A and B
pressure
A. chloramphenicol D. lincomycin C. non- metabolism of
B. tobramycin E. it is unique in spectrum tyramine
C. kanamycin

297. The following condition/s will amplify the activity

290. The following are guidelines for reducing drug of cardiac glycosides:
interactions except:
A. hypercalcemia D. both A and B
A. employ combination D. know properties of B.hypokalemia E. NOTA
therapy drugs C. hypernatremia
B. identify patient risk E. NOTA
factor
298. Drug drug interaction that occur when one drug
C. educate the patient alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism and
excretion of the other drug:
291. Anaphylaxis is a:
A. pharmacokinetic D. pahrmaceutics
interaction interaction
A. type A ADR D. type F ADR
B. pharmacologic E. NOTA
B. type B ADR E. type C ADR
interaction
C. type E ADR
C. pharmacodynamic
interaction
292. Oxidizing agents area incompatible with reducing
agents 299. Displacement of plasma protein bound drug as in
warfarin phenylbutazone interaction results in:
A. physical incompatibility D. both A and B
B. therapeutic E. AOTA
A. hemorrhage D. both A and B
incompatibility
B. increased E. NOTA
C. chemical
concentration of warfarin
incompatibility
C. decreased activity of
warfarin
293. Any drug reaction which does not necessarily
have a causal relationship with the treatment is called: 300. Tobacco and cigarettes are potent inducers.
Therefore:
A. adverse drug reaction D. both A and B
B. therapeutic E. NOTA
A. one needs to increase D. both A and B
incompatibility
dose of drug
C. adverse drug event
B. this leads to drug E. AOTA
tolerance
C. this is an ADR
 DISPENSING, INCOMPATIBILITIES AND ADVERSE DRUG REACTIONS

1.Which of the following is/are true for prescription? Or other properly licensed medical practitioner

I. A prescription is an order for medication issued by a physician, a dentist or other properly

licensed medical practitioner.

II. The prescription order is a part of professional relationship among the prescriber, the
pharmacist and the patient.

III. A prescription designates a specific medication and dosage to be administered to a particular

patient at a specified time.

A .I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B.III only D. II and III

2. The following is/are part/s of a prescription

I. subscription

II. inscription

III. signa

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

3. In a prescription:

I. The full name and address of the patient are necessary for the identification purposes

II. The date is important only to the pharmacists in filling the prescription for controlled
substances.

III. The name of the physician is necessary mainly for litigation purposes.

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

4. This is the body or the principal part of the prescription order and contains the names and quantities
of prescribed ingredients:

A. subscription

B. inscription
 C. superscription

D. signa

E. recipe

5. This is an example of a subscription:

A. M. ft ung

B. 1 tab qid

C. 50 capsules

D. Shake well before using

E. PTR number

6. This is an example of signa

A. M. ft. ung

B. 1 tab qid

C. 50 capsules

D. Shake well before using

E. PTR number

7. Prescriber of a prescription:

I. veterinarian

II. nurse

III pharmacists

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

8. In filling a prescription, the pharmacist may select a container from among various shapes, color, sizes,
mouth, openings and composition. Which of the following is/are true regarding his selection?

I. Prescription bottles are used to dispense viscous liquids.

II. Dropper bottles are used for dispensing ophthalmic, nasal , otic or oral liquids to be administered by

drop.
 III. Sifter- top containers are used for the powders to be applied by sprinkling.

A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D. II & III
E. I, II ,III

9. The concept of drug interaction includes:

I. drug foof interactions

II. drug laboratorty test iteractions

III. dru disease interactions

A. I only

B. II only

C. I & II

D.II & III

E. I, II ,III

10. Which of the following statements is/are true about drug interactions?

I. Drug interaction may result from the concurrent use of two or more products available without a

Prescription.

II. Herbal products are free from drug interactions.

III. Dietary supplements may interfere with other drugs being concomitantly taken.

A I only

B. II only

C. I & II

D. II & III

E. I, II ,III

11. A number of factors contribute to the occurrence of drug interactions. These includes:

I. Multiple pharmacologic effects

 II. Patient non compliance

III. Use of non prescription drugs

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

12. The following is/are true on the incompatibilities of aqueous acids.

I. Acids and acid salts decompose carbonates with liberation of carbon dioxide

II. Inorganic acid react with salts of organic acids to produce the free organic acid and a salt of the

inorganic acid.

III.Salicylic acid and benzoic acid are readily soluble in solutions of salicylates and benzoates.

A. I only

B. II only

C. I & II

D. II & III

E. I, II ,III

13. In aquoes solutions, alcohol may precipaitate:

I. Agar

II. Tragacanth

III. Acacia

A.I only

B.II only

C.I & II

D.II & III

E.I, II ,III

14. Spirits are preparation of a high alcoholic strength. Because of this, the following are observed to be
true:

I. They lend themselves well to dilution with aqueous solutions

 II. The precipitate salts when aqueous solutions containing them are mixed with spirits.

III. Aromatic ammonia sprit cannot be mixed with aqueous preparations containing alkaloids.

A.I only

B.II only

C.I & II

D.II & III

E.I, II ,III

15. Administration of Ketoconazole to a patient who is currently taking Ranitidine would likely result to:

A. Decreased effectiveness of antifungal agent

B. Decareased activity of histamine H2 receptor antagonist

C. Enhanced activity of antifungal agent

D. Increased activity of antihistamine

E. No significant alteration of the effectiveness of both drugs

16. In the stomach, which drug would exist in its non-ionized form?

I. Aspirin

II. Dextroamphetamine

III. Chlorpheniramine

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

17. A patient came to a drugstore and asked for Bisacodyl for his constipation. Upon asking his current
mediations, the pharmacists knew that the patient is on an antacid therapy. Which of the following
should pharmacist tell to the patient?

I. He can take both drugs after meal

II. Take the other drug at least one hour before or two hours after the intake of the first drug.

III. Follow the intake of the laxative with milk for enhanced effect.

A.I only
B.II only

C.I & II

D.II & III

E.I, II ,III

18. Bisacodyl interacts with milk through what mechanism?

A. Alteration of ph

B. Complexation

C. Adsorption

D. Alteration of motility rate

E. Alteration of metabolism

19. An anti infective drug, Ciprofloxacin was prescribed to a patient. Which of the following should the
pharmacists tell the patient regarding the intake if this drug?

I. Do not take this drug concomitantly with antacid

II. Avoid taking vitamins while on Ciprofloxacin therapy.

III. Avoid taking the drug with milk.

A.I only

B.II only

C.I & II

D.II & III

E.I, II ,III

20. Mutivitamins if taken concomitantly by a patient on a Tetracycline therapy

Would likely result to:

I. decreased effectiveness of the antibiotic

II. increased effectiveness of anitibiotic

III. increased metabolism of the multivitamins

A.I only
 B.II only

C.I & II

D.II & III

E.I, II ,III

21. Which of the following drugs should NOT be taken simultaneously with milk or food?

I. Tetracycline

II. Doxycycine

III. Minocycline

A.I only

B.II only

C.I & II

D.II & III

E.I, II ,III

22. Which of the following should the pharmacists note in advising a patient on Helidac therapy?

I. Tetracycline should not be taken simultaneously with Bismuth subsalicylate.

II. Bismuth subsalicylate should not be taken simultaneously with Metronidazole.

III. Tetracycline Metronidazole and Bismuth subsalicylate should be administered together

A.I only

B.II only

C.I & II

D.II & III

E.I, II ,III.

23. Cholestyramine and colestipol are known bile acid binding agents In addition to this, they can also
bind with the following drug and decreased their absorption:

I. Warfarin

II. Digoxin
 III. Hydrochlorothiazide

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

24. The administration of cholestyramine and colestipol should be separated by a long interval from the
administration of which drugs?

I. Chenodiol

II. Ursodiol

III. Thyroid hormone

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

25. A patient comes to you and asks for an antidiarrheal drug, Attapulgite. Upon interviewing the
patient, you learn that she has hyperacidity and is currently on Esomeprazole therapy. As a pharmacists,
what would you advise?

I. that attapulgite has adsorptive property and can decreased the effectiveness of esomeprazole

II. that the interval between the administration of these drug should be long

III. that the patient should take Ranitidine, instead of esomeprazole

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

26. A patient who has rheumatoid arthritis has been prescribed with Pencillamine. Which of the
following should he avoid ingesting concomitantly with Penicillamine?

I. Antacid

II. Ferrous preparations

III. Food

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

27. Cathartics would likely cause:

I. Increase in GI motility
 II. Increase in drug absorption

III. Decrease in drug absorption

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

28. Atropine would likely cause:

I. decrease absorption of Ketoconazole

II. decrease absorption of amphetamine

III. increase absorption of Omeprazole

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

29. Gastric Emptying time is increased by which drug/s?

I. Scopolamine

II. Pilocarpine

III. Nicotine

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

30. Metoclopramide would mostly likely:

I. increase motility of upper GI tract

II. increase gastric emptying time

III decrease the absorption of antacids

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

31. Which of the following anti effective agents should not be administered with food?

I. erythromycin stearate

II. erythromycin estolate

 III. erythromycin ethlysuccinate

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

32. The presence of food in GI tact will most likely reduce the absorption of some drugs like:

I. Griseofulvin

II. Tetracycline

III.Amoxicillin

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

33. Which of the following substance my markedly reduce the bioavailability of alendronate

I. Food

II. Orange juice

III. Mineral water

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

34. Which of the following statements is/ are correct concerning the administration of dugs with food?

I. The absorption of theophylline is increased with a low fat content of breakfast.

II. The absorption of captopril is reduced by the presence of food by 30-40%.

III. Acarbose should be administered with food to obtain optimum benefit.

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

35. The absorption of the following angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors is/are altered by food:

A. Captopril

B. Enalapril

C. Lisinopril
 D. Ramipril

36. These are acute generalized reactions that occur when a previously sensitized person re exposed to a
particle antigen.

A. Cytotoxic reactions

B. Anaphylactic reactions

C. Immune complex mediated reaction

D. Cell mediated reactions

E. Delayed hypersensitivity reactions

37. These reactions involve the interaction of IgG or IgM. Clinical manifestations of this type reaction
include hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia and granulocytopenia.

A. Cytotoxic reactions

B. Anaphylactic reactions

C. Immune complex mediated reaction

D. Cell mediated reactions

38. These reactions result from the formation of drug antibody complexes in serum, which often deposit
in clood vessels walss, resulting in activation of complement and endothelial cell injury.

A. Cytotoxic reactions

B. Anaphylactic reactions

C. Immune complex mediated reaction

D. Cell mediated reactions

39. Rhus toxicodendron or poison ivy contains uroshiol a mixture of closely related C15 and C17
carechols. Uroshiol cause contact dermatitis. Contact dermatitis falls under what type of allergic drug
reaction?

A. Cytotoxic reactions

B. Anaphylactic reactions

C. Immune complex mediated reaction

D. Cell mediated reactions

 E. Immediate hypersensitivity raction

40. The dose frequency of exposure and route of administration influence the incidence of drug allergy.
Which of he following stateents is/are true?

I. Intramusular administration is more sensitive than intravenous route.

II. In patient who is already sensitized to a specific medication, the risk of an allergic reaction to that
medication is greatest when given intravenously and least when given orally.

III. In B- lactam antibiotic IgE sensitivity, continuous therapy is more likely result in drug sensitization
rather than frequent intermittent.

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

41. Allergic drug reactions account for 5-20% of all the observed adverse drug reactions. The clinical
features of this type of ADR include:

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

42. The consumption of grapefruit juice has been reported to increase the serum concentration of some
drugs. Which of the following drugs can be affected by grapefruit juice?

I. Amlodipine

II. Lovastatin

III. Cyclosporine

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

43. The intake of phenelzine with cheddar or pickled fish might result to:

A. hypertensive crisis

B. sedation

C. hyperglycemia

D. hypotension

E. hyperuricemia
44. A patient has been prescribed to take the anitibiotic Ampicilin. Unknown to the doctor she is also
using oral contraceptive pills and is taking this drug together with Ampicillin. This might result to:

I. increased chance of unwanted pregnancies

II. increase contraception

III. increase absorption of OCP

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

45. An epileptic woman takes 200mg phenytoin and 50mg of sulthiame daily ( with ferrous gluconate
and folic acid). Aside from these drugs, she is also taking oral contraceptive pills containing 0.05 ethinyl
estradiol and 3 mg northisterone acetate. What could be the probably happen to her?

I. increased chance of unwanted pregnancies

II. increased contraception

III. increased therapeutic effect OCP

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

46. An 8 yr old girl is on 800 carbamazepine and 50 mg phenytoin daily. Additional medication was
prescribed to her. Initially he was given 500 mg Erythromycin and later 1000mg daily. Within 2 days she
began experiencing balancing difficulties, ataxia, drowsiness, lethargy, and diplopia. This mainly due to

A. increased metabolism of carbamazepine by erythromycin

B. increased metabolism of phenytoin by erythromycin

C. increased metabolism of erythromycin

D. decreased metabolism of carbamazepine by erythromycin

E. . decreased metabolism of phenytoin by erythromycin

47. In the treatment of superficial demtophyte, Candida albicans and pityriaisis versicolor infectons, a
patient is given 00mg itraconazole. What would possibly happen if she will take this drug daily with
breakfast?

I. increased therapeutic effect

II. decreased therapeutic effect

 III. increased metabolism

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

48. A man with triple coronary vessel disease and 00 mg flecainide daily for recurrent ventricular
tachycardia, developed severe tachycardia, severe cardiogenic shock within 2 days of increasing
flecainide dosage to 300 mg daily and 1 day of starting 80 mg verapamil daily. What might be responsible
for this effect?

A. increased metabolism of verapamil

B. decreased metabolism of flecainide by verapamil

C. additive effects of both drugs

D. antagonistic effects of both drugs

E. increased absorption of both drugs.

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

49. An elderly man was on theophylline therapy. He was also given 4g thiabendazole daily for 5 days for
Strongyloides infestation. What might probably result from this situation?

I. No interaction between the drugs

II. Decreases metabolism of theophylline

III. increased serum levels of theophylline

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

50. A patient with a prolonged history of paroxysmal atrial tachycardia was given quinidine. (800mg
daily) and aspirin (325 mg twice daily). After a week he showed generalized petechiae and blood in his
feces. His PT and partial PT were normal but the template bleeding time was more than 3 min. ( normal
2-10min). This is because of the :

A. increased metabolism of verapamil

B. decreased metabolism of aspirin

C. additive effect of aspirin and quinidine

 D. decreased metabolism of quinidine

51. A hypertensive patient is on a 150mg guanethidine therapy. Haloperidol, an antipsychotic drug is

added, 9 mg daily, to his medication. What could you expect if his at the start is 132/95?

A.there would be a decrease in BP level

B.the BP level would approximately be the same or might increase

C.there would be an increase then followed by a sudden decrease

D. there would be fluctuation in the BP level reading

52. A patient is on constant daily doses of digoxin for 14 days. What would likely happen to his blood
digoxin levels if she is to be prescribed with amiodarone 600mg daily?

A.Increase blood levels

B.Decrease blood levels

C. No change

D.Fluctuation in the blood levels

E. Increase followed by sudden decrease

53. What is the probable mechanism of drug interaction existing between acetaminophen and
phenobarbital?

I.Increased acetaminophen clearance

II.Increased production of hepatotoxic metabolites of paracetamol

III.Increased absorption of acetaminophen

A.I only C. I and II E. I, II, and III

B.III only D. II and III

54. An epileptic on 100mg phenobarbital daily developed hepatitis after taking 1 g paracetamol daily for
3 months for headaches. What might be responsible to his hepatitis?

I.Increased or prolonged absorption of hepatitis

II.Increased metabolism of paracetamol

III.Decreased metabolism of paracetamol

A.I only C. I and II E. I, II, and III

B.II only D. II and III

55. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the use of aspirin and its interaction with
other drugs?

I.The uricosuric effects of aspirin and probenecid are additive.

II.The uricosuric effects of aspirin and probenecid are mutually anatagonistics.

III.Phenylbutazone increases the uricosuric effects of aspirin.

A.I only C. I and III E. I, II, and III

B.II only D. II and III

56. Disulfram-like reaction characterized by nausea, flushing, headache,tachycardia and dizziness can
occur in those patients taking:

I.Cefoperazone

II.Cefamandole

III.Cefotetan

A.I only C. I and III E. I, II, and III

B.II only D. II and III

57. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the concurrent use of alcohol and chloral
hydrate?

I.Alcohol and chloral hydrate are both CNS depressants thus exhibit additive effects.

II.The metabolic pathways for their elimination are mutually inhibited.

III.Trichloroethanol competitively depresses the oxidation of alcohol to aldehyde.

A.I only C. I and III E. I, II, and III

B.II only D. II and III

58. A patient is receiving Penicillamine for his arthritis. He also has hyperacidity and plans to take
Maalox. As a pharmacist, what would you advise to this patient?
 I.To take his antacid in less than 1 hour before the administration of penicillamine for better
therapeutic effects of the latter

II.To tale his antacid after 2 or more hours after the administration of penicillamine for better
absorption

III.To take the medications with milk

A.I only C. I and III E. I, II, and III

B.II only D. II and III

59. A patient who has tuberculosis is taking isoniazid as part of his medications. Which of the following
statements is/are true regarding his use of this drug together with other drugs/substances?

I.The use of fluconazole, an antifungal agent, decreases the effectiveness of isoniazid.

II.Food decreases the absorption of Isoniazid

III.Antacid decreases the absorption of Isoniazid

A.I only C. I and III E. I, II, and III

B.II only D. II and III

60. A patient on isoniazid therapy should avoid the following foods:

I.Cheese

II.Tropical fishes

III.Tuna

A.I only C. I and III E. I, II, and III

B.II only D. II and III

61. Which of the following drugs should not be administered concurrently with Warfarin as these agents
may cause increased bleeding tendencies?

I.Rifampicin

II.Carbamazepine

III.Erythromycin

A.I only C. I and III E. I,II, and III

B.II only D. II and III

62. A patient with prosthetic heart valve was well stabilized for several months on Warfarin. The
administration of which of the following drugs would cause him to have hemorrhagic complications like
bleeding?

I.Miconazole

II.Metronidazole

III.Methylphenidate

A. I only C. I and III E. I, II, and III

B. II only D. II and III

63. The administration of which local anesthetic/ should be avoided by a patient on sulfonamide
therapy?

I.Procaine

II.Benzocaine

III.Lidocaine

A. I only C. I and III E. I, II, and III

B. II only D. II and III

64. Four patients on sulphonamide developed local infections in areas where procaine had been injected
prior to diagnostic taps in meningitis or draining procedures in empyema. This happened due to:

I.The antibacterial effects of the sulfonamides are reduced

II.PABA, the metabolite of procaine, antagonizes sulfonamide competitively

III.Sulfonamide increases the metabolism of procaine tom PABA

A.I only C. I and III E. I,II, and III

B.II only D. II and III

65. A 5 year old boy is chronically treated with at least 20mg prednisone daily. Aspirin is added to her
medications while prednisone is being tapered off gradually to 2mg daily over a three period. What
would likely happen?

I.Salicylate intoxication

II.Increased clearance of aspirin

III.Increased gastrointestinal bleeding

A .I only

B. II only

C. I and III

D. II and III

E. I, II, and III

66. In treatment of arthritis involving indomethacin and probenecid as medications, it is necessary to:

A. increase the dosage of indomethacin because probenecid increases its clearance

B. increase the dosage of probenecid because indomethacin increases its clearance

C. reduce the dosage of indomethacin because of potential toxicity

D. reduce the dosage of probenecid because of uricosuric effects are increase

E. increase both dosages as each one can increase clearance

67. The serum salicycylate concentration of patient taking large doses of aspirin as anti inflammatory
agent can be reduce to sub therapeutic levels by concurrent use of some antacid.This statement is:

A. correct

B. incorrect

68. Caffeine + aspirin

A. caffeine increases the bioavailability of aspirin

B. caffeine increases the rate of absorption of aspirin

C. caffeine reduces the bioavailability of aspirin

D. no interaction exist

E. a&b

69. Tetracycline + diuretics

A. concurrent use should be avoided

B. increase blood urea nitrogen levels

C. no interaction exists
 D. A & B

70. Teratogenic drugs causer physical defects in the developing fetus. Which pregnancy drug category is
characterized if adequate, well- controlled studies in pregnant women have not shown an increased risk
of fetal abnormalities.

A. Category A C. . Category C E. . Category X

B. . Category B D. . Category D

71. Teratogenic drugs causer physical defects in the developing fetus. Which pregnancy drug category is
characterized if adequate, well- controlled or observational, in animals or pregnant women have
demonstrated a risk to the fetus ; however the benefits of therapy may outweigh the potential risk.

A. Category A C. Category C E. Category X

B. Category B D. Category D

72. Teratogenic drugs causer physical defects in the developing fetus. Which pregnancy drug category is
characterized if animals studies have shown an adverse effect and there are no adequate and well
controlled studies in pregnant women.

A. Category A C. . Category C E. . Category X

B. . Category B D. . Category D

73. Teratogenic drugs causer physical defects in the developing fetus. Which pregnancy drug category is
characterized if animals studies have revealed no evidence of harm to the fetus ; however there are no
adequate and well controlled studies in pregnant women ; or animal studies have shown an adverse
effect, but adequate and well controlled studies in pregnant women have failed to demonstrate a risk to
the fetus

A. Category A C. . Category C E. . Category X

B. . Category B D. . Category D

74. Teratogenic drugs causer physical defects in the developing fetus. Which pregnancy drug category is
characterized if the use of the product is contraindicated in women who are or may become pregnant.

A. Category A C. . Category C E. . Category X

B. . Category B D. . Category D

75. The primary hormone responsible for controlling breast milk production is prolactin. The following
are examples of the drugs that have been used to suppress lactation:

I. bromocriptine
 II. ergot alkaloids

III. methyl dopa

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

76. Which of the following statements regarding drug interactions is true?

A. All drug interactions can potentially cause an adverse response in the patient

B. The clinical significance for each potential drug interaction must be considered individually.

C. A precipitant drugs that inhibits the metabolism of the object drug causes a more serious drug
interaction compared to a precipitant drug causing an increase in the bioavailability of the object
drug.

D. If the patient is prescribed drugs that can potentially interact, the prescriber should be called,
and a different precipitant drug should be suggested.

E. Food drug interactions are unlikely to have clinical significance.

77. This type of drug interaction is caused by a chemical or physical incompatibility when 2 or more
drugs are mixed together.

A. biopharmaceutical

B. pharmacokinetic

C. pharmacodynamics

D. pharmaceutical

E. chemical

78. Which of the following should not be mixed with an IV of aminophylline?

I. epinephrine

II. cephalothin sodium

III. erythromycin gluceptate

A. I only

B. II only
C. I and III

D. II and III

E. I, II, and III

79. How do you classify a drug interaction that is very likely but might not be proven clinically?

A. established C. suspected E. unlikely

B. probable D. possible

80. How do you classify a drug interaction that might occur and some data might be available?

A. established C. suspected E. unlikely

B. probable D. possible

81. How do you classify a drug interaction supported by well proven clinical studies?

A. established C. suspected E. unlikely

B. probable D. possible

82. How do you classify a drug interaction that could occur; limited data are available?

A. established C. suspected E. unlikely

B. probable D. possible

83. How do you classify a drug interaction that is doubtful; no good evidence of an altered clinical effect
is available?

A. established C. suspected E. unlikely

B. probable D. possible

84. The absorption of which drugs is increased by the presence of food?

I. Griseofulvin

II. Metoprolol

III. NSAIDs

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

85. A smoker was prescribed with diazepam. What would likely happen if he continuous smokes while on
drug therapy?

A. enhanced effect of drug

B. decreased effectiveness of drug

C. No effect

D. Delayed elimination of drug in the body

86. A patient with hypothyroidism was successfully treated with 0.15mg thyroxine daily for 4 yrs. When
given with 300 mg phenytoin daily, he again became hypothyroidic. This is because:

A. phenytoin increased the metabolism of thyroxine

B. phenytoin competes with the same protein binding site with that of thyroxine

C. phenytoin binds thyroxine covalently

D. phenytoin antagonizes the effect of thyroxine

87. A woman with hypothyroidism failed to respond to levothyroxine despite taking 4.8 ug/ kg daily (
three times the usual dose) while on sucralfate. Her response remained inadequate ( TSH levels high, t4
levels low) even when the levothyroxine was taken 2.5 h after the sucralfate. This is beacause:

A. sucralfate increases the metabolism of levothyroxine

B. sucralfate competes with the same protein binding site with that levothyroxine

C. sucralfate binds with levothyroxine strongly

D. sucralfate antagonizes the effect of thyroxine

E. sucralfate increases the renal clearance of levothyroxine

88. Terfenadine is a prodrug which is metabolized first to an active carboxylic acid metabolite, and then
further oxidized to a second inactive metabolite. Which of the ff. dugs can inhibit the second metabolic
step which can lead to the accumulation of unmetabolized terfenadine which is cardiotoxic?

I. erythromycin

II. troleandomycin

III. azithromycin

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

89. Which of the following antibiotics can be given to a patients on theophylline wothou special
precautions?

I. amoxicillin

II. ampicillin

III. sulbactam

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

90. Which of the following drugs could cause an increased loss of caffeine from the body?

A. phenytoin

B. OCPs

C. fluconazole

D. disulfiram

91. Which of the following might occur in patients who are receiving both A- inhibitors and diuretics?

I. patients may feel dizzy or light headed within an hour of taking the first dose and acute
hypotension may occur

II. hyperkalemia

III. severe renal deterioration and failure in patients with renal stenosis

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

92. Which of the following NSAIDs appears to interact least significantly with Captopril, an ACE inhibitor?

A. indomethacin

B. ibuprofen

C. aspirin

D. sulindac

93. Neuromuscular blockers like succinylcholine should not be used together with aminoglycosides
antibiotic like streptomycin because this can result to:

I. increased neuromuscular blockage

 II. delayed recovery

III. prolong apnea

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

94. Which of the following statements is/ are true about interactions due to changes in excretion

I. inhalation anesthetics are excreted either in bile or in the urine

II. interference by drugs with kidney tubule fluid ph. With active transport system and with blood
flow to the kidney can alter the excretion of other drugs

III. the renal excretion of lithium is increased if the synthesis of renal vasodilatory prostaglandins
is inhibited.

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

95. Which of the following statements is/are true?

I. drugs which use the same active transport system in the kidney tubules can compete with one
another for the excretion

II. penicillin reduces the excretion of probenecid by competing for an excretory mechanism.

III.Methotrexate toxicity might result if this drug is used with salicylates

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

96.In protein binding interactions:

I. the binding of drugs to plasma proteins is reversible

II. only the unbound molecules remain free and pharmacologically active

III. only drug may successfully compete with another and displace it from sites it is already
occupying depending on their concentrations and the relative affinities for the binding sites.

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

97. This drug causes a malabsoption syndrome which is similar to that seen with non tropical sprue. The
effect is impaired absorption of a number of drugs including digoxin and penicillin V.

A. neomycin

B. streptomycin

C. gentamicin

D. amikacin

E. tobramycin

98. What is/ are the possible mechanism/s involved in the interaction of quinidine on serum digoxin
levels?

A. changes in renal clearance

B. changes in non renal ( biliary) clearance

C. changes in absorption

D. changes in tissue binding

E. all mentioned above are possible mechanisms

99. Most drugs are largely absorbed in the upper part of the small intestine and drugs which alter the
rate at which the stomach empties its contents can affect absorption. Which of the following statements
is/ are true?

I. propantheline increase gastric emptying and increase paracetamol absorption

II. metoclopramide increases gastric emptying and increases paracetamol absorption.

III. benzhexol reduces the absorption of chlorpromazine

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

100. The following drug/s is / are considered to be enzyme including drugs:

I. glutethimide

II. primidone

III. allopurinol

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

101. What type of surfactant should be used to retard hydroxide ion catalyzed hydrolysis?

I. non inonic

II anionic

III. cationic

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

102. Which of the following statements is/ are observed to be true?

I. storage below room temperature usually will retard solvolytic reactions

II. storage in the frozen state generally is an effective means of retarding degradative reactions

III. sodium ampicillin dissolved in 5% dextrose solution should be sold as frozen solutions in
flexible plastics bags.

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

103. The following statements/s is /are true about autoxidation or self oxidation:

I. this type of oxidation that occurs when solutions are exposed to atmospheric oxygen

II. this is a complex reaction that proceeds via a free radical mechanism

III. this is an autocatalytic reaction which causes a chain reaction.

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

104. This is a term used to describe drugs that elicit the same quality of effect and are mutually
interactive, regardless of whether there is anything in common between the separate response systems.

A. homergic

B. homodynamic

C. heterergic

D. synergistic
 E. additive

105. Two dugs are said to be ____ if the drugs do not cause responses of the same quality.

A. homergic

B. homodynamic

C. heterergic

D. summative

E. synergistic

106. What specific effect is exemplified in the use of an adrenal corticoid to enhance the vasoconstrictor
response to epinephrine?

A. additive

B. summative

C. potentiation

D. synergisim

E. augmentation

107. The use of atropine to suppress the muscarinic effects of excess acetylcholine consequent to the
use of neostigmine is an example of what type of antagonism?

A. physiological antagonism

B. pharmacological antagonism

C. pharmacokinetic antagonism

D. interactive antagonism

E. mechanical antagonism

108. The use of amphetamine to correct partially the sedation caused by anticonvulsant doses of
Phenobarbital is an example of what type of antagonism?

A. competitive antagonism

B. non competitive antagonism

C. pharmacological antagonism

D. physiological antagonism
 E. mechanical antagonism

109. The administration of ephedrine to correct hypotension resulting from spinal anesthesia is an
example of what type of antagonism?

A. competitive antagonism

B. noncompetitive antagonism

C. pharmacological antagonism

D. physiological antagonism

E. physical antagonism

110. In fixed dose or fixed ratio combinations, the drugs are together in the same preparation. The
statement/s is/ are true for this type of preparation:

I. patients differ in their responsivity or sensitivity to drugs and adjustments may be necessary

II. According to which way the dose may be adjusted, either toxicity or loss of the therapeutic
effect may result

III. when adverse effect to either component occur, both drugs must be discontinued.

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

111. Water taken concomitantly with certain drugs may increased their bioavailability. Which of the
following drugs, when administered with large amounts of water may have increased bioavailability?

I. aspirin

II. amoxicillin

III. erythromycin stearate

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

112. Which of the following drugs exhibit first pass metabolism?

I. ASA

II. imipramine

III. Morphine
A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

113. Which of the following drugs is/ are more than 90% bound to plasma proteins?

I. warfarin

II. phenylbutazone

III. penicillin

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

114. Which of the following statements is/ are true about the clinical impact of diseases on protein
binding and displacement?

I. disease can affect the affinity of drugs for albumin

II. in chronic renal failure, the accumulated endogenous compounds which are not significantly
removed by dialysis, displace acetic drugs from albumin sites

III. in disorders in which fatty acid levels are increased, basic drugs are removed from albumin
binding sites.

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

115. Which of the following condition can decrease albumin level?

I. pregnancy

II. nephrotic syndrome

III. burns

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

116. Which of the following conditions can increase albumin level?

I. hypothyroidism
 II. trauma

III. chronic liver disease

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

117.Which of the following conditions can cause increase a-1 acid glycoprotein in level?

I. nephrotic syndrome

II. celiac disease

III. crohn’s disease

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

118. A problem of increasing significance in the use of therapeutic drugs is the occurrence of drug
allergies. Drug allergies:

I. can be caused by drug interactions

II. can be caused by toxicity or overdose of drugs

III. result from an immunological response initiated by a drug metabolite

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

119. Drug allergies are very difficult to investigate because of several built- in complexities like:

I. drugs are degraded through a variety of enzymatic pathways, many of which are not known.

II. many medicinal agents are converted to a number of metabolites, each with slightly different
characteristics.

III. in some cases. A tiny amount of any one metabolite is all that is needed to initiate an immune
response and that amount may be so small that the metabolite may never have been identified in
laboratory studies.

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

120. The likelihood of the occurrence of drug allergies is influenced by any factors. Which of the
following factors may tend to increase the onset of drug allergies?

I. duration and number of courses of therapy

II. occurrence of interfering disease

III. other drugs being taken

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

121. Risk factors for ADRs include:

I. age of the patient

II. associated diseases

III. number of concurrent medications being taken

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

122. The type of medication being administered is also a risk factor in the development of ADRs. Most
studies have found that the following class cause the greatest incidence of ADRs:

I. antibiotics

II. analgesics

III. cardiovascular drugs

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

123. The following characterize/s type A ADR:

I .predictable

II. dose dependent

III. clearance dependent

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

124. Which of the following describe/s type B ADR?

I. idiosyncratic

II. dose dependent

III. allergic or immunogenic in nature

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

125. Carcinogenicity is under what type of ADR?

A. Type A

B. Type B

C. Type C

D. Type D

E. Type E

126. Extensive sedation caused by decreased clearance of a usual dose of a benzodiazepine is an

example of:

A. Type A

B. Type B

C. Type C

D. Type D

E. Type E

127. Anaphylaxis is:

A. Type A

B. Type B

C. Type C

D. Type D

E. Type E
128. Cardiotoxicity caused by doxorubicin is classified as what type of ADR?

A. Type A

B. Type B

C. Type C

D. Type D

E. Type E

129. This is a phenomenon in which the physiological and/ or psychological response to a substance is
decreased with continuous use of the same dose of that substance.

A. tolerance

B. withdrawal

C. dependence

D. insanity

130. This refers to the disturbing effects resulting from cessation of or reduction in, the prolonged or
heavy use of a substance.

A. tolerance

B. withdrawal

C. dependence

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

131. This refers to the physiological or physiological adaptations that occur in the response to the
frequent administration of a drug.

A. tolerance

B. withdrawal

C. dependence

D. psychosis
132. The acute effects of alcohol vary accordingly to the level of the drug in the blood, known as the
blood alcohol concentration ( BAC) . Which of the following are factors that influence BAC?

I. concentration of alcohol being consumed

II. rate of consumption

III. amount and composition of food in stomach

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

133. Gender related differences exist in pharmacological and toxicological response to alcohol. Which of
the following statements is/ are true?

I. females has a lower pass metabolism and gastric mucosal dehydrogenase activity than males

II. alcohol become more highly concentrated in males than females

III. alcohol dependence and related medial problems progress more rapidly in women than In
men.

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

134. A pregnant women should be advised to abstain from ingesting ethanol in any form because:

I. Children born in alcoholic mothers usually are underdeveloped and exhibit mental retardation

II. Cardiovascular aberrations including CHF and craniofacial abnormalities have been
documented as patterns of malformations in infants born to chronic alcoholic women

III. Any alcohol exposure can be harmful to an unborn child.

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

135. The term narcotic refers to any substance the produces stupor associated with analgesia. This term
is also applied to compounds derived from or related to opium. Which of the following is/ are true?

I. heroin is the most rapidly acting and widely abused opioids.

II. tolerance to heroin does not develop uniformly

 III. With frequent repeated administration, an individual becomes dependent on heroin so that
the drug must be taken regularly to preserve a sense of well being and equilibrium and to
prevent the anguish of abstinence syndrome.

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

136. Which of the following drugs can be used to treat heroin addicst?

I. methadone

II. levo a- acetyl methadol

III. buprenorphine

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

137. Barbiturates have been used as sedative hypnotic agents. The signs and symptoms of acute
barbiturate intoxication include:

I. visual perception

II. poor judgment

III. neurological impairment

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

138. The excessive use of which of the following non barbiturates could result to neurological
impairment, physiological and physical dependency and abstinence syndrome similar with barbiturate
abuse?

A. choral hydrate

B. Glutethimide

C. Methaqualone

D. chlordiazepoxide

E. LSD
139. This drug is a hypnotic agent and has gained a notorious reputation as the knock out drops added to
alcohol to create a drink referred to as a Mickey finn.

A. cholral hydrate

B. glutethimide

C. methaqualone

D. chlordiazepoxide

E. LSD

140. The following statements is/ are true about inhalants:

I. inhalants are volatile chemicals that produce psychoactive effects

II. intoxication occurs rapidly and lasts only a few minutes unless taken repeatedly

III. physical dependence on inhalants also develops.

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

141. Marijuana ( Cannabis sativa)

I. its active component is THC, α- 9 tetrahydrocannabinol

II. prolonged used may lead to serious pulmonary toxicity

III. depending on its potency, a marijuana cigarette can produce moderate to intense
psychopharmacological effects within minutes of administration.

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

142. Nicotine, a volatile liquid alkaloid is the constituent of tobacco that causes dependence. The
amount of nicotine absorbed varies according to:

I. type of tobacco used

II. the length of cigarette smoked

III. presence and type of filter used

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

143. Nicotine:

I. causes an initial CNS stimulation then follows CNS depression

II. increases catecholamine release from peripheral adrenergic neurons

III. salivary and bronchial secretions are initially decreased but later increased

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

144. Clinical indications for amphetamine include:

I. management of ADHD ( hyperkinetic syndrome)

II. symptomatic control of narcolepsy

III. treatment of exogenous obesity

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

145. This substance have been widely abused at parties and also has been to as smooth amphetamine.

I. MDMA

II. MDA

III. Ecstasy

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

146. The following statements is/ are about cocaine:

I. tolerance develops vary rapidly particularly when used daily

II. the craving for cocaine during withdrawal is very intense during the first 7 days.

III. there is no good correlation between the appearance of certain physical effects and
psychological alterations

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

147. Toxic effects of cocaine include:

 I. cardiac arrhythmias

II. myocardial infarction

III. cerebral hemorrhage

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

148. These are substance that alter the sensory processing in brain, causing depersonalization,
perceptual disturbances and changes in though processing.

A. hallucinogens

B. anabolic steroids

C. narcotics

D. depressants

149. This substance is one of the first phenyalkylamine hallucinogens identified and is isolated from the
flowering heads of the peyote cactus, Lophophora williamssi.

A. LSD

B. mescaline

C. dimethyltryptamine

D. phencyclidine

150. This substance is a short acting hallucinogen found in the seeds of Piptadenia peregrine.

A. LSD

B. mescaline

C. dimethyltryptamine

D. phencyclidine

151. Also known as angel dust, this is chemically and pharmacologically similar to a dissociative
anesthetic, ketamine:

A. LSD

B. mescaline

C. dimethyltryptamine
 D. phencyclidine

152. Anabolic steroids are synthetic derivatives of the male hormone testosterone. The compounds
promote:

I. masculine characteristics

II. skeletal muscle enlargement

III. increase lean mass

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

153. This/ these substance/s should be avoided when dispensing alum in powders because of the
development of gray or green colors due to the traces of iron in alum.

I. phenol

II. tannic acid

III. salicylates

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

154. Soluble zinc salts are precipitated as zinc hydroxide by alkali hydroxides including ammonium
hydroxide. Which of the following may also cause precipitation?

I. phosphates

II. oxalates

III. arsenates

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

155. Sodium borate can precipitate zinc salt as zinc borate. This incompatibility can be prevented by the
addition of an amount of_____ equal in weight to the sodium borate.

A. mineral oil

B. alcohol

C. NaCl
 D. glycerin

E. methanol

156. Camphor is a ketone obtained from Cinnamomum camphora . It is precipitated from its alcoholic
solution by the addition of which substance?

A. water

B. glycerin

C. alcohol

D. phenol

E. chloral hydrate

157. Which of the following substance or compounds would tend to form a liquid or soft mass when
brought in contact with camphor?

I. chloral hydrate

II. phenol

III. salicylic acid

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

158. Antacid are drugs that react with HCL to form salt and water. Antacids when absorbed can cause:

I. alkalosis

II. electrolyte imbalance

III. renal failure with milk alkali syndrome

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

159. Prolonged treatment with Aluminum containing antacids might cause:

I. neurotoxicity

II. phosphate depletion

III. osteoporosis
A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

160. Which of the following statements is/are true about Bismuth subsalicylate?

I. its excreted as bismuth sulfate

II. it may cause ringing of the ears when taken with aspirin

III. causes temporary darkening of stool and tongue

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. III only D. II and III

161. Which of the following statements is/ are true abiut calcium carbonate?

I. it is a systemic antacid

II. it can cause milk- alkali syndrome

III. it can cause diarrhea

A. I only C. I and II E. I,II and III

B. II only D. II and III

162. This antacid is a partial systemic antacid an is contraindicated for the patients on sodium restricted
diet?

A. Calcium carbonate
B. Magnesium hydroxide
C. Dihydroxyaluminum sodium carbonate
D. Bismuth subsalicylate
E. Magnesium trisilicate

163. Sodium bicarbonate is a systematic antacid. It reacts with HCI to produce CO2. In which conditions
should one limit the use of this antacid?

I. Renal failure
II. Hypertension
III. Cardiac failure
A. I only C. I and II E. I, II, and III
B. III only D. II and III
164. Antacid are used commonly in combination for the purpose of:

I. Combining fast and slow reacting antacids to obtain a product with a rapid onset and
relatively eve, sustained action.
II. Lower the dose of each component and minimize the possibility of certain adverse
effects
III. Use one component to antagonize one or more side effects of the other component
A. I only C. I and II E. I, II, and III
B. III only D. II and III

165. Cimetidine has been reported to reduce hepatic metabolism of drugs that are metabolized primarily
by cytochrome P450. Therefore, which drugs should be used with caution with cimetidine?

I. Warfarin
II. Phenytoin
III. Lidocaine
A. I only C. I and II E. I, II, and III
B. III only D. II and III

166. What is the pregnancy category of lansoprazole, a proton pump inhibitor?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. X

167. Pectin is a purified carbohydrate obtained from the dilute acid extract inner portion of the rind of
citrus fruits or from apple pomace. It is precipitated form the solution by an excess of___

A. Water
B. Alcohol
C. Acid
D. Glycerin
E. Benzene

168. Pectin is more stable in what type of solution?

A. Cold acid solution

B. Cold alkali solution
C. Solution of metals
D. Hot acid solution
E. Hot alkali solution
169. Which of the following statements is/are true about Diazoxide?

I. It is benzothiazide and thus, is also a diuretic

II. It can cause hyperglycemia thus, it is occasionally necessary to administer OHAs or
insulin to suppress hyperglycemia.
III. It can precipitate CHF especially if renal function is impaired.
A. I only C. I and II E. I, II, and III
B. III only D. II and III

170. Which of the following vasodilators can be used to treat toxemia of pregnancy?

A. Diazoxide
B. Hydralazine
C. Minoxidil
D. Nitroprusside
E. Amlodipine

171. Ganglionic blocking agents are contraindicated in which conditions?

I. Pyloric stenosis
II. Glaucoma
III. Myocardial infarction
A. I only C. I and II E. I, II, and III
B. III only D. II and III

172. ACE inhibitors are becoming the drugs of choice as the first line treatment of essential
hypertension. However when used with NSAIDs, the following can be noticed:

I. NSAIDs tend to increase the hypotensive effects of ACE inhibitors

II. NSAIDs tend to increase the likelihood of hyperkalemia
III. NSAIDs tend to decrease the hypotensive effects of ACE inhibitors
A. I only C. I and II E. I, II, and III
B. III only D. II and III

173. in patients on ACE inhibitors, the excretion of which ion or metal is reduced and thus tends to
produce intoxication?

A. Lithium
B. Sodium
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
E. Chloride
174. the following effects can be observed in patients on ACE inhibitors therapy:

I. Angioedema
II. First dose hypotension especially in patient on diuretics
III. Dry cough
A. I only C. I and II E. I, II and III
B. III only D. II and III

175. Cardiac glycosides have a low margin of safety, Toxicity is more likely in the presence of what
condition?

A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
E. Hypermagnesemia

176. The use of which drugs can precipitate digitalis intoxication?

I. IV Calcium salts
II. Amphotericin B
III. Mineralocorticoids
A. I only C. I and II E. I, II, and III
B. III only D. II and III

177. Aminophylline is indicated for bronchial asthma and for reversible bronchospasm associated with
chronic bronchitis and emphysema. It is approximately 80% theophylline. Which of the following can
cause precipitation of theophylline from aminophylline solution?

A. HCI
B. NaOH
C. NaCI
D. Water
E. Na2SO4

178. a1 agonist are contraindicated in patient with:

I. Arteriosclerosis
II. Hypotension
III. Coronary artery disease
A. I only C. I and III E. I, II, and iii
B. II only D. II and III
179.Epinephrine may cause severe cardiovascular side effects due to excessive alpha and beta receptor
stimulation. It should be used cautiously in patients who are:

I. Receiving halogenated hydrocarbon anesthetics

II. Hyperthyroidic
III. Diabetic
A. I only C. I and III E. I, II and III
B. II only D. II and III

180. When oxidized, that is when exposed to air light, heat and alkalies, epinephrine develops
a________ color.

A. Green
B. Pink
C. Yellow
D. Orange
E. Red

181. Muscarinic drugs should be used cautiously in patients with:

I. Open angle glaucoma

II. Hypertension
III. Hyperthyroidism
A. I only C. I and III E. I, II, and III
B. II only D. II and III

182. Physostigmine salicylate is used to treat poisoning by ant muscarinic agents, H1 antihistamines and
TCAs. Aqueous solutions tend to develop a___ color upon standing which signifies loss of potency.

A. Green
B. Brown
C. Red
D. Orange
E. Blue

183. A solution of Physostigmine salicylate which has lost potency should not be dispensed. To prevent
this from occurring, what should be added in small amount?

A. NaOH
B. Sodium carbonate
C. Boric acid
D. Water
E. NaCI
184. Which of the following statements is are correct for guanethidine?

I. It is used in the treatment of mild to moderate hypertension.

II. This drug is contraindicated in patients on MAOIs.
III. This drug is indicated for the treatment of pheochromocytoma.
A. I only C. I and III E. I, II, and III
B. II only D. II and III

185. Ant muscarinic drugs like atropine are used for anesthetic premedication, to inhibit excessive
salivary and bronchial secretions and prevent laryngospasm and bronchospasm. However, these drugs
are contraindicated to conditions like:

I. Narrow- angle glaucoma

II. Intestinal obstruction
III. Paralytic ileus
A. I only C. I and III E. I, II, and III
B. II only D. II and III

186. These drugs should be avoided when taking succinylcholine due to the possibility of increasing the
blocking effect of this neuromuscular blocking agent.

I. Propranolol
II. Trimethaphan
III. Halothane
A. I only C. I and III E. I, II, and III
B. II only D. II and III

187. Muscle paralysis with the depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs is increased by which
conditions?

A. Hyperthermia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypomagnesium
D. Hyponatremia
E. Hypochloremia

188. Which of the following statements is are true for glucocorticoids?

I. These drugs decrease the hypoglycemic activity of insulin and OHAs.

II. These drugs may precipitate hypokalemia with amphotericin B.
III. These drugs decrease the ulcerogenic effects of NSAIDs.
A. I only C. I and III E. I, II, and III
B. II only D. II and III
189. It is necessary to increase the dose of the adrenal corticosteroids when used with these drugs
because they increase the metabolic clearance of the corticosteroids.

I. Phenytoin
II. Rifampicin
III. Estrogen
A. I only C. I and II E. I, II, and III
B. II only D. II and II

190. Which of the following statements is/ are correct for codeine?

I. it can be precipitated from its aqueous solution by most alkaloidal precipitants.

II. it can be precipitated from its aqueous by sodium or potassium carbonate.

III. aqueous solutions are sufficiently alkaline to precipitate other less soluble alkaloids from solutions of
their salts

A. I only C. I and III E. I, II and III

B. II only D. II and III

191. Naloxone hydrochloride, a synthetic narcotic antagonists which is essentially devoid of narcotic
agonist properties, is incomplete with:

I. long chain or high MW anions

II. alkaline solutions

III. oxidizing ah=gents

A. I only C. I and III E. I, II and III

B. II only D. II and III

192. Which of the following drugs can produce a disulfiram like reaction when taken with alcohol?

I. Metronidazole

II. Cephalosporin

III. Milk

A. I only C. I and III E. I, II and III

B. II only D. II and III

193. The following are guidelines for reducing drug interactions:

I. employ combination therapy

II. identify risk factors

III. educate the patient

A. I only C. I and III E. I, II and III

B. II only D. II and III

194. Chloramphenicol can lead to this untoward drug reaction:

I. aplastic anemia

II. gray syndrome

III. SLE like syndrome

A. I only C. I and III E. I, II and III

B. II only D. II and III

195. The most important protein to which drugs can bind in the plasma:

A. albumin

B. lipoprotein

C. glycoprotein

D.α 1 acid glycoprotein

E. globulin

196. A drug induced hypersensitivity reaction caused by sulfonamides:

I. Parkinson’s Disease

II. Steven Johnson’s disease

III. Contact dermatitis

A. I only C. I and III E. I, II and III

B. II only D. II and III

197. Characterizes the first exposure of the fraction of the drug metabolized in the liver:
 A. first pass effect

B. drug receptor interaction

C. biotransformation

D. pharmacokinetics

E. clearance

198. Compounding is concerned with:

I. preparation of drugs

II. distribution of drugs

III. order of medicine

A. I only C. I and III E. I, II and III

B. II only D. II and III

199. An associated pharmacological effect of Chlorpheniramine maleate?

I. sedation

II. headache

III.nausea

A. I only C. I and III E. I, II and III

B. II only D. II and III

200. HLB is a system used to distinguish between

I. Suspending agents

II. Surfactants

III. Glidants

A. I only

B. II only

C. I & II

D. II & III
E. I, II, III

201. This container is impervious to air and other gases under ordinary conditions of handling storage
and transport:

A. Airtight container

B. Security closed

C. Hermetically sealed

D. Child-resistant

E. Tightly closed

202. Diuretics tend to enhance lithium toxicity due to:

I. Direct drug interaction

II. Sodium depletion

III. Potassium depletion

A. I only

B. II only

C. I & II

D. II & III

E. I, II, III

203. All of the following are untoward effects associated with cancer chemotheraphy:

I. Teratogenesis

II. Nausea

III. Alopecia and leukemia

A.I only

B. II only

C.I & II

D. II & III

E. I , II ,III
204. Involves the degradation of the drug or excipients trough reaction with the solvents presents in the
formulations:

A. Solvolysis

B. Oxidation

C. Photolysis

D. Polymerization

205. Degradation of drugs of excipients molecules brought by light, either room light or sunlight:

A. Solvolysis

B. Oxidation

C. Photolysis

D. Polymerization

206. Remedy when a solid sunbstance fails to dissolved in a liquid:

I. Addition of inert ingredients

II. Prepare an emulsion

III. Prepare a suspension

A. I only

B. II only

C. I & II

D. II & III

E. I, II, III

208. It occurs when drugs are mixed inappropriately in syringes of infusion prior to administration:

I. Pharmaceutical interaction

II. Pharmacodynamic interaction

III. Pharmacokinetic interaction

A. I only
B. II only

C. I & II

D. II & III

E. I, II, III

209.Decreased urinary recycling causes:

I. Increased elimination rate

II. Shortened duration of pharmacologic response

III.Increased halflife

A. I only

B. II only

C. I & II

D. II & III

E. I, II, III

210. Which statements is are correct regarding the interaction between tyramine and MAOIs?

I. Large amount of norepinephrine can cause severe headache and hypertension

II. The interaction would cause an increase in intracellular metabolism of tyramine

III. Large amounts of stored norepinephrine can cause hypotensive crisis

A. I only

B. II only

C. I & II

D.II & III

E. I, II, III

211. Acidic group of amino acids responsible for binding basic drugs:

A. Aspartic

B. Glutamic
 C. Lysine

D. A & B only

E. AOTA

212. The approved clinical used of the based on substantial evidence of the safety of the drug:

A. Warning

B Formulation

C. Pharmacologic category

D. Indication

E. NOTA

213. Instruction and special care to avoid effects and to ensure the safe and effective use of the product:

A. Warning

B. Precautions

C. Contraindications

D. Indication

E.NOTA

214. This contains the conditions to which the use of the product is known to be associated to an
unacceptable risk.

A. Warning

B. Precaution

C. Contraindication

D. Indication

E. NOTA

215. Mixtures of phenolic aldehydes, ketonic compounds and alcohols are example of:

A. Insoluble substances

B. Hygroscopic substances

C. Deliquescent substances
 D.Eutectic mixtures

EA&D

216. Substances which absorb moisture form the air but do not dissolve are called:

A. Hygroscopic powders

B. Effervescent powders

C. Deliquescent powders

D. Anhydrous powders

E. Efflorescent powders

217. alkaline salts like phenytoin sodium when placed in an acidic medium will results in:

I. Precipitation of phenytoin

II. Insolubility

III. Conversion into free acid

A. I only

B.II only

C. I & II

D. II & III

E. I, II, III

218. S pans and tweens are:

A. Highly polymerized mannuronic acid anhydrides

B. Phospoholipids

C. Polyoxyalkalene derivatives

D. Glycosides

E. NOTA

219. Which of the following drugs undergoes marked hydrolysis in the GI tract?

A. ASA
 B. Penicillin G

C. Acetaminophen

D. Hydrocortisone

E. Chlortetracycline

220. Lidocaine HCI is not administered orally because:

I. Ineffective by this route

II. Can cause arrhythmias

III. Too toxic by this route

A. I only

B. II only

C. I & II

D. II & III

E. I, II, III

221. The following responses belong to type B adverse drug reaction:

I. Facial abnormalities in babies born to alcoholic mother

II. Peripheral neuritis in British missionary ill with tuberculosis

III. Allergy of Cefotaxime

A. I only

B. II only

C I & II

D. II & III

E. I, II, III

222. The most serious drug-induced blood disorder:

A. Aplastic anemia

B. Leukemia
 C . Agranulocytosis

D. Thrombocytopenia

223. A reaction that is noxious and unintended and occurs in doses used in man for prophylaxis,
diagnosis and theraphy:

A. Drug interaction

B. ADR

C. Adverse drug event

D. Pharmacodynamics effects

E. NOTA

224. the degradation reaction of ASA involves:

A. Hydrolysis

B. Racemization

C. Oxidation

D. Photolysis

E. Reduction

225. Alcohol is a specific potentiating agent when used with:

A. Penicillin

B. Racemization

C. Oxidation

D. Photolysis

E. Reduction

226. Which of the following statement is/are true about lidocaine HCI?

A. Coadministration with propranolol decreases activity

B. Concomitant administration with phenytoin may induce excessive cardiac depression

C. Additive neurological effects may be produced during concurrent administration with

procainamide
 D. B & C only

E. AOTA

227. If a therapeutic intervention is necessary all of the following information should be communicated
to the presciber:

I. A declaration that a “ mistake was made”

II. A brief description of the problem

III. A reference source that documents the problem

A. I only

B. II only

C. II & II

D.II & III

E. I, II, III

228. The following information should be recorded on a prescription:

I. Prescription number

II. Date of filling

III. Expiration date

A. I only

B. II only

C. I & II

D. II & III

E. I, II, III

229. The following are drug-related problems which need an immediate attention:

I. Adverse effects from medication

II. Symptoms due to undertreatment

III. Undiagnosed condition

A. I only
B. II only

C. I & II

D. II & III

E. I, II, III

230. Auxiliary and cautionary labels should be utilized for the purposed of:

A. Ensuring proper usage

B. Informing of storage requirements

C. Warning against concomitant use of certain drugs or foods

D. A & B only

E. AOTA

231. Salicylates are used to relive mild to moderate pain and reduce inflammation and fever, however,
they create interaction when used other drugs. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. They potentiate the effect of anticoagulants and thrombolytic agents.

II. They potentiate (at anti-inflammatory doses) the effects of hypoglycemic.

III. They potentiate the adverse gastrointestinal reaction resulting from chronic NSAID use.

A. I only

B. II only

C. I & II

D.II & III

E.I, II, III

232. Which of the following antipyretics should not be used together with Zidovudine?

A. ASA

B. Acetaminophen

C. Ibuprofen

D. A & B only

E. All of the above

233. Acetaminophen should be used with caution in patients who are:

A. Prone to bleeding disorders

B. Sensitive to GI disturbances caused by salicylates

C. Active alcohol drinkers

D. A & C only

E. All of the above

234. All OTC first generation antihistamines have sedative effects but vary in the degree of drowsiness
produced. Which of the following generation antihistamines has the most sedating effect?

A. Brompheniramine

B. Chlorpheniramine

C. Pheniramine

D. Pyrilamine

E. Disphenhydramine

235. Which of the following classes of first-generation antihistamines act as the most potent HI
antagonists and have lower incidence of drowsiness when compared to others?

A. Alkylamines

B. Ethylenediamines

C. Ethanolamines

D. Piperidines

236. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine and antitussive agent. Which of the following statements
is/are correct for diphenhydramine?

I. Acts peripherally to elicit its antitussive effect.

II. It may produce sedation

III. It may produce symptoms of dry mouth, blurred vision and urinary retention

A. I only

B. II only

C. I & II
D. II & III

E. I, II, III

237. What laxative should be recommended to pregnant patients?

A. Bisacodyl

B. Castor oil

C. Mineral oil

D. Psyllium

E. Sennosides

238. Mineral oil works at the colon to increase water retention in the stool to soften the stool. Mineral
oil should not be given to patients with:

A. Rectal bleeding

B. Appendicitis

C. Lipid pneumonitis

D. A & C only

E. AOTA

239. Mineral oil as a laxative should be given:

A. On an empty stomach

B. To children less than 6 years old

C. Dsyphagic patients

D. A & C

E. NOTA

240. Which local anesthetic should be used to treat symptoms of pain, itching, burning and discomfort in
patients with an established lidocaine allergy?

A. Tetracaine

B. Dibucaine

C. Pramoxine
 D. Benzocaine

E. AOTA

241. Which of the following drugs most commonly causes constipation?

A. Ampicillin

B. Narcotic analgesics

C .Drugs with anticholinergic properties

D. B & C only

E. AOTA

242. The use of garlic is used with caution in patients who are:

A. Diabetic

B. Pregnant

C. With peptic ulcer

D. B & C only

E. AOTA

243. Which of the following statements is/are correct about ginger?

A. It is contraindicated for gallstone pain

B. It is suggested to avoid the use of ginger for the treatment of postoperative nausea

C. It acts as uterine relaxant in low doses and acts as uterine stimulant in high doses

D. A & B only

E. AOTA

244. Teratogenic drugs cause physical defects in developing fetus and this risk is highest the first
trimester. Which of the following is/are teratogenic drugs.

A. Warfarin

B. Tretinoin

C. ACE inhibitor

D. A & B only
 E. AOTA

245. Which of the following analgesics is safe and effective for pregnant patients?

A. Ibuprofen

B. Acetaminophen

C. Narcotic analgesics

D. Naproxen

E. A & D only

246. Ebstein’s anomaly also known as tricuspid valve malformation can results from the administration
of this drug during the first trimester of pregnancy.

A .Lithium salts

B. Anticonvulsants

C. Antibiotics

D. NSAIDS

247. Fetotoxic drug effects are the results of the pharmacological activity of the drug that may
physiologically affect the developing fetus. Clinically significant fetotoxic effects include:

A. CNS depression

B. Constriction of the ductus arteriousus

C. Reduced birth weight

D. A & C only

E. AOTA

248. These drugs should be used with caution in nursing mothers:

A. Narcotics

B. Barbiturates

C. Anticholinergics

D. A & B only
 E. AOTA

249. Which of the following statements is/are true for geriatric patients?

A .Elderly patients are at increased risk for drug-induced adverse effects

B. Incidence of ADRS in patients over the age of 65 is 2-3 greater compared to younger patients.

C. ADRs are overlooked in some patients because they mimic the characteristics of other
diseases

D. A & B only

E. AOTA

250. These are factors responsible for the higher prevalence of ADRs in the geriatric population:

A. Polypharmacy

B. Multiple disease states

C. Reduced drug elimination

D. B & C only

E. AOTA

251. Which of the following medications may have the potential to cause falls in geriatric patients?

A. Amitrytilline

B. Trazodone

C. Acetaminophen with codeine

D. Diazepam

E. AOTA

252. When selecting a benzodiazepine product for a woman who has chronic panic disorder, all of the
following drug properties are desirable for breast feeding her 8 month old infant who was born at term:

A. Hepatic metabolism to inactive metabolites

B. Short half life

C. Tendency to bind to milk proteins

D. A & B only
 E AOTA

253. Which of the following drugs is expected to cause anticholinergic adverse effects in the elderly?

A. Propoxyphene

B. Ciprofloxacin

C .Amitryptilline

D. Propranolol

E.Cimetidine

254. Which of the following antihypertensive agents should be avoided in elderly patients?

A. Amlodipine 5mg OD

B. Atenolol 25mg OD

C. Benazepril 10mg OD

D. Hydrochlorothiazide 25mg OD

E. Methyldopa 250mg TID

255. Which of following benzodiazepines is expected to cause the LEAST amount of adverse effects in the
elderly?

A.Chlordiazepoxide

B. Diazepam

C. Flurazepam

D. Oxazepam

E. Temazepam

256. Which of the following calcium channel blockers has been associated with a significant degree of
constipation?

A. Nifedipine

B. Diltiazem

C. Verapamil

D. Amlodipine
 E. Felodipine

257. A positive Coombs’ test develops in 25% of the patients who take this drug:

A. Captopril

B. Metoprolol

C. Methyldopa

D. Clonidine

E. Nifedipine

258. Beta blockers should be used with caution in patients who are:

A. Diabetic

B. Hypertensive

C. With glaucoma

D. Hyperthyroid

E. With history of migraine

259. Hydralazine is a vasodilator which directly relaxes arterioles and decreases systematic vascular
resistance. This drug can induce:

A. SLE

B. Reflex tachycardia

C. Hypertrichosis

D. Methemoglobinemia

E. Aplastic anemia

260. Long standing hypertension leads to tissue damage in all of the following organs:

A. Heart

B. Lungs

C. Kidneys

D. A & C only

E. AOTA
262. First dose syncope, postural hypotension and palpitations are common side effects of which drug?

A. Ramipril

B. Methyldopa

C. Nitroprusside

D. Prazosin

E. Nadolol

263. Aminoglycosides can cause serious adverse effects like ototoxicity. Which drugs can cause vestibular
damage?

A. Amikacin

B. Kanamycin

C. Neomycin

D Gentamicin

E. AOTA

264. Aminoglycosides are bactericidal and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30s
ribosomal subunit which of the following aminoglycosides is the most nephrotoxic?

A. Kanamycin

B. Streptomycin

C.Amikacin

D. Gentamicin

E.Neomycin

265. This is the least nephrotoxic of the aminoglycoside group of antibiotics:

A. Kanamycin

B. Streptomycin

C. Amikacin
 D. Gentamicin

E. Neomycin

266. This is the only aminoglycoside that can result to both auditory and vestibular damage:

A. Tobramycin

B. Gentamicin

C. Streptomycin

D. Netilmicin

E. Amikacin

267. Nearly all cephalosporins are renally eliminated, thus their doses must be adjusted for patients with
renal impairment. Which of the following cephalosporins is/are not renally excreted?

A.Cefaclor

B. Cefuroxime

C. Cephalexin

D. Cefoperazone

E.AOTA

268. An elderly patient taking 160mg gliclazide daily developed very blood sugar levels after starting
treatment with 800mg cimetidine daily. This is because:

A. Cimetidine inhibits the metabolism of gliclalzide

B. Cimetidine induces the metabolism of gliclazide

C. Cimetidine inhibits the absorption of cimetidine

D. Additive effects of gliclazide and cimetidine

E. A & D

269. A diabetic woman under treatment with glibenclamide experienced an acute hypoglycemic episode
4 days after beginning to take 200mg phenylbutazone three times a day, although there was no change
in his diet or in the dosage of glibenclamide. This is because

A. Additive effects of the 2 drugs

 B. Phenylbutazone displaces glibenclamide from the protein binding sites

C. Phenylbutazone inhibits the renal excretion of glibenclamide

D. B & C only

E.AOTA

270. Diabetic patients with severe falciparum malaria were treated with quinine. They were also under
treatment with chlorpropramide. What would most likely happen given this situation?

A. ( sir wala pong nakalagay dito ☺ )

B. The patient will experience severe hypoglycemia

C. The patient will still have elevated blood sugar level.

D. The patient will not recover form malaria

E. The patient will manifest quinine toxicity.

271. This has been associated with use of Zafirlukast and Montelukas:

A .Gray syndrome

B. Tumor lysis syndrome

C. Churg- strauss syndrome

D. Herxheimer reaction

272. Osteoporosis is associated with the use of which of the following drugs used in RA?

A. Prednisone

B. Methotrexate

C. Penicillamine

D. Gold salts

E. Hydroxychloroquine

273. In which of the following groups do all four drugs warrant careful monitoring for drug-related
seizures in high risk patients?

A. Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazole

B. Penicillin G, chloramphenicol, tetracycline, vancomycin

 C. Imipenem, tetracycline, vancomycin,sulfadiazine

D. Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine

E.Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin

274. all of the following factors may increase the risk of nephrotoxicity from gentamicin therapy:

A. Age over 70 years

B. Concurrent cisplatin therapy

C. Concurrent amphotericin b therapy

D. A & B only

E. AOTA

275. These are diseases or conditions that alter antiepileptic drug- protein bindings:

I. Hyperalbuminea

II. Liver disease

III. Burns

A. I only

B. II only

C. I & II

D. II & III

E.I, II, III

276. Which of the following antiepileptic drug increases the level of carbamazepine?

A. Phenytoin

B. Primidone

C. Phenobarbital

D.Valproic acid

277. False-positive urine ketone tests may results in patients taking this antiepileptic drug:
 A. Valproic acid

B. Carbamazepine

C. Primidone

D. Phenytoin

278. This antiepileptic drug has an auto induction metabolism property:

A. Phenytoin

B. Carbamazepine

C. Valproic acid

D. Primidone

E. Ethosuximide

279. These medications decrease the levels of phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital and primidone
by enhancing their metabolism:

A. Oral contraceptives

B. Oral hypoglycemic

C. Glucocorticoids

D. TCAs

E. AOTA

280. Which anticonvulsive drug has a higher incidence of kidney stones among its users?

A. Phenytoin

B. Carbamazepine

C. Topiramate

D. Tiagabine

281. Which of the following anticonvulsants is contraindicated in patients with a history of

hypersensitivity to tricyclic antidepressants?

A. Phenytoin

B. Ethosuximide
 C. Acetazolamide

D. Cabamazepine

282. This anti-parkinsonian agent may cause a first-dose phenomenon that can trigger sudden
cardiovascular collapse.

A. Bromocriptine

B. Selegiline

C. Pergolide

D. Amantadine

E. NOTA

283. Bromocriptine is responsible for directly stimulating postsynaptic dopamine receptors. It is most
commonly used as an adjunct to levodopa therapy in patients:

I. With a deteriorating response to levodopa

II. With a limited clinical response to levodopa secondary to an inability to tolerate higher doses

III. Who are experiencing fluctuation in response to levodopa

A. I only

B. II only

C. I & II

D. II & III

E. I, II, III

284. This medication is commonly used as an adjustment with levodopa/carbidopa when patients
experience a “wearing-off” phenomenon.

A. Bromocriptine

B. Selegiline

C. Pergolide

D. Amantadine

E. Pramipexole

285. Levodopa is associated with which of the following problems?

 A. GI disturbances

B. Postural hypotension

C. Dystonia

D. Depression

E. AOTA

286. Which of the following mood stabilizers would be most appropriate in a patient with liver disease?

A. Lithium

B. Valproic acid

C. Carbamazepine

D. AOTA

287. Cimetidine, the first H2-receptor antagonist approved for clinical use may be associated to which
adverse effects?

A. Thrombocytopenia

B. Agranulocytosis

C. Aplastic anemia

D. A & B

E. AOTA

288. Proton pump inhibitors (PPI) are more potent than H2 blockers. The absorption/bioavailability of
this PPI is not reduced or delayed by food:

A. Esomeprazole

B. Lansoprazole

C. Omeprazole

D. Pantoprazole

289. Which of the following antacid cannot be used by patients with heart failure?

A. Sodium bicarbonate

B. Aluminum hydroxide
 C. Calcium carbonate

D. Magnesium hydroxide

290. Patients taking chlorpropamide should avoid products containing:

A. Acetaminophen

B. Ethanol

C. Vitamin A

D. Penicillin

E. Milk products

291. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (SPS) is a potassium-removing resin that exchange sodium ions for
potassium ions in the intestine. Adverse effects of SPS include:

A. Constipation

B. Diarrhea

C. Vomiting

D. B & C only

E.AOTA

292. Loop diuretics like Furosemide, inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption at the loop of henle,
promoting water excretion. These agents may cause:

A. Hypercalcemia

B. Hypermagnesemia

C. Hypokalemia

D .B & C only

E.AOTA

293. Life threatening cardiac arrhythmias due to hyperkalemia should be treated with:

A. Calcium chloride or calcium gluconate IV

B. Digoxin or other digitalis preparations

C. Loop diuretics to rapidly eliminate potassium

 D .Sodium polystyrene sulfonate

294. Erythropoietin is used commonly to treat the anemia associated with chronic renal failure. Which of
the following conditions limits the effectiveness of erythropoietin?

A. Patient’s allergy to erythropoietin

B .Depletion of iron stores, requiring oral or parenteral supplementation

C. The ineffectiveness if erythropoietin as 30% of patients do not respond

D. The anemia of chronic renal failure is not due to a lack of erythropoietin so erythropoietin will
not ameliorate.

295. This chemotherapeutic agent is most likely associated with cardio toxicity:

A .Vincristine

B. Doxorubicin

C. Paclitaxel

D. Bleomycin

296 This chemotherapeutic agents is most likely associated with pulmonary toxicity:

A. Vincristine

B .Doxorubicin

C. Paclitaxel

D. Bleomycin

297. Tramadol is an oral, centrally acting analgesic with weak opiate activity. Which of the following
statements is/are true about tramadol?

I. It can increase the sedative effect of alcohol and hypnotics.

II. It inhibits monoamine uptake and should not be used with MAOIs

III. It can cause “serotonim syndrome” when used with SSRIs

A. I only

B. II only

C. I & II

D. II & III
E. I, II, III

298. Potential adverse effects of aspirin include:

I.GI ulceration

II.Hypersensitivity asthma

III.Cardiac arrhythmias

A. I only

B. I only

C.I & II

D.II & III

E.I, II, III

299. These are agents that are safe to use in a patient with bleeding problems:

I.Choline Mg trisalicylate

II.Acetaminophen

III.Ketorolac

A. I only

B. II only

C. I & II

D .II & III

E. I, II, III

300. Leflunomide which is used for RA and has been associated with diarrhea, alopecia and anemia is
under what pregnancy category?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. X
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

DISPENSING

1. Upon dispensing the pharmacist what is the vital information can the pharmacist give when a patient buys calcium
supplement.

A. Calcium's absorption is enhance with Vitamin D

B. Calcium's absorption is enhance with Vitamin E

C. Calcium's absorption is deterred with Vitamin D

D. Calcium's absorption is deterred with Vitamin E

2. What would be the appropriate auxillary label one can use in dispensing system

A. For external use only C. Shake the bottle before using

B. Store in a cool dry place D. Both B and C

3. A patient asks what constitutes Combivent. Combivent is a combination of

I. Ipratropium Br II. Albuterol SO4 III. Metaproterenol

A. I only C. II and III only

B. I and II only D. All of the above

4. If the dispensing order requires the insulin that has the shortest duration of action and the fastest onset of
action, then the insulin to be given is _________.

A. Humulin R C. Humaloq

B. Lantus D. Novoloq

5. The strength of folic acid in OTC vitamins should not exceed

A. 1 mg C. 0.4 mg

B. 10 mg D. 10 mcg

6. The medication requires Sumatriptan which is mainly indicated for treatment of:

A. Cancer therapy induced nausea and vomiting

B. Migraine

C. Depression

D. Seizure

7. Which of the following anti HPN helps in the treatment of diabetes?

A. Verapramil C. HCTZ

B. Enalapril D. Amiloride

8. A patient with antabuse for his treatment of alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following product(s) should not be
taken with antabuse?

I. Theophylline Na glycinate Elixir

II. Theophylline elixir

III. Theophylline tablet

A. I only C. II and III only

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

B. I and II only D. All of the choices given

9. A patient under Ketorac treatment should avoid the following drugs except:

A. Meclizine C. Gold compound

B.Cefotetan D. Methotrexate

10. After initiation therapy, Mr. J.T suddenly suffers from spasm of the face and neck. Which of the following drug(s)
should not be given to alleviate the above symptoms?

I. Diazepam injection

II. Diphenhydramine

III. Benztropine

A. I only C. II and III only

B. I and II only D. All of the above

11. When dispensing Ferrous sulfate vitamin to a patient, which precaution should Pharmacist give to the patient?

A. Avoid tea or coffee because it reduces iron absorption by as much 50%

B. Avoid vitamin A because it reduces iron absorption.

C. Avoid Tetracycline because it activates iron.

D. Avoid Aspirin because iron can cause elevated levels of aspirin in the blood.

12. Which is not a routine procedure for dispensing prescription?

A. Check the legal requirements C. Provide patient advice

B. Dispense the correct product D. Inaptness of the prescription

13. Which is the most appropriate cautionary and advisory label for Brufen?

A. Do not take anything containing aspirin while taking this medicine.

B. This medicine may color the urine.

C. Take with or after food.

D. Do not take indigestion remedies at the same time of day as this medicine.

14. Which of the following drugs should be avoided by patient with liver disease as this may increase risk of bone
marrow suppression?

A. Apomorphine C. Antacids

B. Chloramphenicol D. Carbamazepine

15. Pharmacist should counsel pregnant women not to take NSAID's drugs during the entire period of
pregnancy because:

A. With regular use closure of fetal ductus arteriosus in utero may occur.

B. Risk of neural tube defects may be increased.

C. Placental perfusion may be reduced.

D. Genital malformations and cardiac defects may be developed.

16. Which is the most appropriate cautionary and advisory label for Nalidixic?

A. Avoid alcoholic drink.

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

B. May cause drowsiness.

C. Avoid exposure of skin to direct sunlight or sun lamps.

D. Do not stop taking this medicine except on your doctor's advice.

17. Pharmacist should counsel pregnant women not to take Theophylline during the entire period of pregnancy
because:

A. Possibility of premature separation of placenta in first 18 weeks may occur.

B. Neonatal irritability and apnea may develop

C. Congenital anomalies may develop.

D. Neonatal respiration may be depressed.

18. In evaluating the appropriateness of the prescription and medication order, the pharmacist should check the
following, except:

A. The patient’s disease or condition requiring treatment.

B. The prescribed route of administration.

C. The biological action of the prescribed product.

D. The auxillary and cautionary labels

19. In selection of the proper package or container,the pharmacist choose the container that:

A. Ensure the product stability

B. Comply with legal requirements

C. Promote patient compliance

D. All of the choices given

20. In order to ensure proper medication use, storage and compliance with applicable statutes, what should be
affixed on the label of the drug?

A. expiration date of the mediation

B. Auxillary and/or cautionary labels

C. Quantity of medication dispensed

D. Product strength

21. It is a part of patient profile which is necessary to assess the appropriateness of the dose:

A. Birth date and weight

B. Clinical condition

C. Direction for use

D. Medication strength

22. In performing therapeutic intervention, the following information should be communicated to the prescriber,
except:

A. Brief description of the problem

B. Reference source that documents the problem

C. Description of the clinical significance of the problem

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

D. Possible physical and chemical incompatibility

23. Detection of drug-related problems requires an assessment of the need for a change in drug therapy. Possible
problem includes the following, except:

A.Inappropriate compliance C. Wrong drug

B. Dose too low D. Undiagnosed condition

24. In dispensing antifungal medication for skin, the patient should be instructed to:

A. Exposure to air whenever possible

B. Use caution with Povidone-iodine in anyone with allergies

C. Keep area covered at all times with cream and sterile dressing

D. Avoid combination of cholinergic medications

25. In dispensing Accutane for acne, which is the most appropriate instruction that should be given to the patient?

A. Avoid multivitamins that contain Vitamin A

B. Keep area covered at all times with cream and sterile dressing

C. Avoid prolong use

D. Discontinue and seek medical aid if irritation occurs

26. What is the most appropriate patient education for those undergoing ulcer therapies?

A. Avoid Cigarette smoking, this seems to decrease the effectiveness of medicine in the healing of duodenal
ulcers

B. Adequate fluid intake and bland diet.

C. Aboid self medication for longer than 48 hours

D. Regular exercise to develop muscle tone.

27. It is an example of eutectic substance

A. Aspirin C. Citirc acid

B. Camphor D. Color formation

28. Which is not a manifestation of chemical incompatibility?

A. Evolution of gas C. Precipitation

B. Immiscibility D. Color formation

29. The term applied to reaction of organic compounds with water resulting in fragmentation into its component
molecule is:

A. Ionic hydrolysis C. Simple hydrolysis

B. Molecular hydrolysis D. None of the above

30. It is classified as one of the human errors in dispensing, which are always physical in nature and are defined as
unintended actions rather than as error in judgment.

A. Slips C. Mistakes

B. Lapses D. None of the above

31. It is classified an error in dispensing which is usually either due to inattention or over attention

A. Knowledged-basesd error C. Medication-based error

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

B. Rule-based error D. Skill-based error

32. Which is not an example of slips of human error?

A. Fatigue C. Boredom

B. Forgetfulness D. Frustration

33. It is classified as one of the human ewrrors in dispensing, which largely refer to failures in memory

A. Slips C. Mistakes

B. Lapses D. Rule-based error

34. Before dispensing Theophylline prescription, Pharmacist must advise the patient to:

A. Avoid acid foods like orange juice and tomato

B. Take food rich in lipids.

C. Take on an empty stomach with a glass of water

D. Take with foods but avoid foods rich in protein and cabbages.

35. It is classified as an error in dispensing which are usually due to either the misapplication of good rules/
procedures, or application of bad rules/ procedures.

A. Knowledgedd-based error C.Rule-based error

B. Medication-based error D. Skill-based error

36. It is an error in judgment, and in most situations, it is made as either a failure of expertise or lack of experience.

A. Slips C. Mistakes

B. Lapses D. Skill-based error

37. The following drugs should be taken on an empty and with a glass full of water, except:

A. Tetracycline .C. Rifampicin

B. Metronidazole D. Lincomycin

38. It is the most complex error type which is made within the realm of problem solving and judgment.

A. Knowledged-based error C.Rule-based error

B.Medication-based error D. Skill based error

39. Situation(s) in which Pharmacists are more likely to make mistakes in dispensing.

A. Excessive reliance on memory and lack of standardization

B. Inadequate availability of information

C. A only

D. Both A and B

40. The benefits of electronic prescribing and dispensing are the following, except:

A. Rapid information exchange

B. Better clarity and communication of prescription information

C. Amplify fraud risks present in the paper – based process

D. Improved confidentiality and security of health information

41. Common errors in dispensing can result from:

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

A. Unfamiliarity with drug names C. Newly available products

B. Similar packaging or labeling D. All of the choices given

42. In the management of chronic conditions, Pharmacist can help by:

A. Demonstrating the value of pharmacy

B. Helping in developing local “shared care” protocols

C. Training for other professionals and careers

D. Developing drugs

43. Computerized patient medication records allow Pharmacist to:

A. Counsel the patient on the appropriate use of medicines

B. Monitor patient compliance

C. Provide health promotion information

D. All of the above

44. The medication dispensing area should be designed to prevent errors by:

A. Providing staffing and other resources appropriate to the workloads

B. Taking action when adverse reactions occur

C. Storing requirements of the medication

D. Providing accurate and usable drug information.

45. Duty of Pharmacy assistants in dispensing process, except:

A. Record and file the prescription

B.Get the payment for the product

C. Deliver the drug product

D. Give the price of the product

46. In order for the Pharmacist to adhere to the standard dispensing procedures, he/she must not:

A. Verify doubtful prescriptions from the paitent

B. Checked dose limits

C. Checked the potential interaction between any medicine currenlty taken and the drug on the prescription

D. Advise the patient on the proper use of the medications.

47. In the dispensing of outpaitent medication, the pharmacist mus not do the following, except:

A. review all appropriate information regarding prescription refills

B. Be personally present for supervision

C. None of the above

D. All of the above

48. Which of the following conditions is/ are a consequence of wrongly dispensing Fentanyl with Sufentanil or vice
versa?

A. Episodes of respiratory arrest due to potency difference betwwen the two drugs

B. Severe toxicity and death

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

C. Decline in mental status

D. Cardiovascular complications

49. Which of the following conditions is/are a consequence of wrongly dispensing Cisplatin with Carboplatin or vice
versa?

A. Episodes of respiratory arrest due to potency difference between the two drugs

B. Severe toxicity and death

C. Decline in mental status

D. Cardiovascular complications

50. Which of the following conditions is/are a consequence of wrongly dispensing Celebrex with Cerebryx or vice
versa?

A. Episodes of respiratory arrest due to potency difference betwwen the two drugs

B. Severe toxicity and death

C. Decline in mental status

D. Cardiovascular complications

51. According to the FDA, pharmacist can help in fixing the problem of drug name confusion through the following
means, except:

A. Verifying with the doctor information that is not clear before filling a prescription

B. Keeping look-alike, sound-alike products separated from one another on pharmacy shelves

C. Avoiding stocking the multiple product sizes together

D. Separate the products of the same packaging

52. Dose designation(s) that sholud be avoided to prevent misinterpreatations:

A. Trailing zero after decinmal point

B. Naked decimal point

C. Large doses without properly placed commas

D. All of the choices given

53. What is the most common cause of medication errors?

A. Miscommunication between physicians, pharmacist and nurses

B. Incomplete pateint medication information

C. Misunderstood abbreviations

D. Illegible doctor’s writing on the prescriptions

54. It is defined as any preventable event occuring in the medication-use process, including prescribibg,
trnascribing, dipensing, using and monitoring, which results in inappropraite medication use or paitent harm.

A. Prescribing error C. Dispensing error

B. Medication error D. Knowledged-based error

55. An error which ooccurs when a patient is given a medication other than the one intended by the prescriber.

A. Prescribing error C. Dispensing error

B. Medication error D. Knowledged-based error

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

56. A physical incompatibility wherin 2 or more liquids fail to dissolve or mix with one another.

A. Insolubility C. Precipitation

B. Immiscibility D. Liquefaction

57. Forms of liquefaction where ther is lowering of metling point of the substances lower than their individual melting
point.

A. Eutexia C. Deliquescence

B. Hygoscopy D. All of the above

58. A type of drug action which is vanishing and disappearing gradually.

A. Evanescent C. Cumulative

B. Steady D. All of the above

59. Bulk-forming laxatives are the choice for older adults or laxative-dependent patients. Patients who are using this
laxative should be strictly instructed by the pharmacist to

A. Avoid its use longer than one week without medical supervision

B. Discontinue if any signs of diarrhea or abdominal pain occurs.

C. Dissolve the laxative in one full glass of water and followed by another glass of fluid to prevent
obstruction

D. Avoid exposure to sunlight

60. The following are instructions necessary to patients who are taking decongestant, except:

A. To be used only for few days to avoid rebound congestion.

B. To be avoided when cardiac and thyroid conditions are present

C. To discontinue when its side effects set in, such as nervousness, tremor, headache, etc.

D. To avoid all estrogen and progestin products.

61. Celeberex is contraindicated for those individuals allergic to which of the following drugs?

A. Penicillin C. Sulfa Drugs

B. Aspirin D. Quinolones

62. The follwoing are the common causes of medication errors, except:

A. Failed comminication C.Lack of the patient education

B. Dose miscalculations D. All of the choices given

63. A type of incompatibility which occurs when norepinephrine is added to sodium carbonate.

A. Physical incompatibility C. Therapeutic incompatibility

B. Chemical incompatibility D. All of the choices given

64. Incompatibility problems are common in mixtures containing;

A. Mannitol C. Nutritional solutions

C. Bicarbonate D. All of the choices given

65. Which of the following drugs must be protected from light during administration to maintain their stability?

A. Na nitroprusside and Amphotericin B

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

B. Gentamicin and Heparin

C. Penicillin and Chloramphenicol

D. Erythromycin and Penicillin

66. A patient is carrying prescription of Ampicillin, which of the following advises can the Pharmacist give to the
patients upon dispensing?

A. Take with food

B. Do not take with food

C. Avoid foods rich in proteins

D. Taken on an empty stomach with a glass of water and avoid acid foods

67. Factors commonly associated with chemical incompatibility for I.V. admixtures except:

A. Drug concenbtration C. Color change

B. pH of the solution D. Temperature and light

68. The incompatibility which occurs between Chloramphenicol and Penicillin.

A. Chloramphenicol potentiates the effect of Penicillin

B. Chloramphenicol antagonizes the Penicillin’s antibacterial action

C. Penicillin inhibits Chloramphenicol antibacterial action

D. Synergistic effect of Penicillin with Chloramphenicol

69. The following factors can affect the compatibility of an I.V. drug or solution, except:

A. Light C. Contact time

B. Pressure D. Temperature

70. Incompatibbility which occurs when Heparin solution is mixed with an intermittent Aminoglycosides infusion is
manifested with the following, except:

A. Precipitation C. Gas bubbles

B. Color change D. Cloudiness

71. An incompatibility observed when Amiodarone HCl 12.5 mg /mL is mixed with Clavulanic acid 10 mg/mL.

A. Immediate lactescence (milky appearance)

B. Immediate yellow coloring

C. Initial heavy orange turbidity becoming red-orange liquid with red precipitate

D. Immediate Opalescence

72. An incompatibility observed when Rifampicin 6mg/mL is mixed with Tramadol 8.33 mg/mL

A. Immediate lactescence (milky appearance)

B. Immediate yellow coloring

C. Initial heavy orange turbidity becoming red-orange liquid with red precipitate

D. Immediate Opalescence

73. An incompatibility observed when Pantopropazole 8mg/mL is mixed with Midazolam 0.1 mg/mL

A. Immediate lactescence (milky appearance)

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

B. Immediate yellow coloring

C. Initial heavy orange turbidity becoming red-orange liquid with red precipitate

D. Immediate Opalescence

74. All of the following instruction must be given by the pharmacist to the patients who are going to take digitalis,
except:

A. Avoid abrupt withdrawal after prolonged use; must be reduced gradually under physician supervision.

B. Avoid all OTC medications, especially antacids and cold remedies.

C. Avoid changing with other brand or dosage form for it may act differently

D. Rise slowly from reclining position

75. Patient education for inhaled corticosteroid treatment would include all of the following except:

A. Rinse equipment after use C. Expect dry mouth

B. Use of bronchodilator D. Rinse mouth after

76. Patients who are going to take antihistamines must be advised by the Pharmacist to avoid its use for a longer
period of time because:

A. It can increase bronchial or nasal congestion and dry cough.

B. It can cause nervousness, tremors, dizziness and conclusion

C. It can increase blood pressure

D. It can increase blood sugar

77. The following are effects of food on drugs, except:

A. Change drugs absorption C. Interact with drugs

B. Neutralize drug effects D. Influence their absorption

78. Patients who are using oral contraceptives should be informed by the Pharamcist that its frequent use can result
in a deficiency of which vitamin B?

A. Vitamin B5 C. Vitamin B6

B. Vitamin B1 D. Vitamin B12

79. Which of the following advises can you give to the patients on Griseofulvin therapy?

A. Take with foods rich in lipids

B. Avoid food rich in proteins and cabbages

C. Avoid foods rich in vitamin K

D. Avoid acid foods

80. Vitamins are considered drugs if/when;

A. They are prescribed

B. They are recommended

C. They are used for pharmacological effects

D. Vitmains are not drugs, they are nutrients

81. Large intake of this vitamin can cause CNS malformations, cleft palate and other severe fetal defects. Which of
the following vitamins should not be taken by pregnant women due to its severe fetal defects?
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

A. Vitamin A C. Vitamin E

B. Vitamin B D. Vitamin D

82. Zinc taken during pregnancy can cause:

A. Premature deliveries C. Liver damage

B. Stillbirths D. Both A and B

83. Benefits derived from good physician-patient interaction, except;

A. Patient’s compliance with therapy

B. Patient’s have more trust in their caregiver

C. reduced resistance to therapy and management

D. Increase patient’s self-medication

84. Whent the pharmacist is faced with a prescription they are not familiar with, they may read it as something they
are familiar with and this called

A. Drug confusion C. Lapses

B. Confirmation bias D. Wrong dispensing

85. Medication errors due to failed communication, except;

A. Poor handwriting

B. Mispronounciation of a medication is not the same.

C. Doses normally used with the medication are not the same.

D. hastily written prescription

86. The following are the benefits of electronic dispensing, except:

A. Boost fraud risks present in the paper-based process.

B. Improved confidentiality and security of helath information

C. Better clarity and communication of prescription information

D. More time for consumers with health professionals due to less paperwork.

87. Based on 2005 survey, the most frequent error(s) in dispensing inappropriate dose is /are:

A. No actual problem C. Poor communication

B. Lack of knowledge of the drug D. All of the above

88. Most common types of medication error in community setting, except:

A. Incorrect dose C. Substitution

C. Quantity not specified D. Dose not specified

89. An error committed when a person begins to lose focus.

A. Skill-based error C. Rule-based error

B. Knowledge-based error D. Lapses

90. the most appropriate cautionary and advisory label for Diclofenac sodium.

A. Taken with or after food

B. Taken an hour before food or an empty stomach

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

C. Dissolved under the tongue

D. This medicine may color the urine.

91. Pregnant woman should be advised not to take ACE inhibitors due to its adverse effect(s) which include(s):

A. Possible skull defects C. Both A and B

B. Oligohydramnios D. Impaired platelet function

92. Reconstituted Acyclovir sodium has a pH of 11, this can destabilize drugs such as ______ which oxidize rapidly
at high pH. Which among the drugs can be destabilized when mixed with Acyclovir?

A. Epinephrine and Norepinephrine C. Acetycholine and Norepinephrine

B. Epinephrine and Dopamine D. Acetycholine and Dopamine

93. Acyclovir when mixed with HCl salts of amine containing drugs, like Diltiazem HCl, Meperidine HCl, etc., will
show an incompatibility will be produced?

A. Color change C. Insolubility

B. Evolution of gas D. Precipitation

94. The following are drugs which should not be mixed with drug containing surfactants because it may produce
precipitation and cloudiness, except:

A. Benzyl alcohol C. Gentamicin

B. Ciprofloxacin D. Penicillin

95. Which of the following advises can the Pharmacist give to patients on Hydrochlorothiazide therapy?

A. Take with or without food, but always on the same condition.

B. Avoid foods rich in Vitamin K.

C. Not take after 18 o’ clock so that it doesn’t interfere with the sleep.

D. Take wiith food rich in lipids.

96. Beta-lactam anitbiotics Penicillin and Ampicillin show accelerated hydrolysis when mixed with drugs like:

A. Dopamine C. Streptomycin

B. Erythromycin D. Carbenicillin

97. Degradation of Gentamicin may occur when:

A. There is a decrease in pH C. Diluted of surfactants

B. Diluted of antioxidants D. Diluted of salts

98. According to ASHP, the stability of unpreserved parenteral is:

A.Within 1 week if refrigerated

B.Within 1 month if frozen

C. 28 hours from preparation if stored at room temperature.

D. All of the above

99. Patients who are using Naproxen sodium should be advised by the Pharmacist to:

A. Take the medicine with food and stay erect during 15 to 30 minutes.

B. Take the medicine on an empty stomach and stay erect during 15 to 30 minutes
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

C. Take 20 minutes before meals

D. Avoid acid foods.

100. Patients on Tetracycline therapy should be advised by the pharmacist to:

A. Take on empty stomach and with a glass of water

B. Stay erect during 15 to 30 minutes

C. Avoid drinking milk

D. All of the above

101. The following drugs shold be taken 20 minutes before meals, except:

A. Verapramil C. Prednisone

B. Meyoclopramide D. Furosemide

102. Before dispensing ferrous sulfate vitamin to patients, the Pharmacist must counsel the patient with the following
advises, except:

A. Do not take together with milk

B. Avoid foods rich in proteins

C. Take with food it causes gastric disturbance

D. Swllow the drug wothout chewing

103. Acid produces ulcer and patients with ulcers should not be given with _______ drug because it is acid-
producing

A. Antihistamine C. Diuretic

B. Antibacterial D. Antidepressant

104. General factors to be considered injudging the safety of a prescribed dose except;

A. Physiological states of the patient C. Frquency of administration

B. Pathologic condition of the patient D. Site of absorption of the drug

105. When the combined effects of 2 drugs are equal to the sum of their individual effect, it is known as:

A. Potentiation C. Summation

B. Synergism D. Additive

106. If the combined effects are equal to those expected for drugs acting by the same mechanisms.

A. Potentiation C. Summation

B. Synergism D. Additive

107. Kwell, used to treat lice infestations, is contraindicated in all of the following conditions, except:

A. Infancy C. Pregnancy

B. Obesity D. Older fault

108. The following precautions must be instructed to the patients with the use antacids, except:

A. Blurred vision C. Electrolyte imbalance

C. Constipation D. Osteoporosis
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

109. Reduction of gastric juices by antiulcer agents on a regular basis for extended periods can deplete an intrinsic
factor, which is necessary for the absorption of which vitamin B?

A. Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin B12

B. Vitamin B2 D. Vitamin B6

110. Patients on Isoniazid therapy should be strictly advised by the Pharmacist not to take ______ because of
increase possibility of liver toxicity

A. Phenytoin C. Alcohol

B. Corticosteroid D. Warfarin

111. The pharmacist should advise patient to avoid sunlight when she or he is on:

I. HCTZ

II. Thioridazine

III. Tetracycline

A. I only C. II and III only

B. I and II only D. All of the choice given

112. All of the following are adverse effects of gold compounds except:

A. Diarrhea C. Stomatitis

B. Abdominal pain D. Lipoatropy

113. Which of the following antihistamine(s) is/are nonsedative histamines?

I. Cetirizine

II. Terfenadine

III. Astemizole

A. I only C. II and III only

B. I and II only D. All of the choice given

114. The minimum weighable quantity for class A prescription balance is:

A. 100 mg C. 60 mg

B. 80 mg D. 120 mg

115. Mr. Edward Cullen is taking Verapramil SR 240 mg for the treatment of his BP. The pharmacist may tell him
that he must be careful using the following drugs except:

A. Atenolol C. Disopyramide

B, Digoxin D. Indomethacin

116. Which of the following drugs should not be used for more than 10 days for allergic conjunctivitis?

A. Ketorolac C. Azelastine

B. Loteprednol D. Tetrahydrazoline

117. The deficiency of which of the following may increase the chances of bleeding?

A. RBC C. T lymphocytes

B. WBC D. Thrombocytes
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

118. Trimethobenzamide should be avoided in patients who are suffering from:

A. Ulcers C. HPN

B. Reye’s syndrome D. Depression

119. If a patient seek additional information of her state – Multiple sclerosis: a pharmacist may emphasized that the
part that is damage in the brain is the ______.

A. Nephron C. Parietal cells

B. Myelin sheath D. Bowman’s capsule

120. Furosemide is available in:

I. Tablet II. Oral solution III. Injection

A. I only C. II and III only

B. I and II only D. All of the choice given

121. Which of the following NSAID’s is a prodrug?

A. Diclofenac C. Diflunisal

B. Ibuprofen D. Indomethacin

122. A patient has “High cholesterol” if his total serum cholesterol value greater than

A. 120 mg/dL C. 180 mg /dL

B. 360 mg/dL D. 240 mg/dL

123. The patient is allergic to Amitriptyline. Which of the following seizure drug(s) should be avoided because of
allergy problem?

I. Carbamazepine

II. Cyclobenzapine

III. Valproic acid

A. I only C. II and III only

B I and II only D. All of the choice given

124. Upon dispensing Phenytoin a pharmacist may advise the patient that is major Adverse drug action is/are:

I. Gingival hyperplasia

II. Lupus erythematosus

III. Ataxia

A. I only C. II and III only

B. I and II only D. All of the choice given

125. Hydrochlorothiazide causes all of the following except:

A. Hypokalemia C. Hyperuricemia

B. Hypercalcemia D. Hyperglycemia

126. A deficiency of which of the following may lead to goiter?

A. Magnesium C. Iodine
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

B. Aluminum D. Fluorine

127. Which of the following anti – fungal agent(s) is/are useful in the treatment of oral candidiasis?

I. Itraconazole

II. Clotrimazole

III. Nystatin

A. I only C. II and III only

B. I and II only D. All of the choice given

128. Patient allergic to Cyclosporine need to avoid:

I. Sandimmune

II. Gengraf

III. Remeron

A. I only C. II and III only

B. I and II only D. All of the choice given

129. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about anorexia nervosa?

A. It is a genetic disease characterize by weight loss

B. It is common adult females

C. May because by excessive use of laxative.

D. Fluoxetine is indicated for the treatment

130. Mrs. Bella comes into the pharmacy to find drugs use in Philippines. Pharmacist may suggest all of the
following reference materials except

A. Martindale Extra Pharmacopeia C. USP adopted name

B. Index nominum D. All of the above

131. The pharamacist may provide information on the patient who orders Insulin Lispro that its onset of action is:

A. 5-15 mins C. 8 – 16 hours

B. 30 – 60 mins D. 1- 2 hours

132. Which of the following histamine is specially used in the treatment of vertigo?

A. Loratidine C. Cetirizine

B. Clemastine D. Meclizine

133. A patients asks on what vitamins is needed for Night blindness.

A. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D

B. Vitamin A D. Vitamin E

134. When one dispenses which benzodiazepine has a prolonged duration of action?

A. Alprazolam C. Flurazepam

B. Triazolam D. Oxazepam

135. In the drugstore saquinavir should be stored in the refrigerator, however, once brought to room temperature it
can be used out within.
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

A. 1 day C. 3 months

B. 1 week D. 1 hour

136. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of vasodilators?

A. Hypotension C. Edema

B. Tachycardia D. Weight loss

137. Which drug would you advise the patient not to take together with Cimetidine?

I. Maalox

II. Ketoconazole

III. Theophylline

A. I only C. II and III only

B. I and II only D. All of the choice given

138. Hepatic toxicity is more common with:

I. Iproniazid

II. Phenelzine

III. Tranylcypromine

A. I only C. II and III only

B. I and II only D. All of the choice given

139. Methylphenidate SR is generally indicated for the treatment of

A. Parkinson’s disease C. Attention Deficit Syndrome

B. Weight reduction D. Pain reliever

140. Which of the following should be carefully dispensed with Selegiline

I. Meperidine

II. Fluoxetine

III. Tyramine

A. I only C. II and III only

B. I and II only D. All of the choice given

141. Calcium Acetate is indicated for the treatment of:

A. Hypocalcemia C. Hypercalcemia

B. Hypophosphatemia D. Hyperphosphatemia

142. Which of the following is a short acting barbiturate?

A. Phenobarbital C. Butarbital

B. Amorbarbital D. Pentobarbital

143. Administration of which of the following drugs requires caution when using Fenofibrate?

A. Erythromycin C. Risperidone

B. Warfarin D. Levofloxacin
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

144. The major side effect of Doxorubicin is

I.Cardiac failure

II. Liver failure

III. Renal failure

A. I only C. II and III only

B. I and II only D. All of the choice given

145. Which of the following drug is indicated for the treatment of Cisplatin toxicity?

A. Acetycysteine C. Amifostine

B. Aniplatin D. Naltrexone

146. If a patient asks for active ingredient if Actiq. The pharmacist should give

A. Filgrastim C. Interferon – alfa

B. Fentanyl D. Foscarnet

147. Toxic substance used as anti – knock in fuel additive, and in the manufacture of electric cable, hose and pipes:

A. Magnesium C. Lead

B. Iron D. Cobalt

148 Cimetidine is used commonly as

A. Anti – histaminic C. Antacid

B. Histamine 2 antagonist D. Antihistamine

149. An anti – viral agent

A. Amantadine C. Cytarabine

B. Vinblastine D. Dapsone

150. One advice the pharmacist may explain upon dispensing Ferrous Sulfate supplement is that it may discolor the
stool

A. Black C. Red

B. Orange D. Cream

151. Adverse effects associated with Guanethidine include

I. Orthostatic hypotnesion

II. Enhanced sensitivity to sympathomimetics

III. Diarrhea

IV. Sedation

A. I, II, and III D. IV only

B. I and III E. All of the choices given

C. II and IV

152. Adverse effects associated with Hydralazine include:

I. Reflex tachycardia

II. Hypertichosis
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

III. Lupus syndrome

IV. Orthostatic hypotension

A. I, II, and III D. IV only

B. I and III E. All of the choices given

C. II and IV

153. Factors associated with increased risk toxicity during Captopril therapy include:

I. Bilateral renal artery stenosis

II. Congestive Heart Failure

III. Systemic Lupus erythematosus

IV. Female

A. I, II, and III D. IV only

B. I and III E. All of the choices given

C. II and IV

154. Diazoxide, a drug used for treatment of hypertensive crisis, is most closely related to:

A. Nitrofurantoin D. Thiazide diuretics

B. Sulfonamides E. Nitrates

C. Dopamine agonists

155. Which of the following drugs is (are) known to include hyperuricemia and occasionally to bring about an acute
gouty attack?

A. Salicylates (6g/day) D. Thiazide diuretics

B. Chlorthiazide E. All of the above

C. Phenytoin

156. Undesirable side effects of Reserpine include:

A. Bradycardia C. Diarrhea

B. Postural hypotension D. All of the above

157. Propranolol may cause all of the following except:

A. Bradycardia C. Hyperglycemia

B. Bronchiolar constriction D. Reduced myocardial contractility

158. Alpha methyldopa has been used successfully in the control of hypertension. It side effects include all of the
following except:

A. Positive direct Coomb’s test D. Fever

B. Diarrhea E. Nephrotic syndrome

C. Hemolytic anemia

159. A 48 – year olod salesman with known hypertension complains of a decreasing annual income, a loss of
“drive”, and a depressed outlook on life. His blood pressure is normal on medication. The antihypertensive drug
most likely to be the cause of his new complaint is:

A. Hydralazine D. Hydrochlorothiazide
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

B. Alpha methyldopa E. Guanathedine

C. Reserpine

160. Side effects of medication are often responsible for a patient not complying with the prescribed drug regimen.
An agent which has somnolence as a primary side effect is

A. Methyldopa C. Guanethedine

B. Hydralazine D. Captopril

161. One of the mechanisms for “resistance” to an antihypertensive drug regimen is retention of salt and water and
an increase in extracellular fluid volume. Agents which have been shown to cause retention of salt and water include

A. Methyldopa C. Guanethedine

B. Clonidine D. All of the above

162. What advice regarding Midazolam as an adjunct to anesthesia can you provide as drug information to patient?

A. Provides analgesia

B. Provides adequate skeletal muscle relaxation alone

C. Useful for ameliorating seizure activity

D. Produces cardiovascular stimulation

E. Containdicated in patients with asthma COPD

163. Which of the following statements is not true regarding bupivacaine, a local anesthetic with a molecular
structure that includes an amide linkage?

A. Undergoes hepatic metabolism

B. Rapidly hydrolized by plasma esterase enzymes

C. Contraindicated in a patient with a history of allergy to lidocaine

D. Higher dose necessary to induce epidural anesthesia than spinal anesthesia

E. Higher risk of systemic side effects when used for epidural anethesia compared to spinal anesthesia

164. Which of the following statement is not true regarding local anesthetics?

A. Produce effects by inhibiting voltage gated sodium channels

B. Inhibition of sodium channels enhanced by repetitive depolarizations

C. Small nerve fibers more susceptible than large nerve fibers

D. All sensory functions of a nerve affected equally at onset of anethesia

E. Vasoconstriction prolongs duration of action

165. The pharamcist must always be aware of possible drug interactions. Aluminum hydroxide antacids tend to
interfere with the gastrointestinal absorption of

A. Cephalexin D. Chloramphenicol

B. Penicllin G E. Tetracyline

C. Erythromycin

166. All of the following are progestin components of oral birth control pills EXCEPT

A. Norgestrel D. Mestranol

B. Norethidrone acetate E. Levonorgestrel

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

C. Ethynodiol diacetate

167. Side effects of thiourea anti-thyroid medications (Propylthiouracil and Methimazole) include

A. Hyperthyroidism D. SIADH

B. Priapism E. Iodism

C. Agranulocytosis

168. Flutamide is an anti-androgen. Possible therapeutic uses of anti-androgens include

A. Male contraception

B. Hirsutism and virilization in women

C. Acne and baldness in both sexes

D. Prostatic cancer

E. All of the above

169. Dermatologic side effects of corticosteroid therapy include

A. Acne D. Ecchymosis

B. Striae, thinning of the skin E. All of the above

C. Telangiectasia

170. Agents which may be useful for treating hyperthyroidism include all of the following except:

A. Propylthiouracil D. Propranolol

B. Coricosteroids E. Bromocriptine

C. Lugol’s solution of Potassium iodide

171. Potential side effects of therapy with chlorpropamide include all of the following except

A. Syndrome of inappropriate diuretic ADH secretion (SIADH)

B. Antabuse reaction

C. Skin rash

D. Lactic acidosis

E. Hypoglycemia

172. Statements which explain the mechanism of action of oral sulfonylurea agent include all of hte following except:

A. Decreased hepatic glucose production

B. Increased tissue sensitivity to insulin

C. Increased insulin binding to insulin receptor

D. Correct of post receptor defects which contribute to insulin

E. Regenerate beta cells of the pancreas

173. Hyponatremia has been associated with carbamazepine and certain oral hypoglycemic agents. Oral
hypoglycemic agents which have been associated with SIADH include

A. Glipizide D. Chlorpropamide

B. Acetazolamide E. Acetohexamide
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

C. Tolazamide

174. Potential side effects associated with amiodarone therapy include

I. Pneumonitis

II. Pseudocyanosis

III. Photosensitivity

IV. Parotiditis

A. I, II, III D. IV only

B. I, III E. All of the choices given

C. II, IV

175. Adverse effects associated with Disopyramide therapy include

I. Urinary retention

II. Constipation

III. Blurred vision

IV. Lupus syndrome

A. I, II, III D. IV only

B. I, III E. All of the choices given

C. II, IV

176. Bronchiolar constriction is a rare but potentially dangerous side effect of

A. Quinidine D. Phenytoin

B. Lidocaine E. Propranolol

C. Procainamide

177. All of the following are common side effects of Quinidine administration except:

A. Diarrhea D. Tinnitus

B. Nausea and vomiting E. Headache

C. Dry mouth

178. Impaired vision is an adverse effect of:

A. Carbenicillin D. Colistin

B. Ethambutol E. Cycloserine

C. Rifampin

179. Various drugs may induce vitamin deficient states as an undesirable side effect. Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
deficiency may be related to taking

A. Estrogen containing oral contraceptives

B. Colchicine

C. Isoniazid

D. All of hte choices given

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

180. Most adults who are at high risk of developing pulmonary tuberculosis should be treated with

A. Isoniazid 100mg/day for 6 months

B. Isoniazid 300mg/day for 12 month

C. Ethambutol 400mg/day for 12 months

D. Rifampin 600mg/day for 24 months

E. no treatment is necessary

181. An antitubercular agent which is associated with the development of ocular toxicity is

A.Rifampin D. Streptomycin

B. Ethambutol E. Para-aminosalicylic acid

C. Isoniazid

182. Which of the following antitubercular agents is associated with the development of toxicity?

A.Rifampin D. Streptomycin

B. Ethambutol E. Para-aminosalicylic acid

C. Isoniazid

183. Which of the following antibiotics is most closely associated with the development of ocular toxicity?

A.Kanamycin D. Isoniazid

B. Penicillin G E. Ethambutol

C. Tetracycline

184. Which of the following antibiotics is most closely associated with the development of hepatitis?

A.Kanamycin D. Isoniazid

B. Penicillin G E. Ethambutol

C. Tetracycline

185. Which of the following antibioitcs is most closely associated with the development of renal and ototoxicity?

A.Kanamycin D. Isoniazid

B. Penicillin G E. Ethambutol

C. Tetracycline

186. Which of the following agents used in the treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis has the side effect of loss of
perception of the color green?

A. Isoniazid D. Streptomycin

B. Rifampin E. Para-aminosalicylic acid

C. Ethambutol

187. Which of the following agents used in the treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis has a toxicity of producing a
lupus-like syndrome?

A. Isoniazid D. Streptomycin

B. Rifampin E. Para-aminosalicylic acid

C. Ethambutol
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

188. Isoniazid – induced liver damage

A. Occurs primarily in patients under 30 years of age

B. Occurs with increased frequency in patients receiving concomitant ethambutol therapy

C. Probably due to the formation of a toxic hydrazine metabolite that binds to liver protein

D. Frequently associatd with allergic manifestations such as eosinophilia, fever and rash

E. All of the choices given

189. Doxorubicin is asociated with:

I. Cardiac disease

II. Myelosuppression

III. Gastrointestinal toxicity

IV. Nephrotoxicity

A. I, II, III D. IV only

B. I, III E. All of the choices given

C. II and IV

190. Allopurinol is potentially dangerous if used in combination with mercaptopurine because of:

I. Inhibition of hypoxanthine – guanine phosphoribosyl – transferases

II. Inhibition of Xanthine oxidase

III. Inhibition of guanylate kinase

IV. Accumulation of the chemotherapeutic drug

A. I, II, III D. IV only

B. I, III E. All of the choices given

C. II and IV

191. Cyclophosphamide, Busulfan, and Carmustine all have in common the classification of:

A. Antimetabolite D. Natural product

B. Antibiotic E. All of the choices given

C. Alkylating agent

192. Agent used to counter motion sickness which is more effective than Cyclizine and Meclizine

I. Dimehydramine

II. Promethazine

III. Scopolamine

IV. Betanechol

A. I, II, III D. IV only

B. I, III E. All of the choices given

C. II and IV

193. Manifestation of overdose with Dimenhydramine may include

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

A. Blurred vision D. Sinus tachycardia

B. Dry mouth E. All of the choices given

C. Hallucinations

194. Which of the following combinations of Tricyclic antidepressant and metabolite is correct?

A. Amitriptylline – desipramine D. Imiprmaine – desipramine

B. Imipramine – nortriptyline E. Fluoxetine – protriptyline

C. imipramine – trimipramine

195. A recognized side effect of treatment with Lithium carbonate is

A. Hypermagnesemia D. Hypochloremia

B. polyuria and polydipsia E. Proximal tubular degenration

C. Transient fall in BUN and serum

Creatinine

196. Endocrine effects of Chlorpromazine include all of the following except:

A. Decrease in adrenocorticotropins D. Increase in prolactin secretion

B. Decrease in gonadotropins E. Decrease in thyroid hormone production

C. Decrease in release of pituitary

Growth hormone

197. Cholestasis is the principle derangement observed in hepatoxicity associated with

A. Phenothiazines D. Carbon tetracholride

B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors C. All of the choices given

C. Para – aminosalicylic acid

198. Phenelzine can result in a hypertensive crisis when co – administered wiht all of the following except:

A. Pickled erring (Tyramine) D. Diazepam

B. Amphetamines E. Ephedrine

C. Phenylpropanolamine

199. Pharmacist may advise the patient during dispensing that Gingival hyperplasia is a common side effect of

A. Procainamide D. Indomethacin

B. Phenytoin E. Guanethidine

C. Digitalis

200. Which of the following drug(s) is/are classified a List B?

I. Tiopental

II, Chlorambucil

III. Phenytoin

A. I, II, III C. I, III

B. II, III D. III only

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

201. Prohibited drugs includes all of the following, except:

A. Methotrexate C. Demerol

B. Morphine sulfate D. Innovar

202. Which among the following brand names refers to Amoxicillin trihydrate?

A. Penbritin (Is a Ampicillin) C. Himox

B. Amoxil D. Penbiosyn

203. Capsules are prepared extemporaneous by:

A. Alligation method C. Punch method

B. Geometric dilution D. Fusion method

204. Which magnesium salt is used in the preparation of magnesium citrate solution?

A. Magnesium chloride C. Magnesium sulfate

B, Magnesium carbonate D. Magnesium hydroxide

205. The amount os suspending agent to be added in a suspension depends on the:

A. Voulme of the prescription C. Volume of the solvent used

B. Amount to be suspended D. All of the above

206. If a pharmacist compounds an emulsion following the 4:2:1 ratio, how many mL of water should be added if the
oil amounts to 30 mL?

A. 10 mL C. 5 mL

B. 15 mL D. 7.5 mL

207. Drug belonging to List A are:

I. Regulated drugs

II. Prohibited drugs

III. Drug requiring strict precautions in their use

A. I only D. I, II, III

B. II only E. I, II

C. III only

208 A prescription with 10 or more ingredients of the same therapeutic use is:

A. Simple C. Magistral

B. Yellow D. Polypharmaceutical

209. When the generic name is preceded by the brand name, the prescription is:

A. Erroneous prescription C. Impossible prescription

B. Violative prescription D. Correct prescription

210. The following are true regarding incompatibilities except:

A. Problems arising during compounding, dispensing and drug administration

B. Easier to correct than prevent

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

C. May be intentional

D. Must be recognized by the pharmacist

211. Incompatibilities means _________ in prescription:

I. Conflict

II. Disagreement

III. Differences

A. I,II, III C. II, III

B. I, III D. I only

212. The following are manifestations of chemical incompatibility except:

A. Immiscibility C. Evolution of gas

B. Photolysis D. Color formation

213. The precipitation of an organic substance from a saturated solution when a highly soluble salt is added is
known as:

A. Polymorphism C. Eutexia

B. Salting out D, Salting in

214. Dosage error is an example of:

A. Physical incompatibility C. Therapeutic incompatibility

B. Chemica incompatibility D. The error is not classified as an incompatibility

215. Acacia will produce color with some compound because:

A. It has an enzyme ( It contains peroxidase enzymes)

B. It is acidic

C. It deomposes with strong acids

D. It decomposes with strong bases

216. Careful monitoring should be done when dispensing as it depresses the bone marrow protein synthesis:

A. bacitracin C. Penicillin

B. Chloramphenicol D. All of the choices given

217. Iodine is known to be insoluble in water. To remedy this, _____ is added to make an aqueous solution

A. Citric acid C. Caffeine

B. Ammoinium citrate D. Potassium iodide

218. The prescription requires the combination of sodium bicarbonate, Sodium Salicylate and water. The pharmacist
fully understands that sodium carbonate and sodium salicylate will lead to the oxidation of the latter forming brown
quinoid derivative. This incompatibility can be remedied by:

I. Adding color diluents

II. Adding antioxidants

III. Removal of water

A. I, II, III C. I, III

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

B. II, III D. I, II

219. This incompatibility involves the degradation of the drug or excipient through reaction with the solvents present
in the formulaiton:

A. Solvolysis C. Photolysis

B. Oxidation D. Polymerization

220. Degradation of drugs or Excipient molecules brought by light, either room light or sunlight is known as:

A. Solvolysis C. Photolysis

B. Oxidation D. Polymerization

221. The hydrolytic product of Aspirin is:

A. Salicylic acid + ascorbic acid C. Acetic acid + Salicylic acid

B Salicylic acid + citirc acid D. Sodium acetate + Acetic acid

222. A prescription implies the combination of Silver nitrate, water, made isotonic with sodium chloride. If the
incompatibility is not recognized it will lead to:

A. Change in the color of hte solution C. Formation of white prcipitate

B. Evolution of carbon dioxide gas D. Formation of a gel – like substance

223. Which of the following can lead to overdose?

I. Excessive amounts taken at one time

II. Doses repeated at too frequent intervals

III. Dose dumping from modified release formulation

A. I, III D. I only

B. II, III E. I, II, III

C. I, II

224. Which of the following will not lead to therapeutic incompatibility?

A. Errors in pricing C. Prescripiton

B. Dosage forms errors D. Errors in storage

225. Penicillin and ASA are contraindicated to:

A. Hypertensives C. Asthmatics

B. Patients with ulcer D. Anemics

226. Anemics should refrain from the use of:

A. Nasal decongestants C. Chloramphenicol

B.NSAID’s D. ASA

227. Cough and cold remedies with decongestants are not recommended to patient experiencing:

A. Loww RBC count C. High blood pressure

B. GI ulcer D. Airway obstruction

228. Steroidal and Non – steroidal drugs will exacerbate:

A. Asthma C. Arryhthmia
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

B. Anemia D. GI ulcer

229. This type of ADR that is usually dose dependent and predictable:

A. Type A C. Type C

B. Typer B D. Type D

230. Type B ADRs includes all of the following except:

A. Extension effects of drug’s pharmacological action

B. Idiosyncratic reactions

C. Allergic reactions

D. Steven Johnson syndrome

231. The adverse effect that may be experienced when taking cough and cold remedies containing
Phenylpropanolamine is:

A. GI disturbances C. Increase in BP

B. Serum sickness D. Decrease in BP

232. Mrs. Romano experienced skin rash that are charcteristically large, deep red in color which becomes darker at
the center. The said rashes appeared red in color which becomes darker at the center. The said rashes appeared
after taking Amoxicillin for 3 days. The ADR is suspected to be:

A. Photosensitivity reactions C. Erythema multiforme

B. Toxic epidermal necrolysis D. Serum sickness

233. Phocomelia is a teratogenic effect associated with the use of:

A. Tretinoin C. Phenytoin

B. Thalidomide D. Phenothiazines

234. NSAID’s induced ADR is:

A. Pigmentary retinopathy C. Hepatic necrosis

B. Steven Johnson’s syndrome D. GI ulcer

235. Otoxicity is an ADR commonly associated with the use of:

A. Penicillin C. Aminoglycosides

B. Phenothiazine D. Acetaminophen

236. In a drug interaction, the drug whose action is effected by the combination with other drugs, food, or chemicals
is called:

A. Object drug C. Interactant drug

B. Precipitant drug D. Action drug

237. The principle combining Sulfathiazole and Trimethoprim in a formulation is die to:

A. Antagonism C. Aletration of active transport

B. Synergism D. Inhibition of drug metabolism

238. Which of the following interactions is beneficial?

A. Oral contraceptives - antibiotics C. Anthistamine – alcohol

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

B. Tetracycline - antacid D. Penicillin – Probenecid

239. The intermittent administration of a second solution, like antibiotics, through a Y – tube in an existing IV line is
known as:

A. IV push C. IV piggyback

B. IV bolus D. IV infusion

240. Which of the following is not a component of parenteral Hyperalimentation?

A. Vitamins and minerals C. Sugars

B. Electrolytes D. Antibiotics

241. When two (2) interacting drugs results to alteration of ADME, it is classified as:

A. Pharmacokinetic interaction C. Pharmaceutic interaction

B. Pharmacodynamic interaction D. Therapeutic interaction

242. When drugs are inappropriately mixed in syringes or infusion prior to administration, it will giver rise to:

A. Pharmacokinetic interaction C. Pharmaceutical interaction

B. Pharmacodynamic interaction D. Beneficial interaction

243. Warfarin – Vitmain K rich food combination is an interaction characterized by:

A. Decrease absorption D. Increase liver damage

B. Increase bioavailability E. Synergistic / Additive combination

C. Antagonistic combination

244. Smoking increases the activity of drug metabolizing enzymes resulting to:

I. Rapid metabolism of drugs

II. Decrease effects of drugs

III. Increase effects of drugs

A. I, II D. III only

B. I, III E. I, II, III

C. I only

245. Mr. Ligtas is asthmatic. Which of the following agents is contraindicated to him?

I. Salbutamol

II. Aspirin

III. Penicillin

A. I, II, III C. I, III

B. II, III D. II only

246. Probenecid and penicillin exhibits this type of interaction:

A. Enzyme induction C. Alteration gastric emptying

B. Enzyme inhibition D. Competition of tubular secretion

247. Glibenclamide – Thiazide diuretics exhibits this type of interaction:

A. Increase potassium level C. Alteration in gastric emptying

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

B. Decrease oral hypoglycemic effect D. Sodium depletion

248. Risk factors of ADR’s include:

I. Age of the patient

II. Associated diseases

III. Number of concurrent medications being taken

A. I only D. II, III

B. III only E. I, II, III

C. I, II

249. Decreased in body clearance of a usual dose benzodiazepine causes extension sedation. This ADR is
classified as:

A. Type A D. Type D

B. Type B E. Type E

C. Type C

250. ADR’s may also be classified based on their onset of reaction. Which of the following classifications appears
two or more days after drug exposure?

A. Acute C. Latent

B. Subacute D. Mild

251. Severity of the condition is another basis for classifying ADR’s. Which class requires active treatment of
adverse reaction, or further testing or evaluation for assessment?

A. Mild C. Severe

B. Moderate D. Significant

252. Patients on Aspirin anticoagulant therapy, prefer(s) _____ as an analgesic

I. Mefenamic acid

II. Acetaminophen

III. Ibuprofen

A. I, II, III D. I only

B. II only E. III only

C. II, III

253. This anti – TB drug will cause peripheral neuritis especially in patients that are slow acetylators

A. Isoniazid C. Pyrazinamide

B. Ethambutol D. Rifampin

254. Bisacodyl interacts with milk through what mechanisms?

A. Alteration of pH D. Alteration of motility rate

B. Complexation E. Alteration of metabolism

C. Adsorption

255. SALAD means:

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

A. Slow acting and lipophilic drugs

B. Green vegeatables with dressing

C. Small and Large Molecular weight drugs

D. Sound alike and look alike drugs

256. Which of the following brand names corresponds to Allopurinol?

I. Zyloprim

II. Xanor

III. Llanol

A. I, II, II D. I only

B. I, II E. III only

C. I, III

257. The generic name of Mucosolvan is:

A. Guaifenesin C. Bromhexine

B. Carbocisteine D. Ambroxol

258. DPI means

A. Dose per inhalation C. Dry powder for inhalation

B. Drug Prescription inventory D. Drug for peritoneal injection

259. Tenormin is a brand name of:

A. Albuterol C. Pindolol

B. Esmolol D. Atenolol

260. Which of the following prodoucts is an iron preparatiion?

I. Iberet

II. Circulan

III. Feldene

A. I, II, III D. I only

B. II only E. I, III

C. II only

261. The drug doxylamine is a/an:

I. OTC sleeping aid

II. Antihistamine

III. Commercially available as Unisom

A. I, III C. I, II

B. II, III D. I, II, III

262. Lamotrigine (Lamictal) is a/an:

A. Pain reliever C. Antiepileptic

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

B. Antiparkisonian drug D. DMARDs

263. Which of the following drug is not a cephalosporin?

A. Ceftriaxone C. Ceftazidime

B. Cefuroxime D. Chlorhexidine

264. Reye’s syndrome has been associated with the use of which analgesic drug?

A. Naproxen C. Aspirin

B. Celecoxib D. Paracetamol

265. When tretinoin is prescribed, it is co – administered with a contraceptive agent because the former is/can:

A. Increase the risk of pregnancy

B. A known teratogen

C. Cause bleeding in women

D. Increase susceptibility to vaginal Candidiasis

266. Which of the following factors may contribute to the occurence of a drug interaction?

I. Multiple pharmacological effects

II. Drug abuse

III. Multiple prescribers

A. I, III D. I, II, III

B. I, II E. I only

C. II, III

267. Energy beverages contain high content of:

A. Protein C. Caffeine

B. Fat D. Enzyme

268. Miglitol and Acarbose are:

A. Antihypertensive agents C. Antibacterial agents

B. Antiasthma agents D. Oral hypoglycemic agents

269. Levodopa – carbidopa combination has the popular brand name of:

A. Tagamet C. Sinemet

B. Stalevo D. Dilantin

270. Concurrent administration of Trihexylphenidyl, Amitriptyline, and Chlorpromazine would result to:

A. Additive hypotensive effects C. Additive anticholinergic activity

B. Antagonistic effect D. Additive hypoglycemic property

271. Abbreviations considered to be problem – prone of “dangerous abbreviations” include:

A. mcg D. QOD

B. QID E. All of hte choices given

C. u
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

272. Practical strategies to reduce errors resulting from sound-alike medications and verbals orders include:

I. Read back verbal orders

II. Prohibit the use of all verbal orders

III. Establish policies on who can receive verbal orders

A. I, II D. III only

B. II, III E. I, II, III

C. I, III

273. JCAHO patient safety goals encourage hospitals to remove ______ from floor stock

A. Lidocaine D. All of the choices given

B. Esmolol E. A and B only

C. Concentrated electrolytes

274. High Alert Medications (HAM ) include:

I. Digoxin

II. Lidocaine

III. Neuromuscular blocking agents

A. I, II, III D. I, III

B. I, II E. III only

C. II, III

275. Hypertensive episodes might result with concomitant use of:

A. Aloe vera – Thiazide C. Ma huang – Pseudoephedrine

B. Gingko biloba – ASA D. Herbal ectasy – alcohol

276. Too rapid infusion of TPN may lead to:

A. Sepsis C. Anemia

B. Hyperglycemia D. Hyperammonemia

277. Long term use of Phenytoin may lead to this ADR:

A. Pigmentary retinopathy C. Steven Johnson’s Syndrome

B. Hirsutism D. All of the above

278. Phenytoin precipitates and falls to the bottom of the IV bag as an insoluble salt when it is added to the solution
of

A. D10W D. NSS

B. D5W E. KCl

C. D50W

279. Saw palmetto is indicated for the treatment of:

A. Micturation difficulty D. Convalescence

B. Cirrhosis E. Insomia

C. Fatigue
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

280. Newborns that are exposed repeatedly to benzyl alcohol (an Injectable product preservative may lead to a
potentially fatal condition known as:

A. Cushing syndrome C Steven Johnson’s Syndrome

B. Gasping syndrome D. Reye’s syndrome

281. The Generic name of Antivert is:

A. Scopolamine C. Promethazine

B. Meclizine D. Hyoscyamine

282. The Generic name of Dalmane is:

A. Alprazolam D. Oxazepam

B. Flurazepam E. Triazolam

C. Chlordiazepoxide

283. Miltown is the brand name of:

A. Triazolam D. Meprobamate

B. Carisopodol E. Methocarbamol

C. Cimetidine

284. Drugs that increase caffeine levels by inhibiting its metabolism include all of the following except:

A. Ciprofloxacin C. Oral contraceptives and Prednisone

B. Cimetidine. D. Theophylline

285. Ampicillin will produce a false – positive reaction when testing for the presence of glucose in urine the folloing
except:

A. Clinistix® C. Benedict’s solution

B. Clinitest® D. Fehling’s solution

286. Concurrent use of alcohol with sedatives and other depressant drugs result to:

I. Hyperexcitability

II. Hallucinations

III. Coma

A. I, II, III C. II, III

B. I, II D. III only

287. Milk and other dairy products ________ the absorption of tetracycline and Fluoroquinolones.

A. Increase C. Does not affect

B. Decrease D. All of the above

288. A STAT order means the drug should be administered:

A. As needed by the patient C. Immediately

B. At the hour of sleeps D. Before surgery

289. Grapefruit juice increases the blood levels of drugs concurrently taken with it by:

A. Increasing the activity of drug metabolizing enzymes

 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

B. Inhibting the cytochrome P450 enzymes

C. Increasing the absorption of drugs

D. Blocking the urinary excretion of drugs

290. Vitamins A is compatible with:

A. Plastic container C. Both A and B

B. Soda glass container D. Neither A nor B

291. Which of the following is an idiosyncratic reaction?

A. Anaphylaxis from peniciliin

B. Malignant hyperthermia from antipsychotic drugs

C. Flushing and hypotension from vancomycin

D. Hypoglycemia from oral sulfonylureas

292. In an extemporaneous prescription, the chief or active constituent is referred to as the:

A. Basis C. Vehicle

B. Corrective D. Adjuvant

293. Based on USP guidelines the stability of extemporaneously compounded aqueous liquids (reconstituted
formulation) is

A. A beyond use date of not later than 25% of the time remaining until the product’s expiration date or 6
months, whichever is earlier

B. No t later than 14 days when stored at cold temperatures

C. Not less than the intended duration of therapy or 30 days, whichever is earlier

D. maximum beyond use date is 6 months or 25% of the remaining time between the compounding date and
the shortest expiration date of the ingredients, whichever is earlier

294. Administrative / Professional function of the pharmacist that include training and supervising interns and
externs during their required work experiences is

A. Supervisory C. Managerial

B. Community service D. Receptor

295. Which of the following not a consulting service provided by the pharmacist in community setting?

A. Screening for cholesterol C. Regulation and compliance

B. Staff education and in services D. Patient profile monitoring

296. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Freshly boiled and cooled purified water must be used when making suspensions

B. All suspensions will attract a 4 – week discard date

C. All suspensions need a direction to shake the bottle

D. Suspensions containing a suspending agent do not need a direction to shake the bottle

297. Which of the following salts of soium is not soluble in water?

I. NaCl

II. NaHCO3
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy

III. NaNO3

A. I only D. I, II, III

B. II only E. II, III

C. III only

298. Incompatibilities of acacia include:

` I. Precipitated by alcohol

II. Can liberate carbon dioxide from bicarbonates

II. Swell in water

A. I only D. III only

B. II, III E. I, II, III

C. I, II

299. Which of hte following vehicles can precipitate Sodium Phenobarbital?

A. Simple syrup C. Syrup of orange

B. Purified water D. All of the choices given

300. Acacia will form colored product with

A. Bezoic acid C. Alcohol

B. Resorcinol D. Water
Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy
Dispensing, Incompatibility & ADR Page 1 of 19

B 1. Drugs bound to plasma proteins are considered:

a. pharmacologically active c. free drugs
b. pharmacologically inactive d. bioavailable drugs

D 2. Alkaline salts like potassium penicillin when placed in an acidic solution can result in:
a. conversion into free acid c. insolubility
b. precipitation of penicillin d. all of the above

A 3. In metabolizing a standard dose of INH, Filipinos are considered:

a. fast acetylators c. neither slow or fast
b. slow acetylators d. same as the Caucasians

B 4. The following are true regarding incompatibilities except:

a. problems arising during compounding, dispensing and drug administration
b. easier to correct than to prevent
c. may be intentional or unintentional
d. must be recognized by pharmacists

A 5. The following are guidelines for reducing drug interactions except:

a. employ combination therapy c. educate the patient
b. identify patient risk factors d. know properties of drugs

B 6. Enzyme inhibition of coumarin can lead to:

a. hypoglycemia c. blood clotting
b. profuse bleeding d. convulsion

B 7. Anaphylaxis is a:
a. Type A ADR c. Type E ADR
b. Type B ADR d. Type F ADR

B 8. Oxidizing agents are incompatible with reducing agents. This is a:

a. physical incompatibility c. chemical incompatibility
b. therapeutic incompatibility d. both a and b

C 9. Any drug reaction which does not necessarily have a causal relationship with the treatment is called an:
a. adverse drug reaction c. adverse drug event
b. therapeutic incompatibility d. none of the above

D 10. Teratogenicity is a/an:

a. Type A ADR c. Type C ADR
b. Type B ADR d. Type D ADR

B 11. The following are manifestations of chemical incompatibilities, except:

a. immiscibility c. gel formation
b. photolysis d. evolution of gas

B 13. The precipitation of an organic substance from a saturated solution when highly soluble salts are added is known as:
a. polymorphism c. racemization
b. salting-out d. eutexia

D 14. Acacia in the presence of Bismuth salts can form a ‘cake’ at the bottom of the container.This manifestation is known
as:
a. gelatinization c. emulsification
b. hydrolysis d. cementation

D 15. Sudden withdrawal of steroids can result in:

a. anemia c. Parkinson’s disease
b. hypertension d. Addison’s disease

C 16. A mathematical model for a potentiating drug effect :

a. 1 + 1 = 2 c. 0 + 1 = 2
b. 1 + 1 = 3 d. 1 + 1 = 0

C 17. A remedy for tablet granulations containing vitamin C:

a. prepare by dry granulation c. both a and b
b. use pre-coated ascorbic acid granules d. none of the above

D 18. Chloramphenicol palmitate exists in 3 different polymorphs, each differ in the following properties except:
a. solubility c. melting point
b. free energy d. none of the above
Dispensing, Incompatibility & ADR Page 2 of 19

D 19. The following are the physiologic effects of food on drug action except:
a. reduces gastric emptying rate
b. milk reduces absorption of tetracycline
c. tea increases absorption of paracetamol
d. vegetables potentiate anticoagulants

D 20. Important characteristics of idiosyncratic drug reactions, except:

a. congenital hypersensitivities c. metabolic abnormality
b. genetic or hereditary in origin d. none of the above

D 21. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI) and foods rich in tyramine like cheese will lead to:
a. accumulation of pressor amines c. non-metabolism of tyramine
b. increase in blood pressure d. all of the above

C 22. The following condition/s will amplify the activity of cardiac glycosides:
a. hypercalcemia c. both a and b
b. hypokalemia d. none of the above

A 23. Drug-drug interactions that occur when one drug alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of the
other drug:
a. pharmacokinetic interactions c. pharmacodynamic interactions
b. pharmacologic interactions d. all of the above

D 24. Displacement of plasma-protein bound drug such as in Warfarin-phenylbutazone interaction results in:
a. hemorrhage c. decreased activity of warfarin
b. increased concentration of warfarin d. both a and b

D 25. Tobacco and cigarettes are potent enzyme inducers. As a consequence:

a. one needs to increase dose of drug c. this is an ADR
b. this leads to drug tolerance d. all of the above

B 26. A drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction caused by sulfonamides:

a. Parkinson’s disease c. hypertension
b. Steven-Johnson’s syndrome d. contact dermatitis

D 27. The following are true regarding excretion of acidic drugs except:
a. exist in the ionized state in alkaline urine
b. exist in the non-ionized form in acidic urine
c. acidic urine increases drug action
d. none of the above

A 28. Phenobarbital and griseofulvin are ____ of coumarin:

a. enzyme inducers c. antagonists
b. enzyme inhibitor d. agonists

B 29. Type F ADRs can occur as a result of the following except:

a. antimicrovbial drug resistance c. counterfeit drugs
b. patient compliance d. drug instability

C 30. Chloramphenicol can lead to this untoward drug reaction:

a. agranulocytosis c. both a and b
b. Gray syndrome d. none of the above

A 31. A fever response to antibiotic therapy caused by the sudden release of endotoxins from various killed microorganisms
is called:
a. Herxheimer reaction c. skin reaction
b. Lyell’s syndrome d. anaphylactic reaction

A 32. Camphor, menthol, acetophenetidine, phenol will form:

a. eutectic combination c. explosive combination
b. liquefaction d. both a and b

C 33. The manifestation in no. 19 is a result of a:

a. therapeutic incompatibility c. physical incompatibility
b. chemical incompatibility d. adverse drug reaction

B 34. The most important protein to which drugs can bind in the plasma:
a. lipoprotein c. glycoprotein
b. albumin d. none of the above

C 35. Side effect of streptomycin:

a. headache c. ototoxicity
b. dryness of the mouth d. none of the above
Dispensing, Incompatibility & ADR Page 3 of 19

A 36. The following is/are true regarding absorption of salicylic acid:

a. non-ionized form is more lipid-soluble and absorbable
b. ionized form is more lipid-soluble and absorbable
c. polar form is more readily absorbed
d. absorption is increased when taken with an antacid

A 37. UV light-sensitive substances are best protected using:

a. amber bottle c. flint glass
b. plastic container d. carbon box

D 38. Oxidation is a:
a. loss of electrons c. cause of drugs instability
b. dehydrogenation d. all of the above

B 39. The transport of a substance from one part of the body to another by means of blood:
a. absorption c. metabolism
b. distribution d. excretion

D 40. The following are possible remedies for liquefication of solid substances, except:
a. triturate separately and mix by tumbling
b. add adsorbents to liquid combination
c. dispense powders separately
d. incorporate cotton in packaging

D 41. The following type/s of incompatibility may be dispensed:

a. intentional incompatibility
b. unintentional incompatibility
c. delayed chemical incompatibility but within shelf-life of product
d. both a and c

B 42. The conversion of an optically active form to an optically inactive form is called:
a. polymorphism c. polymerization
b. racemization d. enantiomorphism

D 43. Precipitation can be:

a. physical incompatibility c. adverse drug reaction
b. chemical incompatibility d. a or b

C 44. Examples of co-solvents:

a. water, buthanol c. glycols, sorbitol, glycerol
b. alcohol, mineral oil d. acetone, water, alcohol

C 45. Enzyme induction of phenobarbital with oral contraceptives can lead to:
a. decreased Phenobarbital action c. unreliable contraception
b. increased oral contraceptives action d. none of the above

A 46. Characterizes the first exposure of the fraction of the drug ,metabolized in the liver:
a. first pass effect c. biotransformation
b. drug-receptor interaction d. pharmacokinetics

B 47. These are functions of a pharmacist, except:

a. drug information c. counseling on medications
b. diagnosis d. monitor drug response

A 48. A physiological or a psychological state resulting from drug administration:

a. drug dependence c. drug addiction
b. drug habituation d. drug tolerance

B 49. An ADR experienced as a consequence of receiving an inappropriately high dose of the drug due to patient
characteristics:
a. idiosyncracy c. side effect
b. extension effect d. Type B

D 50. The following is/.are characteristic/s of side effects:

a. dose-dependent c. associated pharmacological effect
b. predictable d. all of the above

C 51. Oral antihistamines exhibit the following side effect:

a. drowsiness c. both a and b
b. sleepiness d. anemia
Dispensing, Incompatibility & ADR Page 4 of 19

B 52. Prescriber of a prescription:

a. pharmacist c. nurse
b. veterinarian d. medical technologist

D 53. Compounding is concerned with:

a. supply of a medicine c. order for medicine
b. preparation and distribution of drugs d. preparation of medicine

C 54. The supply of medicine to an individual patient in accordance to the prescription given by the physician:
a. compounding c. dispensing
b. formulation d. none of the above

C 55. A prescription should be refused when:

a. patient is terribly sick c. essential information is missing
b. there is no available delivery service d. it is not signed by the pharmacist

A 56. An example of a subscription:

a. M. ft. sol c. shake well before using
b. 1 tab q 6 hrs d. 250 mg capsule

B 57. A filled prescription for ethical drugs must be:

a. returned to the patient c. discarded after recording
b. filed for future reference d. forwarded to BFAD

D 58. Which of these drug products require a physician’s prescription:

a. aspirin 325 mg tab c. nubain 10 mg/ vial]
b. paracetamol 500 mg tab d. both b and c]

C 59. Which of the following correctly applies to this group of drug products? Paracetamol 325mg tab, Cortal 325mg tab,
Alvedon 325mg tab:
a. all are generically equivalent c. all are non-prescription drug
b. all are in brand names d. all are prescription drugs

C 60. Because it is the language of medical science throughout the world, this language is still used in Rx writing:
a. English c. Latin
b. German d. Spanish

B 61. The prescription should be read and checked:

a. in front of the patient/customer c. in the counter of the botica
b. in the privacy of the pharmacy d. none of the above

B 62. For dispensing thick viscous liquids, the container should be:
a. standard prescription bottles c. collapsible tubes
b. wide-mouthed bottles d. dropper bottles

A 63. When the generic name is preceded by the brand name, the prescription is:
a. erroneous prescription c. impossible prescription
b. violative prescription d. none of the above

B 64. Generic dispensing means:

a. dispensing drugs with generic names only
b. dispensing with correct prescription
c. dispensing the customer’s choice form generically equivalent drugs
d. dispensing drugs in proper containers

D 65. When dispensing a compounded prescription, these information must be written on the label except:
a. indications c. name of manufacturer
b. name and strength of actives d. name of physician

B 66. In a prescription, the dispensing directions to the pharmacist is the:

a. superscription c. inscription
b. subscription d. signa

B 67. How many mL will you dispense for a prescription calling for a 100 g of a liquid substance with a sp. Gr. Of 1.25?
a. 75 mL c. 85 mL
b. 80 mL d. 90 mL

B 68. Providing the correct medicines at the right time at the right dose and using the right route of administration to the
right patient is:
a. primary care c. osteopathy
b. rational drug therapy d. homeopathy
Dispensing, Incompatibility & ADR Page 5 of 19

B 69. The following are true about dimercaprol except:

a. British anti-Lewisite c. indicated for As poisoning
b. indicated for Fe poisoning d. chemical antagonist

A 70. Identify the odd-man-out:

a. complex formation c. liquefaction of solid ingredients
b. insolubility d. polymorphism

A 71. Group of drugs commonly abused by athletes:

a. anabolic steroids c. antibiotics
b. dexamethasone d. vitamins

A 72. Immediate remedy for anaphylaxis:

a. epinephrine injection c. antihistamine
b. aspirin d. antibiotic

B 73. A drug whose action is affected in a drug interaction:

a. precipitant c. interactant
b. object drug d. none of the above

B 74. The following are remedies for oxidation except:

a. acid pH c. addition of antioxidant
b. change dosage form d. protection from light

B 75. A suspension with the following ingredients (FeCl3, Fe(OH)3, acacia, FD&C # 5 (orange color) and methyl paraben
will reveal this manifestation:
a. polymerization c. cementation
b. gelatinization d. precipitation

B 76. The following are patient-related predisposing factors to ADRs except:

a. age c. genetic disposition
b. formulation d. history of allergy

D 77. Probenecid and penicillin exhibits this type of interaction:

a. enzyme induction c. alteration in gastric emptying
b. enzyme inhibition d. competition for tubular secretion

C 78. Citric acid, atropine sulfate and ferrous sulfate are classified as:
a. eutectic mixtures c. efflorescent substances
c. deliquescent substances d. polymorphs

B 79. A mathematical model for synergism:

a. 1 + 1 = 2 c. 0 + 1 = 2
b. 1 + 1 = 3 d. 1 + 1 = 0

A 80. Term for migration of the drug into the container:

a. sorption c. permeation
b. leaching d. vaporization

D 81. The conversion of an optically active drug with one chiral center into an optically inactive isomer:
a. polymorphism c. epimerization
b. enatiomerism d. racemization

B 82. One of the violations committed by a dispensing pharmacist is:

a. informing the patient of the current list of available drugs
b. imposing a particular brand or product on the buyer
c. recording of prescriptions filled
d. dispensing of the product according to the prescription]

D 83. An impossible prescription is described by the following except:

a. only the generic name is written but not legible
b. both generic and brand names are not legible
c. the generic name does not correspond to the brand name
d. the generic name is not legible and the brand is written legibly

B 84. The incorrect prescription that can be filled is the:

a. impossible prescription c. violative prescription
b. erroneous prescription d. none of the above

D 85. The date after which the product is not intended to be used:
a. beyond-use date c. stop date
b. expiry date d. both a and b
Dispensing, Incompatibility & ADR Page 6 of 19

A 86. The following are importance of recognizing potential incompatibilities except:

a. rewarding for the pharmacist
b. savings in time, money , effort
c. safety for the patient
d. quality medicines dispensed

D 87. Poor patient compliance with prescription instruction is usually due to the following, except:
a. patient understood pharmacist’s instruction poorly
b. pharmacist has poor communication skills
c. inadequate time of pharmacist for patient counseling
d. any of the above

A 88. HLB is a system used to distinguish between:

a. surfactants d. excipients
b. glidants e. disintegrators
c. suspending agents

A 89. The purpose of the prescription number is:

a. to identify the prescription for future reference
b. as a substitute for the name of the drug
c. to guide the pharmacist in costing
d. to provide professional fee to the medicine

D 90. In pricing the prescription, the pharmacist must consider:

a. cost of ingredients c. percentage mark-up
b. professional fee d. all of the above

C 91. If there is doubt in legibility of the prescription, the pharmacist should:

a. decide based on patient’s ailment
b. make an educated guess
c. consult the prescriber
d. consult MIM

A 92. For the guidance of the patient, the prescription needs:

a. signa b. subscription c. superscription d. inscription

B 93. Importance of a label:

a. for the sake of art c. to improve elegance
b. to establish identity d. to give prominence

A 94. An auxiliary label except:

a. do not repeat c. shake well before using
b. for external use d. ophthalmic use

B 95. Refers to the schedule of dosing (e.g. QID, 10 days)

a. divided doses c. single dose
b. dosage regimen d. total dose

C 96. When dispensing prepared dosage forms, the pharmacist may use which of the following dose equivalents?
a. exact equivalent c. approximate dose
b. exact dose d. a and b

B 97. Indicated the quantitative range or amounts of drug that may be prescribed within the guidelines of usual medical
practice:
a. divided dose c. loading dose
b. usual dosage range d. total dose

A 98. Which of the following does not cause a therapeutic incompatibility?

A. errors in pricing c. prescription writing errors
b. dosage form errors d. errors of storage and supple

B 99. An associated pharmacological effect of chlorphenamine maleate:

a. hypotension c. headache
b. sedation d. nausea

C 100. Ecstasy exhibits this type of ADR:

a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D

B 101. Idiosyncratic reactions are considered:

a. Type A ADR c. Type C ADR
b. Type B ADR d. Type E ADR
Dispensing, Incompatibility & ADR Page 7 of 19

D 102. An anionic exchange resin intended to bind acids, cholesterol metabolites and co-administered drugs:
a. chloramphenicol c. tetracycline
b. cholesterol precursor d. colestyramine

C 103. Are added to drug formulations to prevent or reduce oxidation:

a. complexing agents c. antioxidants
b. surfactants d. additives

C 104. This container is impervious to air and other gases under ordinary conditions of handling storage and transport:
a. airtight container c. hermetically sealed
b. security closed d. child-resistant container

C 105. Diuretics tend to enhance lithium salt toxicity due to:

a. direct drug interaction c. sodium depletion
b. potassium depletion d. increased solubility of the lithium salts

A 106. All of the following untoward effects are commonly associated with cancer chemotherapy except:
a. exfoliative dermatitis c. nausea
b. teratogenesis d. alopecia and leukemia

A 107. Glass is a traditional packaging material which has been widely used for both liquid and solid dose forms. All of the
following are types of glass containers, except:
a. closures c. ear and nasal dropper bottles
b. bottles d. containers for semi-solid preparation

C 108. Used as pharmaceutical packaging materials include aluminum, tin and tin-coated lead:
a. glass c. metals
b. plastics d. paperboards

C 109. How many grains are there in 5.0 g of strychnine sulfate?

a. 10.4 gr b. 20.4 gr c. 77.2 gr. d. 0.99 gr.

C 110. How many doses of teaspoonful each are there in a 4-fl. oz. bottle of medication?
a. 10 b. 20 c. 24 d. 30

D 111. To calculate a loading dose, one must first determine:

a. body clearance c. volume of distribution
c. fraction protein bound d. all of the above

A 112. Many diuretics tend to cause depletion of:

a. potassium b. sodium c. carbonate ion d. urea

C 113. Corticosteroids are frequently given with antacids to:

a. enhance absorption
b. slow absorption
c. reduce ulceration and bleeding
d. increase the rate of distribution

A 114. The functions of suspending agents include the following, except:

a. prevent oxidation-reduction reaction
b. increase the viscosity of the vehicle
c. slow down the rate of settling down
d. cause the preparation to remain in suspension

C 115. General corrections of incompatibilities include all of the following, except:

a. separation of immiscible liquids c. use of a different brand
b. change of vehicle d. substitution of ingredients

A 116. Route of administration where drugs are applied to the skin surface to be absorbed slowly into the systemic
circulation:
a. transdermal route c. buccal route
b. inhalation route d. rectal route

A 117. Involves the degradation of the drug or excipients through reaction with the solvents present in the formulations:
a. solvolysis c. photolysis
b. oxidation d. polymerization

C 118. Degradation of drugs or excipient molecules can be brought about by light, either room light or sunlight:
a. solvolysis c. photolysis
b. oxidation d. polymerization
Dispensing, Incompatibility & ADR Page 8 of 19

C 119. Remedy when a solid substance fails to dissolve in a liquid:

a. addition of an inert ingredients c. prepare a suspension
b. prepare an emulsion d. dispensing the ingredients separately

C 120. Occurs immediately upon compounding like presence of precipitate; effervescence of color changes:
a. minor incompatibility c. immediate incompatibility
b. delayed incompatibility d. major incompatibility

D 121. Combinations liable to produce therapeutic incompatibilities when administered at the same time, except:
a. sedatives and stimulants c. caffeine and chloral hydrate
b. tannins and aloins d. aspirin and warfarin

C 122. Water is most likely to cause instability on the following drugs, except:
a. penicillins c. alkaloids
b. cephalosphorins d. benzodiazepines

A 123. Aspirin hydrolyzes in water giving acetic acid and:

a. salicylic acid c. formic acid
b. oxalic acid d. ticarboxylic acid

B 124. During drug interaction, the affected drug may become more active resulting to the following, except:
a. increase drug activity c. less effective
b. longer therapeutic action d. toxicity

B 125. It occurs when drugs are mixed inappropriately in syringes or infusion fluids prior to administration:
a. pharmacodynamic interaction c. phamacokinetic interaction
b. pharmaceutical interaction d. all of the above

A 126. Which statement is not true regarding Lithium-NSAID combinations?

a. NSAID impairs renal synthesis of broncho-dilator prostaglandin
b. NSAID antagonize the renal excretion of lithium
c. NSAID may cause sodium and water retention
d. NSAID inhibit prostaglandin dependent renal excretion of lithium

B 127. Delay in gastric emptying time for the drug to reach the duodenum will_____, thereby prolonging the onset of time
for the drug:
a. slow the rate and extent of drug distribution
b. slow the rate and extent of drug absorption
c. increase the rate and extent of drug absorption
d. increase the rate and extent of drug metabolism

D 128. Factors that tend to reduce stomach contraction and gastric emptying rate, except:
a. consumption of meals high in fat
b. patient lying on left side
c. depression
d. hyperthyroidism

C 129. This drug inhibits the vitamin K dependent synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX and X:
a. tetracycline c. warfarin
b. diphenhydramine d. aspirin

A 130. Low potassium level in blood produced by diuretics:

a. hypokalemia c. hypocalcemia
b. hyponatria d. hyperuricemia

A 132. True types of incompatibilities:

a. unintentional or unexpected incompatibilities
b. intentional or expected incompatibilities
c. immediate incompatibilities
d. delayed incompatibilities

D 133. Optimum absorption takes place in the:

a. gastrointestinal tract c. stomach
b. receptor d. small intestine

B 134. Type of drug strongly bound to albumin:

a. basic drugs c. alkaline drugs
b. acidic drugs d. all of the above

D 135. Pharmacokinetically, enzyme induction will result to the following except:

a. peak level decreases c. increased overall elimination rate
b. accelerated metabolism d. pharmacological responses are decreased
Dispensing, Incompatibility & ADR Page 9 of 19

A 136. Principal site of drug metabolism:

a. liver c. stomach
b. kidney d. small intestine

D 137. Major pathway of excretion are via the kidney into the urine and via the liver into the:
a. bile c. alveolar air
b. urine d. feces

B 138. In basic urine, acidic drugs are:

a. un-ionized, hence reabsorbed, decrease half life
b. more ionized, not reabsorbed, decrease half life
c. more un-ionized, not reabsorbed, increase half-life
d. un-ionized, not reabsorbed, increases elimination rate

C 139. Decreased urinary recycling, increases elimination rate constant hence:

a. increases half life
b. longer duration of pharmacologic response
c. shortens duration of pharmacologic response
d. increases therapeutic concentration in the body

A 140. In acidic urine, acidic drugs are more un-ionized, hence:

a. reabsorbed, increase in half-life
b. not reabsorbed, increase ion half-life
c. reabsorbed, decrease ion half-life
d. not reabsorbed, decrease in half-life

A 141. In acidic urine, basic drugs are:

a. more ionized, hence not reabsorbed, decrease in half-life
b. un-ionized, hence not reabsorbed, decrease in half-life
c. more ionized hence not reabsorbed, increase in half-life
d. more ionized, reabsorbed, increase half-life

D 142. Increased urinary recycling increases half life hence, except:

a. decreases elimination rate constant
b. blood level rise and persist longer
c. danger of toxicity in multiple dosing
d. increases elimination rate constant

D 143. Which statement is incorrect regarding interaction involving tyramine containing substance and MAO inhibitor?
a. inhibition of MAO result in the accumulation of large amounts of norepinephrine
b. decrease ion the rate of intracellular metabolism
c. large amount of norepinephrine can cause severe headache and hypertension
d. large amount of stored norepinephrine can cause hypotensive crisis

C 144. Acidic group of amino acids responsible for binding basic drugs, except:
a. glutamic c. lysine
b. aspartic d. tyrosine

B 145. Interactions that arise with drug acting on the same receptors, sites of action or physiological system:
a. pharmaceutical interactions
b. pharmacodynamic interactions
c. pharmacokinetic interactions
d. change in body fluid and electrolyte balances

D 146. Factors that reduced binding capacity to albumin, except:

a. liver impairment c. during pregnancy
b. smoking d. neonates patient

A 147. Phenobarbital-antihistamine drug combinations will result to:

a. Phenobarbital metabolism is accelerated by antihistamine
b. Antihistamine metabolism is accelerated by Phenobarbital
c. Phenobarbital peak level ,increases
d. Decreased Phenobarbital overall elimination rate

A 148. Petition for favor of healing and warning from great care and precaution:
a. Rx c. Magistral Pharmacy
b. Signa d. Mark thou

D 149. The approved clinical use of the product based on substantial evidence of the efficacy and safety of the drug:
a. warning c. pharmacologic category
b. formulation d. indication
Dispensing, Incompatibility & ADR Page 10 of 19

B 150. Instruction and special care to avoid undesired effects an to ensure the safe and effective use of the product:
a. warnings c. contraindications
b. precautions d. indications

B 151. Generic equivalent drugs are finished pharmaceutical products having the same ingredients, same dosage form and
the same strength. They differ only in:
a. generic name
b. brand name
c. international and non-proprietary name
d. active constituents

D 152. Drug products that are considered prohibited, except:

a. Heroin and morphine c. mescaline and Indian hemp
b. coca leaf and its derivative cocaine d. secobarbital

A 153. Regulated drugs, except:

a. LSD c. methaqualone
b. amphetamine d. Phenobarbital

A 154. Violation on the part of the pharmacist in generic dispensing, except:

a. adequately inform the buyer about available products that meet the prescription
b. failure to record and file the prescription filed
c. imposing a particular branded or product to the buyer
d. failure to report to the nearest DOH office cases of incorrect prescriptions within 3 months after receipt of
such prescriptions

B 155. Exempt prohibited drugs, except:

a. Lomotil c. Robitussin AC syrup
b. Benzodiazepines d. Phenergon Expectorant with Codeine

B 156. Drugs requiring strict precautions in their use, except:

a. Methotrexate c. Nitrofurantoin
b. Codeine d. Phenytoin

A 157. Official name of drug products containing 2 or more active ingredients with single INN:
a. INN of the combination products
b. Generic names of 2 or more active ingredients
c. Based on the nomenclature used by the PNDF
d. Products with standards formulation included in the current PNDF

D 158. Source/s of information regarding incompatibilities:

a. Remington c. Product inserts
b. USP d. all of the above

A 159. This parchment scroll found in Egypt mentioned 700 drugs with formulas for more than 800 remedies:
a. Papyrus Ebers c. Remington
b. De Materia Medica d. USP NF

A 160. The chief active constituent:

a. base c. corrective
b. vehicle d. adjuvant

A 161. Instruction for patient in taking the medication:

a. transcription c. superscription
b. inscription d. subscription

B 162. Part of a label that is most likely to be presented, shown or examined under customary conditions for display for
retail sale:
a. outer label c. inner label
b. principal display panel d. label

A 163. Patron saints of medicine and pharmacy:

a. Cosmas and Damian c. George Ebers
b. St. Peter d. Don Leon Maria Guerrero

A 164. Combination of a salt substitute and potassium sparing drugs will result to:
a. hyperkalemia c. alkalosis
b. tacycardia d. calcemia
Dispensing, Incompatibility & ADR Page 11 of 19

B 165. A written order signed by a licensed medical practitioner for medicine to be compounded by a pharmacist to meet the
needs of a certain person at a particular time:
a. letter c. recommendation
b. prescription d. receipt

B 166. It forms the beginning of a direct order from the prescriber to the compounder:
a. inscription c. subscription
b. superscription d. errors in the written order

B 167. Dispensing directions to the pharmacist is:

a. inscription c. superscription
b. subscription d. transcription

A 168. A prescription where the generic name is not written:

a. violative Rx c. impossible Rx
b. erroneous Rx d. yellow DDB Rx

A 169. The part of the prescription which directs the patient on what to do is:
a. signa c. subscription
b. inscription d. superscription

C 170. A prescription where the generic name does not correspond to the brand name:
a. violative Rx c. impossible Rx
b. erroneous Rx d. yellow DDB RX

B 171. The meaning of the abbreviation p.c. in the signa of a prescription:

a. as necessary c. at bedtime
b. after meal d. sufficient quantity

A 172. Complimentary list is a list of _____ drugs when there is no response to the core essential list:
a. alternative c. Additional
b. substitute d. supplementary

B 173. When suppositories containing phenol causes the vehicle to soften the melting point may be raised by adding:
a. lanolin c. fixed oil
b. petrolatum d. vehicle

C 174. Which one of the following antacid products is a chemical combination of aluminum and magnesium hydroxides?
a. Maalox b. Mylanta . Riopan d. Gelusil

A 175. Simethicone is most likely to be included in what type of OTC product?

a. antacids b. cough product c. decongestant d. laxative

B 176. The label text outside the principal display panel on the immediate container of pharmaceutical products as specified
by RA 3720 contains the following information, except:
a./ formulation c. batch and/or lot number
b. contraindication d. mode of administration

A 177. Theophylline when taken with high fat breakfast will result to the following:
a. combination reduces the amount of theophylline
b. action of theophylline is enhanced by the fat present
c. combination increases the metabolism of theophylline
d. both have synergistic effects

D 178. Valium and Tagamet combination will not result to one from the following:
a. Tagamet delay elimination of anti-anxiety agent
b. Increased sedation and dizziness
c. Blood levels of anti-anxiety drug increased
d. Valium increases the metabolism of theophylline

C 179. The “NO SUBSTITUTION” instruction is seen on:

a. erroneous prescription c. violative prescription
b. impossible prescription d. any of the above

C 180. A STAT order means the drug has to be administered:

a. as needed by the patient c. immediately
b. at the hour of sleep d. before surgery

C 181. Piroxicam is a/an:

a. prohibited drug c. OTC drug
b. regulated drug d. any of these answers
Dispensing, Incompatibility & ADR Page 12 of 19

B 182. If the pharmacist doubts the correctness of the prescription, he should:

a. consult the patient c. consult other pharmacist
b. consult the prescriber d. base decision on ailment of the patient

B 183. Providing the correct medicine at the correct time, in the correct dose and the correct route of administration is
called:
a. primary care c. osteopathy
b. rational drug therapy d. homeopathy

D 184. In pricing prescription, the pharmacist must consider:

a. cost of ingredients c. percentage mark-up
b. professional fee d. all of the above

B 185. When the word otic appears on the label of the drug, the patients should be informed that the drug is applied on the:
a. mouth b. ear c. eyes d. nose

A 86. Salt of zinc that is valuable as an eyewash for the treatment of conjunctivitis:
a. zinc sulfate c. zinc oxide
b. zinc chloride d. all of these answers

D 187. The antiseptic property of hydrogen peroxide is due to:

a. ozone c. peroxidase
b. acetanilide d. oxygen

B 188. Which of the following is most closely related to cefazolin?

a. erythromycin c. carbenicillin
b. moxalactam d. gentamycin

B 189. Failure to mix or dissolve when two or more ingredients are combined may be termed as:
a. adverse reactions c. drug precipitation
b. physical incompatibility d. complexation

A 190. The unusual result of triturating camphor and menthol is:

a. liquefaction c. solidification
b. synergistic effect d. lowering of melting point

D 191. Mixtures of phenolic, aldehydes, ketonic compounds and alcohols are examples of:
a. insoluble substances c. delinquent substances
b. hydroscopic substances d. eutectic mixtures

B 192. Substances which absorb moisture from the air are called:
a. effervescent powders c. anhydrous powders
b. hygroscopic powders d. efflorescent powders

D 193. Liquefaction of crystalline salt occurs on trituration is due to:

a. addition of water
b. addition of other liquid ingredient
c. absorption of moisture from the air
d. liberation of water of crystallization

B 194. Urinary alkalinizer administered with sulfonamides treatment to prevent crystalluria:

a. Na2CO3 c. NaOH or KOH
b. NaHCO3 d. Na2CO3-10H2O

C 195. NPO means:

a. patient should be given drugs after meals
b. patient should be given drugs before meals
c. patient should not be given anything by mouth
d. patient should be left undisturbed

B 196. Drugs that can be dispensed only through a yellow prescription pad:
a. essential drugs c. OTC products
b. dangerous drugs d. prescription drugs

A 197. The objective of the Generic Law is to:

a. provide the patient the choice of drugs at the lowest cost
b. provide regulated drugs
c. provide prohibited drugs
d. use habit forming drugs
Dispensing, Incompatibility & ADR Page 13 of 19

C 198. Zephiran is used in ophthalmic solution as:

a. suspending agent c. anti-microbial agent
b. surfactant d. anti-microbial agent and surfactant

B 199. The lowering of melting point is called:

a. evolution c. hydrolysis
b. eutexia d. none of these

D 200. Combination of NaHCO3 with an organic acid (citric or tartaric acid) will result in:
a. precipitation c. oxidation
b. color changes d. effervescence

C 201. When an oxidizing agent is triturated in a mortar with a reducing agent, this would likely result to:
a. formation of damp mass c. violent explosion
b. discoloration of powders d. volatilization of some of the ingredients

B 202. The reaction between sodium bicarbonate and aspirin would result to:
a. formation of precipitate c. hydrolytic changes
b. evolution of gas d. invisible changes

A 203. Benzalkonium chloride is incompatible with:

a. soap c. a and b
b. cationic agent d. none of the above

D 204. Chemical incompatibility includes all of the following except:

a. racemization c. cementation
b. implosion d. liquefaction

C 205. When the response of a patient to one or more drugs is different in nature then that intended by the prescriber is
called:
a. antagonistic incompatibility c. therapeutic incompatibility
b. chemical incompatibility d. physical incompatibility

A 206. Adverse drug reactions characterized by exaggerated or inordinate response to normal doses of a drug:
a. idiosyncrasy c. hypersensitivity
b. allergy d. potentiation

A 207. Occurs when one drug increases the action of another drug:
a. potentiation c. summation
b. antagonism d. summation/potentiation

B 208. Isotonic solution of this subsrtance will still cause hemolysis of RBC:
a. benzoic acid c. sodium bicarbonate
b. boric acid d. sodium benzoate

B 209. Substance used as a test for, liver function by measuring the amount of hippuric acid in urine:
a. sodium borate c. sodium salicylate
b. aspirin d. sodium benzoate

B 210. The risk of aspirin in children with fever due to viral infection:
a. Gray baby syndrome c. bone fraction
b. Reye’s syndrome d. all of the above

B 211. Alcohol is a specific potentiating agent when used with:

a. penicillin c. aspirin
b. antihistamine d. sulfonamide

D 212. The combined action of two or more drugs which results in an enhancement or intensifying effect is termed:
a. metabolism c. stimulation
b. antagonism d. synergism

C 213. Sodium benzoate is effective as a preservative if the pH of the preparation is:

a. above 4 c. below 4
b. above 7 d. below 7

C 214. Upon exposure to air, aminophylline solution may develop:

a. a gas c. crystals of theophylline
b. a precipitate of theophylline d. a straw color

A 215. The degradation reaction for aspirin involves:

a. hydrolysis c. oxidation
b. racemization d. photolysis
Dispensing, Incompatibility & ADR Page 14 of 19

B 216. Reactions which are noxious , unintended and which occur at doses normally used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis
or therapy:
a. drug interactions c. pharmacodynamic interactions
b. adverse drug reaction d. therapeutic incompatibilities

D 217. The ingestion of alcoholic drinks while on analgesic or sedative therapy represents a commonly encountered drug
interaction that may result in:
a. tolerance c. excessive CNS stimulation
b. antagonism d. excessive CNS depression

A 218. Biological half life of many drugs is often prolonged in newborn infants because of:
a. incompletely developed enzyme system
b. microsomal enzyme inhibition
c. higher protein binding
d. well developed renal function

C 219. To prevent errors, the pharmacist uses:

a. his knowledge of pharmacognosy c. his broad knowledge of drugs
b. his knowledge of chemistry d. his knowledge of diseases

A 220. The following are aminoglycosides, except:

a. quinidine c. streptomycin
b. kanamycin d. neomycin

A 221. Theophylline is used for:

a. asthmatic c. hypertensive patients
b. diabetic d. all of these answers

B 222. Drug that should not be given to children with chicken pox or flu symptoms:
a. acetaminophen c. ibuprofen
b. aspirin d. all of these answers

A 223. Drug that should not be given to patients who have undergone surgery including dental surgery:
a. aspirin c. ibuprofen
b. acetaminophen d. all of these answers

A 224. Aspirin with antacids will cause:

a. alteration of pH c. alteration of GIT flora
b. complexation and adsorption d. alteration of motility

A 225. The most serious drug-induced blood disorder:

a. aplastic anemia c. agranulocuytosis
b. leukemia d. thrombocytopenia

A 226. The most clinically significant adverse drug reactions affecting the upper gastrointestinal tract results from the use of:
a. NSAIDs c. enteric coated KCl tablets
b. corticosteroids d. all of these answers

B 227. Used in the treatment of alcoholism by inhibiting activity of aldehyde dehydrogenase:

a. probenecid c. Phenobarbital
b. antabuse d. aspirin

B 228. A reaction that is noxious and unintended, which occurs in doses used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis and therapy:
a. drug interaction c. adverse drug effects
b. adverse drug reaction d. pharmacodynamic effects

A 229. Allergic reactions that are due to a person’s immune response:

a. hypersensitivity c. synergy
b. idiosyncracy d. potentiation

B 230. A type of synergism in which the combined effect is equal to the additive effect of the combined drugs is termed:
a. potentiation c. metabolism
b. summation d. hyperactivity

A 231. Which of the following factors influence drug metabolism and metabolic pathway?
a. genetic variation c. physiologic or disease state
b. drug dosage d. all of these answers

A 232. A metal catalyzed oxidation reaction pathway can be prevented by:

Dispensing, Incompatibility & ADR Page 15 of 19

a. chelating agents c. surface active agents

b. antioxidant d. none of these answers

D 233. Which of the following factors may make it necessary to give lower doses of drugs to geriatric patients?
a. reduced enzyme activity c. enhanced absorption
b. reduced kidney function d. a and b

A 234. This reaction is classified under Bizarre reactions (type B):

a. anaphylactic shock c. adverse effect
b. teratogenesis d. drug dependence

D 235. Consequence of adverse drug reactions:

a. increased mortality c. increased cost of therapy
b. prolonged hospital stay d. all of the above

C 236. A common adverse effect related to the use of aluminum antacids:

a. nausea c. constipations
b. vomiting d. all of the above

D 237. Tetracycline tend to form complexes with:

a. iron salts c. calcium salts
b. magnesium salts d. all of the above

B 238. Alcohol is a specific potentiating agent when used with:

a. sulfonamides c. aspirin
b. antihistamines d. penicillin

A 239. Increases serum levels and prolongs the activity of penicillin derivatives by blocking the latter’s tubular excretion:
a. probenecid c. propranolol
b. indomethacin d. methyldopa

A 240. Well known side effects of salicylate therapy:

a. tinnitus c. headache
b. vomiting d. nausea

D 241. Most common side effects of erythromycin therapy:

a. anaphylaxis c. GI bleeding
b. ototoxcicity d. abdominal cramps

C 242. A drug that increases the anticoagulant action of warfarin because its metabolite competes with the anticoagulant for
plasma protein binding sites:
a. tolbutamide c. chloral hydrate
b. aspirin d. diazepam

A 243. Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase and thus increases the plasma levels of:
a. mercaptopurine c. disulfiram
b. chloral hydrate d. aspirin

D 244. Aspirin combines with Phenylsalicylate resulting to:

a. melting c. turbid solution
b. non-homogenous mixture d. moist mass

A 245. A formulation of FeSO4 suspension cannot use acacia as a suspending agent, because the final product may exhibit:
a. gelatinization c. cementation
b. precipitation d. oxidation

D 246. Cold preparations when taken in large doses may interact with:
a. sedatives c. MAOIs
b. guaiafenisin d. a and c

A 247. Which of the following properties would characterize a drug when it is bound to plasma albumin?
a. it is biologically inactive c. it is promptly metabolized
b. it can pass through the glomerulus d. a and b

D 248. Traditional classification of adverse drug reactions:

a. side effect c. allergy
b. extension effect d. all of the above

D 249. These reactions belong to Augmented type (type A):

a. extension effect c. side effect
b. allergy d. a and c
Dispensing, Incompatibility & ADR Page 16 of 19

C 250. The following drugs often precipitate an interaction when administered with a second drug, except:
a. Sedation c. hemolytic anemia
b. headache d. hypokalemia

C 251. The following responses belong to Type B adverse drug reactions, except:
a. allergy of Cefotaxime
b. aplastic anemia in patients taking chloramphenicol
c. facial abnormalities in babies born to alcoholic mothers
d. peripheral neuritis in a British missionary ill with tuberculosis

C 252. An ointment is prepared by incorporating 10 g of a drug into 100 g of white petrolatum. What is the percent w/w
of active ingredient?
a. 10.0% d. 0.95%
b. 9.1% e. none of the above
c. 0.91%

C 253. What is the proof strength of a 50% (v/v) solution of alcohol?

a. 25 proof d. 75 proof
b. 50 proof e. 150proof
c. 100 proof

A 254. Certified dyes may not be used in the area of:

a. the eye d. the nose
b. the scalp e. all of the above
c. the lips

A 255. The principal use of magnesium stearate in pharmaceutics is as a/an:

a. lubricant d. disintegrator
b. antacid e. binder
c. source of magnesium ion

A 256. The major use of titanium dioxide in pharmacy is in:

a. sunscreens d. effervescent salts
b. antacid capsules e. emulsions
c. capsules as a diluent

C 257. A synonym for vitamin C is:

a. riboflavin d. cyanocobalamin
b. tocopherol e. thiamine
c. ascorbic acid

D 258. Activated charcoal is used in some antidotes because of which of its properties?
a. neutralizing d. adsorptive
b. emetic e. stabilizing
c. absorptive

C 259. The abbreviations SOS on prescriptions means:

a. at once d. do not repeat
b. freely e. on alternate days
c. if needed

D 260. Clindamycin is closely related to which if the following in effective spectrum?

a. chloramphenicol d. lincomycin
b. tobramycin e. it is unique in spectrum
c. kanamycin

C 261. Prednisone is converted to which of the following by the liver?

a. cortisone d. methylprednisolone
b. hydrocortisone e. dexamethasone
c. prednisolone

B 262. The dose of a drug is 5mg/kg of body weight. What dose should be given to a 100-lb female patient?
a. 2500 mg d. 44 mg
b. 250 mg e. 440 mg
c. 25 mg

A 263. How many grains of a drug is needed to make 4 fluid ounces of a 5%(w/v) solution?
a. 91 grains d. 100 grains
b. 96 grains e. 24 grains
c. 48 grains

B 264. Methyl salicylate is used primarily as a/an:

Dispensing, Incompatibility & ADR Page 17 of 19

a. flavoring d. emulsifier
b. counter-irritant e. binder
c. suspending agent

C 265. Which of the following is not used as a vehicle for injections?

a. peanut oil c. theobroma oil
b. cottonseed oil d. sesame oil

A 266. Lidocaine HCl is not administered orally because it is:

a. ineffective by this route d. a cause of arrhythmias
b. too acidic e. unstable
c. too toxic by this route

E 267. The two major properties of drug that are usually modified by complexation are:
a. odor and taste d. chemical structure and stability
b. taste and solubility e. stability and solubility
c. chemical structure and solubility

E 268. What will result if the distribution of drugs is slower than the processes of biotransformation and elimination?
a. high blood levels of drug d. potentiation
b. low blood levels of drug e. failure to attain diffusion equilibrium
c. synergism

C 269. In radiopharmacy, the term “rem” means:

a. radiations per millisecond d. external roentgens per minute
b. radiations per minute e. roentgen exposure per minute
c. roentgen-equivalent-man

B 270. pH is:
a. not temperature d. high for acids
b. a measure of acidity e. none of the above
c. the same as pOH

E 271. Which of the following types of tissues frequently store drugs?

a. fatty tissue d. a and b
b. muscle tissue e. a and c
c. protein tissue

B 272. Which of the following drugs undergoes marked hydrolysis in the GI tract?
a. aspirin d. hydrocortisone
b. penicillin G e. chlortetracycline
c. acetaminophen

E 273. Surface-active agents tend to enhance absorption due to:

a. their effects on biological membrane
b. their effects on the dissolution rate of drugs
c. reduction of interfacial tension
d. b and c only
e. a, b and c

C 274. Emulsions made with tweens are usually:

a. unstable d. clear
b. w/o e. reversible
c. o/w

A 275. A solution contains 3 gr of a drug per fluid ounce. What is the percentage w/v of the solution?
a. 0.66% d. 1.0%
b. 0.59% e. 6.5%
c. 10.0%

D 276. Cyanocobalamin is a/an:

a. steroid d. vitamin
b. choline esterase inhibitor e. enzyme
c. hallucinogen

C 277. Spans and tweens are:

a. highly polymerized mannuronic acid anhydrides
b. phospholipids
c. polyoxyalkalene derivatives
d. glycosides
e. none of the above
Dispensing, Incompatibility & ADR Page 18 of 19

C 278. Solutions that contain bacteriostatic agents:

a. cannot be tested for sterility
b. must be cultured on agar plates for sterility tests
c. must be diluted beyond the bacteriostatic level for sterility tests
d. do not require a sterility test
e. are none of the above

C 279. The dose of a drug is 0.5 mg/kg. What dose should be given a 6-year old child who weighs 44 lbs?
a. 0.003 g d. 0.100 g
b. 0.033 g e. 0.05 g
c. 0.010 g

E 280. Salicylic acid is used primarily as a/an:

a. analgesic d. uricosuric agent
b. antipyretic e. keratolytic agent
c. cough suppressant

A 281. The chemical substance used commonly in running a GI series is:

a. barium sulfate d. sodium bicarbonate
b. fluorescein dye e. sodium carbonate
c. radioactive iodine

B 282. Which of the following may be used as plasma expanders?

a. sodium salts d. calcium salts
b. dextrans e. prostaglandins
c. starches

A 283. Denaturation of emulsions is characterized by:

a. irreversible precipitation d. changing of external phase
b. reversible precipitation e. c and d
c. creaming

B 284. Freeze drying is based on:

a. pressure filtration d. pasteurization
b. sublimation e. densification
c. polymerization

D 285. Which of the following is not a naturally occurring emulsifier?

a. acacia d. veegum
b. cholesterol e. tragacanth
c. gelatin

C 286. The most prevalent commercial solid dosage forms are:

a. hard capsules d. bulk powders
b. soft gelatin capsules e. divided powders
c. tablets

A 287. The purpose of sorbitol in formulations of soft gelatin capsules is as a /an:

a. plasticizer d. thickener
b. disintegrating agent e. emulsifier
c. lubricant

D 288. Pharmacists should caution patients who are taking niacin that this drug:
a. stains the urine bright red c. causes muscular weakness
b. causes ringing in the ears d. should be taken with meals

E 289. Tetracycline tends to form complexes with:

a. calcium ions d. iron ions
b. magnesium ions e. all of the above
c. aluminum ions

B 290. Most drugs are:

a. strong electrolytes d. highly ionic
b. weak electrolytes e. none of the above
c. non-electrolytes

C 291. A humectant retards:

a. bacterial growth d. spreadability
b. degradation e. all of the above
c. surface evaporation

A 292. Transdermal scopolamine is a drug used to prevent:

Dispensing, Incompatibility & ADR Page 19 of 19

a. motion sickness d. coronary insufficiency

b. hypertension e. rabies
c. diabetes

B 293. Reaction rate is increased most readily by:

a. humidity d. photolysis
b. high temperature e. hydrolysis
c. freezing

A 294. A primary disadvantage of ethylene glycol as a solvent in oral preparations is its:

a. potential toxicity d. high cost
b. lack of solvent action e. high viscosity
c. very limited miscibility

B 295. Glucose is not subject to hydrolysis because it is:

a. a disaccharide d. insoluble
b. a monosaccharide e. both b and c
c. a polysaccharide

C 296. Purified water USP may not be used in:

a. syrups d. elixirs
b. topical preparations e. effervescent solutions
c. parenteral preparations

B 297. Ferritin is a/an:

a. vitamin d. amino acid
b. micelle e. protein
c. emulsion

D 298. Gums are used in tableting primarily as:

a. disintegrators d. binding agents
b. glidants e. both b and c
c. lubricants

D 299. Vanishing creams are classified as:

a. oleaginous d. o/w bases
b. absorption bases e. w/o bases
c. water-soluble bases

A 300. Syrup NF is:

a. self-preserving d. highly unstable
b. a supersaturated solution e. flavored and preserved
c. a dilute solution
DISPENSING, INCOMPATIBILITIES & ADVERSE DRUG REACTIONS

B 1. Drugs bound to plasma proteins are considered:

a. pharmacologically active c. free drugs
b. pharmacologically inactive d. bioavailable drugs

D 2. Alkaline salts like potassium penicillin when placed in an acidic solution can result in:
a. conversion into free acid c. insolubility
b. precipitation of penicillin d. all of the above

A 3. In metabolizing a standard dose of INH, Filipinos are considered:

a. fast acetylators c. neither slow nor fast
b. slow acetylators d. same as the Caucasians

B 4. The following are true regarding incompatibilities, except:

a. problems arising during compounding, dispensing and dispensing and drug administration
b. easier to correct than to prevent
c. may be intentional or unintentional
d. must be recognized by pharmacists

A 5. The following are guidelines for reducing drug interactions, except:

a. employ combination therapy c. educate the patient
b. identify patient risk factors d. know properties of drugs

B 6. Enzyme inhibition of coumarins can lead to:

a. hypoglycemia c. blood clotting
b. profuse bleeding d. convulsion

B 7. Anaphylaxis is a:
a. Type A ADR c. Type E ADR
b. Type B ADR d. Type F ADR

B 8. Oxidizing agents are incompatible with reducing agents. This is a:

a. physical incompatability b. chemical imcompatability
c. therapeutic incompatibility d. both A &B

A 9. Any drug reaction which does not necessarily have a casual relationahip with the treatment is called an:
a. adverse drug reaction c. adverse drug event
b. therapeutic incompatibility d. none of the above

D 10. Teratogenicity is a/an:

a. Type A ADR c. Type C ADR
b. Type B ADR d. Type D ADR

B 11. The following are true about biotransformation except:

a. occurs after drug distribution c. converts lipophilic to hydrophilic drugs
b. converts polar to nonpolar drugs d. can influence drug elimination rate

A 12. The following are manifestations of chemical incompatibilities except:

a. immiscibility c. gel formation
b. photolysis d. evolution of gas

B 13. The precipitation of an organic substance from a saturated solution when highly soluble salts are added is known
as:
a. polymorphism c. racemization
b. salting-out d. eutexia

D 14. Acacia in the presence of Bismuth salts can form a “cake” at the bottom of the container. This manifestation is
known as:
a. gelatinization c. emulsification
b. hydrolysis d. cementation

D 15. Sudden withdrawal of steroids can result in:

a. anemia c. Parkinson’s disease
b. hypertension d. addison’s disease

C 16. A mathematical model for a potentiating drug effect:

a. 1 + 1 = 2 c. 0 + 1 = 2
b. 1 + 1 = 3 d. 1 + 1 = 0

C 17. A remedy for tablet granulations containing vitamin C:

a. prepare by dry granulation c. both A & B
b. use precoated ascorbic acid granules d. none of the above

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D 18. Chloramphenicol palmitate exists in 3 different polymorphs, each differ in the ff. properties, except:
a. solubility c. melting point
b. free energy d. none of the above

D 19. The following are the physiologic effects of food on drug reaction, except:
a. reducing gastric emptying rate
b. milk reduces absorption of tetracycline
c. tea increases absortion of paracetamol
d. vegetables potentiate anticoagulants

D 20. Important characteristics of idiosyncratic drug reaction, except:

a. congenital hypersensitivities c. metabolic abnormality
b. genetic or hereditary in origin d. none of the above

D 21. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAO inhibitors) and foods rich in tyramine like cheese will lead to:
a. accumulation of pressor amines c. non-metabolism of tyramine
b. increase in blood pressure d. all of the above

C 22. The following condition/s will amplify the activity of cardiac glycosides:
a. hypercalcemia c. both a & b
b. hypokalemia d. none of the above

A 23. Drug-drug interactions that occur when one drug alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of
the other drug.
a. pharmacokinetic interactions c. pharmacodynamic interaction
b. pharmacologic interactions d. all of the above

D 24. Displacement of a plasma-protein bound drug such as in Warfarin-phenylbutazone interaction, results in:
a. hemorrhage c. decreased activity of warfarin
b. increase concentration of warfarin d. both A & B

D 25. Tobacco and cigarettes are potent enzyme inducers. As a consequence,

a. one needs to increase dose of drug c. this is an ADR
b. this leads to drug tolerance d. all of the above

B 26. A drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction caused by sulfonamides:

a. Parkinson’s disease c. hypertension
b. Steven’s Johnson syndrome d. contact dermatitis

D 27. The following are true regarding excretion of acidic drugs except:
a. exist in the ionized state in alkaline urine
b. exist in the non-ionized form in acidic urine
c. acidic urine increases drug action
d. none of the above

A 28. Phenobarbital and griseofulvin are __________of coumarins.

a. enzyme inducers c. antagonists
b. enzyme inhibitors d. agonists

B 29. Type F ADRs can occur as a result of the following except:

a. antimicrobial drug resistance c. counterfeit drugs
b. patient compliance d. drug instability

C 30. Chloramphenicol can lead to this untoward drug reaction:

a. agranucytosis c. both A & B
b. Gray syndrome d. none of the above

A 31. A fever response to antibiotic therapy caused by the sudden release of endotoxins from various killed
microorganisms is called:
a. Herxheimer reaction c. skin reaction
b. Lyell’s syndrome d. anaphylactic reaction

A 32. Camphor, menthol, acetophenetidine, phenol will form:

a. eutectic combination c. explosive combination
b. liquefaction d. both A & B

A 33. The manifestation in no. 32 is a result of a:

a. therapeutic incompatibility c. physical incompatibility
b. chemical incompatibility d. adverse drug reaction

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DISPENSING, INCOMPATIBILITIES & ADVERSE DRUG REACTIONS

B 34. The most important protein to which drugs can bind in the plasma:
a. lipoprotein c. glycoprotein
b. albumin d. none of the above

C 35. Side effects of streptomycin:

a. headache c. ototoxicity
b. dryness of the mouth d. none of the above

A 36. The following is/are true regarding absorption of salicylic acid:

a. non-ionized form is more lipid-soluble & absorbable
b. ionized form is more lipid-soluble & absorbable
c. polar form is more readily absorbed
d. absorption is increased when taken with an antacid

A. 37. UV light-sensitive substances are best protected using:

a. amber bottle c. flint glass
b. plastic container d. carton box

D 38. Oxidation is:

a. loss of electrons c. cause of drug instability
b. dehydrogenation d. all of the above

B 39. The transport of a substance from one part of the body to another by means of blood:
a. absorption c. metabolism
b. distribution d. excretion

D 40. The following are possible remedies for liquefaction of solid substances except:
a. triturate separately and mix by tumbling
b. add adsorbents to liquid combination
c. dispense powders separately
d. incorporate cotton in packaging

D 41. The following type/s of incompatibility may be dispensed:

a. intentional incompatability
b. unintentional incompatability
c. delayed chemical incomp., but within shelf-life of product
d. both A & C

B 42. The conversion of an optically active form to an optically inactive form is called:
a. polymorphism c. polymerization
b. racemization d. enantiomorphism

D 43. Precipitation can be:

a. physical incompatibility c. adverse drug reaction
b. chemical incompatability d. A or B

C 44. Examples of co-solvents:

a. water, butanol c. glycols, sorbitol, glycerol
b. alcohol, mineral oil d. acetone, water, alcohol

C 45. Enzyme induction of Phenobarbital with oral contraceptives can lead to:
a. decreased Phenobarbital action c. unreliable contraception
b. increased oral contraceptives action d. none of the above

A 46. Characterizes the first exposure of the fraction of the drug metabolized in the liver:
a. first pass effect c. biotransformation
b. drug-receptorinteraction d. pharmacokinetics

B 47. These are functions of a pharmacist except:

a. rug information c. counseling on medications
b. diagnosis d. monitor drug response

A 48. A physiological or a psychological state resulting from drug administration

a. drug dependence c. drug addiction
b. drug habituation d. drug tolerance

B 49. An ADR experienced as a consequence of receiving an inappropriately high dose of the drug due to patient
characteristics:
a. idiosyncracy c. side effect
b. extension effect d. Type B

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D 50. The ff. is/are characteristic/s of side effects:

a. dose-dependent c. associated pharmacological effect
b. predictable d. all of the above

C 51. Oral antihistamines exhibit the following side effect:

a. drowsiness c. both A & B
b. sleepiness d. anemia

B 52. Prescriber of a prescription:

a. pharmacist c. nurse
b. veterinarian d. medical technologist

D 53. Compounding is concerned with:

a. supply of a medicine c. order for medicine
b. preparation & distribution of drugs d. preparation of medicine

C 54. The supply of medicine to an individual patient in accordance to the prescription given by the physician:
a. compounding c. dispensing
b. formulation d. none of the above

C 55. A prescription should be refused when:

a. patient is terribly sick c. essential information is missing
b. there is no available delivery service d. it is not signed by the pharmacist

A 56. An example of a subscription:

a. M. ft. sol. c. shake well before using
b. 1 tab q 6 hrs d. 250 mg capsule

B 57. A filled prescription for ethical drugs must be:

a. returned to the patient c. discarded after recording
b. filed for future reference d. forwarded to BFAD

D 58. Which of these drug products require a physician’s prescription?

a. Aspirin 325 mg tab c. Nubain 10 mg/vial
b. Paracetamol 500 mg Tab d. both B & C

C 59. Which of the ff. correctly applies to this group of drug products? Paracetamol 325 mg. Tab, Cortal 325 mg Tab,
Alvedon 325 mg Tab
a. all are generically equivalent c. all are non-prescription drugs
b. all are in brand names d. all are prescription drugs

C 60. Because it is the language of medical science throughout the world, this language is still used in Rx writing:
a. English c. Latin
b. German d. Spanish

B 61. The prescription should be read and checked:

a. infront of the patient/customer c. in the counter of the botica
b. in the privacy of the pharmacy d. none of the above

B 62. For dispensing thick viscous liquids, the container should be:
a. standard prescription c. collapsible tubes
b. wide-mouthed bottles d. dropper bottles

A 63. When the generic name is preceded by the brand name, the prescription is:
a. erroneous prescription c. impossible prescription
b. violative prescription d. none of the above

C 64. Generic dispensing means:

a. dispensing drugs with generic names only
b. dispensing with correct prescription
c. dispensing the costumer’s choice from generally equivalent drugs
d. dispensing drugs in proper containers

D 65. When dispensing a compounded prescription, these information must be written on the label except:
a. indications c. name of manufacturer
b. name and strength of actives d. name of physician

B 66. In a prescription, the dispensing directions to the pharmacist is the:

a. superscription c. inscription
b. subscription d. signa

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B 67. How many mL will you dispense for a prescription calling for a 100 g of a liquid substance with a sp.gr. of 1.25?
a. 75 mL c. 85 mL
b. 80 mL d. 90 mL

B 68. Providing the correct medicines at the right time at the right dose and using the right route of administration to the
right patient is:
a. primary care c. osteopathy
b. rational drug therapy d. homeopathy

B 69. The following are true about dimercaprol except:

a. British Anti-Lewisite c. indicated for as poisoning
b. Indicated for Fe poisoning d. chemical antagonist

A 70. Identify the odd-man-out:

a. complete formation c. liquefaction of solid ingredients
b. insolubility d. polymorphism

A 71. Group of drugs commonly abused by athletes:

a. anabolic steroids c. antibiotics
b. dexamethasone d. vitamins

A 72. Immediate remedy for anaphylaxis:

a. epinephrine injection c. antihistamine
b. aspirin d. antibiotic

B 73. A drug whose action is affected in a drug interaction:

a. precipitant c. interactant
b. object drug d. none of the above

A 74. The following are remedies for oxidation except:

a. acid pH c. addition of antioxidant
b. change dosage form d. protection from light

B 75. A suspension with the f. ingredients (FeCl3, Fe(OH)3, acacia, FD&C #5 (orange color) and methyl paraben will
reveal this manifestation:
a. polymerization c. cementation
b. gelatinization d. precipitation

B 76. The following are patient-related predisposing factors to ADRs except:

a. age c, genetic disposition
b. formulation d. history of allergy

D 77. Probenecid and penicillin exhibits this type of interaction:

a. enzyme induction c. alteration in gastric emptying
b. enzyme inhibition d. competition for tubular secretion

C 78. Citric acid, atropine sulfate and ferrous sulfate are classified as:
a. eutectic mixtures c. efflorescent substances
b. deliquescent substs. d. polymorphs

B 79. A mathematical model for synergism:

a. 1 + 1 = 2 c. 0 + 1 = 2
b. 1 + 1 = 8 d. 1 + 1 = 0

A 80. Term for migration of the drug into the container:

a. sorption c. permeation
b. leaching d. vaporization

D 81. The conversion of an optically active drug with one chiral center into an optically inactive isomer:
a. polymorphism c. epimerization
b. enatiomerism d. racemization

B 82. One of the violations committed by dispensing pharmacist is:

a. informing the patient of the current list of available drugs
b. imposing a particular brand or product on the buyer
c. recording of prescriptions filled
d. dispensing of the product according to the prescription

D 83. An impossible prescription is described by the following except:

a. only the generic name is written but not legible
b. both generic & brand names are not legible

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c. the generic name does not correspond to the brand name

d. the generic name is not legible and the brand is written legibly

B 84. The incorrect prescription that can be filled is the:

a. impossible prescription c. violative prescription
b. erroneous prescription d. none of the above

D 85. The date after which the product is not intended to be used:
a. beyond-use date c. stop date
b. expiry date d. both A & B

A 86. The following are importance of recognizing potential incompatibilities, except:

a. rewarding for the pharmacist c. safety o the patient
b. savings in money, time effort d. quality medicines dispensed

D 87. Poor patient compliance with prescription instruction is usually due to the ff. except:
a. patient understood pharmacists instructions poorly
b. pharmacist has poor communication skills
c. inadequate time of pharmacist for patient counseling
d. any of the above

A 88. HLB is a system used to distinguish between:

a. surfactants d. excipients
b. glidants e. disintegrators
c. suspending agents

A 89. The purpose of the prescription number is:

a. to identify the prescription for future reference
b. as a substitute for the name of the drug
c. to guide the pharmacist in costing
d. to provide professional fee to the medicine

D 90. In pricing the prescription, the pharmacist must consider:

a. cost of ingredients c. percentage mark-up
b. professional fee d. all of the above

C 91. If there is doubt in legibility of the prescription, the pharmacist should:

a. decide based on patient’s ailment c. consult the prescriber
b. make an educated guess d. consult MIMS

A 92. For the guidance of the patient, the prescription needs:

a. signa c. superscription
b. subscription d. inscription

B 93. Importance of a label:

a. for sake of art c. to improve elegance
b. to establish identity d. to give prominence

A 94. An auxiliary label except:

a. do not repeat c. shake well before using
b. for external use d. ophthalmic use

B 95. Refers to the schedule of dosing (e.g., QID, 10 days)

a. divided doses c. single dose
b. dosage regimen d. total dose

D 96. When dispensing prepared dosage forms, the pharmacist may use which of the ff dose equivalents?
a. exact equivalent c. approximate dose
b. exact dose d. a and b

B 97. Indicates the quantitative range or amounts of drug that maybe prescribed within the guidelines of usual medical
practice.
a. divided dose c. loading dose
b. usual dosage range d. total dose

A 98. Which of the following dose not cause a therapeutic incompatibility?

a. errors in pricing c. loading dose
b. dosage form errors d. errors of storage and supply

B 99. An associated pharmacological effect of chlorphenamine maleate:

a. hypotension c. headache

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b. sedation d. nausea

C 100. Ecstacy exhibits this type of ADR:

a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D

B 101. Idiosyncratic reactions are considered:

a. Type A ADR c. Type C ADR
b. Type B ADR d. Type E ADR

D 102. An anionic exchange resin intended to bind bile acids, cholesterol metabolites and co-administered drugs:
a. chloramphenicol c. tetracycline
b. cholesterol precursor d. colestyramine

C 103. Are added to drug formulations to prevent or reduce oxidation

a. complexing agents c. antioxidants
b. surfactants d. additives

C 104. This container is impervious to air and other gases under ordinary conditions of handling storage and transport:
a. airtight container c. hermitically sealed
b. security closed d. child-resistant container

C 105. Diuretics tend to enhance lithium salt toxicity due to

a. direct drug interaction
b. potassium depletion
c. sodium depletion
d. increase solubility of the lithium salts

A 106. All of the following untoward effects are commonly associated with cancer chemotherapy EXCEPT:
a. exfoliative dermatitis
b. teratogenesis
c. nausea
d. alocepia & leukemia

A 107. Glass is a traditional packaging material which has been widely used for both liquid and solid dose forms. All of
the following are types of glass containers, except:
a. closures c. ear and nasal dropper bottles
b. bottles d. containers for semi-solid preparation

C 108. Used as pharmaceutical packaging materials include aluminum, tin and tin-coated lead
a. glass c. metals
b. plastics d. paperboards

C 109. How many grains are there in 5.0 g of strychnine sulfate?

a. 10.4 gr b. 20.4 gr c. 77.2 gr d. 0.99 rg

C 110. How many doses of teaspoonful each are there in a 4-fl. Oz. bottle of medication?
a. 10 b. 20 c. 24 d. 30

C 111. To calculate a loading dose, one must first determine:

a. body clearance c. volume of distribution
b. fraction protein bound d. all of the above

A 112. Many diuretics tend to cause depletion of:

a. potassium b. sodium c. carbonate ion d. urea

C 113. Corticosteroids are frequently given with antacids to

a. enhance absorption
b. slow absorption
c. reduce ulceration and bleeding
d. increase the rate of distribution

A 114. The functions of suspending agents include the ff. except:

a. prevent oxidation-reduce reaction
b. increase the viscosity of the vehicle
c. slow down the rate of settling down
d. cause the preparation to remain in suspension

C 115. General corrections of incompatibilities include all of the ff. except:

a. separation of immiscible liquids c. use of a different brand
b. change of vehicle d. substitution of ingredients

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A 116. Route of administration where drugs are applied to the skin surface to be absorbed slowly into the systemic
circulation
a. transdermal route c. buccal route
b. inhalation route d. rectal route

A 117. Involves the degradation of the drug or excipients through reaction with the solvents present in the formulations:
a. solvolysis c. photolysis
b. oxidation d. polymerization

C 118. Degradationof drugs or excipient molecules can be brought about by light, either room lights or sunlight.
a. solvolysis c. photolysis
b. oxidation d. polymerization

C 119. Remedy when a solid substance faild to dissolve in a liquid

a. addition of an inert ingredients c. prepare a suspension
b. prepare an emulsion d. dispensing the ingredients separately

C 120. Occurs immediately upon compounding like presence of precipitate; Effervescene of color changes.
a. minor incompatibility c. immediate incompatibility
b. delayed incompatibility d. major incompatibility

D 121. Combinations liable to produce therapeutic incompatibilities when administered at the same time except:
a. sedatives and stimulants c. caffeine and chloral hydrate
b. tannins and aloins d. aspirin and warfarin

C 122. Water is most likely to cause instability on the following drugs, except:
a. Penicillins c. Alkaloids
b. Cephalosporins d. Benzodiazepines

A 123. Aspirin hydrolizes in water giving acetic acid and

a. salicylic acid c. formic acid
b. oxalic acid d. tricarboxylic acid

C 124. During drug interaction, the affected drug may become more active resulting to the following except:
a. increase drug activity c. less effective
b. longer therapeutic action d. toxicity

B 125. It occurs when drugs are mixed inappropriately in syringes or infusion fluids prior to administration.
a. pharmacodynamic interaction c. pharmacokinetic interaction
b. pharmaceutical interaction d. all of the above

A 126. Which statement is not true regarding Lithium-NSAID combination?

a. NSAID impaired renal synthesis of bronchodilator prostaglandin
b. NSAID antagonize the renal excretion of lithium
c. NSAID may cause sodium and water retention
d. NSAID inhibit prostaglandin dependent renal excretion of lithium.

B 127. Delay in gastric-emptying time for the drug to reach the duodenum will ______, thereby prolonging the onset of
time for the drug.
a. slow the rate and extent of drug distribution
b. slow the rate and extent of drug absorption
c. increase the rate and extent of drug absorption
d. increase the rate and extent of drug metabolism

D 128. Factors that tend to reduce stomach contraction and gastric emptying rate except:
a. consumption of meals high in fat c. depression
b. patient lying on left side d. hyperthyroidism

C 129. This drug inhibits the Vit. K dependent synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX and X
a. Tetracycle c. Warfarin
b. Diphenhydraime d. Aspirin

A 130. Low potassium level in blood produced by diuretics:

a. hypokalemia c. hypocalcemia
b. hyponatria d. hyperuricemia

C 131. Increased sugar level in the blood over normal level.

a. hypercalcemia c. hyperglycemia
b. hyperkalemia d. hyperuricemias

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A 132. True types of incompatibilities

a. Unintentional or Unexpected Incompatibilities
b. Intentional or Unexpected Incompatibilities
c. Immediate Incompatibilities
d. Delayed Incompatibilities

D 133. Optimum absorption takes place in the

a. gastrointestinal tract c. stomach
b. receptor d. small intestine

B 134. Type of drug strongly bound to albumin:

a. basic drug c. alkaline drugs
b. acidic drugs d. all of the above

D 135. Pharmacokinetically, enzyme induction will result to the following, except:

a. peak level decreases c. increased overall elimination rate
b. accelerated metabolism d. pharmacological responses are decreased

A 136. Principal site of drug metabolism

a. liver c. stomach
b. kidney d. small intestine

D 137. Major pathway of excretion are via the kidney into the urine and via the liver into the
a. bile c. alveolar air
b. urine d. feces

B 138. In basic urine, acidic drugs are

a. un-ionized, hence reabsorbed, decrease half life
b. more ionized, not reabsorbed, decrease half life
c. more un-ionized, not reabsorbed, increase half life
d. un-ionized, not reabsorbed, increases elimination rate

C 139. Decreased urinary recycling, increases elimination rate constant hence

a. increases half life
b. longer duration of pharmacologic response
c. shortens duration of pharmacologic response
d. increases therapeutic concentration in the body

A 140. In acidic urine, acidic drugs are more un-ionized, hence

a. reabsorbed, increase in half life c. reabsorbed, decrease in half life
b. not reabsorbed, increase in half life d. not reabsorbed, decrease in half life

A 141. In acidic urine, basic drugs are

a. more ionized, hence not reabsorbed, decrease in half life
b. un-ionized, hence not reabsorbed, decrease in half life
c. more ionized hence not reabsorbed, increase half life

D 142. Increase urinary recycling increase half hence, expect

a. decreases elimination rate constant
b. blood levels rise and persist longer
c. danger of toxicity in multiple dosing
d. increases elimination rate constant

D 143. Which statement is incorrect regarding interaction involving tyramine containing substance and MAO inhibitor?
a. inhibition of MAO result in the accumulation of large amounts of norepinephrine
b. decrease in the rate of intracellular metabolism
c. large amount of norephinephrine can cause severe headache and hypertension
d. large amount of stored norepinephrine can cause hypotensive crisis

C 144. Acidic group of amino acids responsible for binding basic drugs, expect
a. glutamic c. lysine
b. aspartic d. tyrosine

B 145. Interactions that arise with drug acting on the receptors, sites of action or physiological system
a. pharmaceutical interactions c. pharmacokinetic interactions
b. pharmacodynamic interactions d. change in body fluids and electrolyte balances

D 146. Factors that reduced binding capacity to albumin, except

a. liver impairment c. during pregnancy
b. smoking d. nenonates patient

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B 147. Phenobarbital-Antihistamine drug combinations will result to

a. Phenobarbital metabolism is accelerated by antihistamine
b. Antihistamine metabolism is accelerated by Phenobarbital
c. Phenobarbital peak level increases
d. Decreased Phenobarbital overall elimination rate

A 148. Petition for favor of healing and warning from great care and precaution.
a. Rx c. Magistral Pharmacy
b. Signa d. Mark thou

D 149. The approved clinical use of the product based on substantial evidence of the efficacy and safety of the drug
a. warning c. pharmacologic category
b. formulation d. indication

B 150. Instruction and special care to avoid undesired effects and to ensure the safe and effective use of the product
a. warnings c. contraindications
b. precautions d. indications

B 151. Generic equivalent drugs are finished pharmaceutical products having same ingredients, same dosage form, and
the same strength. They differ only in
a. generic name c. international non-proprietary
b. brand name d. active constituents

D 152. Drug products that are considered prohibited, expect

a. Heroine and Morphine c. Mescaline and Indian Hemp
b. Coca leaf and its derivative cocaine d. Secobarbital

A 153. Regulated drug, except

a. LSD c. Methaqualone
b. Amphetamine d. Phenobarbital

A 154. Violation on the part of the pharmacist in generic dispensing, except

a. adequately inform the buyer about available products that meet the prescription
b. failure to record and file the prescription filed
c. imposing a particular brand or product to the buyer
d. failure to report to the nearest office cases of incorrect prescriptions within 3 months after receipt of
such prescriptions

B 155. Exempt prohibited drugs, except

a. Lomotil c. Robitussin AC syrup
b. Benzodiazepines d. Phenergon Expectorant with Codeine

B 156. Drugs requiring strict precautions in their use, except

a. Methotrexate c.Nitrofurantoin
b. Codein d. Phenytoin

A 157. Official name of drug products containing 2 or more active ingredients with single INN
a. INN of the combination products
b. generic names of 2 or more active ingredients
c. based on the nomenclature used by the PNDF
d. products with standards formulations included in the current PNDF

D 158. Source/s of information regarding incompatibilities

a. Remington c. Product inserts
b. USP d. all of the above

A 159. This parchment scroll found in Egypt mentioned 700 drugs with formulas for more than 800 remedies
a. Papyrus Ebers c. Remington
b. De Materia Medica d. USP NF

A 160. The chief active constituent

a. base c. corrective
b. vehicle d. adjuvant

A 161. Instruction for patient in taking the medication

a. transcription c. superscription
b. inscription d. subscription

B 162. Part of a label that is most likely to be presented, shown or examined under customary conditions for display for
retail sale.

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a. outer label c. inner label

b. principal display panel d. label

A 163. Patron saints of medicine and pharmacy

a. Cosmas and Damian c. George Ebers
b. St. Peter d. Don Leon Ma. Guerrero

A 164. Combination of salt substitute and potassium sparing drugs will result to
a. hyperkalemia c. alkalosis
b. tachycardia d. calcemia

B 165. A written order signed by a licensed medical practitioner for medicine to be compounded by a pharmacist to
meet the needs of a certain person at a particular time
a. letter c. recommendation
b. prescription d. receipt

B 166. It forms the beginning of a direct order from the prescriber to the compounder
a. inscription c. subscription
b. superscription d. errors in the written order

B 167. Dispensing directions to the pharmacist is

a. inscription c. superscription
b. subscription d. transcription

A 168. A prescription where the generic name is not written

a. violative Rx c. impossible Rx
b. erroneous Rx d. yellow DDB Rx

A 169. The part of the prescription which directs the patient what to do is:
a. signa c. subscription
b. inscription d. superscription

C 170. A prescription where the generic name does not correspond to the brand name
a. violative Rx c. impossible Rx
b. erroneous Rx d. yellow DDB Rx

B 171. The meaning of the abbreviation p.c. in the signa of a prescription

a. as necessary c. at bedtime
b. after meal d. sufficient quantity

A 172. Complimentary list is a list of ________ drug used when there in no response to the core essential list
a. alternative c. additional
b. substitute d. supplementary

B 173. When suppositories containing phenol causes the vehicle to soften the melting point may be raised by adding:
a. lanolin c. fixed oil
b. petrolatum d. vehicle

C 174. Which one of the following antacid products is a chemical combination of aluminum and magnesium hydroxides?
a. Maalox c. Riopan
b. Mylanta d. Gelusil

A 175. Simethicone is most likely to be included in what type of OTC product.

a. antacids c. decongestant
b. cough products d. laxative

B 176. The label text outside the principal display panel on the immediate container of pharmaceutical products as
specified by RA 3720 contains the following information except:
a. formulation c. batch and/or lot number
b. contraindication d. mode of administration

B 177. The ophylline when taken with high fat breakfast will result to the ff:
a. combination reduces the amount of theophylline
b. action of theophylline is enhanced by the fat present
c. combination increases the metabolism of theophylline
d. both have synergistic effects

D 178. Valium and Tagamet combination will not result to one from the ff:
a. Tagamet delay elimination of anti-anxiety agent
b. Increased sedation and dizziness
c. Blood levels of anti-anxiety drug increased

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d. Valium increases the metabolism of Tagamet

C 179. The “NO SUBSTITUTION” instruction is seen on

a. erroneous prescription c. vilative prescription
b. impossible prescription d. any of the above

C 180. A STAT order means the drug has to be administered

a. as needed by the patient c. immediately
b. at the hour of sleep d. before surgery

C 181. Piroxicam is a /an:

a. prohibited drug c. OTC drug
b. regulated drug d. any of these answers

B 182. If the pharmacist doubts the correctness of the prescription, he should:

a. consult the patient c. consult other pharmacist
b. consult the prescriber of the patient d. base decision on ailment

B 183. Providing the correct medicine at the correct time, in the correct dose and the correct route of administration is
called:
a. primary care c. osteopathy
b. rational drug therapy d. homeopathy

B 184. When the word otic appears on the label of the drug, the patient should be informed that the drug is applied on th
a. mouth c. eyes
b. ear d. nose

D 185. In pricing prescription, the pharmacist must consider

a. cost of ingredients c. percentage mark up
b. professional fee d. all of the above

A 186. Salt of zinc that is valuable as an eyewash for the treatment of conjunctivitis
a. zinc sulfate c. zinc oxide
b. zinc chloride d. all of these answers

D 187. The antiseptic property of hydrogen peroxide is due to

a. ozone c. peroxidase
b. acetanilide d. oxygen

B 188. Which of the following is most closely related to cefazolin?

a. Erythromycin d. Carbencillin
b. Moxalactam e. Gentamycin
c. ampicillin

B 189. Failure to mix or dissolve when two or more ingredients are combined may be termed as:
a. adverse reactions c. drug precipitation
b. physical incompatability d. complexation

A 190. The unusual result of triturating camphor and menthol is

a. liquefaction c. solidification
b. synergistic effect d. lowering of melting point

D 191. Mixture of phenolic, aldehyde, ketonic compounds and alcohols are examples of
a. insoluble substances c. delinquent substances
b. hydroscopic substances d. eutectic mixtures

B 192. Substances which absorb moisture from the air are called:
a. effervescent powders c. anhydrous powders
b. hygroscopic powders d. efflorescent powders

D 193. Liquefaction of crystalline salt occurs on trituration is due to:

a. addition of water c. absorption of moisture from the air
b. addition of other liquid ingredient d. liberation of water of crystallization

B 194. Urinary alkalinizer administered with sulfonamides treatment to prevent crystalluria

a. Na2CO3 c. NaOH or KOH
b. NaHCO3 d. Na2CO3 10H2O

C 195. NPO means:

a. patient should be given drugs after meals
b. patient should be given drugs before meals

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c. patient should not be given anything by mouth

d. patient should be left undisturbed

B 196. Drugs that can be dispensed only through a yellow prescription pad:
a. essential drugs c. OTC products
b. dangerous drugs d. prescription drugs

A 197. The objective of the Generic Law is to

a. provide the patient the choice of drugs at the lowest cost
b. provide regulated drugs
c. provide prohibited drugs
d. use habit forming drugs

C 198. Zephiran is used in ophthalmic solution as:

a. suspending agent c. antimicrobial agent
b. surfactant d. antimicrobial agent and surfactant

B 199. The lowering of melting point is called:

a. evolution c. hydrolysis
b. eutexia d. none of these

D 200. The combination of NaHCO3 with an organic acid (citric or tartaric acid) will result in:
a. precipitation c. oxidation
b. color changes d. effervescence

C 201. When an oxidizing agent is triturated in a mortar with a reducing agent, this would likely result to:
a. formation of damp mass c. violent explosion
b. discoloration of powders d. volatilization of some of the ingredients

B 202. The reaction between sodium bicarbonate and aspirin would result to:
a. formation of precipitate c. hydrolytic changes
b. evolution of gas d. invisible changes

A 203. Benzalkonium chloride is incompatible with:

a. soap c. a & b
b. cationic agent d. none of the above

D 204. Chemical incompatibility includes all of the following except:

a. racemzation c. cementation
b. implosion d. liquefaction

C 205. When the response of a patient to one or more drugs is different in nature than that intended by the prescriber is
called:
a. antagonistic incompatibility b. threrapeutic incompatibility
b. chemical incompatibility d. physical incompatibility

C 206. Adverse drug reactions characterized by exaggerated or inordinate response to normal doses of a drug:
a. idiosyncrasy c. hypersensitivity
b. allergy d. potentiation

A 207. Occurs when one drug increases the action of another drug:
a. potentiation c. summation
b. antagonism d. cummation/potentiation

B 208. Isotonic solution of this substance will still cause hemolysis of RBC
a. benzoic acid c. sodium bicarbonate
b. boric acid d. sodium benzoate

D 209. Substance used as a test for liver function by measuring the amount of hippuric acid in urine
a. sodium borate c. sodium salicylate
b. aspirin d. all of the above

B 210. The risk of aspirin in children with fever due to viral infection:
a. Gray baby syndrome c. bone fraction
b. Reye’s syndrome d. all of the above

B 211. Alcohol is a specific potentiating agent when used with:

a. penicilline c. aspirin
b. antihistamine d. sulfonamide

D 212. The combined action of two or more drugs which results in an

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Enhancement or intensifying effects is termed:

a. metabolism c. stimulation
b. antagonism d. synergism

C 213. Sodium benzoate is effective as a preservative if the pH of the preparation is:

a. above 4 c. below 4
b. above 7 d. below 7

C 214. Upon exposure to air, aminophylline solution may develop:

a. gas c. crystals of theophylline
b. a precipitate of aminophylline d. a straw color

A 215. The degradation reaction for aspirin involves:

a. hydrolysis c. oxidation
b. racemization d. photolysis

B 216. Reactions which are noxious, unintended and which occur at doses normally used in man for prophylaxis,
diagnosis or therapy:
a. drug interaction c. pharmacodynamic
b. adverse drug reactions d. therapeutic incompatibilities

D 217. The ingestion of alcoholic drinks while on analgesic or sedative therapy represents a commonly encountered
drug interaction that may result in:
a. tolerance c. excessive CNS stimulaton
b. antagonism d. excessive CNS depression

A 218. Biological half life of many drugs is often prolonged in newborn infants because of:
a. incompletely developed enzyme system
b. microsomal enzyme inhibition
c. higher protein binding
d. well developed renal function

C 219. To prevent errors, the pharmacist uses:

a. his knowledge of pharmacognosy c. his broad knowledge of drugs
b. his knowledge of chemistry d. his knowledge of diseases

A 220. The following are aminoglycosides, except:

a. quinidine c. streptomycin
b. kanamycin d. neomycin

A 221. Theophylline is used for:

a. asthmatic c. hypertensive patients
b. diabetic d. all of these answers

B 222. Drugs that should not be given to children with chicken pox of flu symptoms:
a. acetaminophen c. ibuprofen
b. aspirin d. all of these answers

A 223. Drug that should not be given to patients who have undergone surgery including dental surgery
a. aspirin c. ibuprofen
b. acetaminophen d. all of these answers

A 224. Aspirin with antacids will cause:

a. alteration of pH c. alteration of GIT flora
b. complexation and adsorption d. alteration of motility

A 225. The most serious drug-induced blood disorder:

a. aplastic anemia c.agranulocytosis
b. leukemia d. thrombocytopenia

A 226. The most clinically significant adverse drug reaction affecting the upper gastrointestinal tract results from the use
of:
a. NSAIDS c. phenobarbital
b. antabuse d. aspirin

B 227. Used in the treatment of alcoholism by inhibiting activity of aldehyde dehydrogenase:

a. probenecid c. Phenobarbital
b. antabuse d. aspirin

B 228. A reaction that is noxious and unintended, which occurs in doses used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis and
therapy:

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a. drug interaction c. adverse drug effects

b. adverse drug reaction d. pharmacodynamic effects

A 229. Allergic reactions that are due to a person’s immune response:

a. hypersensitivity c. adverse drug effects
b. idiosyncrasy d. potentiation

B 230. A type of synergism in which the combined effect is equal to the additive effect of the combined drugs is termed:
a. potentiation c. metabolism
b. summation d. hyperactivity

D 231. Which of the following factors influence drug metabolism and metabolic pathway?
a. genetic variation c. physiologic or disease state
b. antioxidant d. none ofthese answers

A 232. A metal catalyzed oxidation reaction pathway can be prevented by:

a. chelating agents c. surface active agents
b. antioxidant d. none of these answes

D 233. Which of the following factors may make it necessary to give lower doses of drugs to geriatric patients?
a. reduced enzyme activity c. enhanced absorption
b. reduced kidney function d. a and b

A 234. This reaction isclassifiedunder Bizzare reactions (type B):

a. anaphylactic shock c. adverse effect
b. teratogenesis d. drug dependence

D 235. Consequence of diverse drug reactions:

a. increased mortality c. increased cost of therapy
b. prolonged hospital stay d. all of the above

C 236. A common adverse effect related to the use of aluminum antacids

a. nausea c. constipations
b. vomiting d. all of the above

D 237. Tetracyclines tend to form complexes with:

a. iron salts c. calcium salts
b. magnesium salts d. all of the above

B 238. Alcohol is a specific potentiating agent when used with:

a. sulfonamides c. aspirin
b.antihistamines d.penicillin

A 239. Increases serum levels and prolongs agent the activity of penicillin derivatives by blocking the latter’s tubular
excretion:
a. probeneid c. propranolol
b. indomethacin d. methyldopa

A 240. Well known side effects of salicylate therapy:

a. tinnitus c. headache
b. vomiting d. nausea

D 241. Most common side effects of erythromycin therapy:

a. anaphylaxis c. headache
b. ototoxicity d. abdominal cramps

C 242. A drug that increases the anticoagulant action of warfarin because its metabolite competes with the
anticoagulant for plasma protein binding sites:
a. tolbutamide c. chloral hydrate
b. aspirin d. diazepam

A 243. Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase and thus increases the plasma levels of:
a. mercaptopurine c. disulfiram
b. chloral hydrate d. aspirin

D 244. Aspirin combines with Phenylsalicylate resulting to:

a. melting c. turbid solution
b. non-homogenous mixture d. moist mass

A 245. A formulation of FeSO4 Suspension cannot use Acacia as a suspending agent, because the final product may
exhibit:

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a. gelatinization c. cementation
b. prescipitation d. oxidation

D 246. Cold preparations when taken in large doses may interact with:
a. sedatives c. MAOIs
b. guaiafenisin d. a and c

A 247. Which of the following properties would characterize a drug when it is bound to plasma albumin?
a. it is biologically inactive c. it is promptly metabolized
b. it can pass through the glomerulus d. a and b

D 248. Traditional classification of adverse drug reactions:

a. side effect c. allergy
b. extension effect d. all of the above

D 249. These reactions belongs to Augmented type (type A):

a. extension effect c. side effect
b. allergy d. a and c

C 250. The ff. drugs often precipitate an interaction when administered with a second drug, except:
a. sedation c. hemolytic anemia
b. headache d. hypokalemia

C 251. The following response belong to Type B adverse drug reactions, except:
a. allergy of Cefotaxime
b. aplastic anemia in patients taking chloramphenicol
c. facial abnormalities in babies born to alcoholic mothers
d. peripheral neuritis in a british missionary ill with tuberculosis

B 252. An ointment is prepared by incorporating 10 g of a drug into 100 g of

White petrolatum. What is the percent w/w of active ingredient?
a. 10.0% d. 0.95%
b. 9.1% e. none of the above
c. 0.91%

C 253. What is the proof strength of a 50% (v/v) solution of alcohol?

a. 25 proof d. 75 proof
b. 50 proof e. 150 proof
c. 100 proof

A 254. Certified dyes may NOT be used in the area of:

a. the eye d. the nose
b. the scalp e. all of the above
c. the lips

A 255. The principal use of magnesium stearate in pharmaceutics an as a (an):

a. lubricant d. disintegrator
b. antacid e. binder
c. source of magnesium ion

A 256. The major use of titanium dioxide in pharmacy is in:

a. sunscreens d. effervescent salts
b. antacid tablets e. emulsions
c. capsule as a diluent

C 257. A synonym for vitamin C is

a. riboflavin d. cyanocobalamin
b. tocopherol e. thiamine
c.ascorbic acid

D 258. Activated charcoal is used in some antidotes because of which of its properties?
a. neutralizing d. adsorptive
b. emetic e. stabilizing
c. absorptive

C 259. The abbreviations SOS on prescription means:

a. at once d. do not repeat
b. freely e. on alternate days
c. if needed

D 260. Clindamycin is closely related to which of the following in effective spectrum?

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a. Chloramphenicol d. Lincomycin
b. Tobramycin e. It is unique in spectrum
c. Kanamycin

C 261. Prednisone is converted to which of the following by the liver?

a. Cortisone d. Methylprednisolone
b. Hydrocortisone e. Dexamethaxone
c. Prednisolone

B 262. The dose of a drug is 5 mg/kg of body weight. What dose should be a given to a 100-lb female patient?
a. 2500 mg d. 44 mg
b. 250mg e. 440 mg
c. 25 mg

A 263. How many grains of a drug is needed to make 4 fluid ounces of a 5% w/v solution?
a. 91 grains d. 100 grains
b. 96 grains e. 24 grains
c. 48 grains

B 264. Methyl salicylate is used primarily as a (a):

a. flavoring d. emulsifier
b. counter-irritant e. binder
c. suspending agent

C 265. Which of the following is NOT used as a vehicle for injections?

a. peanut oil c. theobroma oil
b. cotton seed oil d. sesame oil

A 266. Lidocaine HCL is NOT administered orally because it is:

a. ineffective by this route d. a cause of arrhytmias
b. too acidic e. unstable
c. too toxic by this route

E 267. The two major properties of drug that are usually modified by
Complexation are:
a. odor and taste d. chemical structure and stability
b. taste and solubility e. stability and solubility
c. chemical structure and solubility

E 268. What will result if the distribution of drugs is slower than the process of biotransformation and elimination?
a. high blood levels of drug d. potentiation
b. low blood levels of drug e. failure to attain diffusion equilibrium
c. synergism

C 269. In radiopharmacy, he term “rem” means

a. radiation per millisecond d. external roentgens per minute
b. radiation per minute e. roentgen exposure per minute
c. roengent-equivalent-man

B 270. pH is:
a. not termperature d. high for acids
b. a measure of acidity e. none of the above
c. the same as pOH

E 271. Which of the following types of tissues frequently store drugs?

a. fatty tissue d. A & B
b. muscle tissue e. A & C
c. protein tissue

B 272. Which of the following drugs undergoes marked hydrolysis in the GI Tract?
a. Aspirin d. Hydrocortisone
b. Penicillin G e. Chlortetracycline
c. Acetaminophen

E 273. Surface-active agents tend to enhance absorption due to:

a. their effects on biological membrane
b. their effects on the dissolution rate of drugs
c. reduction of interfacial tension
d. B & C only
e. A, B, and C

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C 274. Emulsions made with tweens are usually:

a. unstable d. clear
b. w/o e. reversible
c. o/w

A 275. A solution contains 3 gr of a drug per fluid ounce. What is the percentage
w/v of the solution?
a. 0.66% d. 1.0%
b. 0.59% e. 6.5%
c. 10.0%

D 276. Cyanocobalamin is a (an):

a. steroid d. vitamin
b. choline esterase inhibitor e. enzyme
c. hallucinogen

C 277. Spans and tweens are

a. highly polymerized mannuronic acid anhydrites
b. phospholipids
c. polyoxyalkalene derivatives
d. glycosides

C 278. Solutions that contain bacteriostatic agents:

a. cannot be tested for sterility
b. must be cultures on agar plates for sterility tests
c. must be diluted beyond the bacteriostatic level for sterility tests
d. do not require a sterility test
e. are none of the above

C 279. The dose of a drug is 0.5 mg/kg. What dose should be given a 6-year-old child who weights 44 lb?
a. 0.003 g d. 0.100 g
b. 0.033 g e. 0.05 g
c. 0.010 g

E 280. Salicylic acid is used primarily as a/an:

a. analgesic d. uricosuric agent
b. antipyretic e. keratolytic agent
c. cough suppressant

A 281. The chemical substance used commonly in running a GI series is:

a. barium sulfate d. sodium bicarbonate
b. fluorescein dye e. sodium carbonate
c. radioactive iodine

B 282. Which of the following may be used as plasma expanders?

a. sodium salts d. calcium salts
b. dextrans e. prostaglandins
c. starches

E 283. Denaturation of emulsions is characterized by:

a. irreversible precipitation d. changing of external phase
b. reversible precipitation e. C & D
c. creaming

B 284. Freeze drying is based on:

a. pressure filtration d. pasteurization
b. sublimation e. densification
c. polymerization

D 285. Which of the following is NOT a naturally occurring emulsifier?

a. acacia d. veegum
b. cholesterol e. tragacanth
c. gelatin

C 286. The most prevalent commercial solid dosage forms are:

a. hard capsules d. bulk powders
b. soft gelatin capsules e. divided powders
c. tablets

A 287. The purpose of sorbitol is formulation of soft gelatin capsules is as a/an:

a. plasticizer d. thickener

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b. disintegrating agent e. emulsifier

c. lubricant

D 288. Pharmacists should caution patients whoare taking niacin that this drug:
a. stains the urine bright red c. causes muscular weakness
b. causes ringing in the ears d. should be taken with meals

E 289. Tetracyclines tend to form complexes with:

a. calcium ions d. iron ions
b. magnesium ions e. all of the above
c. aluminum ions

B 290. Most drugs are:

a. strong electrolytes d. highly ionic
b. weak electrolytes e. none of the above
c. nonelectrolytes

C 291. A humectant retards

a. bacterial growth d. spreadability
b. degradation e. all of the above
c. surface evaporation

A 292. Transdermal scopolamine is a drug used to prevent:

a. motion sickness d. coronary insufficiency
b. hypertension e. rabies
c. diabetes

B 293. Reaction rate is increased most readily by:

a humidity d. photolysis
b. high temperature e. hydrolysis
c. freezing

A 294. A primary disadvantage of ethylene glycol as a solvent in oral preparation is its:

a. potential toxicity d. high cost
b. lack of solvent action e. high viscosity
c. very limited miscibility

B 295. Glucose is NOT subject to hydrolysis because it is:

a. a dissacharide d. insoluble
b. a monosaccharide e. both B and C
c. a polysaccharide

C 296. Purified water USP may NOT be used in:

a. syrups d. elixirs
b. topical preparations e. effervescent solutions
c. parenteral preparations

B 297. Ferritin is a (a)

a. vitamin d. amino acid
b. micelle e. protein
c. emulsion

D 298. Gums are used in tabletting primarily as:

a. disintegrators d. binding agents
b. glidants e. both B & C
c. lubricants

D 299. Vanishing creams are classified as:

a. oleaginous d. o/w
b. absorption bases e. w/o
c. water-soluble bases

A 300. Syrup NF is:

a. self-preserving d. highly unstable
b. a supersaturated solution e. flavored and preserved
c. a dilute solution

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