Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy - India

A.P, TELANGNA, KARNATAKA, TAMILNADU, MAHARASHTRA, DELHI, RANCHI

A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
JEE ADVANCED_2019_P2 MODEL

WEEKEND TEST - 1
Sec: C3 IPL Date : 16.07.2022
==============================================================================================
SYLLABUS
Physics : 1) Basic Mathematics Trignometry, Algebra, Coordinate Geometry

Chemistry : Atomic Structure (upto Debroglie's Hypothesis)

Mathematics : 1) Surds & Logrithms (25%), 2) Sets (75%)

Name of the Student : ___________________________ H.T. NO :

 JEE ADV _ 2019 P2 Sri Chaitanya Educational Institutions, India

PHYSICS
SECTION - 1
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks : 32)
1) This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
Each question has FOUR options ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s)
is(are) correct answer(s).
2) For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
3) Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme.
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen
and both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it
is a correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

4 12
1. If cos θ = and cos φ = where θ and φ both lie in the 1st quadrant. [ ]
5 13
33 −16 −56 63
A) cos( θ + φ ) = B) sin( θ – φ )= C) tan( θ + φ ) = D) cos( θ – φ )=
65 65 33 65
2. A conical vessel, whose internal radius is 12cm and height 50cm, is full of liquid. The contents are
emptied into a cylinderical vessel with internal radius 10cm. Find the volume of the conical vessel
and the height to which the liquid rises in the cylindrical vessel. [ ]
A) 7542.85cm3 B) 754.285cm3 C) 24cm D) 38cm
3. If a particle starts moving with initial velocity u = 1m/s and acceleration a = 2m/s2, the velocity of
the particle at any time is given by v = 1 + 2t. Which of the following graphs represents correct
formation. [ ]

V a a
V

A) B) C) D)

t t t t

4. If log x + log y = log (x + y), then which of the following are not correct [ ]

x −1 x
A) x = y B) xy = 1 C) y = D) y =
x x −1

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 JEE ADV _ 2019 P2 Sri Chaitanya Educational Institutions, India

5. –sin θ is equivalent to [ ]

⎛π ⎞ ⎛π ⎞
A) cos ⎜⎝ + θ ⎟⎠ B) cos ⎜⎝ − θ ⎟⎠ C) sin (θ − π ) D) sin (θ + π )
2 2
6. In the series 6+12+18+24+......... [ ]
A) The sum of 18 terms in the series is 1026
B) The sum of 18 terms in the series is 1800
C) The 24th term in the series is 108
D) The 24th term in the series is 144
7. If log3x = log916, then which of the following are correct [ ]
A) x = 4 B) x + 1 = 5 C) x – 1 = 3 D) x = 3

3 1
8. If sin θ = and cos θ = – then [ ]
2 2

3 1 2
A) sin2 θ = – B) cos2 θ = – C) tan2 θ = 3 D) sec2 θ = −
2 2 3

SECTION – II
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks : 18)
1) This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE.
2) For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the
on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numeri-
cal value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal
places.
3) Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
9. Sin2(37°) + Sin2(53°) = ________

10. (1+x)–3 = 1–3x+nx2–10x3+........., then the value of n is _____

11. log28 = _______

12. The value of tan260°+ 2cos245°+3sec230°+4cos290° is _____

13. How many terms are there in the G.P 3, 6, 12, 24, ......, 384 _____.

1
14. The value of sin3x–sinx, if x = 30° is then P = ______
P

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 JEE ADV _ 2019 P2 Sri Chaitanya Educational Institutions, India

SECTION – III
SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks : 12)
1) This section contains TWO (02) List-Match sets.
2) Each List-Match set has TWO (02) Multiple Choice Questions.
3) Each List-Match set has two lists : List-I and List-II.
4) List-I has Four entries (I),(II), (III) and (IV) List-II has Six entries (P),(Q), (R ), (S), (T)
and (U).
5) FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II
and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple
Choice Question.
6) Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the option corresponding to the correct combination is
chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Matching - I
In the ΔABC ; B =90°; AC = 13; BC = 5.
List - I List - II
I. Sin A P) 5/12
II. Cos A Q) 13/5
III. Cos C R) 5/13
IV. tan A S) 13/12
T) 12/5
U) 12/13
15. The value of sinA and cosC [ ]
A) I - R; III - U B) I - R; III - R C) I - U; III - U D) I - U; III - R
16. The value of cosA and tanA [ ]
A) II - P; IV - U B) II - P; IV - P C) II - U; IV - P D) II - U; IV - U
Matching - II
If a=27cm; b=23cm; h=19cm; R=21cm; l = 42cm where a & b are parallel sides, and h is the
height of a trapezium; R represents the radius and l represents the slant height.
List – I List – II (in cm2)
I. Area of trapezium P) 2772
II. Area of circle Q) 5544
III. Area of cone R) 950
IV. Area of sphere S) 475
T) 1386
U) 66
17. Which of the following is the correct comparision of List - I with List - II [ ]
A) I - U B) II - S C) III - T D) IV - Q
18. Which of the following is the correct comparision of List - I with List - II [ ]
A) I - S B) II - U C) III - R D) IV - P
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 JEE ADV _ 2019 P2 Sri Chaitanya Educational Institutions, India

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - 1
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks : 32)
1) This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
Each question has FOUR options ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s)
is(are) correct answer(s).
2) For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
3) Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme.
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen
and both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it
is a correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
19. Which of the following statements are incorrect? [ ]
A) In absorption spectrum, the bright lines are formed on dark back ground
B) In emission spectrum, dark spectral lines are formed on bright back ground
C) Hydrogen spectrum is an example of absorption spectrum
D) The intensity of spectral lines depends on population of energy levels between which elec-
tronic transition takes place.
20. During the Rutherford’s α – particle scattering experiment [ ]
A) Distance of closest approach is of the order of 1014m
B) At the distance of closest approach, the kinetic energy of the α - particle is transformed into
electrostatic potential
C) The α – particles moving towards the nucleus will stop and start retracing its path
D) maximum number of α – particles went straight through metal foil
21. The kinetic energy (KE) of photoelectron emitted on irradiating a metal surface with frequency
' ϑ ' is related by KE = hϑ – IE. The plots of K.E vs incident frequency is a straight line which
shows [ ]
A) slope equal to planck’s constant
B) intercept on x - axis equal to the product of threshold frequency & planck’s constant
C) with extrapolated on y - axis equal to IE
D) with intercept x - axis equal to threshold frequency
22. According to Bohr’s atomic theory, which of the following relation(s) is (are) correct? [ ]
2
Z
A) Kinetic energy of electron α
n2
B) The product of velocity of electron and the principal quantum number α Z2
Z2
C) Frequency of revolution of the electron in an orbit α 3
n

Z3
D) Coulombic force of attraction on the electron α
n4
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 JEE ADV _ 2019 P2 Sri Chaitanya Educational Institutions, India
23. False statement about the de - Broglie’s wavelength of an electron in the first Bohr’s orbit is
A) equal to the circumference of the first orbit [ ]
B) equal to twice the circumference of the first orbit
C) equal to half the circumference of the first orbit
D) equal to one fourth of the circumference of the first orbit
24. Which of the following observations correct during Rutherford’s scattering experiment ?
A) Most of the α -particles passed through the gold foil undeflected. [ ]
B) A small fraction of the α -particles was deflected by small angles.
C) A large number of the α -particles were bounced back.
D) A very few α -particles ( : I in 20,000) were bounced back.
25. Radiation of wavelength 200 A° falls on a platinum surface. If the work function of the metal is 5
eV. Which of the following results are correct about experiment? [ ]
A) The velocity of photoelectrons increases with increase in intensity of radiation
B) Photo - emission of electrons takes place
C) The threshold frequency of the metal is 1.21 × 1015 sec–1
D) The velocity of the photo - electrons is 4.48 × 106 m/sec
26. Mark the correct statement regarding the photoelectric effect [ ]
A) There is no time lag between the striking of light beam and the ejection of electrons from the
metal surface.
B) The number of electrons ejected is inversely proportional to the intensity of light.
C) Photoelectric effect is not observed below threshold frequency.
D) The kinetic energy of the electrons increases with increase in frequency of light used.

SECTION – II
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks : 18)
1) This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE.
2) For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the
on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numeri-
cal value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal
places.
3) Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
27. The wave number of electromagnetic radiation emitted during the transition of electron in
between two levels of Li2+ ion whose principal quantum numbers sum is 4 and difference is 2 is
________ RH.
28. What is the number of spectral lines produced when an electron jumps from fifth orbit to second
orbit in the hydrogen atom _________
29. What is the number of waves made by a Bohr electron in Hydrogen atom in one complete revolu-
tion in the third orbit? _________
30. What is the value of ‘n’ of the highest excited state that an electron of hydrogen atom in the ground
state can reach when 12.09 eV energy is given to the hydrogen atom? ________

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 JEE ADV _ 2019 P2 Sri Chaitanya Educational Institutions, India
31. The circumference of the second, orbit of electron in hydrogen atom is 400 nm, the de Broglie
wavelength of electron corresponding to the circumference of same orbit is 200 nm. What is the
number of waves made by an electron? ________
32. The atomic masses of He and Ne are 4 and 20 amu, respectively. The value of the de - Broglie
wavelength of He gas at –73°C is M times that of the de - Broglie wavelength of Ne at 727°C M
is ________

SECTION – III
SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks : 12)
1) This section contains TWO (02) List-Match sets.
2) Each List-Match set has TWO (02) Multiple Choice Questions.
3) Each List-Match set has two lists : List-I and List-II.
4) List-I has Four entries (I),(II), (III) and (IV) List-II has Six entries (P),(Q), (R ), (S), (T)
and (U).
5) FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II
and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple
Choice Question.
6) Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the option corresponding to the correct combination is
chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Matching - I
Column - I Column - II
a) Radius of nth orbit p) Inversely proportional to z
h
b) Energy of nth orbit q) Integral multiple of
2π
c) Velocity of electron in the nth orbit r) Proportional to n2
d) Angular momentum of electron s) Inversely proportional to n
t) Proportional to Z2
33. The radius of Bohr’s first orbit in hydrogen atom is 0.053 nm. The radius of second orbit in He+
can be [ ]
A) 0.0265 nm B) 0.0530 nm C) 0.106 nm D) 0.2120 nm
34. The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of H-atom is –13.6eV. The possible energy value
of the 3rd excited state for electron in Bohr orbit of hydrogen is [ ]
A) – 3.4 eV B) – 0.85 eV C) – 6.8 eV D) + 6.8 eV
Matching - II
Column - I Column - II
a) Lyman series p) Visible region
b) Balmer series q) Infrared region
c) Paschen series r) Utraviolet region
d) brackett series s) n2 = 4 o n2 = 3
t) n2 = 5 to n2 = 1

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 JEE ADV _ 2019 P2 Sri Chaitanya Educational Institutions, India
35. The wave number of the first line in the Balmer series of hydrogen atom is 15200 cm–1. What is
the wave number of the first line in the Balmer series of Be3+ ? [ ]
5 –1 –1 –1 –1
A) 2.432 × 10 cm B) 15200 cm C) 415200 cm D) 215200 cm
36. The second line of Lyman series of H coincides with the sixth line of Paschen series of an ionic
species X. Find X assuming R to be same for both H and X ? [ ]
+ +2 +
A) He B) Li C) Li D) H

MATHEMATICS
SECTION - 1
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks : 32)
1) This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
Each question has FOUR options ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s)
is(are) correct answer(s).
2) For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
3) Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme.
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen
and both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it
is a correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

37. Rationalizing factor of 2 is [ ]

A) 2 B) 2 2 C) 6 D) 8
38. If log2 = 0.3010 then the value of log 20 = [ ]
A) 1 + log 2 B) 1.3010 C) 2 – log5 D) 2.3010

39. If A and B are two sets. The symmetric difference of set A and B ( AΔB) is equal to [ ]
A) ( A ∪ B) − ( A I B) B) ( A − B) ∪ ( B − A) C) ( B ∪ A) − ( B ∩ A) D) BΔA
40. If U = { a, b, c, d, e, f, g}, A = {a, b, d}, B = {d, e, g}. Which of the following is true ?[ ]
A) A ∪ B = {a, b, d , e, g} B) A ∩ B = {b, d }
C) B − A = {e, g} D) B′ = {a, b, c, f }
41. In a certain town 25% families own phone and 15% own car, 65% families own neither phone nor
a car, 2000 families own both car and phone. which of the following is true ? [ ]
A) 10% families own both a car and phone B) 35% families own either a car or phone
C) 40, 000 families live in the town D) 5% families own both a car and phone
42. If n(U) = 60 n(A) = 21, n(B) = 43 then which of the following values are possible ? [ ]
A) Greatest value of n( A ∪ B) = 60 B) Least value of ( A ∪ B ) = 43
C) Greatest value of n ( A 1 B) = 21 D) Least value of n ( A 1 B) = 0
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 JEE ADV _ 2019 P2 Sri Chaitanya Educational Institutions, India
43. In a survey of 400 students in a school, 100 were listed as taking apple juice, 150 as taking orange
juice and 75 were listed as taking both apple as well as orange juice. Then which of the following
are true ? [ ]
A) 25 students were taking Apple juice only
B) 75 students were taking Orange juice only
C) 70 students were taking apple and orange juice
D) 175 students were taking either apple or orange juice
44. If X = {4n – 3n – 1/ n ∈N}, Y = {9 (n –1) / n ∈N}, then which of the following are False ?
A) X = Y B) X ∪ Y = Y C) X ∩ Y = N D) X ∩ Y = X [ ]

SECTION – II
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks : 18)
1) This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE.
2) For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the
on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numeri-
cal value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal
places.
3) Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
45. If log 2 = 0.3010, log 3 = 0.4771, then log 24 =
46. Let S = {1, 2, 3, 4}. Then total number of un ordered pairs of disjoint subsets of S is
47. If set A contains 5 elements then total number of elements in power set of A is
48. If A= { x : x is a multiple of 4}, B = {x : x is multiple of 6), then A ∩ B consists of all multiples of

49. If n(U) = 20, n(A) = 12, n(B) = 9, n ( A ∩ B) = 4 , then n ( A ∪ B)′ =

p
50. Let S be the set of all distinct numbers of the form , where p, q ∈{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}. What is the
q
cardinality of the set S ?

SECTION – III
SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks : 12)
1) This section contains TWO (02) List-Match sets.
2) Each List-Match set has TWO (02) Multiple Choice Questions.
3) Each List-Match set has two lists : List-I and List-II.
4) List-I has Four entries (I),(II), (III) and (IV) List-II has Six entries (P),(Q), (R ), (S), (T)
and (U).
5) FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II
and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple
Choice Question.
6) Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the option corresponding to the correct combination is
chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

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 JEE ADV _ 2019 P2 Sri Chaitanya Educational Institutions, India
Matching - I
51. List - I List - II
i) 5 5 5......∞ = p) 6

ii) 6 − 6 − 6....∞ = q) 5

iii) 10 4 10 8 10........ = r) 2

iv) 23 + x 10 = 18 + 5 s) 10
A) i - q, ii - q, iii - p, iv - s B) i - q, ii - r, iii - s, iv - s
C) i - q, ii - r. iii - r, iv - s D) i - q, ii - r, iii - s, iv - p
52. If A, B and C are three sets. Then match the following
List - I List - II

i) ( A′ ∪ B′ )′ p) ( A ∩ B)

ii) ⎡⎣ B ′ ∪ ( B ′ − A)⎤⎦ ′ q) A
iii) (A – B) – ( B – C) r) B
iv) A ∩ A s) ( A ∩ C ) − B
A ) i - p, ii - r, iii - s, iv - q B) i - q, ii - r, iii - s, iv - s
C) i - q, ii - r, iii - r, iv - s D) i - q, ii - r, iii - p, iv - s
Matching - II
53. In a group of 1000 people, ther are 750 who can speak Hindi and 400 who can Bengali. Then
match the following ?
List - I List - II
i) Hindi only p) 250
ii) Bengali only q) 600
iii) Hindi or Bengali r) 150
iv) Bengali and Hindi s) 1000
A) i - q, ii - r, iii - s, iv - p B) i - q, ii - p, iii - s, iv - r
C) i - q, ii - s, iii - s, iv - p D) i - q, ii - r, iii - p, iv - s
54. Of the memebers of three athletic teams in a school 21 are in the cricket team, 26 are in the hockey
team and 29 are in the football team. Among them, 14 play hockey and cricket , 15 play hockey
and football, 12 play football and cricket. 8 play all the three games. Then match the following.
List - I List - II
i) Number of members in 3 athletic teams is p) 18
ii) number of members in exactly one game q) 17
iii) number of members in at least two games r) 43
iv) number of members in exactly two games s) 25
A) i - r, ii - q, iii - s, iv - p B) i -q, ii - r, iii - s, iv - p
C) i - r, ii = p, iii - s, iv - q D) i - p, ii - r, iii -q, iv - s

Z
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