Practice Questions

Chapter 1
1. Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding strategic HRM?
a) Strategic HRM is an approach that defines how the organisation’s goals will be achieved through
people by means of HR strategies and integrated HR policies and practices.
b) Strategic HRM can be regarded as a mindset underpinned by certain concepts rather than a set of
techniques.
c) The fundamental aim of strategic HRM is to generate organistational capability by ensuring that the
organisation has the skilled, engaged, committed and well-motivated employees it needs to achieve
sustained competitive advantage.
d) Strategic HRM is defined as the term used to describe the study of the structure, functioning, and
performance of organisations and the behaviour of groups and individuals within them.

2. Which of the following is NOT under the five headings of the 5-P model of HRM?
a) HR philosophy.
b) HR policies.
c) HR progression.
d) HR processes.

3. A unitarist approach to employee relations means:

a) securing employee identification with the organisation's goals and values, not mere compliance with
directives.
b) that there need be no inherent conflict of interest between employers and employees.
c) HR policy should be formulated at the strategic level, and directly related to the organisation's
competitive and value-adding objectives.
d) the strategic management of people will be reflected in all areas and systems of HRM.

4. Which of the following is NOT one of the four key policy goals defined by Guest (1989)?
a) Strategic integration.
b) High commitment.
c) Rigidity.
d) High quality.

5. Managing informal and formal processes to confront employee behaviour or performance which falls
below organisational rules and standards is called .
a) discipline handling
b) objective and competence requirement setting
c) performance monitoring and appraisal
d) grievance handling

6. Developing and managing employee entitlements (eg pensions, maternity and sick pay, annual leave) and
'fringe' benefits (eg allowances and services) is called .
a) pay systems
b) performance pay systems
c) benefit schemes
d) non-monetary rewards

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7. Which of the following is NOT one of the processes underpinning HRM approach by Armstrong (2009)?
a) Strategic HRM
b) Policy making
c) Change management
d) Conflict management

8. An HR practitioner is offering specialist information and perspectives to line managers (and individual
employees) on employment matters. This is called .
a) guidance role
b) advisory role
c) service role
d) organising role

9. Which of the following is a business partner role by HR practitioners?

a) Offering specialist recommendations and policy frameworks to guide line management decisions.
b) Providing services to a range of internal customers.
c) Human resource forecasting and planning, developing flexible working methods and so on.
d) Sharing responsibility with senior and line management for the success of the enterprise, through the
identification and exploitation of opportunities and the seeking of competitive advantage.

10. Which of the following is NOT an advantage claimed for the shared service unit (SSU)?
a) Consistency of practice and standards across the organisation.
b) Strengthening of core competences.
c) Significant cost savings.
d) SSU requires a minimal effort for monitoring.

11. HRM primarily concerned with –

a) Sales, productivity, retailing
b) Individuals’ dimensions, effectiveness, performance
c) External environment, efficiency, effectiveness
d) Costing, performance, economy

12. The main conceptual differences between HRM and Personnel Management is-
a) it’s focus on capital
b) Its focus on differentiation of workers
c) It’s focus on strategic integration of people
d) It’s focus on growing labour power.

13. Which one of these is NOT an HRM Goal?

a) Provide strategic planning
b) Enhance flexibility
c) Ensure high quality of work
d) Profit Maximisation.

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14. According to Armstrong, which among these is NOT a feature of HRM?

a) Attempt to achieve strategic fit or integration between HR and business planning.
b) Treatment of people as cost rather than as assets.
c) A unitarist approach to employee relations.
d) The development of mutually supporting HR policies and practices.

15. Guest (1989) has identified the goals of HRM. According to him, which of the following options is NOT a
goal of HRM?
a) High Commitment
b) High Quality
c) Strategic Disintegration
d) Flexibility

16. Certain factors results into problems in working place. What is the factor that enroot problems in HR
management?
a) Consumer preferences
b) Great quantity of capital
c) Industry Expansion
d) Shortage of labour

17. One of the operational tasks of HRM is People Resourcing, which includes efforts towards employee
retention. Retention includes planning for rewards and incentives. What is the purpose of Retention?
a) to support labour turnover
b) to retain high quality staff
c) to minimise financial costs
d) to establish communication and authority relationships.

18. Health, safety and welfare is one of the operational tasks performed by HR professionals. Which among
the following is included within the welfare service?
a) actively promoting social life balance
b) providing international education
c) protection from accidents
d) providing recreational facilities

19. What is the Four C’s model also known as? –

a) Cambridge Model
b) Harvard Model
c) Fisher’s Model
d) McGregor’s Theory

20. Which among the following does NOT include within ‘reward management’?
a) Grievance handling
b) Pay systems
c) Benefit Schemes
d) Non-financial rewards.

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Chapter 2
21. Combining previously fragmented tasks into one job, again to increase the variety and meaning of
repetitive work is called .
a) job rotation
b) job enlargement
c) job enrichment
d) job analysis

22. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a) To remain competitive in today’s global marketplace, organisations must change.
b) One of the most effective tools to promote successful change is organisation development (OD).
c) Organisation development strategy has been defined more specifically as ‘the ability to manage
people for competitive advantage’.
d) There are no variations regarding the definition of OD.

23. Which of the following is the responsibility of HR in any organisation?

a) To manage and look after the monetary status of the company.
b) To make relations with other organisations and investors to invest in their organisation.
c) To focus on building organisational learning, skills and workforce productivity.
d) To manage the administrative functions of the organisation.

24. _ refer to what is believed to be important about how people and organisations behave.
a) Values
b) Norms
c) Work system
d) Ability

25. is an increasingly important process in flexible and delayered organisations where more
fluid interactions across the structure are required between individuals and teams.
a) Leadership
b) Conflict
c) Networking
d) Political behaviour

26. Which among the following is NOT an organisational process?

a) Power.
b) Politics.
c) Communication.
d) Emotional Intelligence.

27. Which of the following has been defined as the psychological qualities that influence an individual’s
characteristic behaviour patterns in a stable and distinctive manner?
a) Attitude.
b) Personality.
c) Emotions.
d) Intelligence.

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28. is concerned with how the various processes required making a product or providing a
service should operate.
a) Work Design
b) Work system design
c) Job design
d) Organisation design

29. With reference to Job design, which of the following is an appropriate choice?
a) It is about establishing what people in individual jobs or roles are there to do.
b) It is to decide how much pay a particular employee will get.
c) Deals with the ways in which things are done in the work system of a business by teams and
individuals.
d) It deals with the set of related activities that combine to give a result that customers want.

30. Which of the following comprises the design of jobs, working conditions and the ways in which people
are treated at work by their managers and co-workers as well as the work system?
a) Work design.
b) Work system design.
c) Work environment.
d) Organisational structures.

31. Which of the following best defines ‘Organisation design’?

a) Deep structure of organisations, which is rooted in the values, beliefs and assumptions held
by organisational members.
b) Shared system of meanings which is the basis for communications and mutual understanding.
c) To manage people effectively, it is necessary to take into account the factors that affect how they
behave at work.
d) It is concerned with deciding how organisations should be structured

32. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ‘Job Enrichment’?

a) It is a complete piece of work in the sense that the worker can identify a series of tasks or that end in
a recognizable and definable product.
b) It affords the employee as much variety, decision-making responsibility as possible in carrying out
the work.
c) It provides direct feedback through the work itself on how well the employee is doing his or her job.
d) It is the movement of employees from one task to another to reduce monotony by increasing variety.

33. is founded on the aspiration to improve organisational capability, which is broadly the
capacity of an organisation to function effectively in order to achieve desired results.
a) Organisational activity
b) Organisational diagnosis
c) Organisation development strategy
d) Organisation development process

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34. What is the specific objective behind Organisational learning?

a) To facilitate performance improvement and major changes in strategic direction.
b) To get knowledge from those who have it to those who need it in order to improve organisational
effectiveness.
c) To help and make the employees aware of the latest technology.
d) To ensure that people are committed to their work and the organisation and motivated to achieve
high levels of performance.

35. are the unwritten rules of behaviour.

a) Values
b) Attitude
c) Norms
d) Personality

36. What is the specific objective behind ‘Smart Working’?

a) To drive greater efficiency and effectiveness in achieving job outcomes.
b) To do more work in less amount on time.
c) To facilitate performance improvement and major changes in strategic direction.
d) To ensure that people are committed to their work and motivated to gain better performance.

37. The notion of was first defined by Salovey and Mayer who proposed that it involves the
capacity to perceive emotion, integrate emotion in thought, understand emotion and manage emotions
effectively.
a) emotional intelligence
b) intelligence quotient
c) persistence
d) endurance

38. is an organisational unit consisting of a group of defined tasks or activities to be carried out or
duties to be performed.
a) Role
b) Job design
c) Job analysis
d) Job

39. What is the specific objective behind ‘Organisation Design’?

a) To ensure that people work effectively together to achieve the overall purpose of the organisation.
b) To drive greater efficiency and effectiveness in achieving job outcomes.
c) To facilitate performance improvement and major changes in strategic direction.
d) To ensure that people are committed to their work and the organisation and motivated to achieve
high levels of performance.

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 Practice Questions

Chapter 3

40. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of commitment identified by Mowday et al (1982)?
a) A strong desire to remain a member of the organisation.
b) A strong belief in and acceptance of the values and goals of the organisation.
c) A readiness to exert considerable effort on behalf of the organisation.
d) A strong loyalty towards organisation to make it profitable at any cost.

41. According to Alfes et al (2010), thinking hard about the job and how to do it better is called .
a) intellectual engagement
b) affective engagement
c) social engagement
d) personal engagement

42. Which of the following is NOT a core facet of engagement according to Alfes et al (2010)?
a) Intellectual engagement – thinking hard about the job and how to do it better.
b) Affective engagement – feeling positively about doing a good job.
c) Personal engagement - giving time to the organisation beyond regular working hour.
d) Social engagement – actively taking opportunities to discuss work-related improvements with others
at work.

43. The expectancy theory is a theory belonging to theories.

a) conjugation
b) convoluted
c) process
d) content

44. In Vroom’s expectancy theory, the term valence refers to

a) the extent of an individual’s yearning for success.
b) the extent an individual prefers a specific outcome.
c) the extent of success that follows individual’s effort.
d) the extent one can be satisfied.

45. In Vroom’s expectancy theory, the term expectancy refers to

a) force or strength of motivation to do something.
b) strength of the individual's preference for a particular outcome.
c) individual's perception of the likelihood that doing ‘x’ will result in outcome ‘y’.
d) expectation of benefits from an organisation.

46. Which of the following is NOT a content theory of motivation?

a) Maslow’s needs theory.
b) Vroom expectancy theory.
c) ERG theory
d) Herzberg’s two factor model.

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 Practice Questions

47. Which of the following is NOT included in mutual commitment firms by Kochan and Dyer (1993)?
a) Monitoring level.
b) Strategic level.
c) Functional.
d) Workplace level.

Chapter 4

48. Which of the following is incorrect statement?

a) Learning is the modification of behaviour through experience.
b) Learning is about acquiring knowledge and skills.
c) Learning is about developing capabilities, behaviours and attitudes.
d) Learning style is same for all employees in an organisation.

49. The growth or realisation of a person’s ability and potential through the provision of learning and
educational experiences is called .
a) education
b) development
c) learning
d) training

50. Learning involves gaining knowledge and understanding by absorbing information in the form of
principles, concepts and facts and then internalising it. This is called .
a) reinforcement theory
b) cognitive learning theory
c) experiential learning theory
d) social learning theory

51. Which of the following is NOT included in learning cycle proposed by Kolb et al (1974)?
a) Reflective observation.
b) Visualisation.
c) Abstract conceptualisation.
d) Active experimentation.

52. According to learning styles proposed by Honey and Mumford (1996), ‘Pragmatists’ are those :
a) who are keen to try out new ideas, approaches and concepts to see if they work.
b) who stand back and observe new experiences from different angles, collect data, reflect on it and
then come to a conclusion.
c) who adapt and apply their observations in the form of logical theories and tend to be perfectionists.
d) who involve themselves fully without bias in new experiences and revel in new challenges.

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53. is the use of a combination of learning methods to increase the overall

effectiveness of the learning process by providing for different parts of the learning mix to complement
and support one another.
a) Workplace learning
b) Self directed learning
c) Experiential learning
d) Blended learning

54. Which of the following levels is NOT included in the Kirkpatrick evaluation model?
a) Learning
b) Behaviour
c) Correspondence
d) Results

55. The process of planning and delivering learning events and programmes is described by the ADDIE model.
Which of the following phases is NOT within the model?
a) Analysis phase
b) Design phase
c) Intermediate phase
d) Evaluation phase

Chapter 5
56. What is labour turnover?
a) The number of employees being outsourced.
b) The number of employees being promoted.
c) The number of employees leaving an organisation and being replaced.
d) The total number of employees in the organisation.

57. Labour turnover is the ratio of

a) employees employed and employee promoted in a period.
b) employees outsourced and employees employed in a period.
c) employees left and employees employed in a period.
d) employees fired and employees employed in a period.

58. The Labour Stability ratio considers

a) employees with greater skill
b) employees with a certain service length
c) employees nearing retirement
d) employees with higher salaries

59. Which of the followings is NOT a cause of labour turnover?

a) Accident
b) Retirement
c) Career shift
d) Delegation

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60. The employment life cycle usually shows a decision point shortly after joining, when things are still new
and perhaps difficult. This is called .
a) first difficulty
b) first crisis
c) first Induction Crisis
d) frustration

61. An exit interview should be arranged by the employer in order to

a) bid farewell to resigning employee who has served the organisation so far.
b) know the reason of resignation and take consequent action.
c) let the employee know that the re-entry door is not closed.
d) to make sure other employees are not disheartened .

62. Interviewing leaving employees is good way of

a) showing that the organisation care about them.
b) understanding the psychology of employees.
c) taking turnover seriously.
d) devising a way to retain existing workforce.

63. Which of the following is conducted to gauge the general climate of the organisation and the response
of the workforce as a whole to working conditions, management style and so on?
a) Attitude Survey
b) Perception Survey
c) Satisfaction Survey
d) Cognitive Survey

64. Decision of choosing between internal or external recruitment should rest on .

a) Observation of recruitment policy of competitors
b) Local labour law
c) Capability of existing staffs
d) Corporate practice in the industry

Chapter 6
65. An ‘employer brand’ is:
a) a summary of the employee benefits it offers.
b) a statement of the core values of an organisation.
c) the features of an organisation that makes it attractive to employees.
d) the image presented by the organisation to prospective employees.

66. Which of the following is NOT a use of job analysis?

a) to assess how well an employee has fulfilled the requirements of the job.
b) to decrease the number of blue collar workers.
c) to assess the knowledge and skills necessary in a job.
d) to identify hazards in the job.

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67. A Job Description provides all of the following usages EXCEPT

a) determining appropriate salary level
b) determining required skill level
c) determining level of job satisfaction
d) determining effective utilisation of human resource

68. Which of the following is NOT included in a coherent promotion policy?

a) Only some key employees will get opportunity to be promoted to the highest grades.
b) All promotions, as far as possible, and all things being equal, are to be made from within the firm.
c) Vacancies should be advertised and open to all employees.
d) Training should be offered to encourage and develop employees of ability and ambition in advance
of promotion.

69. In working place job analysis is carried out by any one of the following EXCEPT
a) observation of working practice.
b) questionnaires and interviews.
c) diaries, time sheets and other self-recording techniques.
d) data collection form industry journals.

70. Which of the following is generally NOT a purpose of job description?

a) To decide which skills (for example, technical, human, conceptual, design) and qualifications are
required of the job holder.
b) To assess whether the job will efficiently utilise the abilities and provide scope for the aspirations of
the prospective job holder.
c) To determine a rate of pay which is fair for the job, if this has not already been decided by some other
means.
d) To find out the employees who are overpaid and have less work.

71. Which of the following statement is NOT a limitation of job descriptions?

a) They are only suited for jobs where the work is largely repetitive and therefore performed by low-
grade employees.
b) Jobs are likely to be constantly changing as turbulent business environments impact upon them, so
a job description is constantly out of date or limiting.
c) Job descriptions stifle flexibility and encourage demarcation disputes, where people adhere strictly
to the contents of the job description, rather than responding flexibly to task or organisational
requirements.
d) For manual work, job descriptions provide a list of the sequence of operations that constitute the job,
noting main levels of difficulty.

72. In a job advertisement, ‘pleasant personality’ has been sought for the post of a public relations
officer .The stated person specification is classed as .
a) essential
b) desirable
c) contra-indicated
d) optional

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73. Job performance evaluation can be based on .

a) job assessment
b) job description
c) job narrative
d) job criteria

Chapter 7

74. Halo Effect in interview is observed when

a) all job candidates are judged the same.
b) one candidate is judged by one particular attribute.
c) interviewers are subjective in judgment.
d) interviewers are posing racist questions.

75. Interviewing panels or selection boards:

a) are a cost-effective method of processing candidates.
b) ensure that a wide range of probing questions are put to candidates.
c) combine the views of a number of interviewers to produce better assessments.
d) favour the confident and articulate candidate.

76. Which of the following statements is appropriate regarding ‘assessment centres’?

a) It checks previous employment records.
b) It is used for discovering character traits.
c) It is used to assess the fitness of the candidates.
d) It is used to assess team-working, leadership, problem-solving and communication skills in
candidates.

77. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of one-to-one interviews?

a) It allows for a biased or superficial decision.
b) It allows direct face-to-face communication.
c) The candidate may be able to disguise lack of knowledge in a specialist area of which the interviewer
himself knows little.
d) The interviewer's perception may be selective or distorted

78. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of selection boards?

a) Questions tend to be more varied, and more random. Candidates may have trouble switching from
one topic to another so quickly.
b) Some candidates may not perform well in a formal, artificial situation such as a board interview, and
may find such a situation extremely stressful.
c) Board interviews favour individuals who are confident, and who project an immediate and strong
image: those who are articulate dress well and so on.
d) Selectors can compare their assessments on the spot, without a subsequent effort at liaison and
communication.

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 Practice Questions

79. “Can you tell us about a time when you were successful about setting a goal and achieving it?”
- What type of interview question is it?
a) Open questions.
b) Probing questions.
c) Multiple questions.
d) Situational questions.

80. 'Why do you want to be in HR?'

- What type of interview question is it?
a) Open questions.
b) Probing questions.
c) Multiple questions.
d) Situational questions.

81. 'How many years of experiences do you have?'

- What type of interview question is it?
a) Open questions.
b) Probing questions.
c) Multiple questions.
d) Situational questions.

82. Checking previous work experience in a selection process is a discriminatory act” – the statement is ?
a) True
b) False
c) True only when done only for a particular group
d) True when done for all demographic groups

Chapter 8
83. Disciplinary actions are warranted in each of the following situation EXCEPT
a) repeated poor timekeeping by employee.
b) employee is often absent.
c) employee’s performance is poor.
d) employee is keeping and maintaining work deadlines.

84. A punitive disciplinary action means

a) warning the offender.
b) scolding the offender.
c) punishing the offender.
d) counseling the offender.

85. A deterrent disciplinary action means

a) warning the offender.
b) scolding the offender.
c) punishing the offender.
d) counseling the offender.

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86. A progressive disciplinary method refers to

a) killing the cat at the first night.
b) gradually increasing punishment level.
c) applying theory Y in disciplining.
d) courteous reformative discussion.

87. Grievance occurs in a probable case of

a) unfair treatment.
b) bad working condition.
c) poor Salary.
d) lack of Motivation.

88. Which of the following is NOT a stage of benchmarking process?

a) Ensure functional workers commitment.
b) The areas to be benchmarked should be determined and objectives should be set.
c) Key performance measures must be established.
d) Select organisations to benchmark against.

89. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of self-appraisal as sources of performance feedback?
a) It saves the manager time, as employees identify the areas which are most relevant to the job and
their relative strengths.
b) There are chances that employee may over- (or under-) estimate their performance in this method.
c) It offers increased responsibility to the individual, which may improve motivation.
d) It helps to integrate the goals of the individual with those of the organisation.

90. Which of the following is NOT a guideline on giving constructive developmental feedback?
a) Starting with positives.
b) Focusing on the behaviour.
c) Being precise.
d) Close with warning.

91. Lockett (1992) lists a number of reasons why appraisal may not always be effective in practice. Which of
the following is not within them?
a) Appraisal as confrontation.
b) Appraisal as judgement.
c) Appraisal as formal communication.
d) Appraisal as bureaucracy.

92. Which of the following is generally NOT considered as the reason for poor performance?
a) Job changes which have left the job-holder less suited for the work.
b) Personality factors or clashes with team members.
c) Downsizing applied in the organisation.
d) Factors outside the work situation (eg marital or financial problems).

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93. Performance Management is a management system of

a) Monitoring how employees are working
b) Setting action plans and assessing implementations
c) Managing self performance
d) Tracking management’s viewpoints about the organisation

94. An appraisal system should be assessed based on each of the following criteria EXCEPT
a) Fairness
b) Relevance
c) Internality
d) Effectiveness

Chapter 9
95. Proper job evaluation should be conducted in order to
a) assess the value of jobs to the organisation in relation to one another.
b) facilitate equal opportunity.
c) maintain corporate strategies.
d) recruit new employees.

96. The proper order of job evaluation process would be

a) Remuneration factors > Collection of Job data> Job appraisal > determine pay value.
b) Collection of Job data> Job appraisal> determine pay value> Remuneration factors.
c) Job appraisal> Collection of Job data> determine pay value> Remuneration factors.
d) Determine pay value> Remuneration factors> Job appraisal> Collection of Job data.

97. Job Classification is a form of method.

a) analytical
b) non-analytical
c) sub-analytical
d) pseudo-analytical

98. The concept of is based on the premise that monetary payments are not the only, or
necessarily the most effective, form of reward and that financial and nonfinancial rewards should be linked
together as an integrated reward package.
a) direct benefits or reward
b) indirect benefits or reward
c) flexible benefits or reward
d) total benefits or reward

99. Points Rating in job evaluation is a form of method

a) analytical
b) non-analytical
c) sub-analytical
d) pseudo-analytical

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100. The most popular formal job evaluation method these days is
a) Job Ranking
b) Job Classification
c) Points Rating
d) Peer Evaluation

101. Which of the following is NOT an indirect pay or benefits?

a) Sales commission
b) Company cars
c) Housing assistance
d) Medical insurance and allowances

102. Which of the following is a performance or variable pay?

a) Sales commission
b) Company cars
c) Housing assistance
d) Medical insurance and allowances

103. Which of the following should NOT be included in the criteria of effective performance pay systems?
a) Targets and standards of performance must be made clear to the people involved.
b) The formulae used to calculate rewards, and any conditions that apply, should be easily understood.
c) The rewards should be smaller so that the employees can be rewarded again and again.
d) There should not be a lengthy time lag between performance and reward.

104. A range of benefits with different values are on offer, and employees can choose from among them up to
their budget, as allocated to a personal benefit account. This is called .
a) cash benefits
b) non cash benefits
c) flexible benefits
d) total reward

Chapter 10

105. Flexible retirement is devised by setting a minimum age after which retirement is
a) optional
b) mandatory
c) recommended
d) obvious

106. Dismissal without any prior notice can be handed to the employee in a case of
a) terminal illness
b) attitude problem
c) gross misconduct
d) vicious grievances

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107. Redundancy can occur in case of

a) employer applying going concern
b) employer applying downsizing
c) employer requiring more employees for a work
d) employer applying expansion

108. Which of the following is NOT an approach to employee relations?

a) Adversarial
b) Dynamic
c) Partnership
d) Power sharing

109. Purcell and Sission (1983) identified five management styles in employee relations. Which one of the
following is NOT within them?
a) Authoritarian
b) Paternalistic
c) Directive
d) Opportunistic

110. Which of the following statements best describes ‘opportunistic management styles in employee
relations’ according to Purcell and Sission (1983)?
a) Employee relations are not regarded as important and people issues are not attended to unless
something goes wrong.
b) In some ways this resembles the authoritarian style but a more positive attitude to employees is
adopted.
c) Trade unions are welcomed and employee consultation is a high priority.
d) Management style is determined by local circumstances, which in turn determine whether or not
unions are recognised and the extent to which employee involvement is encouraged.

111. Which of the following is NOT a type of dispute resolution?

a) Conciliation
b) Off-setting
c) Arbitration
d) Mediation

112. What is constructive dismissal?

a) Forceful resignation by employee because of employer’s unreasonable behaviour.
b) Voluntary resignation by employee without any specific cause.
c) Voluntary resignation by employee because of employer’s unreasonable behaviour.
d) Forceful termination of employee by employer’s instruction.

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 Practice Questions

113. Employee voice is .

a) an individual concept
b) a collective concept
c) both an individual concept and a collective concept
d) specifically useful for the female workers

Chapter 11

114. The term refers to an underlying characteristic of a person that results in effective or superior
performance.
a) patience
b) competency
c) experience
d) persistency

115. is an attempt to quantify the financial value of human capital to the

firm, as part of its market worth and asset base.
a) Human resource
b) Organisational behaviour
c) Human resource accounting
d) Management accounting

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