8140 Set No, 1 17P/202/26 Question Booklet No... (To be filled up by the candidate by blue/ black ball-point pen) Roll No. Roll No. (Write the digits in words) Serial No. of OMR Answer Sheet Day and Date (Signature of Invigilator) INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Use only blue/black ball-point pen in the space above and on both sides of the Answer Sheet) 1. Within 30 minutes of the issue of the Question Booklet, check the Question Booklet to ensure that iC contains ail the pages in correct sequence and that no page/question is missing. In case of faulty Question Booklet bring it to the notice of the Superintendent/Invigilators immediately to obtain a fresh Question Booklet. 2, Donot bring any loose paper, written or blank, inside the Examination Hall except the Admit Card without its envelope. 3. A separate Answer Sheet is given. It should not be folded or mutilated. A second Answer Sheet shall not be provided. Only the Answer Sheet wili be evaluated, 4% Write your Roll Number and Serial Number of the Answer Sheet by pen in the space provided above. 5. On the front page of the Answer Sheet, write by pen your Roll Number in the space provided at the top, and by darkening the circies at the bottom. Also, wherever applicable, write the Question Bookiet Number and the Set Number in appropriate plac 5. No overwriting is allowed in the entries of Roll No., Question Booklet No. and Set Ko, (if any) on OMR sheet and also Roll No. and OMR Sheet No. on the Question Booklet, 7. Any change in the aforesaid entries is to be verified by the invigilator, otherwise it will be taken as unfair means, 8. Each question in this Booklet is followed by four allernative answers. For each question, you are to reeord the correct option on the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circle in the corresponding tow of the Answer Sheet, by ball-point pen as mentioned in the guidelines given on the first page of the Answer Shect. 9. For each question, darken only one circle on the Answer Sheet. If you darken more than one circle or darken a circle partially, the answer will be treeted as incorrect. 10. Note that the answer once fitted in ink cannot be changed. If you do not wish to attempt a question, leave all the circles in the corresponding row blank (such question will be awarded zero mark) 11.” For rough work, use the inner back page of the title caver and the blank page at the end of thie Booklet. 12, Deposit only the OMR Answer Sheet at the end of the Test. 3S. You are not permitted to leave the Examination Hall until the end of the Test. 14. Ifa candidate attempts to use any form of unvair means, he/she shall be liable to such punishment a8 the University may determine and impose on him/her. (3 Fe Fe a ares RA INo. of Printed Pages: 204217P/202/26 Set No. 1 No. of Questions : 120 ‘Time : 2 Hours , Full Marks ; 360 Note : 3) L (i) Attempt as many questions as you, One mark will be deducted for each awarded for each tinsttempted question. (Q) If more than one alternative answent BeHY tebe approximate to the correct answer, choose the closest one, An expenditure on education, public health, social insurance, etc., by the Goverment is which type of public expenditure? (1) Defence expenditure (2) Civil expenditure (3) Econorhic expenditure (4) Social expenditure National income ordinarity means. (1) Gross National Product (GNP) at market price (2) Net National Product (NNP) af ‘Ha?ket price (3) GNP at factor cost {4) NNP at factor cost P70}17P/202/26 Set No. 1 4 (3) Inflationary process in which prices are permitted to rise without any control by the Government is called (1) open inflation (2) suppressed inflation (3) mark-up inflation (4) stagflation- Consumer Price index for Agricultural Labour (CPI-AL) is compiled by (1) Central Statistical Office (CSO) (2) Labour Bureau (LB) (8) National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) (4) Economic Advisor, Ministry of Commerce (EA) The point of inflection tn classical production function lies at a puiut wheie (1) Marginal Physical Product (MPP) is maximum (2) Average Physical Product (APP) is maximum (3) MPP = APP (4) MPP =o The value of income elasticity of demand (n;) for necessary commodity is (1) np>1 {2) O Marketable surplus (4) Marketed surplus < Marketable surplus 2. 10. il. 17P/202/26 Set No. 1 A monopolistic competition is the market structure where {1) there are large number ofsellers selling identical products (2) there are large number of seltere selling differentiated products but close substitutes. {9) there ie only one scller of the products (4) there is only one buyer of the products Which one of the following is not among 3R’s of credit to test the economic feasibility? (1) Returns from the investment (2) Repewnent capacity 48) Rate of interest (4) Risk bearing ability Marginal Cost (MC) is equal to (1) the ratio of Total Cost (TC) and total output (¥) (2) the ratio of change in Total Cost (ATC) and change in total output (AY) (8) the ratio of change in Total Cost (ATC) and charige ii’ twtal input (ax) (4) the ratio of Total Cost (PC) and total input (x) An indifference curve shows the (1) various combination of two commodities yielding same level of satisfaction (2) various combination Of two Commodities yickling-ssme level of cost (3) various combination of | {yp commodities yielding decreasing satisfaction (4) various combination of two commodities Yielding decreasing cost 3 PTO)17P/202/26 Set No. 1 12, 13. 14, 1s. 16, 17. 18. (3) A statement of assets and liabilities of a farm at a point of time is called (1) Income Statement (2) Balance Sheet (3) Farm Budgeting (4) Cash Flow Statement For maintenance of soil fertility, appropriate cropping system is (1) monoculture (2) multiple cropping (3) mixed cropping (4) crop rotation Which one of the following is day neutral plant? () Sunflower (2) Safflower (3) Mustard (4) Linseed Most suitable cereal crop for pH range 4-0-6 is (1) barley (2) rice (3) maize (4) wheat Indicate the term not related with potato crop () bulking (2) tuberization (8) ‘sillking (4) suberization Deficiency symptoms éf which nutrient element appears in terminal buds of the plant? (1) Boron (2) Copper (3) tron (4) Zine In general best method of fertilizer application in cereal crops is (1) broadcast (2) broadcast and incorporation (3). band placement (4) point placement19. 21. 23. 8) 17P/202/26 Set No. 1 Excess amount of which of the following nutrients in soil causes iron and zinc deficiency in plants? (1) Nitrogen (2) Phosphorus (3) Potassium (4) Calcium Consumptive use of water refers to (1) Evaporation (E) (2) Transpiration (T} (3) Evaporation (£}+ Transpiration (ET). {4) ET + Metabolic needs For good yield, in most crops irrigation is must at (1) seedling stage (2) grand growth stage (3) flowering stage (4) ripening stage ‘Suitable herbicide for weed control in pulse crops is (1) isoproturon (2) 24D (B) atrezing ____(4) pendimethalin Which one of the following ia not grassy weed? (1) Bleusine indica (2) Digera arvensis (8) Digitaria sanguinalis (4) Chboris barbata Convoluulus arvensis weed is classified ax (1) perennial herbaceous (2) perennial woody (3) biennial (4) annual 5 @.T.0)17P/202/26 Set No. 1 25, 26. 21, 28, 29, 30. 3) It refers to the informal education that a child receives from his family, neighbours, friends and peers (1) acculturation (2) assimilation (3) socialization (4) social diffusion The first KVK was established in (2) Dethi (2) Bengalura (3) Pune (@) Puducherry “Learning is strengthened, when the learning experience is followed by satisfaction to the learner.” is {l) law of readiness (2) law of effect (3) law of exercise (4) law of belonging To show relative worth of a new practice over an old one, the extension method best suited is (1) method demonstration (2) group discussion (3) campaign {4) result demonstration ATMA operates at {1} Block level (2) District level (3) State level (4) National level ‘The spread of mobile phones usage in a social system relates to the concept of {1) diffusion (2) teaching (3) learning (4) adoption31. 3) 17P/202/26 Set No. 1 ‘Tendency of the people to think of their culture as best is known as (1) egoism (2) ethnocentrism (3) cultural relativism (4) illusory superiority Any relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs as a result of practice and experience . (1) attention (2) fearning (3) perceiving (4) teaching . Community Development Programme was atarted in the year (1) 1982 (2) 1985 (3) 1945 (4) 1955 ‘The word ‘extension’ is derived from whichy of the following languages? (1) French (2) Latin (3) Greek (4) Spanish Communication is a (1) method. (2) system (3) technique - 44) process . This State became the Ist State to reserve 50% of seats for women in the Panchayati Raj Institutions () Madhya Pradesh (2) Rajasthan (3) Bihar (4) Himachal Pradesh Intemational Flower Market ie-eituated at (1) Germany 2) Netherlands (3) Columbia (4). Switzerland (PTO)17P/202/26 Set No. 1 39, 40, 41, 42. 43, 8) Dahlia is propagated through (1) corms (2) rhizome (3) tubers (4) seeds Which is the most commonly used rootstock for rose propagation in North India? (1) R. indica var, odorata (2) R. multiflora (3) R. centifolia (4) R. moschata Tuberose belongs to the family (1) Convolvulaceae (2) Amaryilidaceae {3} Compositae (4) Iridaceae Rock garden is situated at (1) Bengalura (2) Hyderabad (3) Chandigarh (4) Saharanpur indian shot is the name given to the seeds of (1) canna (2) rose {3) tulip (4) gladiolus Sugar percent in jelly should be {1} 50-55% (2) 60-65% (3) 65-70% (4) 70-75% Modified stem of banana is called {1) sword sucker (2) rhizome (3) water sucker (4) corm47. 48. 49. 50. 51. @) 17P/202/26 Set No. 1 Pointed gourd is propagated by (1) root cutting (2) stem cutting (3) seed (4) None of these Amrapali is a cross between (1) Neelam x Dasheri (2) Dasheri x Neelam (@) Ratna x Alphonso (4) Dasheri x Alphonso Guava fruit is botanically known as (1) drupe (2) hesperidium (3) berry (4} pome Mango inflorescence contains which type of flowers? (1) Male and hermaphrodite (2) Male and female @) Male and neutral (4) Female and hermaphrodite Casein is manufactured from () com (2} rice (3) milk {4) wheat The greenish color of chhana whey is duc to the presence of (1) carotene (2) riboftavin (3) chlorophyll, (4) lyoopenc Which one of the following tiilk contains maxinnam amount of lactose? {1) Cow 2) Bufo. . (3) Goat (4) Human 9 PTO}17P/202/26 Set No, 1 52. 53. 54, BB. 56. 57. (3) The milk-solids-not-fat in skim milk should not be less than (1) 8:25% (2) 85% (3) 87% (4) 90% Theorctically, the maximum overrun in butter can be (1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 30% (4) 35% For productiun of sterilized cream, the fat content of fresh, swect cream is first standardized to (1) 15% (2) 20% (3) 25% - (4) 30% A satislactory temperature tor separation of milk is (1) 30°C {2) 35 °C (3) 40°C (4) 45°C In India, for ice cream manufacture, the widely used stabilizer is (1) gelatin (2) guar gum (3) carrageenan {4) sodium alginate RM value of ghee measures the (1) degree of unsaturation (2) steam volatile water soluble fatty acids (3) average molecular weight (4) steam volatile water insoluble fatty acids 1061, 62, {3} 17P/202/26 Set No. 1 ‘The efficiency of mili. pasteurization is determined by ()) turbidity test (2) hotis test (3) Hehner test (4) phosphatase test During dahi production, inoculated milk is normally incubated at 22-25 °C for (1) 10-12 hows (2) 13-16 hours (3) 16-18 hours (4) 20-22 hours Which one of the following dried milk is manufactured maximum in India? (1) Skim milk powder (2) Whole mile poweer (3) Malted milk powder (4) Infant milk powder Breeding value of an individual is (1) sum of average effect of genes (2) difference of average effect of genes (3) difference of additive and dominance effects of genes (4) sum of additive and dominance: effects of genes Ifn = number of parenti arid @ = sample size Of the crose, the number of crosecs required for partial diailel analysis can be obtained by the formula () ns/2 (2) ninsy2 (3} ns (4) 2ns Joint scaling test is performed to detect. (1) presence of dominance (2) presence of non-additiveness (3) presence of additiveness (4) presence of epistasis : oe Pro)17P/202/26 Set No. 1 65, 66. 67. 68. Presence of reverse transcriptase was discovered from AMV virus by (1) H. Termin and D. Baltimore (2) H. G. Khorana (3) Zaenen ct. al. (4) Maxam and Gilbert Which one of the following isnot needed for DNA transcription? {1) Ribosomes (2) Nucleotides (3) DNA (4) Enzymes If partial dominance is present, at an inhibitory locus the expected phenotypic ratio is Q) 13:3 (2) 12;3:1 () 9:6:1 (4) 7:6:3 The most effective mutagen for cytoplasmic genes is (1) ethidium bromide (2) EMS (3) MMS (4) sodium azide For exploitation of both additive and non-additive gene effects in cross-pollinated crops, the most effective method is (1) simple recurrent selection (2) recurrent selection for SCA (3) recurrent selection for GCA (4) reciprocal recurrent selection 69. Inbred lines can be improved by (1) transgressive breeding (2) mutation breeding {@) back cross method (4) All of these 1217P/202/26 Set No. 1 70. The scientists who demonstrated sexuality in bacteria 71. 74. 75. 8) (1) Leeuwenhoek and Kola (2) Lederberg and.Tatum (3) Kircher and Koch (4) Louis Pasteur and Nicholas As compared to main bacterial chromosome, the size of an episome is (1) 1/10 (2) 1/20 . 3) 1/30 (4) 1/40 The term mutation breeding was given by (1) Hugo de Vries (2) Jones (3) Multer The process involved in water loss from the leaf surface is called {1) evaporation (2) evapotranspiration (3) guttation (4) wansptraton The color pigment :involved in. lowerin, 2 in plant is (1) chlorophyil (2) anthocyanin (3) cytochrome (4) phytochrome ~ Which one of the following plants is very officient in photosynthesis? (1) Wheat °° (2) Sorghum "(9 aatteranemes 1) Cicer 7.0)17P/202/26 Set No. 1 ‘76. 77, 78. 80. 81. 82. @) Deficiency of which element causes Khaira disease in rice? (2) Ca (2) Mg (3) B 4) Zn Identify the plant hormone involved in initiation of rooting in cuttings (1) cycocel (2) TIBA @) 24D (4) IBA Which one of the following is an amino acid? (1) Phytic acid (2) Glutamic acid (3) Abscisic acid (4) Gibberellic acid The conversion of sugar to pyruvic acid is called (1) hydrolysis (2) glycolysis (3) phytolysis. (4) cyclosis The first product of photosynthesis in C, plant is (1) sucrose (2) oxaloacetate (3) glycerol (4) phosphoglyceric acid Hydrolysis of fat is catalyzed by (1) hydrolase (2) catalase @) lipase (4) amylase Which one of the following is also known as Diffusion Pressure Deficit? (1) Osmotic pressure (2) Wall pressure (3) Suction pressure (4) Turgor pressure 1487. 89, @) 17P/202/26 Set No. 1 Which clement is related to nitrogen fixation in leguminous plante? Q) ca @) Mo @B (4) Ca Which hormone causes leaf senescence and ageing? (1) BA {2) ABA (3) GA (4) IAA Indian Type Culture Collection (ITC) is a collection of (1) bacteria (2) algae (3) fungi (4) viruses The term necrosis indicates ~ (4) curing (2) death of cells (3) blighting (4) mosaic ‘The bacterial cell wall is made of (1) pectin (2) muramic acid (3) chitin (4) cettatowe Needham is associated with studies on (i) sced pathology 2) epidemiology (3) nematodes (4) systemic acquired resistance The mungbean yellow mosaic virus is transmitted by (1) whitellies (2) sap (3) seeds T"AY of the above 15 @ro)17P/202/26 Set No. 1 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 3 ‘the Koch’s postulates is essential to establish (1) resistance (2} pathogenicity (3) susceptibility (4) hypersensitivity Which one of the following is a total stem parasite? (1) Loranthus (2) Cuscuta (3} Orobanche (4) Striga The black heart of potato is caused due to (1) frost injury (2) high light intensity (3) lack of oxygen (4) calclum Ucficiency Ear cockle disease of wheat is caused by (1) Anguina tritici (2) Meloidogyne incognita {3} Meloidogyne Javanica (4) All of these Black leg disease of potato is caused by (1) fungus {2) bacteria (9) virus (4) nematode Which type of disease cannot be manage by quarantine? (1) Seed borne 2) Soil borne (3) Air borne 4) All of these 16