Auditing Theory 7.

When an auditor goes through a population and selects items for the sample without
regard to their size, source, or other distinguishing characteristics, it is called
a. Block selection
b. Haphazard selection
1. A control which relates to all parts of the EDP system is called a(n)
c. Systematic selection
a. Systems control c. Applications control
d. Statistical selection
b. General control d. Universal control
8. Which of the following may be used to reduce the risk of non sampling errors?
2. Which of the following is not an output control?
a. Increasing the size of audit samples
a. Proper authorization of transaction
b. Stratifying audit samples
b. Control totals
c. Adequately planning audit samples
c. Check digits
d. Using statistical sampling techniques
d. Adequate documents
9. A number of factors influences the sample size for a substantive test of details of an
3. Should the auditor feel, after obtaining an understanding of the EDP internal control
account balance. All other factors being equal, which of the following would lead to
structure, that control risk cannot be reduced, he or she will
larger sample size?
a. Issue a disclaimer
a. Greater reliance on internal control
b. Issue an adverse opinion
b.
c. Increase the sample size for tests of controls
c. Smaller reliance o analytical procedures
d. Expand the substantive testing portion of the audit
d. Smaller measures of tolerable misstatement

4. The real-time feature normally would be least useful when applied to accounting for a
10. Fraudulent financial reporting is often called
firm’s
a. Management fraud c. Defalcation
a. Bank-account balances
b. Theft of assets d. Employee fraud
b. Property and depreciation
c. Customer accounts receivable
11. The most important general ledger account included in and affecting several cycles is the
d. Merchandise inventory
a. General cash account c. Income tax expense ad liability accounts
b. Inventory accounts d. Retained earnings account
5. A sample in which the characteristics in the sample are the same as those of the
population is a
12. In testing for cut-off , the objective is to determine
a. Random sample c. Attributes sample
a. Whether all of the current period’s transactions are recorded
b. Variables sample d. Representative sample
b. That no transactions from the prior period are included in the current period’s
balances
6. Establishing a route through the random number table
c. That no transactions of the curret period have been delayed and recorded in the
a. Is an arbitrary decision
future period.
b. Needs to be done in advance of choosing the numbers
d. Whether transactions are recorded in the proper period.
c. Is essential and the route must be followed consistently
d. Requires that all three of the above is true
13. The primary difference between an audit of the balance sheet and an audit of the income 19. To which type of the following matters would materiality limits not apply when obtaining
statement lies in the fact that the audit of the income statement deals with the verification client representations?
of a. Losses from sales commitments.
a. Transactions c. Costs b. Unasserted claims and assessments
b. Authorization d. Cutoffs c. Irregularities involving management
d. Noncompliance with contractual agreements
14. Documentation is a form of evidence
a. Used in every financial statement audit 20. Which of the following procedures is more likely to be performed i a review engagement
b. Used in most financial statement audit of a non-public entity that i n a compilation engagement?
c. Used o the rate occasions when it is both readily available ad less costly than other a. Gaining an understading of the entity’s business transactions
procedures b. Making a preliminary assessment of control risk
d. Used when nothing is available that is more competent c. Obtaining a representation letter from the chief executive officer
d. Assisting the entity i adjusting the accounting records
15. The current file of the auditor’s working papers generally should include
a. a flowchart of internal controls
b. organization charts 21. In auditing accounts payable, an auditor’s procedures most likely would focus primarily o
c. a copy of the financial statements management’s assertion of
d. copies of bond and note indentures a. Existence or occurrence
b. Presentation and disclosure
16. An audit working paper that reflects the major components of an amount reported in the c. Completeness
financial statements is referred to as(an) d. Valuation or allocation
a. Lead schedule c. Audit control schedule
b. Supporting schedule d. Working trial balance 22. Before goods are shipped on account, a properly authorized person must
a. Prepare the sales invoice
17. The major reason an independent auditor gathers audit evidence is to b. Approve the journal entry
a. Form an opinion on the financial statements c. Approve credit
b. Detect fraud d. Verify that the unit price is accurate
c. Evaluate management
d. Evaluate internal control 23. Which of the following is not a auditor’s concern about a key authorization point in the
sales/collection cycle
18. An auditor most likely would analyze inventory turnover rates to obtain evidence a. The receiving room must have authorization before releasing items to inventory
concerning managements assertions about control
a. Existence or occurrence b. Credit must be authorized before sale
b. Rights and obligations c. Goods must be shipped after the authorization
c. Presentation and disclosure d. Prices must be authorized
d. Valuation and allocation
24. Whenever footing ad comparisons are restricted to journals, master file records, and
ledgers, the process is
 a. Valuation c. Cutoff c. Reconcile the disbursements i the payroll journal with the disbursements on the
b. Summarization d. Completeness payroll bank statement
d. Examine printouts of transactions rejected by the computer as having invalid
25. The most significant effect of the results of the tests of controls substantive tests of employee numbers
transactions in tha sales and collection cycle is on
a. Allowance for uncollectible accounts 31. The information typically needed to prepare a production order would not include a
b. Bad debts expense account a. Sales forecast c. Inventory plan
c. Confirmation of accounts receivable b. Production plan d. Bill of materials
d. Income tax payable
32. The substantive test which requires the auditor to “trace from a file of receiving reports to
26. There is a difference between internal control objectives and audit objectives. Which of the acquisitions journal” satisfies the objective of
the following is not an audit objective? a. Validity c. Completeness
a. Validity c. Valuation b. Authorization d. Valuation
b. Completeness d. Authorization
33. An auditor usually examines receiving reports to support entries in the
27. For effective internal control, employees maintaining the accounts receivable subsidiary a. Voucher register and sales return journal
ledger should not also approve b. Sales journal and sales return journal
a. Employee overtime wages c. Voucher register and sales journal
b. Credit granted to customers d. Check register and sales journal
c. Write-offs of customer accounts
d. Cash disbursement 34. The inventory and warehousing cycle can be thought of as comprising two separate but
closely related systems, one involving the actual physical flow of goods, and the other the
28. The general cash account is considered significant in almost all audits a. internal control over those goods
a. Where the ending balance’ is material b. related costs
b. Where either the beginning balance is material c. storing of the goods
c. Even when the ending balance is immaterial d. prevention of wastes, obsolenscence, and theft
d. Except those of not-for-profit organizations
35. In planning an audit engagement, which of the following is a factor that affects the
29. Sales order form and invoice blanks should be controlled in the independent auditor’s judgement as to the quantity, type, and content of working papers?
a. Sales order section of the sales department a. The estimated occurrence rate of attributes
b. Billing clerk in the accounting department b. The preliminary evaluation based upon initial substantive testing
c. Credit manager in the credit department c. The content of the client’s representation letter
d. Sales manager in the sales department d. The anticipated nature of the auditor’s report

30. Which of the following is a substantive test of transactions 36. A listing of all the things which the auditor will use to gather sufficient, competent
a. Review personnel policies evidence is the
b. Account for a sequence of payroll checks a. audit procedure
b. audit plan
 c. audit program b. purchases discounts
d. audit risk model c. sales
d. sales discounts
37. The primary emphasis in most tests of details of balances is on the
a. balance sheet accounts 43. The most likely technique for the current year audit of goodwill which was not acquired
b. income statement accounts three years ago by a continuing audit client.
c. cash flow statement accounts a. Confirmation
d. three statements above b. Observation
c. Recomputation
38. Tracing recorded sales transactions in the sales journal to the shipping documents (bills d. Inquiry
of lading) provides evidence about the
a. Completeness of recording of sales transactions 44. The auditor will most likely perform extensive tests for possible understatement of
b. Occurrence of sales transactions a. revenues
c. billing of all sales transactions b. assets
d. presentation of payables c. liabilities
d. capital
39. Which of the following is the best audit procedure for the detection of lapping?
a. Comparison of postings of cash receipts to accounts with the details of cash deposits 45. If the auditor is determined to lack independence, a disclaimer of opinion must be issued
b. Confirmation of the cash balance a. in all cases
c. Reconciliation of the cash account balances b. only if it is highly material
d. Preparing a proof of cash c. only if it is material
d. if the client requests it
40. To gather evidence regarding the balance per bank in the bank reconciliation, an auditor
could examine all of the following except 46. The use of negative assurances in audit reports of historical financial statements is
a. Cut-off bank statement a. a violation of the standards of reporting
b. year-end bank statement b. encouraged by the Philippine Institute of CPAs
c. bank confirmation c. a help in clarifying the degree of responsibility by being assumed by the auditor
d. general ledger d. properly located in the opinion paragraph of the unqualified report

41. The confirmation of accounts receivable is most closely associated with 47. Unqualified financial statements for the prior year presented in comparative form with
a. business risk audited financial statements for the current year should be clearly marked to indicate their
b. detection risk status and
c. inherent risk I. The report on the prior period should be reissued to accompany
d. relative risk the current period report
II. The report on the current period should include as a separate
42. The client’s physical count of inventories is lower than the inventory quantities in the paragraph description of the responsibility assumed for the prior
perpetual records. This could be the result of a failure to record period’s financial statements
a. purchases
 a. I only a. An uncertainty
b. II only b. Lack of consistency
c. Both I and II c. Reference to another accountant
d. Either I or II d. Inadequate disclosure

48. Compilation services are intended to enable a CPA firm to compete with 50. Comfort letters ordinarily are signed by the client’s
a. Management advisory service firms a. independent auditor
b. Tax preparation businesses b. underwriter of securities
c. Computer service business c. audit committee
d. Bookkeeping firms d. senior management

49. A modification of the CPA’s report on a review of the interim financial statements of a
publicly-held company would be necessitated by which of the following?

11) A 25) D 38) B

12) D 26) D 39) A
ANSWER KEY 13) A 27) D 40) D
14) A 28) D 41) B
1) B 15) C 29) A 42) D
2) B 16) D 30) C 43) C
3) D 17) A 31) D 44) C
4) B 18) D 45) A
5) D 19) C 32) C 46) A
6) D 20) C 33) A 47) D
7) B 21) C 34) B 48) D
8) C 22) C 35) D 49) A
9) D 23) A 36) D 50) A
10) A 24) B 37) A