1. Understanding the physiology of menstruation, Nurse Katrina knows that the

production of FSH-RH of the hypothalamus is triggered by which hormone? *
1/1

A. FSH
B. High level of Estrogen on 13th day
C. Increase Estrogen and Progesterone
D. Decrease Estrogen and Progesterone
 
 
2. Which among the following hormones initiates the proliferation of the endometrium
during the first phase of the menstrual cycle? *
1/1

A. Progesterone
B. Follicle stimulating hormone
C. Estrogen
 
D. Luteinizing hormone

 
3. Which among the following hormones appears when fertilization of the corpus
luteum occurs? *
1/1

A.HCG
 
B. FSH
C. HPL
D. Oxytocin

 
4. Gigi had her last menstrual period on July 1-4. When would she expect her next
menstruation if she usually have a menstrual cycle of 30 days? *
1/1

A. July 31
 
B. Aug. 02
C. Aug. 01
D. Aug. 03

 
5. During which time does the lining of the uterus (endometrium) is very thin,
approximately one cell layer in depth? *
1/1

A. Just before ovulation

B. Between ovulation and menstruation
C. At the beginning of menstruation
D. Just after menstruation
 
 
6. When would be the expected ovulation of a female client with a menstrual cycle of
26 days? *
1/1

A. 12th day of the cycle

 
B. 16th day of cycle
C. 14th day of cycle
D. 18th day of cycle

 
7. Applying the concept of natural family planning calendar method, a woman who
ovulated on July 27 is said to be in fertile period on: *
1/1

A. July 20-26
B. July 24 - Aug 01
C. July 27 -30
D. July 22 - Aug 01
 
 
8. Which of the following responses related to ovulation is correct? *
1/1

A.After ovulation occurs, progesterone is produced and causes a rise in basal temperature
 
B. After ovulation occurs, progesterone is produced and causes a drop in basal temperature
C. After ovulation occurs, estrogen production is increased and causes a rise in temperature
D. After ovulation occurs, estrogen production is increased and causes a drop in basal
temperature

 
9. Which of the following can lead to infertility in adult males? *
1/1

A. German measles
B. Chicken pox
C. Orchitis
 
D. Rubella

 
10. Subjective changes of pregnancy include which of the following? *
1/1

A. Hegar's sign
B. Uterine enlargement and breast tenderness
C. Chloasma
D. Amenorrhea and quickening
 
 
11. An expectant mother who is 20 weeks pregnant normally experience: *
1/1

A. Nausea and vomiting

B. Burning sensation during urination
C. Movement of fetus
 
D. Yellowish vaginal discharge

 
12. What event occurring in the second trimester helps the expectant mother to
accept the pregnancy? *
1/1

A. Lightening
B. Pseudocyesis
C. Chloasma
D. Quickening
 
 
13. The nurse is explaining to a client who will have a paps smear the purpose of the
procedure. She is correct when she states that paps smear is performed to detect
which of the following? *
1/1

A. Abnormality in fetal growth

B. Abnormality in ovarian function
C. Abnormal cell growth in the cervix
 
D. Abnormal implantation of embryo

 
14. All of the following can conditions can be directly diagnosed by an ordinary
abdominal ultrasound except; *
1/1

A. Fetal presentation
B. Congenital anomaly
C. Amniotic fluid volume
D. Fetal lung maturity
 
 
15. One of the concerns of a pregnant client who will undergo amniocentesis is the
possibility that the needle will puncture the placenta. The nurse can alleviate the
client’s worry by explaining to her that: *
1/1

A. Because the placenta is in the fundus and the needle is inserted below the umbilicus, there is
no danger.
B. The placental membrane is fibrous and cannot be penetrated by the needle.
C. Ultrasound locates the placenta and guides the doctor do the procedure.
 
D. Even if the placenta is penetrated there will be no adverse effect.

 
16. The nurse understands that glucose level in the urine is not a reliable basis in
obtaining the actual blood glucose level in a client who have diabetes during
pregnancy because: *
1/1

A. The kidneys are not functioning well because of the pressure of the gravid uterus.
B. There is decreased renal threshold so that glucose may be spilled at unusually low glucose
serum levels
 
C. There is hypoglycaemia and the fetus maybe reacting to the low level of glucose
D. The fetal pancreas are normal thus there is enough insulin in the maternal circulating blood

 
17. Which of the following pre-procedure preparation should the nurse utilized to a 4
months pregnant client who will have an abdominal ultrasound? *
1/1

A. Observe NPO from midnight to avoid vomiting

B. Do perineal flushing properly before the procedure
C. Drink at least 2 liters of fluid 2 hours before the procedure and not void until the procedure is
done
 
D. Void immediately before the procedure for better visualization

 
18. A nurse is conducting an abdominal exam to a 9 months pregnant client when
suddenly the client felt breathless, had pallor, tachycardia, and cold clammy skin while
lying on her back. The nurse understands that this are manifestation of: *
1/1

A. Experiencing the beginning of labor.

B. Having sudden elevation of BP
C. Having supine hypotension
 
D. Going into shock

 
19. Progesterone is referred to as the ‘hormone of mothers’ because it is necessary to
maintain the endometrial lining of the uterus during pregnancy. Which among the
following is the chief source of progesterone during pregnancy? *
1/1

A. Pancreas
B. Placenta
C. Uterus
D. Ovaries
 
 
20. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by placenta? *
1/1

A. Human chorionic gonadotropin

B. Human chorionic somatotropin
C. Progesterone
D. Follicle stimulating hormone
 
 
21. Which among the following hormones helps in milk expulsion during
breastfeeding? *
1/1

A. Progesterone
B. Oxytocin
 
C. Estrogen
D. Pitocin

 
22. It is the first placental hormone produced and can be found in maternal blood and
urine as early as the first missed menstrual period. It is also the hormone being
analyzed by pregnancy tests. This hormone is: *
0/1

A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
 
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
D. Follicle Stimulating hormone

Correct answer
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

 
23. The hormone responsible for the maturation of the graafian follicle is: *
1/1

A. Follicle stimulating hormone

 
B. Estrogen
C. Progesterone
D. Luteinizing hormone

 
24. A pregnant client arrived at the barangay health center for her initial prenatal visit.
What would be her expected date of delivery when she had her last menstrual period
last August 30? *
1/1

A. May 31
B. June 06
 
C. June 01
D. June 07

 
25. A 32 weeks pregnant client arrived at the barangay health clinic for her scheduled
prenatal check up. She weighs 104lbs on her previous visit 4 weeks ago. The nurse
understands that the expected weight of the client at this time would be: *
1/1

A. 108 lbs
 
B. 112 lbs
C. 110 lbs
D. 115 lbs

 
26. Mrs. Santos is on her 4th pregnancy and has a history of one abortion. She is
considered to be: *
1/1

A. G4 P3
B. G5 P4
C. G4 P2
 
D. G5 P3

 
27. Which of the following interventions would be helpful to a pregnant client who is
experiencing morning sickness? *
1/1

A. Giving dry carbohydrate food like crackers

 
B. Low sodium diet
C. Intravenous infusion
D. Antacid

 
28. During the first trimester of pregnancy, expectant mothers usually experience
nausea and vomiting. Therefore they are advised to do the following except: *
1/1

A. Eat dry crackers upon waking up and before getting out of bed
B. Gradually get out of bed by first sitting for a few minutes before standing
C. Avoiding fatty foods and have small frequent feedings
D. Take an antacid or anti-emetic to relieve the feeling of nausea
 
 
29. Which of the following manifestations normally occurs during the 2nd trimester of
pregnancy that aid the mother to acknowledge her pregnancy? *
1/1

A. Pseudocyesis
B. Pica
C. Couvade
D. Quickening
 
 
30. Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy? *
1/1

A. Fetal movement felt by mother

B. Enlargement of the uterus
C. (+) pregnancy test
D. (+) ultrasound
 
 
31. Using the Mc Donald’s rule, compute for the AOG in weeks of a pregnant client
who have a fundic height of 26cm: *
1/1

A. 20 weeks
B. 26 weeks
 
C. 24 weeks
D. 30 weeks

 
32. A healthy pregnant client who is on her 33rd week of pregnancy should have her
prenatal check up every: *
0/1

A. week
B. 3 weeks
C. 2 weeks
 
D. 4 weeks

Correct answer
A. week

 
33. Which among the following is considered as the normal weight gain pattern during
the third trimester of gestation? *
1/1

A. 1 pound a week
 
B. 10 lbs a month
C. 2 pounds a week
D. 10 lbs total weight gain in the 3rd trimester

 
34. A 6 months pregnant client arrived at the emergency room with complaints of
irregular, painless uterine contraction. She is worried that something might be wrong.
The nurse explains to the client that: *
0/1

A. The painless irregular uterine contractions are normal

B. The contractions maybe an early sign of labor and she must consult her obstetrician
 
C. She is having premature labor and must seek immediate consultation
D. She needs to observe bedrest and refer to the doctor

Correct answer
A. The painless irregular uterine contractions are normal

 
35. All of the following are skin changes that occur during pregnancy except: *
1/1

A. Chloasma
B. Hegar's sign
 
C. Linea nigra
D. Striaegravidarum

 
36. After conducting an assessment to a pregnant client, the nurse noted that the level
of the client’s fundus is midway between the umbilicus and xyphoid process. Based on
Batholonew’s rule of 4, the client’s AOG is: *
1/1

A. 5th month
B. 7th month
 
C. 6th month
D. 8th month

 
37. A pregnant client arrived to the emergency room with complaints of vaginal
bleeding. Prior to the internal exam, the nurse arranged a double set up. Which among
the following best defines the term ‘Double set-up’? *
1/1

A. The internal exam is done in the delivery room ready for either vaginal delivery or cesarean
section
 
B. The nurse will have all the sterile equipment needed for two obstetricians to perform the
internal exam
C. The patient is given two options either to have vaginal delivery or to have cesarean
D. The two set up requires one is done in the ER and the other is done in the DR.

 
38. A nurse is discussing to a young couple about the different types of prepared child
birth method. Which of the following should the nurse exclude? *
1/1

A. Lamaze method
B. Ritgen'smaneuver
 
C. Dick-Read Method
D. Bradley method

 
39. The nurse can determine the expected date of delivery of a client even without
knowing the last menstrual period using the following except: *
0/1

A. Naegele’s rule
B. Mc Donald’s rule
 
C. Quickening
D. Batholomew’s rule of 4

Correct answer
A. Naegele’s rule

 
40. Kegel’s exercise is done in pregnancy in order to: *
1/1

A. Strengthen perineal muscles

 
B. Strengthen abdominal muscles
C. Relieve backache
D. Prevent leg varicosities and edema

 
41. Pelvic rocking is an appropriate exercise in pregnancy to relieve which
discomfort? *
1/1

A. Leg cramps
B. Orthostatic hypotension
C. Urinary frequency
D. Backache
 
 
42. The diet that is appropriate in normal pregnancy should be high in *
1/1

A. Protein, minerals and vitamins

 
B. Carbohydrates and vitamins
C. Proteins, carbohydrates and fats
D. Fats and minerals

 
Which among the following will facilitate an accurate assessment of a pregnant
client’s food intake? *
1/1

A. Assess laboratory values

B. Ask her to complete a 24-hour diet recall
 
C. Observe for clinical signs of malnutrition
D. Ask about her cooking facilities

 
44. Which of the following interventions would be most helpful to a pregnant client in
relieving back pain? *
1/1

A. Do the kegel exercise

B. Do the pelvic rock exercise
 
C. Practice the Marmet's technique after taking a bath
D. Wear low heeled broad-based shoes

 
45. Decreased serum calcium levels, increased serum phosphorus levels and the
possible alteration in blood circulation commonly cause muscle cramps of the lower
extremities during pregnancy. When this happens, the nurse should instruct the
pregnant client to *
1/1

A. Stretch the legs with the foot flexed towards the knee
 
B. Stretch the legs with toes pointed
C. Do pelvic rocking to stretch muscles
D. Do side lying to relieve pressure on the inferior vena cava

 
46. A pregnant client is prescribed to increased iron in the diet. The nurse understands
that the reason for this order is: *
1/1

A. The mother may have physiologic anemia due to the increased need for red blood cell mass as
well as the fetal requires about 350-400 mg of iron to grow
 
B. The mother may suffer anemia because of poor appetite
C. The fetus has an increased need for RBC which the mother must supply
D. The mother may have a problem of digestion because of pica

 
47. Many women enter pregnancy with a deficiency in iron stores as a result of a diet
low in iron. Which among the following food choices would you recommend to a
pregnant client? *
1/1

A. Citrus fruits and melon

B. Dried beans, potatoes and legumes
C. Milk, cheese and other dairy products
D. Meat and dark green vegetables
 
 
48. One of the discomforts that can occur during the first trimester of pregnancy is
constipation brought by the slowed peristalsis and the pressure being exerted by the
growing fetus to the bowel. To help the expectant mother to prevent this to happen,
the nurse should encourage the mother to: *
1/1

A. Take laxative not more than 3x a week

B. Wait until the environment is quiet before defecating
C. Drink at least 3 liters of fluid a day
 
D. Eat foods rich in iron and calcium

 
49. During the latter part of the third trimester, pregnant women may experience
shortness of breath due to: *
1/1

A. A normal occurrence in pregnancy because the fetus is using more oxygen

B. The fundus of the uterus is high pushing the diaphragm upwards
 
C. The woman is having allergic reaction to the pregnancy and its hormones
D. The woman maybe experiencing complication of pregnancy

 
50. Which among the following assessment findings is considered as normal in a
client who is 2 months pregnant? *
1/1

A. Weight gain of 6-10 lbs. and presence of striaegravidarum

B. Fullness of the breast and urinary frequency
 
C. Braxton Hicks contractions and quickening
D. Increased respiratory rate and ballottement

 
51. Which of the following are the functions of amniotic fluid? *
1/1
A. 1 & 3
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 1, 3, 4
D. All of the above
 
 
52. Which among the following is the normal color of amniotic fluid? *
1/1

A. Clear as water
 
B. Greenish
C. Bluish
D. Yellowish

 
53. A client arrived at the hospital with ruptured bag of water with greenish amiotic
fluid leaking. Upon assessment, the nurse found out that the fetal presentation is
breech. The greenish amniotic fluid indicates: *
1/1

A. Greenish because of the compression of the presenting part which is the buttocks and a small
amount of meconium is squeezed into the amniotic fluid
 
B. This a sign of fetal distress because the fetus will have anal constriction
C. Normally the color of amniotic fluid is clear and slightly yellow
D. Whether the presentation is breech or cephalic, greenish amniotic fluid is always a sign of
abnormality

 
54. Which among the following is the most appropriate thing to do when the bag of
water of a pregnant woman ruptured? *
1/1
A. If the woman is ambulatory, ask the woman to lie down and check for possible cord prolapse
and take fetal heart rate
 
B. The woman is asked to void to ensure faster descent of the fetal head
C. If the woman is on bed, ask the woman to lie on her left side to ensure better tissue perfusion
D. Ask the woman to wear a maternity pad so the nurse can monitor the amount of amniotic fluid
released per vagina

 
55. A nurse caring for a client in labor is assessing the duration of the client’s
contraction. She is correct when she starts timing it from: *
0/1

A. From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction
 
B. From the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction
C. From the beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction
D. From the peak of one contraction to the peak of the next contraction

Correct answer
C. From the beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction

 
56. A client is admitted to the labor room in active labor. Following vaginal
examination, the nurse finds that the presentation is cephalic and the fetal head is at
station (-) 1. The nurse interprets this as the fetal head is: *
1/1

A. 1 cm below the ischial spines

B. 1 cm below the iliac spines
C. 1 cm above the ischial spines
 
D. 1 cm above the iliac spines

 
57. The nurse understands that all of the following are signs of placental separation
except: *
1/1

A. Lengthening of the cord

B. Sudden gush of blood
C. Uterus becomes globular and fundus rises up the abdomen
D. Lower uterine segment is soft and relax
 
 
58. When the placenta is delivered the shiny silvery-white side of the placenta comes
out first. This is called: *
1/1

A. Duncan mechanism
B. Ritgen's mechanism
C. Schultze mechanism
 
D. Marment's maneuver

 
59. Upon assessment the midwife found the following: fundus at 2 fingerbreadths
above the umbilicus, last menstrual period (LMP) 5 months ago, fetal heart beat (FHB)
not appreciated. Which of the following is the most possible diagnosis of this
condition? *
1/1

A. Hydatidiform mole
 
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
C. Missed abortion
D. Ectopic pregnancy

 
60. Which of the following signs and symptoms will most likely make the nurse
suspect that the patient is having hydatidiform mole? *
1/1

A. Slight bleeding
B. Passage of clear vesicular mass per vagina during 2nd trimester
 
C. Absence of fetal heart beat
D. Enlargement of the uterus

 
61. Which of the following signs will require a mother to seek immediate medical
attention? *
1/1

A. When the first fetal movement is felt

B. No fetal movement is felt on the 6th month
 
C. Mild uterine contraction
D. Slight dyspnea on the last month of gestation
 
62. The nurse is discussing to a pregnant client about the danger signs of pregnancy.
Which among the following statements made by the client indicates a need for further
teaching? *
1/1

A. "Any urinary burning should be reported to the nurse-midwife."

B. "Fluid leaking from my vagina maybe my bag of waters."
C. "The baby will have quiet days when he will not move."
 
D. "Blurred vision may mean that my blood pressure is high."

 
63. A nurse in the community health clinic advised a pregnant client to frequently
elevate her legs to prevent which of the following complication of pregnancy brought
by the pressure of the gravid uterus on the blood vessels? *
1/1

A. Hypotension, nausea and vomiting

B. Dependent edema and varicosities
 
C. Varicosities, hypertension and nausea
D. Hypotension and vomiting

 
64. A nurse is caring for a pregnant client who has varicosity on her lower extremities.
Which of the following is the most appropriate instruction should the nurse give to the
client? *
1/1

A. Apply warm packs to the legs

B. Stretch legs while pointing toes
C. Sit down as much as possible
D. Elevate legs when sitting
 
 
65. A 36th weeks pregnant client arrived at the emergency department due to profuse
vaginal bleeding even if not in labor. The nurse should keep in mind that: *
1/1

A. The internal exam is done only at the delivery under strict asepsis with a double set-up
 
B. The preferred manner of delivering the baby is vaginal
C. An emergency delivery set for vaginal delivery must be made ready before examining the
patient
D. Internal exam must be done following routine procedure

 
66. A pregnant client arrived at the clinic with complaint of bleeding. Which among the
following questions should the nurse ask the client? *
1/1

A “When did you last feel the baby move?”

B. “How long have you been pregnant?”
 
C. “When was your pregnancy test done?”
D. “Are you having any uterine cramping?”

 
67. Which among the following best defines placenta accreta? *
1/1

A. Normally implanted but abnormally adherent placenta

 
B. Implanted in the lower segment of the uterus
C. Placenta that covers the internal cervical os
D. The placenta is normally implanted but detaches early

 
68. All of the following interventions are done to prevent occurrence of bleeding in a
client diagnosed with placenta previa except:. *
1/1

A. Teach the mother not to strain at stools

B. Ask mother to lie on the left side
 
C. Tell mother to avoid prolonged standing or sitting
D. Instruct mother to avoid lifting heavy objects

 
69. Bleeding in clients with placenta previa is best described as: *
1/1

A. Vaginal spotting or bleeding per vagina not accompanied by pain occurring in the last trimester
of pregnancy
 
B. Mild bleeding per vagina accompanied by severe abdominal pain
C. Severe vaginal bleeding accompanied by abdominal pain and tenderness
D. Mild to moderate bleeding per vagina with tender, board like abdomen
 
70. It is a complication of pregnancy that is considered as an obstetric emergency
because of the danger it posed to both mother and fetus: *
1/1

A. Imminent abortion
B. Abruptio placenta
 
C. Placenta previa
D. Missed abortion

 
71. A nurse is caring for a pregnant client with hypertension. Which of the following is
the appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client? *
1/1

A. Alteration in peripheral tissue perfusion

 
B. Alteration in fetal lung maturation
C. Alteration in maternal fetal oxygen transfer
D. Alteration in maternal metabolism

 
72. A severely pre-eclamptic client has a high possibility of having convulsion. Client’s
safety is the utmost priority of the nurse. Which among the following safety measures
is excluded? *
1/1

A. Have an airway on standby at the bedside

B. Have a suction apparatus beside the bed
C. Have the side rails padded
D. Have the sphygmomanometer and stethoscope ready at the bedside
 
 
73. Which among the following statements best explains how smoking during
pregnancy can result to babies who are small for gestational age? *
1/1

A. Maternal smoking releases nicotine in the blood stream which is leads to vasoconstriction.
Hence, there will be less blood supply to the fetus.
 
B. Maternal smoking makes the mother and fetus dizzy from the smoke leading to less nutrition.
C. Maternal smoking releases nicotine which is transferred to the fetus and induces
vasoconstriction in fetal circulation
D. Maternal smoking leads to less oxygenated blood because nicotine induces bronchial
constriction.

 
74. A 34 weeks pregnant client arrived at the hospital with a complaint of preterm
labor, the nurse should anticipate that the physician will order for the 2 most
commonly given medications that will halt the labor, which are: *
1/1

A. Magnesium sulfate and terbutaline

 
B. Progesterone and estrogen
C. Prostaglandin and oxytocin
D. Dexamethasone and prostaglandin

 
75. When the bag of waters ruptures spontaneously, the nurse should inspect the
vaginal introitus for possible cord prolapse. If there is part of the cord that has
prolapsed into the vaginal opening the correct intervention is: *
1/1

A. Push back the prolapse cord into the vaginal canal

B. Place the mother on semifowler’s position to improve circulation
C. Cover the prolapse cord with sterile gauze wet with sterile NSS and place the woman on
trendellenburg position
 
D. Push back the cord into the vagina and place the woman on sims position

PEDIATRIC NURSING
74 of 75 points
 
1. A 12 year old adolescent ask the nurse the meaning of the term “puberty”. Which
among the following is the best response of the nurse? *
1/1

A. it is the age at which one becomes capable of sexual reproduction

 
B. it denotes completion of the development of secondary sex characteristics
C. it is the time span between 12 and 18 years
D. it is when boys and girls go out on dates

 
2. All of the following are factors that affect the onset of menstruation excluding:  *
1/1
A. Climate
 
B. Urban versus rural life
C. Genetics
D. Nutrition

 
3. During adolescence, individuals undergo multiple physical changes that normally
elicit the following responses except *
1/1

A. Increased awkwardness in movement

B. Exaggerated response to bodily sensations
C. Concerns about normality
D. Development of self-confidence and pride
 
 
4. One of the discomforts that the adolescents experience is having a body odor.
Which of the following is the cause of developing body odor? *
1/1

A. stimulation of apocrine glands

 
B. plugging of sebaceous follicles
C. growth of axillary hair
D. estrogenic hyperactivity

 
5. An adolescent may experience nocturnal emissions (wet dreams) the cause of
which is: *
1/1

A. adrenal hyperactivity
B. normal physiologic process
 
C. masturbation
D. sexual fantasies

 
6. According to Erikson, role confusion could occur in an adolescent for the following
reason: *
1/1

A. He fails to achieve emotional independence from his parents

B. He is physically impaired
C. He is unable to formulate a satisfactory identification from his uncertainties and confusions
related to role, identifications, and aspirations
 
D. He is unable to complete a project he started

 
7. Which among the following activities will facilitate social development among
adolescents? *
1/1

A. internet surfing
B. joining youth club
 
C. computer games
D. basketball games

 
8. To answer the adolescent’s need for identity he has to: *
1/1

A. be allowed to have his friends regardless of the consequence

B. be allowed to have friends that will give him the feeling of belongingness
 
C. be allowed to have his own way to develop decision making
D. be given space and privacy so allow moments to be alone

 
9. The nurse can conclude that an adolescent client was successful in accomplishing
his developmental task when he: *
1/1

A. isolates himself from others

B. relates easily with male friends
C. enjoys a heterosexual relationship
 
D. prefer to be with his mother

 
10. The ability of the adolescents to respect self is dependent upon: *
1/1

A. nothing, it is inherited
B. physical and mental skills that are above average
C. the praises and wards he gets from others
D. how the child feels about himself and how he is rated by others
 
 
11. The formal operation stage of cognitive development theory is best described by
which of the following statements? *
1/1

A. Use of reasoning
B. Ability to deal with hypothetical situations that could occur in the future
 
C. Achievement of conservation
D. Thoughts influenced more by perceptions and experiences

 
12. Which among the following is the most common health problem among
adolescent? *
1/1

A. neuromuscu!ar disorders
B. cardiovascular aberrations
C. emotional and behavioral problems
 
D. respiratory diseases

 
13. The nurse can provide anticipatory guidance to parents with regard to preventing
sports injuries. Which of the following statements is accurate? *
1/1

A. Age, not body size, should determine how teams are formed.
B. Scoring, ranking, and championships often are negative concepts for young children
C. A child should not participate in contact sports until adolescence
D. Physical mismatches increase the risk of sports injuries
 
 
14. Which of the following statements best describes the nutritional profile of the
adolescent? *
1/1

A. slow but steady growth, poor eating habits

B. stunted growth, voracious appetite
C. rapid growth, likes to eat alone
D. rapid growth, desires companionship at meals
 
 
15. Nutritional problems among adolescent arise from the following except: *
1/1

A. Increased concern about their developing body image

B. Greater variability in caloric needs about due to variability in activity patterns and growth
requirements
C. Peer group influence
D. A lower basal metabolism
 
 
16. Parent-adolescent conflicts are inevitable. Which is the primary reason for most of
these conflicts? *
1/1

A. Adolescents are basically hard-headed and negativistic

B. Adolescents do not “feel right” unless arguing with his parents
C. Adolescents are searching for how their needs and identity fit with parental expectations
 
D. Parents are more worried now thus they tend to tighten the rules

 
17. An adolescent has been admitted to the medical ward due to fracture. The charge
nurse will assign a nurse who she knows can effectively deals with the patient. A
nurse who: *
1/1

A. involves the patient in enforcing rules of the ward

B. never argues with anything
C. tolerates some swearing or bad language in the ward
D. sets a definite expectation with allowance for compromise
 
 
18. Which among the following best describes the concrete operations stage of Jean
Piaget’s theory of cognitive development? *
1/1

A. Behavior changes from reflexive to purposeful

B. The child is unable to put himself or herself in the place of another
C. Thought processes become more systematic and logical
 
D. Abstract thinking and logical conclusions are made more frequently

 
19. During which age does a child developed a visual acuity of 20/20 as determined by
the Snellen chart? *
1/1

A. 2 years.
B. 4 years.
C. 6 years.
 
D. 8 years.

 
20. A 7-year-old child is seen in a clinic, and the primary health care provider
documents a diagnosis of family nocturnal enuresis. The nurse plans to respond,
knowing that primary nocturnal enuresis *
1/1

A. Is caused by a psychiatric problem.

B. Is common and most children will outgrow the bed-wetting problem without therapeutic
intervention.
 
C. Does not respond to treatment.
D. Requires surgical intervention to improve the problem.

 
21. A school age child learns how to do range of motion exercises but has been
unable to perform the same from day to day. Which approach would be best for you to
take to encourage compliance? *
1/1

A. Reprimand her so that she sees how important the exercise are to you
B. Tell her parents so they can withhold privileges
C. Praise her for doing them when you see her doing them
 
D. Impress upon her the importance of the exercises to prevent complications

 
22. Which among the following is the most appropriate response of the nurse to the
child’s complaint of pain? *
1/1

A. “tell me exactly where it hurts.”

 
B. “i know it hurts. try not to think about it.”
C. “i’ll tell your doctor so he could check on you.”
D. “you’re only imagining it.”
 
23. When Jeric, age 6, plays a game with his younger brother, he follows the rules
strictly. However, if Jeric is losing, he may change the rules to his advantage. What
developmental concept explains this behavior? *
1/1

A. Jeric lacks a sense of responsibility for his actions

B. Jeric has a strong need to win, even if it harms his younger brother
C. Jeric perceives the rules as flexible standards rather than fixed absolutes
 
D. Jeric does not have the ability to develop a personal moral code

 
24. The school child is causing concern because he lacks manners at mealtime. The
most appropriate suggestion of the nurse is: *
1/1

A. “ignore the problem and it will go away.”

B. “setting an example is better than continual scolding.”
 
C. “send the child away from the table each time he forgets his manners.”
D. “deprive him of his favorite foods until his manners improve.”

 
25. Which of the following nutritional guidelines is least appropriate for parents of
school-age children? *
1/1

A. having the child eat most of the meals before offering second helpings or between-meal
snacks
B. avoiding forcing the child to eat or using desserts as rewards for eating disliked foods.
C. depriving the child of favorite food as punishment
 
D. maintaining good nutrition by having only fruit, vegetables, cheese and protein snacks
available.

 
26. Which among the following is not a characteristic of a school age child? *
1/1

A. curious about gender difference

 
B. likes to prove themselves to friends
C. wants to excel in school
D. attempts to show athletic interest
 
27. According to Erik Erikson’s psychosocial development theory, the school-age
child’s failure of resolve the psychosocial crisis may lead to: *
1/1

A. Trust-fear conflict and general difficulties relating to people

B. Independence-fear conflict and severe feelings of self-doubt
C. Sense of inferiority and difficulty learning and working
 
D. Aggression-fear conflict and feelings of inadequacy or guilt

 
28. When developing play therapy for a 7 year old child, the nurse should remember
that during this stage: *
1/1

A. girls prefer to play with boys

B. each prefers mixed-group play
C. boys prefer to play with girls
D. boys prefer to play with boys and girls with girls
 
 
29. The following are typical characteristics in the social behavior of a schooler. The
most important is: *
1/1

A. opposite sex friends are preferred for variety

B. not so significant as long as feeling of achievement is met
C. same gender company gives more satisfaction
 
D. teachers become most preferred company

 
30. Which of the following is an appropriate teaching topic for the parents of a school-
aged child? *
1/1

A. Using a night light to allay night terrors

B. Encouraging the child to dress without help
C. Explaining the components of a healthy diet
D. Reviewing information about accident prevention
 
 
31. Nurse Jamie is caring for a 4 year old terminally ill child. When planning for the
child’s care nurse Jamie should take into consideration the child cognitive
development. Based on Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, the child is
under which stage of development? *
1/1

A. Formal operations
B. Preoperational thought
 
C. Sensorimotor operations
D. Concrete operational thought

 
32. The stage of cognitive development of a 5 year old child is best illustrated by
which of the following? *
1/1

A. Thinks abstractly
B. Has magical thinking
 
C. Comprehends conservation of matter
D. Sees more than one dimension of an object

 
33. During a clinic visit, a 4 year old girl suddenly screams, “Don’t sit at Erin!” The
parent whispers that Erin is an imaginary friend. The nurse’s health teaching plans for
this family should include: *
1/1

A. Special instructions for discipline

B. Referral for counseling regarding Erin
C. Investigation by child protective services
D. Increasing social interaction between their daughter and her peers
 
 
34. A 5 year old boy is constantly refusing to sleep on his room and keeping on
insisting on sleeping with his parents because he believes that there are monsters
inside his room. To ease the child’s fears, the parents should: *
1/1

A. Let Eric sleep with his parent

B. Tell Eric that bogeymen and monster do not exist
C. Keep a night-light on in child’s room
 
D. Tell Eric that no one else sees any monsters, so he must not see them either

 
35. The mother of a 4 year old boy expresses her concern regarding the consistent
defiance of the child to go to bed at night. The nurse should encourage the mother
to: *
1/1

A. Allow him to go to sleep in your room, then move him to his own bed
B. Tell him that you will lock him in his room if he gets up one more time
C. Provide for active play before bedtime so that he’ll be tired and fall asleep easily
D. Read him a story and allow him to play quietly in his bed until he falls asleep
 
 
36. Which among the following is not helpful in promoting optimal sleep pattern? *
1/1

A. provide a quiet, safe and comfortable sleeping place

B. provide a consistent bedtime
 
C. assure a frightened child whenever a nightmare occurs
D. allowing child to sleep with parents if really frightened

 
37. The parents of a preschooler can assist their child in successfully accomplishing
his developmental task by doing which of the following? *
1/1

A. provide him with clothes that he can put on himself

 
B. give him puzzle to play with
C. help him follow rules
D. teach him street-crossing safety

 
38. All of the following are expected behaviors of a preschooler except: *
1/1

A. asks many questions

B. reacts violently when refusing requests
 
C. touches things he sees the first time
D. talks while playing alone
 
39. In relation with nutrition, a preschooler is expected to: *
1/1

A. be completely asking parents help during feeding

B. have develop basic skills for self- feeding
 
C. choose bottle feeding
D. observe fine table manners

 
40. The family’s culture, ethnic origin, and value system do not directly influence the 4-
year-old child’s ability to: *
1/1

A. Learn table manners

B. Ride a bicycle or throw a ball
 
C. Master the tasks of toilet training
D. Participate in household chores

 
41. Part of the admission assessment of a child is obtaining the child weight. This is
done for the following purposes except: *
1/1

A. as basis for child’s nutritional status

B. to determine child’s approximate age
 
C. as basis for the dose of drug doctor will give
D. to determine if child’s growth is within the normal.

 
42. While conducting an assessment to a 4 year old child, the nurse noticed that the
child appears shy and stammers when talking, the nurse understands that stammering
is: *
1/1

A. A sign of delay in neural development

B. A common characteristics of a preschooler
 
C. The result of serious emotional problem
D. An indication of serious permanent impairment

 
43. A nurse caring for a 4 year old child is to assess the child’s abdominal pain. Which
among the following is the most appropriate for the nurse to do? *
1/1

A. Asking the child to point to where it hurts

B. Asking the parents about the child’s bowel habits
C. Auscultating the abdomen for bowel sounds
D. Observing the position and behavior while the child is moving
 
 
44. Pain management in children, the following are valuable parameters in
assessment except *
1/1

A. behavioral responses
B. physiologic responses
C. verbal description of the pain
 
D. physical responses

 
45. The nurse plans care of a 4 year old hospitalized children based on their
developmental level. The nurse recognizes that children in this age group are
vulnerable to: *
1/1

A. Separation anxiety
B. Altered family roles
C. Intrusive procedures
 
D. Enforced dependency

 
46. Play therapy is often incorporated in the child’s plan of care during hospital stay
because of its effects on the sick child. This includes the following excluding: *
1/1

A. an aid for continued development of the child

B. a provision for the child’s expression of feelings regarding his illness
C. a safe outlet for repressed anger and frustration
D. a hindrance to care administration during hospitalization
 
 
47. A mother of a 22- month old child went to the community clinic telling the nurse
about her concern to her child's behavior. The mother reported to the nurse that her
child always says "no" to everything, becomes angry and start to cry loudly when
reprimanded but immediately wants to be held. The most appropriate explanation the
nurse should tell the mother is: *
1/1

A. The toddler isn’t effectively coping with the stress

B. The toddler’s need for attention isn’t being met
C. This is a normal behavior for a 2 – year old child
 
D. This behavior suggests a need for counseling

 
48. During the clinic visit, the mother of a toddler asked the nurse for advised on how
she should handle her child’s temper tantrums. The most suitable advice the nurse
can provide is: *
1/1

A. ignore the behavior, the child will outgrow it

 
B. control the behavior, it might become a habit
C. refer the child to a psychologist, it’s a sign of personality disorder
D. consider disciplining the child at this early stage

 
49. Appetite lags is a common occurrence among toddlers because of the following
reasons except: *
1/1

A. A form of rebellion against parents

 
B. Physiology anorexia
C. Preference from one type of food
D. High activity level

 
50. A mother asks the nurse what to do when her toddler has temper tantrums. The
nurse suggests that the mother allow the child another way of expressing anger such
as by the use of: *
1/1

A. Ball and bat

B. Punching bag
C. Pounding toys
 
D. Roll of clay

 
51. A mother of a toddler asks the nurse about the effectivity of spanking as a
disciplinary measure. Which of the following is the most appropriate response of the
nurse? *
1/1

A. “It really depends on the child’s age.”

B. “It is strongly suggestive of negative role modeling.”
 
C. “This may be the only option when no other technique works.”
D. “Research studies have shown it to be an effective disciplinary technique.”

 
52. A nurse in the child wellness clinic is providing teaching to a mother of a toddler
about toilet training. The nurse should give emphasis to the most important factor in
toilet training, which is: *
1/1

A. Child’s desire to be dry

B. Ability of the child to sit still
C. Child’s willingness to work at it
D. Approach and attitude of the parent
 
 
53. A mother brought her 15-month-old to the wellness clinic for a scheduled check-
up. Which of the following statements made by the mother would indicate a need for
teaching regarding toddler development? *
1/1

A. “She’s always trying to get out of her car seat.”

B. “I just can’t seem to get her sit on a potty chair.”
 
C. “Lately, she’s been crying when I leave her with the sitter.”
D. “At home she doesn’t share toys. It is scattered everywhere.”

 
54. The child’s response to hospital confinement is influence by the following factors
except: *
1/1
A. age and stage of maturity
B. socio-economic situation of the family
 
C. quality of care received
D. meaning of illness to him

 
55. During an assessment in an 18 month old child, the nurse elicited the following
findings: a rounded belly, sway back, bowlegs and slightly large head. The nurse
interprets these findings as: *
1/1

A. The child appears to be a normal toddler.

 
B. The child is likely developmentally delayed.
C. The child may be malnourished, especially with respect to calcium.
D. The enlarged head is of great concern and requires a thorough neurological exam.

 
56. When ordering a regular diet for a young toddler the nurse should choose foods
such as *
1/1

A. Spaghetti and bread

 
B. Corn dog and French fries
C. Hamburger with bun and grapes
D. Hot dog with bun and potato chips

 
57. The community health nurse is conducting health teaching to mothers in the
community about a balanced diet for children. The nurse instructs the mothers to
avoid giving popcorn and nut to toddlers because these foods: *
1/1

A. Will spoil the child’s appetite

B. Are easily aspirates
 
C. Have very little food value
D. Can cause tooth decay

 
58. The common behavior observed among toddlers during play is: *
1/1
A. They like to play with role playing toys
B. They don’t like to share their toys
 
C. They like to play to win
D. They like to have their mothers with them when they play

 
59. A 1 year old child is brought to the clinic for a checkup. The nurse weighs the child
and noted that he weighs 15lbs. Upon reviewing the child's record the nurse found out
that the child weighted 7.5 lbs at birth. Based on the assessment findings, the nurse
understands that the infant: *
1/1

A. Has probably been neglected

B. Is the expected weight for this age
C. Is not receiving the proper nourishment
D. Should be 3 times the birth weight at one year
 
 
60. Mrs. Collins told the nurse that she would like to introduce solid foods to her 10-
month-old daughter who has been fed only with milk formula and baby cereals. Which
among the following statements should the nurse tell Mrs. Collins? *
1/1

A. “Baby cereals should be discontinued at 1 year of age when the infant is eating other sources
of food.”
B. “Eggs are the best source of protein to introduce initially.”
C. “Introduce one food at a time, trying this food at least 1 week before adding new food.”
 
D. “Once cereals are added to your child’s diet, her vitamins can be stopped.

 
61. Which among the following behaviors demonstrate a normal biological
development? *
1/1

A. A 6 week old begins to roll over

B. A 6 months old sits without support
C. A 7 month old transfer a toy from hand to hand
 
D. A 7 month old stands unassisted

 
62. Which among the following activities can be performed by a 4 month old infant? *
1/1

A. Posterior fontanel is closed

B. He rolls over
C. He sits only with support
 
D. He shows fear toward strangers

 
63. Which among the following is considered as an abnormal finding for a 9 month old
infant? *
0/1

A. Posterior fontanel is closed

B. He rolls over
C. He sits only with support
D. He shows fear toward strangers
 
Correct answer
C. He sits only with support

 
64. The charge nurse of pediatric unit aims to reduced stress experienced by infants
associated with hospitalization. Which among the following measures will be helpful
in improving the infant's coping? *
1/1

A. They are allowed 24-hour open visitation with their peers.

B. They are assigned a primary nurse.
 
C. They avoid making all decisions while hospitalized.
D. All tutoring is postponed until discharge

 
65. Which among the following would facilitate development of sense of trust among
infants? *
1/1

A. The mother should always be at home

B. The infant should be fed whenever she cries
C. The infant’s needs should be met consistently
 
D. All of the above

 
66. A nurse is to conduct a physical assessment to a sleeping 8-month-old baby.
Which among the following is the most appropriate action initially? *
1/1

A. Measure the occipital-frontal head circumference.

B. Auscultate the heart and lungs.
 
C. Check the eyes for the red reflex.
D. Wake the baby

 
67. A nurse is caring for a 5 month old infant. In order to provide guidance effectively,
the nurse should be aware that during this time the infant can: *
1/1

A. Peak stranger anxiety

B. Stands with support
C. Roll over
 
D. Crawl

 
68. Mrs. Glass, a mother of a 3 month-old infant comes to the clinic for the infant's
check up. She asked the nurse about measures to protect her child from accident.
Which of the following should the nurse suggest to Mrs.Glass? *
1/1

A. Remove all tiny objects from the floor

B. Cover electric outlets with safety plug
C. Keep crib rails up to the highest position
 
D. Remove poisonous substances from low areas

 
69. One of the goals of care for a 4 month old infant is keeping him safe. Which
among the following actions will be most helpful in ensuring the client's safety? *
1/1

A. Never leave the child alone in a room

B. Fence stairways at the top and bottom
C. Raise the crib safety rails to full height
 
D. Place all medication in a locked cabinet

 
70. A client diagnosed with congenital adrenal hyperplasia is expected to have an *
1/1

A. Increased glucocorticoid
B. Increased mineralocorticoid
C. Increased androgen
 
D. Increased epinephrine

 
71. A 4 days old baby girl was brought to the clinic after episodes of vomiting and
losing weight. Test was done and the patient was diagnosed with Galactosemia. The
mother of the patient asked the nurse about galactosemia. The nurse is correct when
she states that Galactosemia is an inherited autosomal recessive disorder which is
the result of: *
1/1

A. An intolerance of wheat and rye

B. An inborn error of carbohydrate metabolism
 
C. The inability to metabolize an essential amino acid
D. The absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the colon

 
72. Which among the following is not considered as a manifestation of
Galactosemia? *
1/1

A. Vomiting
B. White skin
 
C. Diarrhea
D. Yellow skin

 
72. Which among the following is an appropriate instruction for parents caring for an
infant with Galactosemia? *
1/1

A. Eliminating milk from the diet

 
B. Avoiding soy bean based formulas
C. Substitute cheese for meat in the diet
D. Keeping penicillin on hand for respiratory infections
 
74. Which among the following diagnostic test utilize urine specimen to further
confirm phenylketonuria? *
1/1

A. Schillings test
B. Phenistix
 
C. Guthrie test
D. Urinalysis

 
75. A child diagnosed with phenylketonuria should be given with which milk formula? *
1/1

A. Soya milk
B. Iron fortified milk
C. Lonalac
D. Lofenalac