STUDY OF LIFE

Unit A — Introduction

1. The fact that no two members of the same 6. Which levels of biological organization
species are absolutely identical is an example of includes all the others listed?

A. diversity A. Biome.
B. homeostasis. B. Ecosystem.
C. change through time. C. Population.
D. structural adaptations. D. Community.

2. Which of the following is the BEST example of 7. What is a group of tissues with a unifying
the biological principle of structural adaptations? function called?

A. Pigs have litters. A. Cell.

B. Snakes eat frogs. B. Organ.
C. There are many breeds of dogs. C. Organism.
D. Cacti needles are modified branches. D. Organ system.

3. The fact that some flowers close up at night 8. Biology is the study of
and open up during the day is an example of
A. life.
A. continuity. B. plants.
B. interactions. C. animals.
C. homeostasis. D. organisms.
D. structural adaptations.
9. Which of the following levels of study in
4. A litter of puppies being born to a dog is an biology is MORE GENERAL than “community”?
example of
A. Species.
A. continuity. B. Ecosystem.
B. interactions. C. Population.
C. changes through time. D. Organ system.
D. structural adaptations.
10. Which of the following sequences correctly
5. The relationship between a carnivore (wolf) specifies the study of insects?
and a herbivore (rabbit) is an example of
A. Biology – botany – entomology.
A. unity. B. Zoology – biology – insectology.
B. interactions. C. Biology – zoology – entomology.
C. changes through time. D. Biology – zoology – microbiology.
D. structural adaptations.

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 Unit B — Diversity and Classification

1. Linnaeus based his classification of plants on 6. The use of two-word names like this is called
A. taxonomy.
A. usefulness to man. B. dichotomy.
B. evolutionary changes. C. dinomial taxomony.
C. environmental factors. D. binomial nomenclature.
D. structural characteristics.
7. Biologists who classify organisms are called
The next five questions refer to the following
name for a vine maple tree:Acer circinatum A. organists.
B. taxonomists.
2. The name as it is written is C. taxidermists.
D. taxorganists.
A. correct.
B. incorrect because it should be underlined. 8. All taxa larger than "species" are
C. incorrect because both words should be
capitalized. A. arbitrary.
D. incorrect because neither word should be B. written in italics.
capitalized. C. biologically useless.
D. artificial, defined by man.
3. The biological name for a vine maple tree is
9. Horses and zebras are not considered to be
A. Acer. members of the same species because they
B. circinatum.
C. Acer circinatum. A. do not interbreed.
D. none of the above. B. eat different foods.
C. are of different sizes.
4. The genus name for a vine maple tree is D. have different markings.

A. Acer. 10. Members of the same species

B. circinatum.
C. Acer circinatum. A. are in the same genus.
D. none of the above. B. live in the same location.
C. interact sexually with each other.
5. The species name for a vine maple tree is D. are all the same color and shape.

A. Acer.
B. circinatum.
C. Acer circinatum.
D. none of the above.

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11. The most important factor in deciding 16. Which sequence of taxa is in proper order?
whether or not two populations of birds living on
two different islands belong to the same species A. Species, genus, family, class, order, phylum,
is their kingdom.
B. Genus, class, order, kingdom, phylum,
A. physical similarity. species, family.
B. embryological similarity. C. Class, genus, family, species, order, phylum,
C. environmental requirement. kingdom.
D. mutual reproductive capability. D. Species, genus, family, order, class, phylum,
kingdom.
12. The taxon most clearly defined by natural
biological barriers is the 17. Unlike a plant, a plant-like protist

A. class. A. is unicellular.
B. genus. B. has a nucleus.
C. phylum. C. uses mitochondria.
D. species. D. contains chloroplasts.

13. Which kingdom includes bacteria? 18. A unicellular organism with membrane-
bound organelles is generally considered to be a
A. Fungi.
B. Monera. A. plant-like protist.
C. Plantae. B. animal-like protist.
D. Protista. C. fungus-like protist.
D. protist of some kind.
14. The third smallest taxon is the
19. How many kingdoms of organisms will be
A. order. studied in Biology 11?
B. class. A. Three.
C. family. B. Four.
D. phylum. C. Five.
D. Six.
15. The taxon that includes the others listed is
the 20. Organisms are classified into kingdoms
primarily by their
A. class.
B. order. A. habitat.
C. genus. B. structures.
D. phylum. C. size and coloration.
D. reproductive behavior.

Unit C — Adaptation and Evolution

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1. Meiosis results in the production of 6. The evolution of a species could be MOST
ACCURATELY documented by the
A. two diploid daughter cells.
B. four diploid daughter cells. A. observation of a set of mutations.
C. two haploid daughter cells. B. change in the size of a physical feature.
D. four haploid daughter cells. C. change in the frequency of alleles in the gene
pool.
2. Which pair of bases does NOT represent a D. occurrence of genotype that doesn’t change,
complementary base pair? though the corresponding phenotype may.

A. thymine — adenine. 7. Which of the following is TRUE of homologous

B. adenine — guanine. structures?
C. guanine — cytosine.
D. cytosine — guanine. A. They have the same types of tissues and the
same functions.
3. The process of replication ensures that B. They have different types of tissues and may
daughter cells will have exact copies of have different functions.
C. They have different types of tissues but may
A. chromosomes without any mutations. have the same functions.
B. all the genetic information for the organism. D. They have the same types of tissues, but may
C. suitable segments of DNA required for cell have different functions.
survival.
D. the genetic information to be used by 8. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to
those particular cells. form a fossil?

4. When during the cell cycle does replication A. Skin.

occur? B. Teeth.
C. Shells.
A. Just before prophase. D. Bones.
B. S period of interphase.
C. G1 period of interphase. 9. The fact that embryos of different animals
D. G2 period of interphase. appear similar during various stages of their
development suggests that they are
5. The theory of natural selection was developed
by A. evolving.
B. mutating.
A. Darwin. C. genetically related.
B. Mendel. D. analogous to one another.
C. Lamarck.
D. Linnaeus. 10. Industrial melanism is an example of

A. artificial selection.
B. disruptive selection.
C. stabilizing selection.
D. accidental selection.

11. Which is NOT an example of artificial 16. Evolution due to genetic drift is MOST
selection? LIKELY to occur in a

A. Bird watching. A. large population due to selective pressures.

B. Breeding race horses. B. small population due to selective pressures.
C. Raising purebred dogs. C. large population without the influence of
D. Protecting endangered species. selective pressures.
D. small population without the influence of
12. The phenomenon of the accumulation of selective pressures.
toxins in the tissues of organisms is known as
17. A rare allele may become common in a small
A. extinction population in a relatively short period of time due
B. natural selection. to
C. disruptive selection.
D. biological magnification. A. genetic drift.
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13. Variations of a specific gene are known as B. adaptive radiation.
C. divergent evolution.
A. alleles. D. convergent evolution.
B. mutations.
C. genotypes. 18. Individuals without the specializations
D. phenotypes. required to survive in a changing environment

14. A bimodal distribution of phenotypes in any A. die.

given population could naturally appear through B. adapt.
C. evolve.
A. artificial selection. D. mutate.
B. disruptive selection.
C. stabilizing selection. 19. The idea that fossils are direct evidence of
D. directional selection. previously living organisms is consistent with

15. Which of the following is NOT a necessary A. Darwin’s theory of evolution.

component of the process of natural selection? B. Lamarck’s theory of evolution.
C. Both of these theories of evolution.
A. extinction. D. Neither of these theories of evolution.
B. selective pressure.
C. phenotypic variation. 20. The ability of an organism to pass on its
D. reproductive success. genes to its offspring is part of the definition of

A. fitness.
B. radiation.
C. evolution.
D. adaptation.

Unit D — Viruses

1. If a person previously had cow pox and was 6. Which of the following scientists conducted
infected with small pox, then the experiments that led to his belief that the cause
of tobacco mosaic disease was either a very
A. effect would be severe. small bacterium or a toxin produced by the
B. person would most certainly die. bacteria?
C. effect would be minimal if any even occurred.
D. person could become sick with any kind of A. Miller.
pox, including chicken pox. B. Meyer.
C. Beijerinick.
2. During the vaccination against small pox, D. Iwanowski.
what did Jenner inject into people?

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A. Fluid from a cowpox blister. 7. The structure of Bacteriophage T4 is BEST
B. Blood from an infected cow. described as an arrangement of
C. Pus from an infected person.
D. Antibiotics he developed against small pox. A. proteins surrounding a chromosome made of
DNA.
3. Which of the following scientists was the first B. proteins surrounding a chromosome made of
to see the tobacco mosaic virus? RNA.
C. chromosomes made of DNA surrounding a
A. Miller. core of proteins.
B. Meyer. D. chromosomes made of RNA surrounding a
C. Beijerinick. core of proteins.
D. Iwanowski.
8. Viral specificity, the fact that a given type of
4. Which of the following scientists concluded virus can only affect one kind of host cell, is
that tobacco mosaic disease was caused by
organisms capable of reproduction? A. because of toxins produced by non-host cells.
B. a result of the matching of chemical
A. Miller. structures.
B. Meyer. C. an indication of their relative strength or
C. Beijerinick. weakness.
D. Iwanowski. D. nature’s way of ensuring a wide distribution of
viruses.
5. Which of the following scientists demonstrated
that tobacco mosaic disease could be 9. A “phage” (short for bacteriophage) is a type
transferred from an infected plant to a healthy of
plant in the juice extracted from the infected
plant? A. bacterial cell.
B. virus that invades bacteria cells.
A. Miller. C. cell that is prone to bacterial infections.
B. Meyer. D. bacteria that is prone to viral infections.
C. Beijerinick.
D. Iwanowski. 10. E. coli lives in

A. water.
B. bacteria.
C. blood cells.
D. intestines of mammals.

11. Which of the following sequences BEST 16. RNA differs from DNA in all of the following
describes the lytic cycle? EXCEPT one. Which one?

A. Infection — replication — self-assembly — A. RNA contains uracil, where DNA doesn’t

lysis. contain uracil.
B. Replication — infection — self-assembly — B. RNA is single stranded, where DNA is double
lysis. stranded.
C. Lysis — replication — self-assembly — C. RNA contains ribose, where DNA contains
infection. deoxyribose.
D. Lysis — self-assembly — infection — D. RNA is not normally found in human cells,
replication. where DNA is.

12. A lysogenic cycle differs from a lytic cycle in 17. A pathogen is BEST described as a
several ways. Which of these is NOT one of
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them? A. toxic chemical.
B. virus or bacterium.
A. The cycle includes a period of “dormancy.” C. carrier of a disease.
B. The host cell doesn’t burst open, it just D. disease-causing microbe.
eventually dies.
C. The viral chromosome joins the host cell’s 18. Certain types of white blood cells release
genetic material. proteins that clump together foreign cells. What
D. The genetic material of the virus is produced are these proteins called?
by the host cell.
A. Antibiotics.
13. A prophage is BEST described as B. Antibodies.
C. Pathogens.
A. active viral genetic material. D. Interferons.
B. dormant viral genetic material.
C. active bacterial genetic material. 19. Interleukins, proteins released by certain
D. dormant bacterial genetic material. white blood cells, function to

14. The genetic material of a retrovirus will A. absorb pathogens in the blood stream.
organize the synthesis of B. activate other white blood cells during an
infection.
A. DNA from its RNA structure. C. deactivate the immune system after an
B. DNA from its DNA structure. infection has passed.
C. RNA from its RNA structure. D. warn body cells that there are pathogens in
D. RNA from its DNA structure. the blood stream.

15. Retroviruses are significant in studies of 20. Which of the following is typical of passive
human diseases because they inject immunity?

A. cancer-causing genes. A. It is relatively short-lived.

B. cancer-preventing genes. B. A person makes their own antibodies.
C. genetic material that produces cancer- C. It comes and goes depending on a person’s
causing genes. health.
D. genetic material that produces cancer- D. It can be induced by injecting a weakened
preventing genes. pathogen.

Unit E — Monerans

1. Which of the following structures would NOT 6. Which of the following is a correct match?
be found in a bacterial cell?
A. Aerobic — plant cells — alcohol.
A. Ribosome. B. Aerobic — animal cells — alcohol.
B. Lysosome. C. Anaerobic — plant cells — lactic acid.
C. Chromosome. D. Anaerobic — animal cells — lactic acid.
D. Cell membrane.
7. A bacterium that makes its food using energy
2. What is the function of the surface chemicals from chemicals found in its environment is
on bacterial cells called pili? termed a

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A. Sensory. A. photosynthetic autotroph.
B. Defense. B. chemosynthetic autotroph.
C. Movement. C. photosynthetic heterotroph.
D. Attachment. D. chemosynthetic heterotroph.

3. Which of the following is MOST characteristic 8. During binary fission, bacteria will
of eubacteria?
A. divide by mitosis and double their number.
A. Anaerobic. B. produce gametes that fuse to form a zygote.
B. Common and abundant. C. divide by meiosis and quadruple their
C. Live in harsh environments. number.
D. Uncommon with simple characteristics. D. combine, exchange genetic material, and
then divide.
4. What shape is a bacillus bacterium?
9. In one hour, given ideal growing conditions, a
A. Spiral. small colony of 10 cells could grow to include
B. Elongate.
C. Spherical. A. 13 cells.
D. Polyhedral. B. 40 cells.
C. 80 cells.
5. Organisms that generally use oxygen, but can D. Hundreds of cells.
survive without it are called
10. The following steps occur during conjugation.
A. obligate aerobes. What is the correct sequence of these steps?
B. facultative aerobes.
C. obligate anaerobes. 1. DNA replication
D. facultative anaerobes. 2. genetic recombination
3. genetic transfer between cells

A. 1, 3, 2.
B. 2, 3, 1.
C. 3, 1, 2.
D. 1, 2, 3.

11. Which of the following most accurately 16. An antiseptic is most correctly used to kill
applies to endospore production? bacteria that

A. Sexual; during poor growing conditions. A. are in food.

B. Sexual; during good growing conditions. B. may be found in a cut.
C. Asexual; during poor growing conditions. C. can be found internally.
D. Asexual; during good growing conditions. D. are on non-living surfaces.

12. Agar, a common laboratory food source for 17. Bacterial activity can result in all of the
bacteria, is prepared from following EXCEPT ONE. Which one?

A. fruit. A. Oil metabolism.

B. seaweed. B. Food production.
C. grain crops. C. Protein digestion.
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D. animal tissues. D. Oxygen production.

13. Macroscopically, bacteria colonies can be 18. Significant use of biotechnology does NOT
distinguished from each other by all of the currently include the production of
following EXCEPT ONE. Which one?
A. pathogens.
A. Color. B. disinfectants.
B. Sheen. C. protein hormones.
C. Cell shape. D. genetically altered food.
D. Surface texture.
19. Which combination is MOST correct?
14. Bacterial cells are called gram positive if their
cell walls containing A. Parasite — E. coli — intestines.
B. Symbiont — E. coli — stomach.
A. lipids absorb safranine. C. Pathogen — H. pylori — stomach.
B. lipids absorb crystal violet. D. Decomposer — H. pylori — intestines.
C. carbohydrates absorb safranine.
D. carbohydrates absorb crystal violet. 20. Nitrifying bacteria convert

15. Which procedure is LEAST likely to be A. N2 into NH3.

included in a list of sterile techniques? B. N2 into NO3-1.
C. NO3-1 into N2.
A. Using disinfectants. D. NH3 into NO3-1.
B. Avoiding direct contact.
C. Maintaining a biological control.
D. Heating equipment to sterilize it.

Unit F — Protists

1. Most unicellular organisms that have a 6. What happens to a food vacuole once it is
nucleus would be formed?

A. eukaryotic and have cilia. A. It leaves via the gullet.

B. prokaryotic and have ribosomes. B. It fuses with a lysosome.
C. prokaryotic and have chlorophyll. C. It becomes a contractile vacuole.
D. eukaryotic and have mitochondria. D. It becomes attached to the oral groove.

2. Which of the following is mismatched? 7. What phylum does an ameba belong to?

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A. Digestive — protist-like. A. Phylum Ciliphora.
B. Ingestive — animal-like. B. Phylum Sarcodina.
C. Absorptive — fungus-like. C. Phylum Pyrrophyta.
D. Photosynthetic — plant-like. D. Phylum Zoomastigina.

3. Which is the BEST description of plankton? 8. Which of the following BEST describes the
functions of pseudopodia?
A. Floating plants.
B. Microscopic aquatic organisms. A. Ingestion and digestion.
C. Marine photosynthetic organisms without B. Movement and ingestion.
roots. C. Reproduction and ingestion.
D. Floating organisms that are at the mercy of D. Movement and reproduction.
the currents.
9. Conjugation is considered to be
4. What feature of a paramecium is used to
classify it into its phylum? A. sexual because new genetic combinations are
produced.
A. Cilia. B. asexual because no new genetic
B. Oral groove. combinations are produced.
C. Food vacuole. C. sexual because it requires a male and female
D. Contractile vacuole. of the same species.
D. asexual because organisms can conduct
5. Which of the following is the BEST description conjugation independently.
of the movement of a paramecium?
10. Which of the following is a correct description
A. Gliding. of reproduction by ameba?
B. Floating.
C. Spiraling. A. sexually when conditions are poor.
D. Crawling. B. sexually when conditions are good.
C. asexually when conditions are poor.
D. by forming cysts when conditions are good.

11. During the Plasmodium life cycle, where do 16. Into which phylum are diatoms classified?
the sporozoans mature?
A. Phylum Pyrrophyta.
A. Liver cells. B. Phylum Chrysophyta.
B. Red blood cells. C. Phylum Euglenophyta.
C. Human blood stream. D. Phylum Acrasiomycota.
D. Mosquito salivary glands.
17. Which phylum of protists is NOT
12. Which phylum of protists is LEAST likely to polymorphic?
have flagella?
A. Phylum Sporozoa.
A. Phylum Sarcodina. B. Phylum Pyrrophyta.
B. Phylum Pyrrophyta. C. Phylum Myxomycota.
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C. Phylum Zoomastigina. D. Phylum Acrasiomycota.
D. Phylum Euglenophyta.
18. What causes acrasiomycotes to develop into
13. When light shines on water spore-producing structures?
containing Euglena, the Euglena will most likely
swim A. Attraction to cAMP, which is released in poor
feeding conditions.
A. towards it using their flagella. B. Attraction to cAMP, which is released in good
B. away from it using their flagella. feeding conditions.
C. towards it by eugleoid movement. C. Repulsion from cAMP, which is released in
D. away from it by euglenoid movement. poor feeding conditions.
D. Repulsion from cAMP, which is released in
14. Rapid reproduction by photosynthetic protists good feeding conditions.
producing “blooms” may also cause significant
19. Which pathogen and disease is
A. depletion of both CO2 and O2. mismatched?
B. production of both CO2 and O2.
C. depletion of CO2 and production of O2. A. Gonyaulax — red tide.
D. depletion of O2 and production of CO2. B. Entameba — dysentry.
C. Giardia — beaver fever.
15. Red tide is poisonous because the D. Trypanosome — malaria.

A. water contains toxins produced by protists. 20. Which vector (carrier) and pathogen are
B. shellfish accumulate toxins produced by the mismatched?
protists.
C. protists are dying at a high rate polluting the A. Mosquito — malaria.
ocean shores. B. Fly — Chagas disease.
D. shellfish are dying at a high rate polluting the C. Fly — sleeping sickness.
ocean shores. D. Mosquito — amebic dystentry.

Unit G — Fungi

1. When a fungal spore germinates and 6. Which phylum does Rhizopus stolonifer
continues to grow, it grows from a belong to?

A. tip and forms a strand called a hypha. A. Phylum Oomycetes.

B. base and forms a strand called a hypha. B. Phylum Ascomycetes.
C. tip and forms a strand called a mycelium. C. Phylum Zygomycetes.
D. base and forms a strand called a mycelium. D. Phylum Basidiomycetes.

2. Which of the following is the BEST description 7. Which phylum produces an N + N secondary
of the role of a substrate in relation to a fungus? mycelium?

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A. Defense. A. Phylum Oomycetes.
B. Camouflage. B. Phylum Ascomycetes.
C. Reproduction. C. Phylum Zygomycetes.
D. Source of nutrients. D. Phylum Basidiomycetes.

3. Hyphae that exhibit positive chemotaxis will 8. Which of the following MOST ACCURATELY
grow describes the production of basidiospores?

A. towards each other for reproductive purposes. A. Singulary.

B. towards each other to share a rich food B. In clusters of four.
source. C. In clusters of eight.
C. away from each other to ensure distribution of D. Hundreds at a time.
spores.
D. away from each other to avoid the rapid 9. Which of the following types of spores is
depletion of nutrients in one area. produced asexually?

4. A hyphal strand that is termed coenocytic A. Ascospores.

usually B. Zygospores.
C. Basidiospores.
A. has nuclei and cross walls. D. Conidiospores.
B. lacks nuclei and crosswalls.
C. lacks nuclei, but has cross walls. 10. A specialized hyphal strand that runs
D. has nuclei, but lacks cross walls. horizontal to the substrate is called a

5. Which phylum does a puffball belong to? A. stolon.

B. rhizoid.
A. Phylum Oomycetes. C. mycelium.
B. Phylum Ascomycetes. D. sporangiophore.
C. Phylum Zygomycetes.
D. Phylum Basidiomycetes.

11. Fungal rhizoids have the dual purposes of 16. Lichen could NOT be symbiotic relationships
between fungi and
A. anchoring and absorbing nutrients.
B. asexual reproduction and anchoring. A. plants.
C. spreading out the fungus and absorbing B. protists.
nutrients. C. animals.
D. asexual reproduction and spreading out the D. monerans.
fungus.
17. Why are lichens considered a pioneer
12. Which phylum of fungi has cellulose cell organism?
walls?
A. They can be found almost everywhere.
A. Phylum Oomycetes. B. They were one of the first known organisms.
B. Phylum Ascomycetes. C. They conduct life processes in very simple
C. Phylum Zygomycetes. ways.
D. Phylum Basiodiomycetes. D. They are one of the first organisms to grow in
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13. The hyphae of egg fungi are disturbed areas.

A. N and coenocytic. 18. Which of the following is NOT a type of

B. 2N and coenocytic. lichen?
C. N and acoenocytic.
D. 2N and acoenocytic. A. Foliose — leafy, often found in trees.
B. Fruticose — has upright fruiting bodies.
14. Ringworm and athlete’s foot are fungal C. Crustose — crust-like, grows flat on surfaces.
diseases caused by members of which phylum? D. Branchiose — branching, forms a network of
strands.
A. Phylum Oomycetes.
B. Phylum Ascomycetes. 19. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic relationship
C. Phylum Zygomycetes. between a fungus and what else?
D. Phylum Deuteromycetes.
A. Lichen.
15. What is the major characteristic that unifies B. Roots of plants.
Phylum Deuteromycetes? C. Another fungus.
D. Photosynthetic parts of plants.
A. A lack of known sexual reproductive
structures. 20. Which phylum provided the original source of
B. A lack of known asexual reproductive penicillin?
structures.
C. Coenocytic hyphae with one nucleus in each A. Phylum Oomycetes.
cell. B. Phylum Ascomycetes.
D. Acoenocytic hyphae with one nucleus in each C. Phylum Zygomycetes.
cell. D. Phylum Deuteromycetes.

Unit H — Plants That Don't Produce Seeds

1. Which part of an alga is NOT correctly 6. Which of the following ideas does NOT
matched with its function? support the notion that Volvox is a multicellular
colony?
A. Float — buoyancy.
B. Holdfast — anchorage. A. It has simple tissues and organs.
C. Stipe — conduct water. B. Most of the component cells are all very
D. Blade — photsynthesis. similar to each other.
C. If broken apart, it can reassemble or replace
2. Pigment molecules other than chlorophyll-a the missing parts.
capture light energy and D. There is some communication and
coordination between the component cells.
A. make products other than glucose.
B. store it to make glucose at another time. 7. The holdfasts of Spirogyra are an advantage
C. pass it along to chlorophyll-a for making

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glucose. and a disadvantage because they
D. make glucose, but less efficiently than
chlorophyll-a. A. anchor the plant and absorb chemicals from
the soil.
3. The seaweeds along the shores of the coast B. anchor the plant and make it an easier target
of BC are members of for herbivores.
C. enable it to absorb chemicals from the soil,
A. Phyla Chlorophyta and Phaeophyta. which may to toxic to its growth.
B. Phyla Phaeophyta and Rhodophyta. D. enable it to grow taller increasing the
C. Phyla Chlorophyta and Rhodophyta. possibility of breaking the filamentous structure.
D. Phyla Phaeophyta, Chlorophyta, and
Rhodophyta. 8. Which of the following is TRUE about
alternation of generations?
4. Green algae is considered to be the most
related to land plants because it A. sporophytes produce spores that grow into
gametophytes, which produce gametes.
A. has vascular tissue, which other algae lack. B. sporophytes produce gametes that grow into
B. is equipped with guard cells and stomata to gametophytes, which produce spores.
control gas exchange. C. sporophytes produce spores that grow into
C. is predominantly a sporophyte, where other other sporophytes, which produce gametes.
algae are gametophytes. D. gametophytes produce gametes that grow
D. stores glucose as starch, rather than oils or into other gametophytes, which produce spores.
other complex carbohydrates.
9. Ulva is biologically significant because
5. Which of the following is LEAST useful when
distinguishing A. it is eaten as dulce.
betweenChlamydomonas and Euglena? B. it can grow on land and in the water.
C. it is harvested for its agar-producing abilities.
A. Flagella. D. it displays the same kind of life cycle as
B. Eyespots. moss.
C. Pyrenoid body.
D. Contractile proteins. 10. Which of the following is LEAST problematic
for moss growing on land?

A. Drying out in the sun.

B. Getting soaked in the rain.
C. Obtaining water through its roots.
D. Obtaining enough light for photosynthesis.

11. To which phylum does moss belong? 16. Which of the following most correctly
identifies the roles of vascular tissues?
A. Phylum Bryophyta.
B. Phylum Phaeophyta. A. Xylem conducts H2O and dissolved minerals
C. Phylum Chlorophyta. up to the leaves, where phloem transports the
D. Phylum Tracheophyta. products of photosynthesis down a stem.
B. Phloem conducts H2O and dissolved minerals
12. Which of the following most correctly up to the leaves, where xylem transports the
identifies the role of guard cells? products of photosynthesis down a stem.
C. Xylem conducts H2O and dissolved minerals
A. Open to let CO2 in and O2 and H2O out. up to the leaves, where phloem transports the
B. Open to let O2 in and CO2 and H2O out. products of photosynthesis away from the
C. Open to let CO2 and H2O in and O2 out. leaves.
D. Open to let O2 and H2O in and CO2 out. D. Phloem conducts H2O and dissolved
minerals up to the leaves, where xylem
transports the products of photosynthesis away
14
13. Select the TRUE statement from among the from the leaves.
following statements about moss.
17. A fiddlehead is an immature
A. The sporophyte is photosynthetic, but the
gametophyte is not. A. sporophyte frond.
B. The gametophyte is photosynthetic, but the B. gametophyte frond.
sporophyte is not. C. sporophyte prothallium.
C. Both the gametophyte and the sporophyte are D. gametophyts prothallium.
photosynthetic.
D. Neither the sporophyte not the gametophyte 18. Sori are a specialization found on
is photosynthetic.
A. fronds for the production of spores.
14. At what stage in the moss life cycle does B. fronds for the production of gametes.
meiosis occur? C. gametophytes for the production of spores.
D. gametophytes for the production of spores.
A. In the spore capsule.
B. In spores before they germinate. 19. Which is the most logical sequence of plants
C. In the gametophytes for the production of during succession on land?
gametes.
D. In the top of a female gametophyte, resulting A. Moss — grass — shrubs — trees.
in the growth of the sporophyte. B. Ferns — grass — shrubs — trees.
C. Algae — moss — grass — shrubs.
15. Which of the following is present in ferns but D. Lichen — trees — logs — decomposers.
not present in moss?
20. Of which phylum is agar a derivative?
A. Vascular tissue.
B. Guard cells and stomata. A. Phylum Bryophyta.
C. Specialized structures to produce spores. B. Phylum Phaeophyta.
D. Specialized structures to produce gametes. C. Phylum Rhodophyta.
D. Phylum Chlorophyta.

Unit I — Plants That Produce Seeds

1. Which of these is the MOST ACCURATE 6. In which growing conditions would you find
difference between gymnosperms and xerophytes, hydrophytes, and halophytes
angiosperms? (respectively)?

A. Angiosperms can have broad, flat leaves; A. Mineral-rich, aquatic, dry.

gymnosperms never do. B. Aquatic, dry, mineral-rich.
B. Gymnosperms produce cones for C. Dry, aquatic, mineral-rich.
reproduction; angiosperms don’t. D. Dry, mineral-rich, aquatic.
C. Angiosperms produce flowers for
reproduction; gymnosperms don’t. 7. A boring tool is used to drill a hole into a tree.
D. Gymnosperms have leaves that are reduced Which sequence of tissues would it encounter?

15
in size, forming needles; angiosperms don’t. A. Phloem — xylem — vascular cambium.
B. Phloem — vascular cambium — xylem.
2. Which of the following plants produces a seed C. Xylem — vascular cambium — phloem.
with only one cotyledon? D. Xylem — phloem — vascular cambium.

A. Pea. 8. What accounts for the movement of water into

B. Corn. a root hair and on to the xylem?
C. Peanut.
D. Sunflower. A. The pressure exerted on the roots by the
surrounding soil.
3. Which of the following is the BEST description B. Diffusion due to the difference in
of a tissue? concentration of minerals.
C. Osmosis due to the osmotic pressure created
A. Part of an organ. by the surrounding ground.
B. A set of cells that function together. D. The active transport of minerals into the root
C. A cluster of cells all in the same place. tissues creating osmotic pressure.
D. A set of identical cells that have a unified
function. 9. Which of the following is the BEST description
of the structure and function of the Casparian
4. The tissue type in a plant that is capable of strip?
cell division is called
A. A set of cells that allows water into the xylem
A. parenchyma. from the root hairs.
B. collenchyma. B. A waxy layer around the xylem that prevents
C. meristematic. water from leaving once it is there.
D. sclerenchyma. C. A protein-rich layer that enzymatically controls
water movement in a vascular bundle.
5. Where on a plant would one look to find an D. A specialized tissue that conducts water in
apex? the xylem of roots to the xylem above the
ground.
A. In a flower.
B. Along the stem. 10. Under which conditions would the chance of
C. Under the leaves. transpiration be the greatest?
D. At the tip of a branch.
A. Hot and dry.
B. Cold and dry.
C. Hot and humid.
D. Cold and humid.

11. The dark lines forming the annular rings of a 16. Which of the following statements about
tree are made out of dense flower parts is CORRECT?

A. xylem cells that formed in poor growing A. Sepals are photosynthetic.

conditions. B. The female parts surround the central male
B. xylem cells that formed in good growing part.
conditions. C. Pistils are male parts, while stamens are
C. phloem cells that formed in poor growing female parts.
conditions. D. The style is the source of energy and
D. phloem cells that formed in good growing fragrance for the flower.
conditions.
17. What features would you expect to find
12. The cones of a gymnosperm that are associated with both a maple and an oak leaf?
involved in reproduction during a spring season
16
are a A. Parallel vein pattern and a petiole.
B. Parallel vein pattern, but no petiole.
A. one-year male cone and a one-year female C. Branching vein pattern and a petiole.
cone. D. Branching vein pattern, but no petiole.
B. one-year male cone and a three-year female
cone. 18. What causes leaves to change color and fall
C. three-year male cone and a one-year female from trees?
cone.
D. three-year male cone and a three-year female A. Increased photosynthesis coupled with a
cone. build-up of cells in the petiole.
B. Decreased photosynthesis coupled with a
13. Which of the following is the BEST build-up of cells in the petiole.
description of pollen? C. Increased photosynthesis coupled with a
deterioration of the cells in the petiole.
A. Multicellular male reproductive structure. D. Decreased photosynthesis coupled with a
B. Multicellular female reproductive structure. deterioration of the cells in the petiole.
C. Multinucleated male reproductive structure.
D. Multinucleated female reproductive structure. 19. What is the function of a cotyledon?

14. Select the FALSE statement regarding the A. Store water absorbed by root hairs to use
fertilization process in angiosperms. later, when water is less available.
B. Facilitate gas exchange for both
A. A pollen nucleus fertilizes the ovum to photosynthesis and respiration until stomata
produce the embryo. develop.
B. A pollen nucleus causes the ovule to develop C. Promote the growth of roots in a downward
and produce fruit. direction and the growth of shoots upwards.
C. A pollen nucleus fertilizes a polar body to D. Provide nutrients to a plant embryo until it can
produce the endosperm. conduct enough photosynthesis to make its own.
D. A pollen nucleus causes the growth and
elongation of the pollen tube. 20. Which of the following describes a
monocotyledon?
15. What are the location and function of
endosperm? A. Six petals per flower with parallel veins in
leaves.
A. In a flower to attract pollen. B. Six petals per flower with branching veins in
B. In fruit to protect the embryo. leaves.
C. In a seed to feed the embryo. C. Twelve petals per flower with parallel veins in
D. Part of pollen required for fertilization. leaves.
D. Twelve petals per flower with branching veins
in leaves.

Unit J — Simple Invertebrates

1. Which of the following combinations of 6. Sessile aquatic animals are more likely to be
organisms contains only radially symmetrical
animals? A. radially symmetrical, have separate sexes
and reproduce by mating.
A. Jellyfish, sponges, and roundworms. B. radially symmetrical, hermaphroditic and
B. Roundworms, hydra, and sea anemones. reproduce by broadcasting.
C. Sponges, jellyfish, and Portuguese men-o- C. bilaterally symmetrical, have separate sexes
war. and reproduce by mating.
D. Portuguese men-o-war, roundworms, and D. bilaterally symmetrical, hermaphroditic and
flukes. reproduce by broadcasting.

17
2. Cephalization MOST ACCURATELY refers to 7. Which of the following correctly describes the
the development of water flow through a sponge?

A. a brain. A. In and out through the osculum.

B. a head. B. In and out through the porocytes.
C. a scolex. C. In through porocytes and out the osculum.
D. an anterior end. D. In through the osculum and out through the
porocytes.
3. Which pattern of digestive system allows for
the greatest organ development? 8. Which of the following is the most complete
list of functions that occur by diffusion in a
A. Sac-like pattern. jellyfish?
B. Tube-like system.
C. Gastrovascular cavity. A. Excretion and circulation.
D. Intracellular digestion by lysosome activity. B. Respiration and excretion.
C. Respiration and circulation.
4. Which of the following combinations of D. Respiration, excretion, circulation.
organisms contains only sessile animals?
9. Which of the following is true about stinging
A. Flukes and tapeworms. cells and collar cells?
B. Sponges, hydras, and sea anemones.
C. Jellyfishes, planaria worms, and tapeworms. A. They are homologous structures associated
D. Flukes, tapeworms, and planaria worms. with the digestive system.
B. Stinging cells are specializations of the
5. Animals are diploid (2N) and produce ectoderm; collar cells are specializations of
gametes that are haploid (N). This statement is endoderm.
C. Collar cells are specializations of the
A. never true. ectoderm; stinging cells are specializations of
B. usually true. endoderm.
C. always true. D. Collar cells are members of colonies of cells;
D. occasionally true. stinging cells are specializations of the
ectoderm.

10. What are the functions of a gastrovascular

cavity?

A. Digestion and excretion only.

B. Excretion and circulation only.
C. Digestion and circulation only.
D. Digestion, excretion and, circulation.

11. Which of the following animals has a nerve 16. A parasitic worm that has a dormant stage in
net? a mammal can usually be found in a

A. Sponge. A. cyst.
B. Jellyfish. B. snail.
C. Planaria. C. scolex.
D. Tapeworm. D. proglottid.

12. Which of the following animals is a member 17. A human with a tapeworm most likely got it
of Class Scyphozoa? by consuming

A. Hydra. A. raw snails.

18
B. Jellyfish. B. unsanitary water.
C. Planaria. C. poorly cooked meat.
D. Sea anemone. D. unwashed leafy vegetables.

13. Which of the following correctly describes the 18. If a pin were poked into a nematode from the
tissue layers in the animals indicated? outside into the intestine, what would it pass
through?
A. Jellyfish — 2 layers; tapeworm —3 layers;
round worm — 3 layers. A. Ectoderm, mesoderm, pseudocoelom, then
B. Jellyfish — 2 layers; tapeworm — 3 layers; endoderm.
round worm — 4 layers. B. Ectoderm, pseudocoelom, mesoderm, then
C. Jellyfish — 2 layers; tapeworm — 2 layers; endoderm.
round worm — 3 layers. C. Ectoderm, mesoderm, pseudocoelom,
D. Jellyfish — 3 layers; tapeworm — 3 layers; mesoderm, then endoderm.
round worm — 4 layers. D. Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm,
pseudocoelom, mesoderm, then endoderm.
14. What system do flame cells and
nephridiopores belong to? 19. Which of the following best describes the
movement of a nematode?
A. Excretory system of planaria.
B. Circulatory system of planaria. A. Crawling.
C. Excretory system of roundworms. B. Swimming.
D. Circulatory system of roundworms. C. Ciliated gliding.
D. Whipping back and forth.
15. What is the advantage to a parasitic worm of
having multiple hosts during its life cycle? 20. The development of a coelom is coupled with
the earliest specialization of a/an
A. Finding a mate.
B. Distributing their young. A. nervous system.
C. Infecting a wider range of animals. B. excretory system.
D. Sampling a wider range of nutrient sources. C. circulatory system.
D. respiratory system.

Unit K — Higher Invertebrates

1. The reproductive structures of an earthworm 6. Which of the following pairs in mismatched?

are located
A. Gastropod — mantle cavity.
A. under the clitellum. B. Bivalvia — water vascular system.
B. mid-way along the length of the worm. C. Oligochaete — segments.
C. closer to the anterior end of the worm. D. Hirudinea — suckers.
D. closer to the posterior end of the worm.
7. Which pair most correctly matches structures

19
2. The setae of the earthworm function BEST for with their functions?

A. traction. A. Crop — storage; gizzard — grinding.

B. feeling. B. Crop — grinding; gizzard — storage.
C. excretion. C. Crop — chemical digestion; gizzard —
D. subdividing the coelom. physical digestion.
D. Crop — physical digestion; gizzard —
3. In order to elongate, an earthworm would chemical digestion.
have to
8. Earthworms are MOST correctly described as
A. contract its circular muscles, while relaxing its
longitudinal muscles. A. free-living.
B. relax its circular muscles, while contracting its B. parasitic.
longitudinal muscles. C. carnivores.
C. contract both its circular and longitudinal D. herbivores.
muscles.
D. relax both its circular and longitudinal 9. The annelid feature that “relates” best to
muscles. mollusks is the

4. Of the following, which is the BEST A. degree of specialization of the nervous

description of detritus? system.
B. lack of development of an excretory system.
A. Fungus. C. development of ciliated larvae.
B. Fertilizer. D. extent to which their bodies are segmented.
C. Soil debris.
D. Undigested wastes. 10. The correct sequence of the parts of an
earthworm’s digestive system is
5. The aortic arches of an earthworm are located
around the A. pharynx, crop, gizzard, intestine, anus.
B. pharynx, gizzard, crop, intestine, anus.
A. pharynx. C. esophagus, gizzard, crop, intestine, anus.
B. intestine. D. esophagus, crop, gizzard, stomach, intestine.
C. esophagus.
D. ventral nerve cord.

11. The lifestyle of a polychaete is best 16. A sinus of a clam is MOST correctly
described as described as a chamber where

A. predator. A. air collects for respiration.

B. prey. B. blood collects to bathe tissues.
C. producer. C. muscles for movement are located.
D. parasite. D. reproductive gametes are stored.

12. Which of the following systems is likely the 17. Which of the following are vestigial
MOST developed in a leech? structures?
20
A. Excretory. A. Gills of clams.
B. Reproductive. B. Mantles of slugs.
C. Digestive. C. Eyes of octopi.
D. Circulatory. D. Radulas of snails.

13. The chemical secreted by a leech is 18. Which organism is mismatched with a
medically significant because it prevents characteristic “lifestyle”?

A. bacterial infection. A. Clam — filter feeder.

B. blood clotting. B. Squid — predator.
C. tissue rejection. C. Slug — carnivore.
D. skin deterioration. D. Snail — free-living.

14. Which of the following sets of features most 19. Which part of the water vascular system of a
accurately defines Phylum Mollusca? sea star is connected directly to a tube foot?

A. Marine, soft-bodied, mantle. A. Madreporite.

B. Soft-bodied, mantle, closed circulatory B. Lateral canal.
system. C. Ring canal.
C. Foot, mantle, soft-bodied. D. Radial canal.
D. Marine or terrestrial, foot, open circulatory
system. 20. Which system of echinoderms is LEAST
specialized?
15. Which of the following is LEAST likely a
function of the siphon of a clam? A. Digestive system.
B. Locomotory.
A. Feeding. C. Respiratory.
B. Excreting. D. Reproductive.
C. Circulating.
D. Reproducing.

Unit L — Arthropods

1. Which of the following is the key identifying 6. Which of the following lists a grasshopper’s
feature of the arthropods? mouthparts in an anterior to posterior sequence?

A. Body segmentation. A. Labium mandibles maxillae labrum.

B. Metamorphosis. B. Labium maxillae mandibles labrum.
C. Exoskeletons. C. Labrum maxillae mandibles labium.
D. Jointed appendages. D. Labrum mandibles maxillae labium.

21
2. The circulatory system of a typical arthropod 7. To which body system do ocelli belong?
is best described as
A. Excretory.
A. open with a ventral pumping vessel. B. Respiratory.
B. open with a dorsal pumping vessel. C. Reproductive.
C. closed with a ventral pumping vessel. D. Nervous.
D. closed with a dorsal pumping vessel.
8. Which of the following BEST describes the life
3. Centipedes are members of class cycle of a moth?

A. Chilopoda. A. Egg nymph adult.

B. Diplopoda. B. Egg larva nymph adult.
C. Insecta. C. Egg larva pupa adult.
D. Uniramia. D. Egg pupa adult.

4. Millipedes are known for their 9. Of the following, the BEST description of the
role of Malpighian tubules is to conduct
A. single pair of legs per segment and metabolic wastes from
herbivorous lifestyle.
B. single pair of legs per segment and A. tissues to the intestines.
carnivorous lifestyle. B. tissues to the kidneys.
C. double pair of legs per segment and C. kidneys to the excretory openings.
herbivorous lifestyle. D. kidneys to the spiracles.
D. double pair of legs per segment and
carnivorous lifestyle. 10. Which of the following will not enable one to
distinguish gender?
5. The major locomotory structures of an insect
are attached to its A. Presence of an ovipositor on a grasshopper.
B. Storage sacs on the ends of the pedipalps of
A. head. a spider.
B. thorax. C. The length of swimerettes on a crayfish.
C. cephalothorax. D. The thickness of the carapace of a crab.
D. abdomen.

11. Which class of arthropods has branching 16. Spiders obtain oxygen through their
appendages?
A. gills.
A. Trilobite. B. cuticles.
B. Uniramia. C. book lungs.
C. Arachnida. D. tracheal tubes.
D. Crustacea.
17. The “fangs” of a spider are more technically
12. A grasshopper’s tracheal tubes are attached known as
to its
22
A. lungs. A. chelicera.
B. spiracles. B. pedipalps.
C. gills. C. chelipeds.
D. book lungs. D. carapaces.

13. Which system does a green gland of a 18. Insects that transmit diseases are
crayfish belong to? A. pathogens.
B. parasites.
A. Excretory. C. vectors.
B. Digestive. D. virulent.
C. Reproductive.
D. Circulatory. 19. Which of the following has a nymph stage in
its life cycle?
14. How many stages are there in complete
metamorphosis? A. Grasshopper.
B. Moth.
A. Two. C. Mosquito.
B. Three. D. Fly.
C. Four.
D. Five. 20. People who enjoy eating lobster are usually
eating the muscles of its
15. What is the function of uropods and a
telson? A. cephalothorax and chelipeds.
B. carapace and abdomen.
A. Excretion. C. telsons and uropods.
B. Reproduction. D. cheliped and abdomen.
C. Locomotion.
D. Digestion.

Unit M — Chordates

1. Which of the following correctly expresses the 6. Which of the following animals has a heart
relative placement of a vertebrate’s nerve cord with clearly only one ventricle?
and major blood vessels?
A. Salamanders.
A. Both are dorsal. B. Alligators.
B. Both are ventral. C. Chickens.
C. The nerve cord is ventral and the blood D. Horses.
vessels are dorsal.

23
D. The nerve cord is dorsal and the blood 7. Which of the following BEST describes the
vessels are ventral. skeletal system of the classes of fish?

2. Which of the following is NOT a correct A. Agnatha — absent; Chondrichthyes — boney;

match? Osteichthyes — cartilaginous.
B. Agnatha — cartilaginous; Chondrichthyes —
A. Scaly legs — frog. cartilaginous; Osteichthyes — boney.
B. Crop and gizzard — chicken. C. Agnatha — absent; Chondrichthyes — boney;
C. Boneless — shark. Osteichthyes — cartilaginous.
D. Free-living — lamprey. D. Agnatha — boney; Chondrichthyes —
cartilaginous; Osteichthyes — boney.
3. Which of these features would NOT be found
in a trout? 8. A cloaca is a common opening for all of the
following systems EXCEPT
A. Operculum.
B. Swim bladder. A. digestive.
C. Spiral valve. B. reproductive.
D. Cloaca. C. excretory.
D. circulatory.
4. The limbs of a salamander cannot support
much weight because they 9. Fat deposits in vertebrates have two main
functions. Besides being a long term food
A. are more like fins than legs. supply, they
B. are not attached by bone to the spine.
C. stick out sideways from the body. A. create the appearance of larger size.
D. are weak and largely non-functional. B. help maintain body temperature.
C. provide an internal water proofing.
5. Limbs are attached to the vertebral column as D. remove impurities from the blood.
follows:
10. Which system is NOT present in
A. pelvic are on the left; pectoral are on the right. vertebrates?
B. pelvic are on the right; pectoral are on the left.
C. pelvic are anterior; pectoral are posterior. A. Respiratory.
D. pelvic are posterior; pectoral are anterior. B. Water vascular.
C. Excretory.
D. Endocrine.

11. An endothermic animal gets its body 16. Which of the following is the correct
temperature from sequence of the digestive organs through which
material pass in a rat?
A. the environment.
B. other endothermic animals. A. Mouth, trachea, stomach, small intestine,
C. ectothermic animals. anus.
D. its own metabolic activity. B. Mouth, esophagus, crop, gizzard, intestine.
C. Mouth, stomach, rectum, large intestine,
12. The most efficient respiratory systems are anus.
24
found among the D. Mouth, stomach, small intestine, caecum,
large intestine.
A. fish.
B. birds. 17. How do marsupials differ from other
C. reptiles. mammals?
D. mammals.
A. They are the only mammals that have a
13. Which group of chordates typically placenta.
reproduces using internal fertilization? B. They do not have internal fertilization.
C. Their young are born at a much earlier stage
A. Turtles, frogs, birds. of development.
B. Bats, salamanders, whales. D. They do not have mammary glands with
C. Snakes, kangaroos, platypuses. nipples.
D. Sharks, alligators, anteaters.
18. Which of the following membranes most
14. The lungs of a mammal are located in its directly surrounds a developing embryo?

A. alimentary canal. A. Allantoic sac.

B. abdominal cavity. B. Amniotic sac.
C. cranial cavity. C. Chorionic sac.
D. thoracic cavity. D. Yolk sac.

15. What is the main difference between the 19. Birds and reptiles share all of the following
uterus of a human and the uterus of a rat? EXCEPT

A. Shape. A. Amniotic egg.

B. Function. B. Scales.
C. Location in the body. C. Lightweight bones.
D. Attachment to internal other organs. D. Beaks and claws.

20. A structure present in a rat yet absent in a

frog is a

A. lung.
B. diaphragm.
C. kidney.
D. spleen.

Unit N — Ecology

1. Which of the following is an abiotic feature of 6. A population of 1000 members is changing at

an environment? the following rates: N = 10%, M = 14%, I = 18%,
E = 22%. After one year, the population would
A. Fish. be
B. Birds.

25
C. Trees. A. 920.
D. Rivers. B. 992.
C. 1008.
2. An organism’s (species’) niche is best D. 1080.
described as the set of interactions between the
organism and the 7. Bacteria grown on agar in a Petri dish is an
example of
A. positive features of its environment.
B. abiotic parts of its environment. A. carrying capacity.
C. abiotic and biotic parts of its environment. B. closed population.
D. positive and negative features of its C. open population.
environment. D. cyclical changes in population size.

3. Which of the following interactions occurs 8. When the density of a growing population
within a single species? surpasses the carrying capacity of its
environment, the organisms will
A. Parasitism.
B. Symbiosis. A. stop reproducing until the population size
C. Competition. degreases significantly.
D. Predation. B. reduce the number of offspring per female in
the population.
4. Which of the following is descriptive of lichen? C. begin to die faster than new ones are
produced.
A. Parasitism. D. go extinct.
B. Symbiosis.
C. Competition. 9. Cyclical changes in population density exist in
D. Predation. an environment that is

5. Which of the following would increase the size A. relatively stable over a long period of time.
of a population? B. changing rapidly.
C. undergoing succession.
A. Increased mortality. D. undergoing severe selective pressures.
B. Increased emigration.
C. Decreased immigration. 10. In an energy pyramid, the producers are at
D. Increased natality. the

A. top and there is more energy at each

successive level.
B. top and there is less energy at each
successive level.
C. bottom and there is more energy at each
successive level.
D. bottom and there is less energy at each
successive level.

11. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be 16. During photosynthesis, the products are
true about herbivores and carnivores in the
same ecosystem? A. carbon dioxide and water, while the reactants
are oxygen and sugar.
A. Both are part of the biota of the area. B. oxygen and carbon dioxide, while the
B. The carnivores could prey on the herbivores. reactants are sugar and water.
C. They are both are the same trophic level. C. water and oxygen, while the reactants are
D. The density of both populations undergoes sugar and carbon dioxide.
26
regular fluctuations. D. sugar and oxygen, while the reactants are
carbon dioxide and water.
12. Which of the following is the BEST
description of carrying capacity? 17. During cellular respiration, the products are

A. The maximum number of individuals a closed A. carbon dioxide and water, while the reactants
environment will support. are oxygen and sugar.
B. The maximum number of individuals a open B. oxygen and carbon dioxide, while the
environment will support. reactants are sugar and water.
C. The minimum number of individuals a closed C. water and oxygen, while the reactants are
environment will support. sugar and carbon dioxide.
D. The minimum number of individuals a open D. sugar and oxygen, while the reactants are
environment will support. carbon dioxide and water.

13. Which sequence is the most likely to occur 18. Organisms use sugar to make an energy-rich
during succession in a cedar forest? molecule called

A. Grasses deciduous trees cedar trees. A. TAP.

B. Cedar trees seedlings cedar trees. B. ATP.
C. Moss grasses deciduous growth. C. PAT.
D. Lichen shrubs and grasses trees. D. PTA.

14. A pioneer species is 19. Every population requires

A. an ancient type of organism. A. a lack of predation.

B. one which has evolved quickly. B. continuous resources.
C. one which has avoided evolution. C. continuous succession.
D. one of the first types to grow in a new area. D. inverted energy pyramids.

15. Which kingdom does NOT contain 20. Extinction of one species in a stable
photosynthetic organisms? ecosystem could do all of the following EXCEPT

A. Plant. A. go unnoticed.
B. Fungus. B. cause the collapse of the ecosystem.
C. Protist. C. increase the interactions between the
D. Monera (Eubacteria). remaining species.
D. decrease the interactions between the
remaining species.

Unit Test Answers — Biological Science 

Unit #1 #2 #3 #4 #5 #6 #7 #8 #9 #10 #11 #12 #13 #14 #15 #16 #17 #18 #19 #20
A A D C A B A B A B C                    
B D A C A B D B D A A D D B C D D A D C C
C D B B B A D D A C D A D A B A D A A C A
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D C A A B C C A B B D A B B A C D D B B A
E B D B B D D B A C A C B C D C B C A C D
F D A D A C B B B A A A A A C B B B A D D
G A D A D D C D B B D A A B A A C D D B D
H C C D D A A B A D C A A B A A C A A A B
I C B B C D C B D B A A B C B C A C D D A
J C A B B C B C D B C B B A A B A D A D C
K C A A C C B A A C A A B B C C B B C B C
L D B A C B A D C A D D B A C C C A C C D
M A A C C D A B D B B D B C D A D D B C B
N D C C B D A B C A D C B A D B D A B B A

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