Test Booklet Code

No. :
HAGAJA
M3 This Booklet contains 28 pages.

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2. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options
with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions
in each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos – 1 to 35,
51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos – 36 to 50, 86 to 100,
136 to 150 and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out
of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start
attempting the question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first
ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
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incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
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M3 2
Section - A (Physics) 3. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of
capacitance C and a resistor of resistance ‘R’ are
connected in series to an ac source of potential
difference ‘V’ volts as shown in figure.
1. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a
current of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V,
with a speed of 105 m/s parallel to the conductor. 10 V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of
The perpendicular distance between the electron current flowing through LCR series circuit is
and the conductor is 20 cm at an instant. 10 2 A. The impedance of the circuit is :
Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced
by the electron at that instant.

(1) 4 2 Ω

(2) 5 2 Ω
(1) 4×10−20 N
(3) 4Ω
(2) 8π×10−20 N
(4) 5Ω
(3) 4π×10−20 N

4. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in

(4) 8×10−20 N
x-direction, which one of the following combination
gives the correct possible directions for electric
field (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively ?

2. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In ∧ ∧ ∧ ∧

which direction will it move ? (1) j+k, j +k

∧ ∧ ∧ ∧
(2) − j+k, − j−k

∧ ∧ ∧ ∧
(3) j +k, − j−k

∧ ∧ ∧ ∧
(4) − j+k, − j+k

5. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is

(1) towards the left as its potential energy will best suited as an objective of an astronomical
increase. telescope since :

(2) towards the right as its potential energy will (1) a large aperture contributes to the quality
decrease. and visibility of the images.

(2) a large area of the objective ensures better

(3) towards the left as its potential energy will
light gathering power.
decrease.
(3) a large aperture provides a better resolution.
(4) towards the right as its potential energy will
increase. (4) all of the above.
 3 M3
6. Column - I gives certain physical terms associated 9. A screw gauge gives the following readings when
with flow of current through a metallic conductor. used to measure the diameter of a wire
Column - II gives some mathematical relations
involving electrical quantities. Match Main scale reading : 0 mm
Column - I and Column - II with appropriate Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
relations.
Column - I Column - II Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to
100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter
m
(A) Drift Velocity (P) of the wire from the above data is :
ne2 ρ
(1) 0.52 cm
(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nevd
(2) 0.026 cm
eE
(C) Relaxation Period (R) τ (3) 0.26 cm
m
E (4) 0.052 cm
(D) Current Density (S)
J
(1) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q) 10. A thick current carrying cable of radius ‘R’ carries
(2) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P) current ‘I’ uniformly distributed across its
cross-section. The variation of magnetic field B(r)
(3) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q)
due to the cable with the distance ‘r’ from the axis
(4) (A)-(R), (B)-(Q), (C)-(S), (D)-(P) of the cable is represented by :
7. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength ‘λ’ is
incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible
work function. If ‘m’ mass is of photoelectron
emitted from the surface has de-Broglie wavelength
λd, then : (1)
 2m  2
(1) λ= λd
 hc 
 2mc  2
(2) λd= λ
 h 
 2mc  2
(3) λ= λd
 h  (2)
 2h  2
(4) λ= λd
 mc 

8. A particle is released from height S from the

surface of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic
energy is three times its potential energy. The
height from the surface of earth and the speed of
the particle at that instant are respectively : (3)
S 3gS
(1) ,
4 2
S 3gS
(2) ,
4 2
S 3gS
(3) ,
2 2 (4)
S 3gS
(4) ,
4 2
M3 4
11. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and 15. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that
R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of
surface charge densities of the spheres (σ1/σ2) is : cross-section and same material is 0.25 Ω. What
will be the effective resistance if they are connected
R1
(1) in series ?
R2
(1) 0.25 Ω
R2 (2) 0.5 Ω
(2) R1
(3) 1Ω
 R1  (4) 4Ω
(3)  
 R2 
16. Find the value of the angle of emergence from the
R12 prism. Refractive index of the glass is 3 .
(4)
R22

12. The number of photons per second on an average

emitted by the source of monochromatic light of
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of
3.3×10−3 watt will be : (h=6.6×10−34 Js)
(1) 1018
(2) 1017 (1) 608
(3) 1016 (2) 308
(4) 1015 (3) 458

13. A cup of coffee cools from 908C to 808C in t minutes, (4) 908
when the room temperature is 208C. The time
taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 808C 17. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined
to 608C at a room temperature same at 208C is : plane, starting from rest at time t=0. Let Sn be
the distance travelled by the block in the interval
13 Sn
(1) t
10 t=n−1 to t=n. Then, the ratio is :
Sn+1
13 2n−1
(2) t
5 (1)
2n
10
(3) t 2n−1
13 (2) 2n+1
5
(4) t 2n+1
13
(3) 2n−1
14. The equivalent capacitance of the combination
shown in the figure is : 2n
(4) 2n−1

18. The escape velocity from the Earth’s surface is v.

The escape velocity from the surface of another
planet having a radius, four times that of Earth
and same mass density is :

(1) 3C (1) v
(2) 2C (2) 2v
(3) C/2 (3) 3v
(4) 3C/2 (4) 4v
 5 M3
19. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. 23. Match Column - I and Column - II and choose
The fraction of original activity that will remain the correct match from the given choices.
after 150 hours would be : Column - I Column - II
(1) 1/2 1
(A) Root mean square (P) nm v 2
3
1 speed of gas molecules
(2)
2 2 3 RT
(B) Pressure exerted (Q)
M
by ideal gas
2
(3) 5
3 (C) Average kinetic energy (R) RT
2
of a molecule
2
(4) 3
3 2 (D) Total internal energy (S) kBT
2
of 1 mole of a
diatomic gas
20. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives
balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another (1) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)
cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at (2) (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)
what length of the wire, the balance point occurs ? (3) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R)
(1) 60 cm (4) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S)

(2) 21.6 cm 24. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The

time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg
(3) 64 cm is suspended by it is :
(4) 62 cm (1) 0.0628 s
(2) 6.28 s
(3) 3.14 s
21. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of
15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to (4) 0.628 s
frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How
much power is generated by the turbine ? 25. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density
(g=10 m/s2) d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine
becomes constant after some time. If the density
(1) 10.2 kW
of glycerine is d , then the viscous force acting on
(2) 8.1 kW 2
the ball will be :
(3) 12.3 kW Mg
(1)
2
(4) 7.0 kW
(2) Mg
22. The electron concentration in an n-type 3
(3) Mg
semiconductor is the same as hole concentration 2
in a p-type semiconductor. An external field
(electric) is applied across each of them. Compare (4) 2 Mg
the currents in them.
26. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with
(1) current in n-type=current in p-type. frequency ‘n’, the frequency of its potential energy
is :
(2) current in p-type > current in n-type.
(1) n
(3) current in n-type > current in p-type. (2) 2n

(4) No current will flow in p-type, current will (3) 3n

only flow in n-type. (4) 4n
M3 6
27. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two 32. A capacitor of capacitance ‘C’, is connected across
fragments each of mass number 120, the binding an ac source of voltage V, given by
energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is V=V0 sinωt
7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The
total gain in the Binding Energy in the process is : The displacement current between the plates of
the capacitor, would then be given by :
(1) 0.9 MeV
(2) 9.4 MeV (1) Id=V0 ωCcosωt
(3) 804 MeV V
(4) 216 MeV (2) Id= 0 cosωt
ωC
28. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric V
→ (3) Id= 0 sin ωt
field ‘ E ’ in the space between the plates. If the ωC
distance between the plates is ‘d’ and the area of (4) Id=V0 ωCsinωt
each plate is ‘A’, the energy stored in the capacitor
is : (ε0=permittivity of free space)
33. If E and G respectively denote energy and
1
(1) ε0 E2 E
2 gravitational constant, then has the dimensions
G
of :
(2) ε0EAd
(1) [ M2 ] [ L−1 ] [ T0 ]
1
(3) ε E2 Ad (2) [ M ] [ L−1 ] [ T−1 ]
2 0
2
(3) [ M ] [ L0 ] [ T0 ]
E Ad
(4) (4) [ M2 ] [ L−2 ] [ T−1 ]
ε0
34. A convex lens ‘A’ of focal length 20 cm and a concave
29. Polar molecules are the molecules :
lens ‘B’ of focal length 5 cm are kept along the
(1) having zero dipole moment.
same axis with a distance ‘d’ between them. If a
(2) acquire a dipole moment only in the presence parallel beam of light falling on ‘A’ leaves ‘B’ as a
of electric field due to displacement of parallel beam, then the distance ‘d’ in cm will be :
charges.
(1) 25
(3) acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic
field is absent. (2) 15
(4) having a permanent electric dipole moment. (3) 50
(4) 30
30. A radioactive nucleus AZ X undergoes spontaneous
decay in the sequence 35. If force [ F ], acceleration [ A ] and time [ T ] are
A chosen as the fundamental physical quantities.
X → Z −1B → Z −3C → Z − 2 D , where Z is the Find the dimensions of energy.
Z
atomic number of element X. The possible decay
(1) [F ] [A] [ T]
particles in the sequence are :
(1) α, β−, β+ (2) [ F ] [ A ] [ T2 ]
(2) α, β+, β− (3) [ F ] [ A ] [ T−1 ]
(3) β+, α, β− (4) [ F ] [ A−1 ] [ T ]
(4) β−, α, β+
Section - B (Physics)
31. Consider the following statements (A) and (B)
and identify the correct answer. 36. A step down transformer connected to an ac mains
(A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W
when used as a voltage regulator. lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer,
(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies what is the current in the primary circuit ?
between 0.1 V to 0.3 V.
(1) 0.2 A
(1) (A) and (B) both are correct.
(2) 0.4 A
(2) (A) and (B) both are incorrect.
(3) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect. (3) 2A
(4) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct. (4) 4A
 7 M3
37. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 40. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2.
10 m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same At t=4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a
height. The magnitude of impulse imparted to person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and
the ball is (g=10 m/s2) nearly : acceleration of the ball at t=6 s ?
(Take g=10 m/s2)
(1) 0 kg m/s
(1) 20 m/s, 5 m/s2
(2) 4.2 kg m/s (2) 20 m/s, 0
(3) 2.1 kg m/s (3) 20 2 m/s, 0
(4) 20 2 m/s, 10 m/s2
(4) 1.4 kg m/s
41. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from
a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane
38. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a
mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis
uniform speed takes a time T to complete one
of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the
revolution.
final image would be formed at a distance of :
If this particle were projected with the same speed
at an angle ‘θ’ to the horizontal, the maximum
height attained by it equals 4R. The angle of
projection, θ, is then given by :

1
−1
 gT2  2
(1) θ=cos   (1) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real
 π2 R 
  image.
1
(2) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real
π R 2 2 image.
(2) θ=cos−1   (3) 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a
 gT2 
  virtual image.
(4) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a
1
 π2 R  2 virtual image.
(3) θ=sin−1   42. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at
 gT2 
  220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop.
Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.
1
−1
 2gT2  2 (1) 660 V
(4) θ=sin   (2) 1320 V
 π2 R 
  (3) 1520 V
(4) 1980 V
39. A particle of mass ‘m’ is projected with a velocity 43. In the product
v=kVe(k < 1) from the surface of the earth.
(Ve=escape velocity)
→
(
F =q v × B
→ →
)
The maximum height above the surface reached
→
( ∧
=q v × B i +B j +B0 k
∧ ∧
)
by the particle is : ∧ ∧ ∧
→
2
For q=1 and v =2 i +4 j+6 k and
 k  → ∧ ∧ ∧
(1) R 
 1−k  F=4 i −20 j +12 k
→
2 What will be the complete expression for B ?
 k 
(2) R  ∧ ∧ ∧
 1+k  (1) −8 i −8 j −6 k
∧ ∧ ∧
R2 k (2) −6 i −6 j −8 k
(3)
1+k ∧ ∧ ∧
(3) 8 i +8 j−6 k
Rk2 ∧ ∧ ∧
(4) (4) 6 i +6 j−8 k
1−k2
M3 8
44. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are 46. A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and
applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would resistance ‘R’ is wound up as a current carrying
be the output at the terminal y ? coil in the shape of,

(i) an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’.

(ii) a square of side ‘a’.

The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each

case respectively are :

(1) 3 Ia2 and 3 Ia2

(2) 3 Ia2 and Ia2

(3) 3 Ia2 and 4 Ia2

(4) 4 Ia2 and 3 Ia2

47. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2

are placed in the same plane with their centres
coinciding. If R1> > R2 , the mutual inductance M
between them will be directly proportional to :

R1
(1) R2

(1) R2
(2) R1
(2) 2
R1
(3) (3)
R2
(4) 2
R2
45. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is (4)
R1
balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A
mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm
and another unknown mass ‘m’ is suspended from 48. From a circular ring of mass ‘M’ and radius ‘R’ an
the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure.
arc corresponding to a 908 sector is removed. The
Find the value of ‘m’ such that the rod is in
equilibrium. (g=10 m/s2) moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring
about an axis passing through the centre of the
ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is
‘K’ times ‘MR2’. Then the value of ‘K’ is :

3
(1)
4
1 7
(1) kg
2 (2)
8
1
(2) kg
3 1
(3)
1 4
(3) kg
6
1
1 (4)
(4) kg 8
12
 9 M3
49. Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 53. Which one among the following is the correct option
are connected as shown in the given circuit. The for right relationship between CP and CV for one
i mole of ideal gas ?
ratio 3 of currents in terms of resistances used
i1 (1) CP+CV=R
in the circuit is :
(2) CP−CV=R
(3) CP=RCV
(4) CV=RCP

54. Zr (Z=40) and Hf (Z=72) have similar atomic and

ionic radii because of :
r1 (1) belonging to same group
(1) r2 +r3 (2) diagonal relationship
r2 (3) lanthanoid contraction
(2) r2 +r3 (4) having similar chemical properties
r1
(3) 55. The maximum temperature that can be achieved
r1+r2
in blast furnace is :
r2 (1) upto 1200 K
(4) r1+r3
(2) upto 2200 K
50. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, (3) upto 1900 K
80 µF capacitor and 40 Ω resistor is connected to (4) upto 5000 K
230 V variable frequency ac source. The angular
frequencies of the source at which power
transferred to the circuit is half the power at the 56. Statement I :
resonant angular frequency are likely to be : Acid strength increases in the order given as
(1) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s HF << HCl << HBr << HI.
(2) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s Statement II :
(3) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases
(4) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl,
HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength
Section - A (Chemistry) increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
51. Noble gases are named because of their inertness correct answer from the options given below.
towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect
statement about them. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
true.
(1) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water.
(2) Noble gases have very high melting and (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
boiling points. false.
(3) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces. (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II
(4) Noble gases have large positive values of is false.
electron gain enthalpy. (4) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is true.
52. The correct option for the number of body centred
unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit 57. The compound which shows metamerism is :
cells is :
(1) C5H12
(1) 7
(2) 5 (2) C3H8O
(3) 2 (3) C3H6O
(4) 3 (4) C4H10O
M3 10
58. For a reaction A→B, enthalpy of reaction is 61. Match List - I with List - II.
−4.2 kJ mol−1 and enthalpy of activation is List - I List - II
9.6 kJ mol−1. The correct potential energy profile
(a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal
for the reaction is shown in option.
(b) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar
(c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral
(d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) below.
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

62. The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state

(2) and vapour phase, are :
(1) Chain and dimer, respectively
(2) Linear in both
(3) Dimer and Linear, respectively
(4) Chain in both

63. The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of ‘C–X’ bond

(3) is :
(1) CH3−F < CH3−Cl < CH3−Br < CH3−I
(2) CH3−F > CH3−Cl > CH3−Br > CH3−I
(3) CH3−F < CH3−Cl > CH3−Br > CH3−I
(4) CH3−Cl > CH3−F > CH3−Br > CH3−I

64. Which one of the following polymers is prepared

(4) by addition polymerisation ?
(1) Teflon
(2) Nylon-66
(3) Novolac
59. The right option for the statement “Tyndall effect (4) Dacron
is exhibited by”, is :
65. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane
(1) NaCl solution
is :
(2) Glucose solution (1) 1208
(3) Starch solution (2) 1808
(3) 608
(4) Urea solution
(4) 08

60. BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. 66. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon
Hybridization and number of electrons around the and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right
central atom, respectively are : option for the empirical formula of this compound
is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]
(1) sp3 and 4
(1) CH
(2) sp3 and 6
(2) CH2
(3) sp2 and 6 (3) CH3
(4) sp2 and 8 (4) CH4
 11 M3
67. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and 71. Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg’s
CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.
and 91.0 S cm2 mol−1 respectively. The molar
conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is.
Choose the right option for your answer. (1)

(1) 201.28 S cm2 mol−1

(2) 390.71 S cm2 mol−1 (2)

(3) 698.28 S cm2 mol−1

(4) 540.48 S cm2 mol−1 (3)

68. Given below are two statements :

(4)
Statement I :
Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of
narcotic analgesics.
72. Right option for the number of tetrahedral and
Statement II : octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell
Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. are :

In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) 8, 4

correct answer from the options given below. (2) 6, 12
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) 2, 1
true. (4) 12, 6
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
false. 73. The correct structure of 2,6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is :
is false.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is true. (1)

69. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving

10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1),
10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and (2)
10 g of sucrose (C 12 H 22 O 11 ) in 250 ml of
water (P3). The right option for the decreasing
order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is :
(1) P2 > P1 > P3
(3)
(2) P1 > P2 > P3
(3) P2 > P3 > P1
(4) P3 > P1 > P2
(4)
70. Among the following alkaline earth metal halides,
one which is covalent and soluble in organic
solvents is : 74. The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of :
(1) Calcium chloride (1) Vitamin B12
(2) Strontium chloride (2) Vitamin B6

(3) Magnesium chloride (3) Vitamin B1

(4) Vitamin B2
(4) Beryllium chloride
M3 12
75. Which one of the following methods can be used to 80. Which of the following reactions is the metal
obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room displacement reaction ? Choose the right option.
temperature ?
∆
(1) Electrolysis (1) 2KClO3 → 2KCl+3O2
(2) Chromatography ∆
(3) Distillation (2) Cr2O3+2Al → Al2O3+2Cr
(4) Zone refining
(3) Fe+2HCl → FeCl2+H2↑
76. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound
formed in the following chemical reaction ? (4) 2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO+4NO2+O2↑
(i) C2H5MgBr , dry Ether
Acetone  → Product
(ii) H2O, H+ 81. Choose the correct option for graphical
(1) 2-methyl propan-2-ol representation of Boyle’s law, which shows a graph
(2) pentan-2-ol of pressure vs. volume of a gas at different
(3) pentan-3-ol temperatures :
(4) 2-methyl butan-2-ol
77. The major product of the following chemical
reaction is :

(1)

(1)

(2)

(3) (2)

(4)

78. The incorrect statement among the following

is :
(1) Actinoid contraction is greater for element
to element than Lanthanoid contraction.
(2) Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are (3)
colorless in the solid state.
(3) Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and
electricity.
(4) Actinoids are highly reactive metals,
especially when finely divided.
79. A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi,
broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz).
The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation
emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light,
c=3.0×108 ms−1] (4)
(1) 219.3 m
(2) 219.2 m
(3) 2192 m
(4) 21.92 cm
 13 M3
82. The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid 87. In which one of the following arrangements the
are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct given sequence is not strictly according to the
option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate properties indicated against it ?
(1) HF < HCl : Increasing acidic
solution is :
< HBr < HI strength
(1) 8.50 (2) H2O < H2S : Increasing pKa
(2) 5.50 < H2Se < H2Te values
(3) NH3 < PH3 : Increasing
(3) 7.75
< AsH3 < SbH3 acidic character
(4) 6.25 (4) CO2 < SiO2 : Increasing
< SnO2 < PbO2 oxidizing power
83. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation 88. Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in
reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined in
product formation is based on ?
a total volume of one litre at 08C is :
(1) Saytzeff’s Rule [Given R=0.082 L atm mol−1K−1, T=273 K]
(2) Hund’s Rule (1) 2.518
(2) 2.602
(3) Hofmann Rule
(3) 25.18
(4) Huckel’s Rule (4) 26.02
89. Which of the following molecules is non-polar in
84. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is : nature ?
(1) Hexadentate ligand with four “O” and two (1) POCl3
“N” donor atoms (2) CH2O
(3) SbCl5
(2) Unidentate ligand
(4) NO2
(3) Bidentate ligand with two “N” donor atoms 90. The product formed in the following chemical
(4) Tridentate ligand with three “N” donor reaction is :
atoms

85. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits

which of the following particles ?
(1) Beta (β−)
(2) Alpha (α)
(3) Gamma (γ)
(4) Neutron (n)
(1)
Section - B (Chemistry)

86. Match List - I with List - II.

List - I List - II
(2)
(a) [Fe(CN)6]3− (i) 5.92 BM
(b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (ii) 0 BM
(c) [Fe(CN)6]4− (iii) 4.90 BM
(d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) 1.73 BM
Choose the correct answer from the options given (3)
below.
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(4)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
M3 14
94. The intermediate compound ‘X’ in the following
 1 chemical reaction is :
91. The slope of Arrhenius Plot  ln k v/s  of first
 T
order reaction is −5×103 K. The value of Ea of
the reaction is. Choose the correct option for your
answer.
[Given R=8.314 JK−1mol−1]
(1) 41.5 kJ mol−1
(1)
(2) 83.0 kJ mol−1
(3) 166 kJ mol−1
(4) −83 kJ mol−1
(2)
92. Match List - I with List - II.
List - I List - II

(a) (i) Hell-Volhard-

(3)
Zelinsky reaction

(b) (ii) Gattermann-Koch

reaction (4)

(c) R−CH2−OH (iii) Haloform

+R'COOH reaction
95. Match List - I with List - II.
Conc. H SO
→
2 4
List - I List - II
(d) R−CH2COOH (iv) Esterification (a) 2SO2(g)+O2(g) → (i) Acid rain
(i) X 2 /Red P 2SO3(g)
 →
(ii) H2O

(b) hν
HOCl(g)  (ii) Smog
Choose the correct answer from the options given →
i i
below. OH+C l
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (c) CaCO3+H2SO4→ (iii) Ozone
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) CaSO4+H2O+CO2 depletion

(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) hν

(d) NO2(g)  → (iv) Tropospheric
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) NO(g)+O(g) pollution

Choose the correct answer from the options given

93. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under below.
isothermal condition, the correct option is :
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(1) ∆U=0, ∆Stotal=0

(2) ∆U ≠ 0, ∆Stotal ≠ 0 (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(3) ∆U=0, ∆Stotal ≠ 0 (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(4) ∆U ≠ 0, ∆Stotal=0 (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

 15 M3
96. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is Section - A (Biology : Botany)
20 S cm 2 mol −1. What is the dissociation
constant of acetic acid ? Choose the correct option. 101. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as
reserve food material ?
 Λ
= 350 S cm2 mol −1  (1) Ectocarpus
 H+ 
Λ
2 −1 
(2) Gracilaria
 CH COO−= 50 S cm mol  (3) Volvox
3
(4) Ulothrix
(1) 1.75×10−4 mol L−1
(2) 2.50×10−4 mol L−1 102. Amensalism can be represented as :
(3) 1.75×10−5 mol L−1 (1) Species A (−) ; Species B (0)
(4) 2.50×10−5 mol L−1 (2) Species A (+) ; Species B (+)
(3) Species A (−) ; Species B (−)
97. From the following pairs of ions which one is not (4) Species A (+) ; Species B (0)
an iso-electronic pair ?
(1) O2−, F− 103. Match List - I with List - II.
(2) Na+, Mg2+ List - I List - II
(3) Mn2+, Fe3+ Primary constriction in
(a) Cristae (i)
(4) Fe2+, Mn2+ chromosome
Disc-shaped sacs in
(b) Thylakoids (ii)
98. The reagent ‘R’ in the given sequence of chemical Golgi apparatus
reaction is : Infoldings in
(c) Centromere (iii)
mitochondria
Flattened membranous
(d) Cisternae (iv) sacs in stroma of
plastids
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) H2O below.
(2) CH3CH2OH (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) HI (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) CuCN/KCN (2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
99. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
of a solution at 458C with benzene to octane in
molar ratio 3 : 2 is : 104. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field
[At 458C vapour pressure of benzene is is :
280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. (1) IAA
Assume Ideal gas] (2) NAA
(1) 160 mm of Hg (3) 2, 4-D
(2) 168 mm of Hg (4) IBA
(3) 336 mm of Hg
105. Diadelphous stamens are found in :
(4) 350 mm of Hg
(1) China rose
NaOH, + ? (2) Citrus
100. CH3CH2COO−Na+  → CH3CH3+
Heat (3) Pea
Na2CO3.
(4) China rose and citrus
Consider the above reaction and identify the
missing reagent/chemical. 106. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is :
(1) B2H6 (1) 8-nucleate and 7-celled
(2) Red Phosphorus (2) 7-nucleate and 8-celled
(3) CaO (3) 7-nucleate and 7-celled
(4) DIBAL-H (4) 8-nucleate and 8-celled
M3 16
107. Which of the following is a correct sequence of 112. Match List - I with List - II.
steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?
List - I List - II
(1) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension (a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency
(2) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing (b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato
(c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones
(3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants
(4) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
108. The site of perception of light in plants during (a) (b) (c) (d)
photoperiodism is : (1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(1) Shoot apex (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) Stem (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) Axillary bud
(4) Leaf 113. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves
division of centromere ?
(1) Metaphase I
109. Which of the following is an incorrect
statement ? (2) Metaphase II
(3) Anaphase II
(1) Mature sieve tube elements possess a
conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic (4) Telophase II
organelles.
114. Which of the following are not secondary
(2) Microbodies are present both in plant and metabolites in plants ?
animal cells.
(1) Morphine, codeine
(3) The perinuclear space forms a barrier (2) Amino acids, glucose
between the materials present inside the
(3) Vinblastin, curcumin
nucleus and that of the cytoplasm.
(4) Rubber, gums
(4) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins
and RNA molecules in both directions 115. Which of the following plants is monoecious ?
between nucleus and cytoplasm.
(1) Carica papaya
(2) Chara
110. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum
(3) Marchantia polymorpha
is :
(4) Cycas circinalis
(1) Pyruvic acid
(2) Oxaloacetic acid 116. Mutations in plant cells can be induced by :
(1) Kinetin
(3) Succinic acid
(2) Infrared rays
(4) Phosphoglyceric acid (3) Gamma rays
(4) Zeatin
111. When gene targetting involving gene amplification
is attempted in an individual’s tissue to treat 117. During the purification process for recombinant
disease, it is known as : DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol
precipitates out :
(1) Biopiracy
(1) RNA
(2) Gene therapy
(2) DNA
(3) Molecular diagnosis (3) Histones
(4) Safety testing (4) Polysaccharides
 17 M3
118. Plants follow different pathways in response to 124. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium
environment or phases of life to form different bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear
kinds of structures. This ability is called : as :
(1) Elasticity (1) Yellow bands
(2) Flexibility (2) Bright orange bands
(3) Plasticity (3) Dark red bands
(4) Maturity (4) Bright blue bands

119. Which of the following is not an application of PCR 125. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a
(Polymerase Chain Reaction) ? population is :
(1) Natural selection
(1) Molecular diagnosis
(2) Genetic recombination
(2) Gene amplification
(3) Mutation
(3) Purification of isolated protein
(4) Genetic drift
(4) Detection of gene mutation
126. When the centromere is situated in the middle of
120. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome
phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any is referred as :
given time, is referred as :
(1) Metacentric
(1) Climax
(2) Telocentric
(2) Climax community (3) Sub-metacentric
(3) Standing state (4) Acrocentric
(4) Standing crop
127. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two
121. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from kinds of spores. Such plants are known as :
anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant (1) Homosorus
which, during pollination, brings genetically
(2) Heterosorus
different types of pollen grains to stigma, is :
(3) Homosporous
(1) Xenogamy
(4) Heterosporous
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Chasmogamy 128. Match List - I with List - II.
(4) Cleistogamy List - I List - II
More attraction in
122. The production of gametes by the parents, (a) Cohesion (i)
liquid phase
formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be Mutual attraction
understood from a diagram called : (b) Adhesion (ii) among water
(1) Bullet square molecules
(2) Punch square Water loss in liquid
(c) Surface tension (iii)
phase
(3) Punnett square Attraction towards
(d) Guttation (iv)
(4) Net square polar surfaces
Choose the correct answer from the options given
123. In the equation GPP−R=NPP below.
R represents : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Radiant energy (1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) Retardation factor (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) Environment factor (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) Respiration losses (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
M3 18
129. Gemmae are present in : 135. Match List - I with List - II.
(1) Mosses
(2) Pteridophytes List - I List - II
(3) Some Gymnosperms Cells with active cell Vascular
(a) (i)
(4) Some Liverworts division capacity tissues
Tissue having all cells
130. Which of the following algae produce Carrageen ? Meristematic
(b) similar in structure (ii)
(1) Green algae tissue
and function
(2) Brown algae Tissue having
(c) (iii) Sclereids
(3) Red algae different types of cells
(4) Blue-green algae Dead cells with highly
(d) thickened walls and (iv) Simple tissue
131. Complete the flow chart on central dogma. narrow lumen

Select the correct answer from the options given

(1) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; below.
(c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
(2) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction
(3) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(c)-Translation; (d)-Protein
(4) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c)-Replication; (d)-Protein
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
132. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
(1) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally (4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
inverted.
(2) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally
upright. Section - B (Biology : Botany)
(3) Pyramid of energy is always upright.
(4) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland
ecosystem is upright. 136. Match Column - I with Column - II.
133. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature,
which mechanism the competing species might Column - I Column - II
have evolved for their survival ? (a) Nitrococcus (i) Denitrification
(1) Resource partitioning Conversion of
(b) Rhizobium (ii)
ammonia to nitrite
(2) Competitive release
Conversion of nitrite
(3) Mutualism (c) Thiobacillus (iii)
to nitrate
(4) Predation
Conversion of
134. Match List - I with List - II. (d) Nitrobacter (iv) atmospheric nitrogen
to ammonia
List - I List - II
(a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen Choose the correct answer from options given
(b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition below.
(c) Secondary cortex (iii) Exchange of gases
(d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm (a) (b) (c) (d)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. (1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
 19 M3
137. Match List - I with List - II. 141. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(1) Both ATP and NADPH+H + are
List - I List - II
synthesized during non-cyclic
Proteins are photophosphorylation.
(a) S phase (i)
synthesized (2) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack
(b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase NADP reductase.
(3) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II.
Interval between
(4) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both
(c) Quiescent stage (iii) mitosis and initiation
PS I and PS II.
of DNA replication
142. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the
(d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication process of transcription in eukaryotes ?
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
below. (2) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) Transcribes precursor of mRNA
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (4) Transcribes only snRNAs
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) 143. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of
cells, followed by its detection using
138. Match Column - I with Column - II. autoradiography because :
Column - I Column - II (1) mutated gene partially appears on a
photographic film.
(a) (i) Brassicaceae
(2) mutated gene completely and clearly
appears on a photographic film.
(b) (ii) Liliaceae (3) mutated gene does not appear on a
photographic film as the probe has no
(c) (iii) Fabaceae complimentarity with it.
(4) mutated gene does not appear on
(d) (iv) Solanaceae photographic film as the probe has
Select the correct answer from the options given complimentarity with it.
below. 144. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (2) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) on non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (3) Organisms that depend on living plants are
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) called saprophytes.
(4) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric
139 Which of the following statements is incorrect ? nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath
(1) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is cells.
limited to the terminal stage.
145. Match List - I with List - II.
(2) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one
molecule of NADH+H + gives rise to List - I List - II
2 ATP molecules, and one FADH2 gives rise (a) Protein (i) C=C double bonds
to 3 ATP molecules. Unsaturated
(b) (ii) Phosphodiester bonds
(3) ATP is synthesized through complex V. fatty acid
(4) Oxidation-reduction reactions produce (c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds
proton gradient in respiration. (d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds
Choose the correct answer from the options given
140. In the exponential growth equation below.
Nt=Noert, e represents : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) The base of number logarithms (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) The base of exponential logarithms (2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) The base of natural logarithms (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) The base of geometric logarithms (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
M3 20
146. Select the correct pair. Section - A (Biology : Zoology)
(1) Large colorless empty - Subsidiary cells
cells in the epidermis 151. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect
of grass leaves with respect to cockroach ?
(2) In dicot leaves, vascular - Conjunctive (1) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the
bundles are surrounded tissue junction of midgut and hind gut.
by large thick-walled (2) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed
cells by the mouth parts.
(3) Cells of medullary rays - Interfascicular (3) In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a
that form part of cambium genital pouch.
cambial ring (4) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears
(4) Loose parenchyma cells - Spongy a pair of anal cerci.
rupturing the epidermis parenchyma
and forming a lens- 152. Match List - I with List - II.
shaped opening in bark List - I List - II
147. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences (a) Metamerism (i) Coelenterata
in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called (b) Canal system (ii) Ctenophora
as : (c) Comb plates (iii) Annelida
(1) Satellite DNA
(d) Cnidoblasts (iv) Porifera
(2) Repetitive DNA
(3) Single nucleotides Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) Polymorphic DNA below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
148. Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site (1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
within gene amp R that confers ampicillin
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a
gene for β-galactoside production and the (3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(1) it will not be able to confer ampicillin 153. A specific recognition sequence identified by
resistance to the host cell. endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions
(2) the transformed cells will have the ability within the DNA is :
to resist ampicillin as well as produce (1) Degenerate primer sequence
β-galactoside.
(2) Okazaki sequences
(3) it will lead to lysis of host cell.
(3) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
(4) it will be able to produce a novel protein with
dual ability. (4) Poly(A) tail sequences

149. Identify the correct statement. 154. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell.
(1) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate During interphase of Mitosis if the number of
is added to the 39 end of hnRNA. chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the
number of chromosomes after S phase ?
(2) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to
terminate the process of transcription in (1) 8
bacteria. (2) 16
(3) The coding strand in a transcription unit is (3) 4
copied to an mRNA. (4) 32
(4) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of
prokaryotes. 155. Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as
“Universal recipients”. This is due to :
150. In some members of which of the following pairs (1) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface
of families, pollen grains retain their viability for of RBCs
months after release ? (2) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
(1) Poaceae ; Rosaceae (3) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B,
(2) Poaceae ; Leguminosae on RBCs
(3) Poaceae ; Solanaceae (4) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in
(4) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae plasma
 21 M3
156. Which of the following statements wrongly 162. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2)
represents the nature of smooth muscle ? and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of
(1) These muscle have no striations diffusion) are :
(1) pO2=104 and pCO2=40
(2) They are involuntary muscles
(2) pO2=40 and pCO2=45
(3) Communication among the cells is
(3) pO2=95 and pCO2=40
performed by intercalated discs
(4) pO2=159 and pCO2=0.3
(4) These muscles are present in the wall of
blood vessels 163. In a cross between a male and female, both
heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what
157. Which one of the following belongs to the family percentage of the progeny will be diseased ?
Muscidae ? (1) 50%
(1) Fire fly (2) 75%
(2) Grasshopper (3) 25%
(3) Cockroach (4) 100%

(4) House fly 164. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows

terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive
158. Which is the “Only enzyme” that has “Capability” feature ?
to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination (1) Leptotene
in the process of transcription in prokaryotes ? (2) Zygotene
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (3) Diakinesis
(2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (4) Pachytene
(3) DNA Ligase 165. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow
(4) DNase and pneumatic long bones ?
(1) Neophron
159. Which of the following RNAs is not required for (2) Hemidactylus
the synthesis of protein ? (3) Macropus
(1) mRNA (4) Ornithorhynchus
(2) tRNA
166. Match the following :
(3) rRNA
List - I List - II
(4) siRNA
(a) Physalia (i) Pearl oyster
160. For effective treatment of the disease, early (b) Limulus (ii) Portuguese Man of War
diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology (c) Ancylostoma (iii) Living fossil
is very important. Which of the following (d) Pinctada (iv) Hookworm
molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for Choose the correct answer from the options given
early detection ? below.
(1) Western Blotting Technique (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) Southern Blotting Technique (1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) ELISA Technique (2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) Hybridization Technique (3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
161. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C.
167. Which of the following is not an objective of
formation is produced by :
Biofortification in crops ?
(1) Alpha cells of pancreas (1) Improve protein content
(2) The cells of rostral adenohypophysis (2) Improve resistance to diseases
(3) The cells of bone marrow (3) Improve vitamin content
(4) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney (4) Improve micronutrient and mineral content
M3 22
168. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what 173. Dobson units are used to measure thickness of :
will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and
(1) CFCs
Cytosine in it ?
(1) T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20 (2) Stratosphere
(2) T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30 (3) Ozone
(3) T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20 (4) Troposphere
(4) T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
174. Match List - I with List - II.
169. Match List - I with List - II.

List - I List - II List - I List - II

(a) Aspergillus niger (i) Acetic Acid
Entry of sperm through
(a) Vaults (i) (b) Acetobacter aceti (ii) Lactic Acid
Cervix is blocked
(c) Clostridium butylicum (iii) Citric Acid
(b) IUDs (ii) Removal of Vas deferens
(d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric Acid
Phagocytosis of sperms
(c) Vasectomy (iii)
within the Uterus Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(d) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of fallopian tube
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
below.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) 175. Identify the incorrect pair.
170. Veneral diseases can spread through : (1) Alkaloids - Codeine
(a) Using sterile needles (2) Toxin - Abrin
(b) Transfusion of blood from infected person (3) Lectins - Concanavalin A
(c) Infected mother to foetus
(4) Drugs - Ricin
(d) Kissing
(e) Inheritance
176. The organelles that are included in the
Choose the correct answer from the options given endomembrane system are :
below.
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria,
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
Ribosomes and Lysosomes
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (2) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex,
Lysosomes and Vacuoles
(4) (a) and (c) only
(3) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and
171. The centriole undergoes duplication during : Lysosomes
(1) S-phase (4) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum,
(2) Prophase Mitochondria and Lysosomes
(3) Metaphase
(4) G2 phase 177. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro
muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening
172. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as :
present on :
(1) Arthritis
(1) Corona radiata
(2) Vitelline membrane (2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Perivitelline space (3) Myasthenia gravis
(4) Zona pellucida (4) Gout
 23 M3
178. With regard to insulin choose correct options. 183. Which one of the following is an example of
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. Hormone releasing IUD ?
(1) CuT
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology
(2) LNG 20
has C-peptide.
(3) Cu 7
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide. (4) Multiload 375
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are
interconnected by disulphide bridges. 184. Sphincter of oddi is present at :
(1) Ileo-caecal junction
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and
below.
duodenum
(1) (b) and (d) only (3) Gastro-oesophageal junction
(2) (b) and (c) only (4) Junction of jejunum and duodenum
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only 185. Read the following statements.
(4) (a) and (d) only (a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate
179. During the process of gene amplification using animals.
PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained (c) Round worms have organ-system level of
in the beginning, then which of the following steps body organization.
of PCR will be affected first ? (d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in
(1) Annealing digestion.
(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of
(2) Extension
Echinoderms.
(3) Denaturation Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) Ligation below.
(1) (c), (d) and (e) are correct
180. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
inactive fibrinogens to fibrins ? (3) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
(1) Thrombin (4) (b), (c) and (e) are correct

(2) Renin Section - B (Biology : Zoology)

(3) Epinephrine 186. Which of these is not an important component of
(4) Thrombokinase initiation of parturition in humans ?
(1) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
181. Succus entericus is referred to as : (2) Synthesis of prostaglandins
(1) Pancreatic juice (3) Release of Oxytocin
(4) Release of Prolactin
(2) Intestinal juice
(3) Gastric juice 187. During muscular contraction which of the
following events occur ?
(4) Chyme
(a) ‘H’ zone disappears
(b) ‘A’ band widens
182. Select the favourable conditions required for the
(c) ‘I’ band reduces in width
formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
(d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP
(1) High pO 2 , low pCO 2 , less H +, lower and Pi
temperature
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards
(2) Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+, higher Choose the correct answer from the options given
temperature below.
(3) High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher (1) (a), (c), (d), (e) only
temperature (2) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
(4) Low pO2, low pCO2 , more H+, higher (3) (b), (c), (d), (e) only
temperature (4) (b), (d), (e), (a) only
M3 24
188. Following are the statements with reference to 192. Statement I :
‘lipids’. The codon ‘AUG’ codes for methionine and
(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called phenylalanine.
unsaturated fatty acids. Statement II :
(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid. ‘AAA’ and ‘AAG’ both codons code for the amino
acid lysine.
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including correct answer from the options given below.
carboxyl carbon.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms. true
Choose the correct answer from the options given (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
below. false
(1) (a) and (b) only (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II
is false
(2) (c) and (d) only
(4) Statement I is incorrect but
(3) (b) and (c) only Statement II is true
(4) (b) and (e) only
193. Match List - I with List - II.
189. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple List - I List - II
Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology
(a) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous joints
(MOET) ?
(b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone
(1) Cow is administered hormone having LH
(c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints
like activity for super ovulation
(d) Vertebral column (iv) Triangular flat bone
(2) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3) Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination below.
(4) Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate (a) (b) (c) (d)
mothers at 8-32 cell stage
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
190. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop
the leakage of the substances across a tissue and (3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
facilitation of communication with neighbouring (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
(1) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions, 194. Match List - I with List - II.
respectively.
List - I List - II
(2) Tight junctions and Gap junctions, Haemophilus
respectively. (a) Filariasis (i)
influenzae
(3) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions, (b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton
respectively.
(c) Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti
(4) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, (d) Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba histolytica
respectively.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
191. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Dysfunction of Immune system
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) Parkinson’s disease (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) Digestive disorder (3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) Addison’s disease (4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
 25 M3
195. Following are the statements about prostomium 199. Match List - I with List - II.
of earthworm.
List - I List - II
(a) It serves as a covering for mouth.
(a) Allen's Rule (i) Kangaroo rat
(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which Physiological
it can crawl. (b) (ii) Desert lizard
adaptation
(c) It is one of the sensory structures. Behavioural
(c) (iii) Marine fish at depth
(d) It is the first body segment. adaptation
Biochemical
Choose the correct answer from the options given (d) (iv) Polar seal
adaptation
below.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
below.
(2) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (b) and (c) are correct
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
196. Which of the following secretes the hormone, (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy ?
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) Graafian follicle
(2) Corpus luteum 200. Match List - I with List - II.
(3) Foetus
List - I List - II
(4) Uterus Selection of resistant
Adaptive varieties due to excessive
197. Which one of the following statements about (a) (i)
radiation use of herbicides and
Histones is wrong ? pesticides
(1) Histones are organized to form a unit of Convergent Bones of forelimbs in Man
(b) (ii)
8 molecules. evolution and Whale
(2) The pH of histones is slightly acidic. Divergent Wings of Butterfly and
(c) (iii)
evolution Bird
(3) Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine Evolution by
and Arginine. (d) anthropo- (iv) Darwin Finches
(4) Histones carry positive charge in the side genic action
chain.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
198. Assertion (A) :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A person goes to high altitude and experiences
‘altitude sickness’ with symptoms like breathing (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
difficulty and heart palpitations. (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Reason (R) : (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude,
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
the body does not get sufficient oxygen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below. -o0o-
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
M3 26
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M3 28
Space For Rough Work