April 16, 1997

Anatomy, Physiology and Kinesiology Part II

1. The 1st and 7th ribs attach to sternum, the 8th to 10th ribs are joined by cartilage 11th and 12th ribs have free ends
A
a. All statements are true
b. All statements are false
c. Last statements is, first two statements are false
d. First two statements are true, last statement is false

2. The following statements are true of the hip joints EXCEPT C

a. There is a slight iliacus activity when standing at ease
b. Subjects with bilateral KAFO are supported at the hips by the iliofemoral ligaments when standing
c. Collapse at the hip is likely in subjects with bilateral lower extremity paralysis when the center of
gravity of HAT moves behind the hip axis
d. Backward tilling the pelvis to decrease the lumbar curve could cause an artificial knee to buckle

3. The following statements are true of syringomyelia EXCEPT C

a. There is loss of pain and temperature sense with a segmental distribution in both upper extremities
b. There is progressive cavitation around or near the central canal of the spinal cord
c. Even in later stages, paralysis and muscle atrophy of the segment involved does not occur
d. There is no sensory impairment in the lower extremities

4. Following statements are true of lesions of the posterior roots, EXCEPT C

a. Frequent cause of injury is herniation of nucleus pulposus
b. Injury usually result in pain and parasthesia that occur in the distribution of the affected roots
c. There is no loss of associated muscle reflex
d. Loss of sensation in a dermatomal distribution is apparent

5. This lobe is the lateral surface of the hemisphere is caudal to an arbitrary line drawn from the parietoccipital
fissure to preoccipital notch, and occupies and extensive are on the medial aspect of the hemisphere A
a. Occipital lobe b. Parietal Lobe c. Insular lobe d. Frontal

6. This structure passes through transverse foramen D

a. Spinal column arteries c. Cervical nerve plexus
b. None of these d. Vertebral arteries

7. This term refers to the use of sensory input from receptors in muscle spindles, tendons and joints to
discriminate joint position and joint movement, including direction, amplitude and speed, and relative
tension within tendons A
a. All of these b. Kinesthesia c. None of these d. Proprioception

8. deep tendon reflexes, i.e. knee jerk are B

a. Polysynaptic nerve response c. Both of these
b. Monosynaptic reflex response d. None of these

9. May result from lesion at the dominant parietal lobe or the corpus callosum, in which subject fails to carry
out sequences of acts even if individual movements are correct D
a. Ideomotor apraxia b. Kinetic apraxia c. Gait apraxia d. Ideational apraxiia

10. Motor nerve to the muscles of mastication B

a. Facial nerve c. Spinal accessory nerve
b. Trigeminal nerve d. Vagus nerve

11. This deformity is a result of the avulsion of the central slip of the extension tendon proximal to its
insertion in the base of the middle phalanx C
a. Median Nerve Palsy c. Boutonniers deformity
b. Mallet Finger d. Trigger Finger

12. When the first metacarpal rotates on the trapezium to place the thumb against the fingers, this motion is
called C
a. Adduction b. None of these c. Opposition d. Abduction
13. Sixth cranial nerve of the pons and medulla C
a. Oculomotor nerve b. Trigeminal nerve c. Abducens nerve d. Trochlear nerve

14. In an open-packed or loose-packed position C

a. The ligamentous and capsular structures are stack
b. The ovoid joint surfaces are incontingent
c. Allows spinning, rolling and sliding, thereby increasing joint function
d. Joint surfaces may be distracted several millimeters

15. This type of joint is formed by the talus and tibia C

a. Pivot b. Saddle c. Hinge d. Ball and socket

16. The cerebrospinal fluid serves the following function, EXCEPT C

a. Drains unwanted substances from the brain
b. Buoyancy for the brain, serving as a mechanical cushion
c. All of these
d. Preserves homeostasis in the nervous system

17. This muscle originates from the medial hall of the clavicle, from the sternum, and from the upper six costal
cartilages A
a. Pectoralis major b. Pectoralis minor c. Serratus Anterior d. Subclavius

18. The following statements are true of the Ulnar Nerve EXCEPT C
a. The deep branch supply the hypothenar muscles, the medial two lumbricals, the adductor Pollicis
and all the interossei
b. At about the midlength of the arm, it is found behind, and in contact with, the medial epicondyle of
the humerus
c. It divides into a (1) superficial Branch, a (2) Deep Branch and an (3) Intermediate Branch
d. The only muscles it supplies above the wrist are the Flexor Carpi Ulnaris and the medial half of the
Flexor Digitorum Profundus

19. Factors responsible to maintain a potential difference across the cell membrane D
a. None of these
b. Cell can actively move ions across the membrane to maintain a required resting potential
c. Cell membrane is relatively permeable to certain ions
d. Both of these

20. In ulnar nerve paralysis, the following happens. EXCEPT C

a. The hypothenar group does not function
b. The 4th and 5th digits cannot be extended due to the absence of intrinsic muscles
c. Abduction and adduction of all digits are not affected
d. The extensor digitorum is capable of extending the IP joints if the MCP joints are stabilized in a
flexed position

21. Ohm’s law states B

a. Blood flow is directly proportional to the absolute pressure but proportional to the resistance
b. Blood flow to directly proportional to the pressure difference but inversely proportional to the
resistance
c. Blood flow is inversely proportional to the pressure difference but directly proportional to the
resistance
d. Blood flow is directly proportional to the absolute

22. Way by which lung can be expanded A

a. Diaphragmatic up and down motion which lengthens or shortens chest cavity
b. All of these
c. None of these
d. Increase in anteropostero diameter of the chest cavity by elevating and depressing the ribs

23. these muscles separate the neck into the posterior and anterior triangle. It is also protects the great vascular
and nerve trunks A
a. Sternocleidomastoid
 b. Sternothyroid
c. Levator Scapulae
d. Scalenes

24. This muscle is a powerful adductor of the arm and a medial rotator. The clavicular head flexes the shoulder
joint and from this position the sternal head extends the shoulder joint D
a. None of these
b. Latissimus Dorsi
c. Pectoralis Minor
d. Pectoralis Major

25. The following statements are true of the plantar aponeurosis. EXCEPT D
a. It is form when the MTP joint is manually placed in 45 degrees of hyperextension
b. It is an attachment for intrinsic muscles of the foot and fascial covering for others
c. It helps prevent displacement of the calcaneus from the metatarsal heads and collapse of the arches
d. It is a series of fascial bands on the dorsum and sides of the foot

26. The height of this specific vertebrae may be used to determine the corresponding landmark A
a. All of these
b. T10 body-tip of the xiphoid process
c. S2 height of posterior superior iliac spines
d. L4 spinous process level with the highest portion of the crest of the ilium

27. The following statements apply to motor aphasia. EXCEPT D

a. Spoken language is slow and full of effort with poorly produced sounds
b. Lesion is in Broca’s area
c. Extreme difficulty in expressing certain grammatical words and phrases
d. Poor comprehension of spoken and written language

28. This muscle is the most powerful of the scapula, its paralysis results in “winged scapula” C
a. Pectoralis Minor b. Levator scapulae c. Serratus anterior d. Rhomboids

29. In a circling movement performed by the shoulder girdle, this joint is the pivot point C
a. Glenohumeral joint c. Sternoclavicular joint
b. Acromioclavicular joint d. Supracromial joint

30. Skeletal muscles relax when C

a. The Z-lines come closer to each other
b. There is an increase in cross linkages between action and myosin
c. Calcium ion is actively pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. All of these

31. This opening is a triangular-shaped defect in the external oblique aponeurosis that lies above and medial to
the public tubercle B
a. Cremasteric ring c. Femoral Ring
b. Superficial Inguinal ring d. External Spermatic Fascia

32. The pulmonary artery leaves the heart via A

a. Right ventricle b. Left auricle c. Right auricle d. Left ventricle

33. Almost the whole of the broad sacral plexus narrows down to form a huge branch called
a. Femoral Nerve b. Obturator Nerve c. Sciatic Nerve d. Saphenous nerve

34. The following extraocular muscles are supplied by cranial nerve III. EXCEPT D
a. Inferior rectus b. Inferior oblique c. Superior rectus d. Superior oblique

35. This muscle can be palpated by placing the fingers over the temporal fossa. This muscle contracts as the
subject bites down A
a. Temporalis b. None of these c. Medial Pterygoid d. Masseter

36. The sensory nerve supply of the eyeball is A

a. Opthalmic division of the Fifth (trigeminal) Cranial nerve
 b. Third (Oculomotor) Cranial Nerve
c. Fourth (Trochlear) Cranial Nerve
d. Sixth (Abducent) Cranial Nerve

37. Innervates the tongue musculature D

a. Abducens c. Vagus nerve
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve d. Hypoglossal nerve

38. The following statements are true of the rotator cuff muscle. EXCEPT A
a. The supraspinatus attaches to the lesser humeral tubercle, while the infraspinatus and teres minor
attach on the lower tubercle
b. Shoulder External rotation are limited primarily by the subscapularis and the lower part of the
capsule
c. The subscapularis is a passive stabilizer to prevent anterior subluxation of the humerus
d. These muscles produce abduction, internal and external rotation of the gelonohumeral joint

39. If the neck shaft angle of the femur is greater than 12.5 degrees. This deviation results in increased leg length
and decreased muscle strength due torque changes from changes in muscle level arms and length tension
relationship. B
a. Retroversion b. Coxa Valga c. Anteversion d. Coxa Vara

40. As the Brachialis extends a flexed elbow by slowing the movement of extension which is performed by
gravity this muscle acts as a: B
a. Fixators b. Prime mover c. Antagonist d. Synergist

41. Which of the following determines fluid movement through the capillary membrane? D
a. Interstitial fluid pressure c. Capillary pressure
b. Plasma colloid osmotic pressure d. All of these

42. Since terminal knee extension requires lateral rotation of the tibia on the femur, initiation of knee flexion
requires the reverse action of medial rotation of the tibia on femur. This action is performed by: A
a. Popliteus b. Semitendinosus c. Articularis Genu d.
Plantaris

43. Following is true of myostatic reflex, EXCEPT C

a. Capable of increasing tension for postural muscle tone
b. Basic neural mechanism for maintaining tone in muscle
c. Results from inputs to motor neuron pools form groups I and II
d. All of these

44. Following muscles are supplied by branches of 7th cranial nerve. EXCEPT D
a. Mentalis c. Nasalis
b. Orbicularis oculi d. Levator palpebre superioris

45. The following statements are true of the fascial nerve. EXCEPT B
a. If supplies the stylohyoid, posterior belly of the digastric muscles of the neck and the stapedius
muscle of the middle ear
b. If emerges from the anterior surface of the hindbrain between the pons and medulla oblongata
c. If emerges as two roots from the anterior surface of the hindbrain between the pons and the
Medulla oblongata
d. If controls taste sensation from the anterior part of the tongue and the floor of the mouth and from
the palate

46. The following statements are true of terminal rotation of the knee. EXCEPT D
a. Allows the human with an energy-efficient mechanism a mechanical stability to stand erect without
quadriceps contraction
b. Terminal rotation is seen as internal rotation of the femur of the fixed tibia in a closed-chain
motioin
c. In the last 20 degrees on the fixed femur
d. It is mechanical event that occurs only in active knee extension and can voluntarily be prevented

47. Flexion and extension occurs in this plane, and divides the body into right and left sides C
 a. Frontal plane b. Horizontal plane c. Sagittal plane d. None of these

48. function of the soleus, EXCEPT C

a. Postural muscle
b. Ankle plantar flexion
c. Does not involve in forceful ankle plantar flexion
d. Concerned with ankle stabilization than gastrocnemius

49. The following statements are true of the Median Nerve, EXCEPT A
a. It enters the palm with the long tendons and supplies the three thenar muscles, and all lumbricals
b. As it passes the cubital fossa, it gives off a deep branch the Anterior Interosseous Nerve
c. It is formed from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus
d. It accompanies the axilliary and brachial arteries but gives no branch until it reaches the elbow
region

50. In a resting state, the cell membrane is: B

a. None of these
b. Polarized with the outside positive in relation to the inside
c. Depolarized with the outside negative in relation to the inside
d. Positive and negative polarization are distributed equally on either side

51. The pressure at the height of each pulse, which is about 120mmHg in young adults D
a. Stroke volume output c. Pulse pressure
b. Diastolic pressure d. Systolic pressure

52. In Wallerian degeneration, a peripheral nerve fiber is transected or permanently destroyed in the process the
part separated from the nerve cell body degenerates completely, and loses its myelin sheath in the process A
a. Both statements are true
b. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
c. Both statements are false
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true

53. The following structure is a modified skin that lines not only the inner surfaces of the lids but also reflected
on the eyeball C
a. Lacrimal b. Tarsal Gland c. Conjunctiva d. Canaliculus

54. this ligament of the vertebral column is a series of 23 intersegmental ligaments that connect the lamina of two
adjacent vertebral from C2 to the sacrum C
a. Supraspinous ligament c. ligamenta flava
b. Intertransverse ligament d. interspinous ligament

55. Which of the functional differences between the hand and foot joints are true B
a. MCP permit 90 degrees of flexion while MTP hyperextension is 90 degrees
b. All of these
c. Toe abduction / adduction have less range of motion than the hand
d. MCP allow 0 – 30 degrees of hyperextension while MTP flexion allow 30-45 degrees

56. Lesion to the oculomotor nerve results in the following conditions, EXCEPT B
a. Mydriasis b. Diplopia c. External strabismus d. Ptosis

57. This structure completes a collar in which the radial head revolves and also tends to prevent the radius from
being pulled down out of its socket B
a. Lateral ligament b. Annular ligament c. Medial ligament d. Collateral
ligament

58. These statements apply to inspiratory capacity, EXCEPT A

a. Equals residual volume plus the inspiratory reserve volume
b. Amount of air one can breath at normal expiratory level and distending the lungs to the maximum
c. Equals tidal volume plus the inspiratory reserve volume
d. Amount of air is about 3500 mm
59. Failure to recognize stimuli when the appropriate sensory systems are functioning adequately C
a. Aphasia b. Aphonia c. Agnosia d.
Apraxia

60. The following statement applies to the dorsal root ganglia A

a. Both of these c. Origin of afferent sensory fibers
b. None of these d. Round tells with one process leaving the body

61. Amount of air remaining in the lungs at the end of normal expiration B
a. Vital capacity c. Inspiratory capacity
b. Functional residual capacity d. total lung capacity

62. The thoracolumbar fascia provides humans the ability to lift heavy weights overhead, it also stabilizes the
trunk for throwing objects with high velocities B
a. Both statements are false c. first statement is true, second statement is false
b. Both statements are true d. first statement is false, second statement is true

63. This muscle is proximally attached to anterior superior spine of the ilium and attached distally to the medial
surface of the tibia it is innervated by the femoral nerve and flexes externally rotates, and adducts the hip B
a. Rectus Femoris b. Sartorius c. Pectineus d. Tensor Fascia Latae

64. These long muscles flex the second to fifth digits of the IP joints D
a. None of these c. Flexor Digitorum Profundus
b. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis d. Both of these

65. On the medial side of the foot just distal to the tip of the medial malleolus, this slight protruberance may
be felt A
a. Sustentaculum Tail c. tuberosity of the navicular
b. first cuneiform d. medial tubercle of the talus

66. This specialized joint of the craniovertebral area are formed by one centrally location articulation and facet
whose axis of motion is vertical through the dens accounting for 50% of rotation in the cervical area D
a. None of these c. cervical vertebral articulation
b. Atlanto-ocipital joint d. Atlanto-axial joint

67. In this class of lever, force is applied at one end of the lever arm, the weight to be moved is at the other and
the fulcrum is at some point intermediate between the two as exemplified by a see-saw B
a. Second class lever c. None of these
b. First class lever d. third class lever

68. If the poorly temperature is greater than the surroundings heat loss is by: B
a. None of these b. Both of these c. None of these d. Third class lever

69. the sino-atrial node which regulates the strength and rate of the A
a. Right Auricle b. Left ventricle c. Right ventricle d. Left Auricle

70. Mobility of the thumb as possible because of the following A

a. All of these
b. The nine thumb muscles can combine their actions at finely graded movement combinations
c. The saddle-shaped joint of the thumb and loose capsule
d. The metacarpal of the thumb is not bound to the other metacarpals by ligaments

71. Occlusion of the posterolateral thalamic branches in an syndrome may result in the following A
a. Partial to complete loss of sensation on the same side of the body
b. Severe burning constant pain in the region with limited sensation
c. Cerebral ataxia and tremor may be produced in the extremities of the opposite side
d. Sensations of touch, pain and temperature are decreased in the affected limbs

72. The following statements are true of radial nerve EXCEPT B

a. the nerve divides into a long superficial branch and the deep branch or posterior interosseus nerve
b. as it crosses the elbow joint it supplies the muscles arising from the lateral supracondylar edge the
Brachioradialis and Extensor Carpi Radialis brevis
 c. a little farther down the arm, it passes obliquely lateral wards to run behind the humerus in its spiral
grooved deep to the triceps
d. it is the largest nerve of the upper limb and its root are C5, 6, 7, 8, T1

73. Loss of motor neuron to a muscle may result in B

a. Flaccidity c. Reflex response failure
b. All of these d. Progressive atrophy

74. This tuberosity receives the weight of the body when one sits up straight B
a. superior ramus c. lesser sciatic notch
b. ischial tuberosity d. greater sciatic notch

75. In order not to allow side to side play, the sides of the body of the talus are grasped by these bony structures
D
a. None of these c. Talocaneonavicular joint
b. All of these d. Medial and lateral malleolus

76. In voltage gating, when there is a strong negative charge on the inside of the cell membrane, the sodium gates
remain tightly closed C
a. the first statements is true, the second statement is false
b. both statements are false
c. both statements are true
d. the second statement is true, the first statement is false

77. The median nerve innervates the following muscles, EXCEPT A

a. all interossei c. flexor carpi radialis
b. opponens pollilcis d. flexor digitorum superficialis

78. From the frontal plane, the neck of the femur has an anterior angle of 13 to 15 degrees. An increase in this
angle, a factor in toeing is called: C
a. Coxa Valga b. Coxa Vara c. Anteversion d. Retroversion

79. These two enlarged bones are concerned with receiving the weight the body above B
a. Calcaneus and Cuboid c. Navicular and Cuboid
b. Talus and Calcaneus d. Talus and Navicular

80. Which of the following conditions differentiate isometric from isotonic contraction D
a. Isotonic contraction requires a greater amount of energy
b. Isotonic contraction is likely to last longer since a load is moved
c. Isometric contraction does not require much sliding of myofibrils
d. All of these

81. When the hip is extended, this muscle externally rotates the hip, however, when the hip is flexed this same
muscle will internally rotate the hip D
a. Gluteus Minimus b. Gluteus Medius c. Tensor fascia latae d. Piriformis

82. The largest lateral hip muscle innervated by the superior gluteal nerve and abducts the hip D
a. Tensor fascia latae c. Gluteus minimus
b. Piriformis d. Gluteus medius

83. When applied first class lever can be: A

a. Levers that work at a mechanical advantage
b. Levers that operate at a mechanical disadvantage but one of speed
c. All of these
d. Levers of stability and speed

84. Cavities within the brain and are filled with cerebrospinal fluid B
a. Subarachnoid space c. Meninges
b. Ventricles d. None of these

85. The joints of the pectoral girdle are B

a. Coracoclavicular joint
 b. All of these
c. Acromioclavicular joint
d. Sternoclavicular joint

86. The arrangement of these muscles as the legs of the inverted tripod suggests their possible function as a
stabilizing mechanism for the pelvis capable of co-operating with the “splint” mechanism of the iliotibial
tract on the lateral side: D
a. Adductor magnus, Vastus Lateralis, and Biceps
b. Semitendinosus, Semimembranosus, and gracilis
c. Piriformis, Quadratus Formaris, and obturator internus
d. Sartorius, Gracilis, and semitendinosus

87. The Medial Longitudinal Arch consists of the following bones C

a. Calcaneum, Cuboid 4th and 5th MT Bones
b. None of these
c. Calcaneum, Talus, Navicular, three cuneiform bones and the 1 st three metatarsals
d. Bases of the metatarsal bones and the cuboid and the three cuneiform bones

88. The extra volume of air that can be inspired over and beyond the normal tidal volume C
a. None of these b. ERV c. IRV d. RV

89. Which of the following statements is true of Metabolic Equivalent (MET)? A

a. All of these
b. It is used to describe energy requirements
c. One MET is arbitrarily equal to the resting oxygen consumption of an individual
d. The average value at rest is 3.5 ml of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute

90. The Transverse Arch consists of the following bones D

a. Calcaneum, Cuboid, Fourth and Fifth metatarsal bones
b. Calcaneum, Talus, Navicular Bone, Three cuneiform bones and the first three metatarsal bones
c. None of these
d. Bases of the Metatarsal bones and the Cuboid and the Three Cuneiform Bones

91. The aorta is the great artery leaving this chamber of the heart C
a. Left Auricle b. Right Auricle c. Left ventricle d. Right ventricle

92. Characteristic of Isometric contractions C

a. All of these c. Change in muscle tension
b. Performs work d. Change in muscle length

93. The anatomical snuff box is bounded by the tendons of D

a. None of these
b. Extensor Digitorum Communis, Extensor Indicis, Propius and Extensor Carpi Radialis
c. Extensor Carpi Ulnaris, Extensor Digitorum Communis & Extensor Pollicis Brevis
d. Extensor Pollicis Longus, Abductor Pollicis Longus, and Extensor Pollicis Brevis

94. The adult brain consists of the following parts D

a. Cerebellum b. Cerebrum c. Brain stem d. All of these

95. Which of the following is not true of the shoulder joint?

a. Its extreme ability is achieved at the expense of stability and security
b. The movement occurs between the scapula and humerus
c. The movement primarily involves the clavicle and scapula
d. It is a multi-axial ball and socket joint with a remarkable degree of freedom of movement

96. This occurs when macrophages and some white blood cells ingest large particles, i.e. bacteria B
a. None of these b. Phagocytosis c. Pinocytosis d. Exocytosis

97. During mid-stance to terminal stance, the quadriceps perform the following activity C
a. Stabilizes the knee to control swing of the opposite leg
b. Contract eccentrically
c. No required activity
 d. Undergo a test lengthening to stabilize the knee joint

98. A strong and broad one-inch-square ligament that maintains the forward concavity and bridge deep to which
pass the numerous tendons that flex the wrist and fingers C
a. Intra-articular ligament c. Flexor retinaculum
b. Anular ligament d. Denticulate ligament

99. Brain development begins with the differentiation of three vesicles at the rostral end of the neural tube D
a. Telencephalon, diencephalons, and mesencephalon
b. Mesencephalon, rhombencephalon, and metencephalon
c. Prosencephalon, rhombencephalon, and myelencephalon
d. Prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon

100. The statements apply saltatory conduction, EXCEPT C

a. Conserves energy for the axon
b. Action potential occur only at the nodes of Ranvier and conduction is from node to node
c. While there is an increase in nerve conduction energy is wasted on the axon
d. The mechanism increases nerve transmission velocity in myelinated fibers as much as 5 to 50 times