Prime Mock 05 (CLAT) (2023)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please
answer
each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances,
more than
one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most
accurately and
comprehensively answers the question.

Passage – 1

The accidental firing of a missile by India into Pakistan could have led to serious, unintended escalation of tensions
between the two nuclear-armed countries, but, fortunately, that did not happen. The Government of India has said
the
incident, on March 9, happened in the course of routine maintenance, due to a technical malfunction. India has
ordered a high-level Court of Inquiry. The Chargé d'affaires of the Indian High Commission in Islamabad was called
twice by Pakistan to convey its concerns. Pakistan has alleged that the incident "indicates many loopholes and
technical lapses of a serious nature in Indian handling of strategic weapons". Islamabad, which termed the inquiry
as
ordered by India as insufficient, demanded a joint probe. It has also sought the involvement of the international
community to promote "strategic stability in the region". As it moved closer to India in recent years, the U.S. has
suspended its fixation with the conflict between the two neighbours, but the fear of nuclear escalation in the region
is
very deep in Washington's strategic thinking. India's global image of being a responsible nuclear power has
been built
over decades of restrained words and thoughtful action. The security of its nuclear command and
technical
capabilities has never been in doubt. This incident frays that reputation and measures must be taken to
restore the
confidence of the international community in India.

There has been no official word from India on which missile was involved, which Pakistan has said landed 124 km
inside its territory. The description by Pakistan - that the missile was travelling at three times the speed of sound,
at
40,000 feet, and is a surface-to-surface missile - has led to speculation that the accident involves the BrahMos
supersonic cruise missile which is now in the inventory of India's three Services. India became a member of the
Missile Technology Control Regime in 2016, an acceptance by major powers of India's status as a reliable defence
partner that is capable of handling its strengths and contributing to global security. India is developing more missile
systems, including a hypersonic variant. The handling and the launch of any such missiles are highly regulated
with
checks and balances to avoid accidents. This accident also has echoes of another incident in February 2019.
A day
after the Balakot air strike, as fighter jets of India and Pakistan were engaged in a dogfight near the LoC, an
Mi-17V5
crashed in Budgam shortly after take-off from Srinagar killing its personnel onboard and a civilian on the
ground. The
Court of Inquiry confirmed that it was shot by an Israeli-origin Spyder surface-to-air missile system of
the IAF. India
must leave no scope for any doubts about its capacity to handle nuclear and other military assets.
That objective can
be achieved without a joint probe with Pakistan or any international involvement, but the objective
must be achieved
nevertheless.
Q 1. 11769214  Which of the following options is untrue as per the passage?

a)  The Government of India has acknowledged certain technical lapses in India's handling of strategic
weapons.

b)  Pakistan has claimed that the inquiry as ordered by India is insufficient and has demanded a joint probe.
c)  
The U.S. has misgivings about the escalation of tensions between India and Pakistan that might turn into
a nuclear
confrontation.
d)  
India's international reputation as a prudent nuclear state has been created through decades of careful
words and
deliberation.

Q 2. 11769214  As per the passage, which of the following could be a reason why India must get to the truth of the
missile
malfunction?

a)  
Because the Court of Inquiry confirmed that it was shot by an Israeli-origin Spyder surface-to-air missile
system of the
IAF.
b)  Because India must eliminate any doubts about its ability to manage nuclear weapons and other military
assets.
c)  
Because there has been no official word from India on the missile that Pakistan has said landed 124 km
inside its
territory.

d)  Because Islamabad, which termed the inquiry as ordered by India as insufficient, has demanded a joint
probe.

Q 3. 11769214  Which of the following best describes the meaning of the word 'fray' as per the passage?

a)  Unravel b)  Cause c)  Dismantle d)  Deteriorate

Q 4. 11769214  Which of the following statement(s) is untrue as per the passage?

a)  Fighter jets of India and Pakistan are always engaged in a dogfight near the LoC.

b)  
In 2016, India joined the Missile Technology Control Regime, demonstrating that major states recognize
India as a
credible defense partner.
c)  Both (a) and (b)

d)  Neither (a) nor (b)

Q 5. 11769214  What is the tone adopted by the author in presenting his opinion?

a)  Narrative. b)  Explanatory. c)  Argumentative. d)  Analytical.

Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please
answer
each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances,
more than
one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most
accurately and
comprehensively answers the question.

Passage – 2

Flags have high emotional value. The Confederate flag in the United States of America is a textbook example of
vexillological sensibilities. The flag represents the Confederate States, created in 1861 when 11 states seceded
from
the US. This flag has been a powerful symbol in reinterpreting the American Civil War. The state flag of
Georgia,
where the opposition to the emancipation was fierce, had incorporated the Confederate flag. Many white
Southerners
used to defend their allegiance to the Confederate flag. Meanwhile, for Afro-American people, the flag
was a symbol
of their dehumanization. The same Confederate flag, thus, became the object of two contradictory
emotions.
Incidentally, the Berbers, Tibetans, Kurds and the Palestinian people have their own flags even though
they don't
have a nation state.

The Emblems and Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act, 1950, the Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act,
1950 or the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 do not prevent individual states from adopting
distinctive flags in India and even in the S.R. Bommai case (1994), the Supreme Court had opined that there is no
prohibition in the Constitution for a state to have its own flag.

The opponents of subnational flags argue that such flags run against national unity and integration. But on closer
examination, one can see that nationalism and subnationalism complement each other in the same hierarchy of
loyalties. State flags would reflect linguistic and ethnic-based subnations in India. Our quasi-federalism is inclined
towards accommodating such subnational aspirations. In How Solidarity Works for Welfare: Subnationalism and
Social Development in India, Prerna Singh countered the negative angle of subnational politics to show how
subnationalism within India has often worked to promote, rather than hinder, social development and the provision
of
welfarism. Singh's novel point of departure situates subnationalism as the "subnational solidarity" that emerges
from
a sense of shared identity, leading to improved social outcomes rather than deep religious and ethnic divisions.
Singh
theorized subnationalism as a concept that 'identifies with or aspires to be a self-governing homeland
located within
the boundaries of a sovereign country'. Singh approaches the 'Kerala Model' of development as a
successful case of
using subnationalism as a bridge that connects social divisions in order to achieve high social
development
indicators.

Hence, the privilege of having a state flag reflecting each state's unique culture and history may be granted to all
Indian states. The stubbornness over the Naga flag should not be allowed to hinder the peace talks. Let a legion of
flags fly high with the nation.
Q 6. 11769214  Out of the following options, which one appropriately captures the central idea of the passage?

a)   b)  Subnationalism opposes nationalism

The possibility of derailment of peace talks with the
c)  Linguistic and ethnic diversities of India
Nagas
d)  Subnationalism complements nationalism

Q 7. 11769214  Out of the following options, which one is a synonym of vexillology?

a)  Study of topography b)  Study of flags c)  Study of maps d)  Study of governments

Q 8. 11769214  In the light of the last paragraph, it can be inferred that:

a)  The Indian government does not want peace talks with the Nagas.

b)  The Nagas want a separate nation.

c)  Peace talks with Nagas might get derailed because of a flag issue.

d)  Naga insurgent groups have been fighting against the Indian government for ages.

Q 9. 11769214  The author of the passage is of the opinion that:

a)  There are multiple linguistic and ethnic identities functional in India.

b)  India has more linguistic and ethnic diversities than any other country in the world.

c)  It is very difficult to overcome the linguistic and ethnic divisions of India.

d)  The insurgencies in India are because of the linguistic and ethnic diversities.
Q 10. 11769214  The author cites the book How Solidarity Works for Welfare: Subnationalism and Social
Development in
India in order to:

a)   b)  
emphasise that subnationalism should not be emphasise that subnationalism should be rejected by all.
encouraged. c)  emphasise that subnationalism promotes spirituality.

d)  
emphasise that subnationalism counters religious
divisions.

Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please
answer
each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances,
more than
one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most
accurately and
comprehensively answers the question.

Passage – 3

Allergy sufferers like to claim - in between sniffles - that each spring's allergy season is worse than the last. But
this
year, they might actually be right.

Thanks to an unusually cold and snowy winter, followed by an early and warm spring, pollen counts are through
the
roof in much of the world, especially in the Southeast, which is already home to some of the most allergenic
cities. A
pollen count - the number of grains of pollen in a cubic meter of air - of 120 is considered high, but in Atlanta
last
week the number hit 5,733, the second highest level ever recorded on the planet.

The bad news is that in a warmer world, allergies are likely to get worse - and that's going to cost sufferers and the
rest of us. A new report released on Wednesday by the National Wildlife Federation (NWF) found that global
warming
will likely increase pollen counts in the heavily populated eastern section of the world and that the effect
of climate
change could push the economic cost of allergies and asthma well above the current $32 billion price
tag. "The latest
climate science makes it clear that allergies could get much worse," says Amanda Staudt, a
climate scientist at NWF
and the author of the report. "I really think this should be a wake-up call."

Here's how it works: higher concentrations of CO2 in the atmosphere generally speed plant growth, while warmer
temperatures mean that spring - and with it, allergy season - arrives earlier. Spring-like conditions in the East are
already arriving on average 14 days earlier than just 20 years ago.

Pollen from ragweed, which triggers most cases of spring hay fever, is projected to increase up to 100% between
now and 2085 if fossil-fuel emissions continue to rise unabated. And more CO2 could make the ragweed pollen
that
exists more potent: if CO2 concentrations rise from current levels (385 parts per million) to 600 parts p.p.m.,
which
could happen as soon as mid-century, ragweed pollen could become up to 70% more allergenic. An earlier,
longer
spring will just give ragweed more time to grow and give off pollen.

As the climate warms, it is likely to favor trees that give off pollen - like oaks and hickories - over pines, spruces and
fir trees, which don't. By 2100, once relatively cool states in the Northeast - including Vermont, New Hampshire
and
New York - could have the sort of highly allergenic trees now seen in the hotter Southeast, as species migrate
north
to adjust to the heat.

There are ways to fight rising allergies even in a warmer world: for example, by replacing trees that emit high levels
of
pollen in densely populated areas - like the Norway maples found on New York City streets - with species that
produce less, like mountain ash or golden rain. "We can get better allergy management and help people reduce
their
exposure to triggers," says Mike Triangle of the Asthma and Allergy Foundation of America. But absent a
concerted
effort to reduce carbon emissions, get ready for a sniffly future.
Q 11. 11769214  Why does the author use the word 'sniffle' and its adjective 'sniffly' in the passage?

a)  To vividly describe the act of sneezing- the most common effect of allergens on people.

b)  To introduce an element of humour in an otherwise serious discussion.

c)  To draw the readers' attention to what allergies can reduce people to.

d)  To begin the passage on a lighter vein as he is going to ring alarm bells later on.

Q 12. 11769214  Which of the following, if true, would have the most mitigating effect on the author's argument on the
effect
of climate change on allergies/allergic people?

a)  Climate change is always associated with widespread deforestation that cuts across all plant species.

b)  People suffering from allergies generally stay indoors in the allergy season.

c)  The government is ready with a contingency plan to tackle allergy related problems among the masses.

d)  There is enough stock of medicines to alleviate allergy related problems in the masses.

Q 13. 11769214  Based on the information provided in the passage, which of the following is true about allergenic
trees?

a)  Mountain Ash belongs to this category of trees. b)  Most of them cause hay fever.

c)  They generally grow in populated areas. d)  They are more suited to warmer climates.

Q 14. 11769214  All of the following are true as per the passage EXCEPT:

a)  120 grains of pollen in a cubic meter of air are usually considered dangerously high.

b)  Higher concentration of CO2 contributes to an acceleration in the growth of plants.

c)  Some trees emit higher levels of pollen as compared to certain other varieties.

d)  A common cause of spring hay fever is the pollen generated by ragweed.

Q 15. 11769214  All of the following can act as synonyms of the word "concerted" as used in the passage EXCEPT:

a)  Collaborative b)  Joint c)  Interactive d)  Discrete

Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please
answer
each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances,
more than
one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most
accurately and
comprehensively answers the question.

Passage – 4

Suzuki Motor Corporation on Saturday signed an MoU with Gujarat to invest about Rs 10,440 crore over a fouryear
period to manufacture electric vehicles and related batteries. Almost 70% of the proposed investment will go
into
battery manufacturing. The real significance of this investment is the transition it represents in the automobile
world.
The internal combustion engine (ICE) is being replaced by EVs. It's a monumental shift, powered globally by
generous regulatory incentives in the backdrop of anxiety over climate change.
To get a sense of the scale of transition ahead, consider the following data. In 2020, electric cars were 4.6% of the
total car sales globally. By 2030, the EU aims to ensure 60% of new sales comprise EVs. India is moving in the
same
direction, with a goal to ensure at least 30% of new vehicle sales by 2030 are electric. Niti Aayog estimates
it
presents a cumulative investment opportunity of Rs 19.7 lakh crore over the next eight years. There's been
policy
action at the level of both GoI and states to realise these goals. There are demand side incentives for
potential
customers through fiscal measures. Equally important are the supply side measures to encourage
investment and
manufacturing.

Supply side incentives need to be located in a global context, given the nature of the industry. Batteries are the
most
valuable parts of EVs, with estimates putting them at 40% of the total value. Japan, South Korea and most
importantly China dominate this segment. China is the major player along the entire lithium-ion cell supply chain.
Given this context, does India have the best possible supply side incentives through GoI's Production-Linked
Incentive Scheme and also individual state government policies?

India's policies are designed to encourage investment through subsidies. These subsidies are linked to investments
made by firms and subsequent sales. What's odd is the extent of domestic focus in sales and value addition in an
industry with a very global supply chain. There's a risk that India's policies will not result in a globally competitive
scale in production, which will then influence both products and their cost of manufacture. Separately, the demand
side incentives need a lot more work on public charging infrastructure, which influence operating costs of EVs.
EVs
present India a great opportunity, particularly with China losing its sheen on account of geopolitical risks. To
capitalise
on it, our policies need to be more outward looking.
Q 16. 11769214  Which of the following statements is true as per the first paragraph?

a)  Battery manufacturing is the only area which needs attention in the EV industry.

b)  Suzuki motor corporation is the first company to work in the domain of EV.

c)  Climate change is one of the biggest driving factors for the shift towards EV.

d)  This is the biggest transition in the world of automobiles till date.

Q 17. 11769214  Which of the following countries is not mentioned in the passage?

a)  Germany b)  Japan c)  China d)  South Korea

Q 18. 11769214  Which of the following is a point of concern as pointed by the author?

a)  The operating cost of conventional vehicles. b)  The operating cost of electric vehicles.

c)  Lack of electricity in India. d)  China's edge in the EV market.

Q 19. 11769214  Which of the following would not refer to the same idea as 'sheen'?

a)  Burnish b)  Patina c)  Furbish d)  Dullness

Q 20. 11769214  Which of the following is true as per the passage?

a)  The demand side incentives in the EV world are more important.

b)  The supply chain measures are more important to ensure a smooth process.

c)  Both demand and supply are equally important in the domain of EV.
d)  Demand side incentives need to be located in a global context.
Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please
answer
each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances,
more than
one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most
accurately and
comprehensively answers the question.

Passage – 5

Ecological concerns are getting overridden by political-economic gains. The Supreme Court judgment on the
Char
Dham highway development project is being criticized for this very reason. The Rs. 12,000 crore project to
develop
889 km of four-lane roads in Uttarakhand connecting Kedarnath, Badrinath, Gangotri and Yamunotri shrines
along
with the Tanakpur-Pithoragarh stretch on the Kailash Mansarovar yatra route is meant primarily to promote
tourism.
But the idea of this kind of tourism is informed by reckless consumption. How would limited resources
and the fragile
ecology of the hills contain the many-fold increase in tourists?

Ironically, the prime minister dedicated this project to those who lost their lives in the flash floods of 2013. Only an
exceptional apathy prevents people from connecting the disasters of 2013 and of February 2021 in Chamoli - they
led
to massive destruction and loss of lives - to the onslaught of tourism, infrastructure development and hydropower
projects clogging the upper reaches of the Ganges. Deforestation, heavy blasting and deep cutting of mountains and
the disposal of waste in the rivers continued unabated. This has led to the creation of new, active landslide and
debris-fall zones, rise in road blockages and accidents, and greater chances of floods. These 'development'
projects
have brought ruin to the entire region.

In the 1970s, locals began the Chipko movement to oppose the earlier forms of the 'development mafia' that has
now
taken hold of Uttarakhand. They opposed the associated inequalities in resource distribution, even as they
fought
against deforestation and commercial forestry. The epicentres of the Chipko movement, such as the
Joshimath
region, however, have now become the focal points of hydropower projects. The questions and agenda
of the Chipko
movement are thus very much alive. The people of this region continue to question the rationale of
permitting
destructive hydropower projects in their sensitive geography, especially when they have been debarred
from grazing
their cattle, taking herbs, or cutting grass from inside the protected zones in the name of conservation.
This has led to
the severing of their organic links with their environment and curtailing their livelihood that was
dependent on it.

A sense of betrayal is paramount among the descendants of those who led the Chipko movement because of the
paring down of their rights over natural resources. Many of them have become petty contractors or are employed
as
workers for constructions that have shaken the foundations of their homes. Villages in Joshimath are struggling
to
bring to the attention of authorities the cracks in their homes as well as destabilized mountain slopes weakened
by
the blasting and tunnelling necessary for hydropower projects.

The past lives on for the local people; so do the symbolism and the consciousness of the Chipko movement. The
essence of Chipko - the importance of a symbiotic relationship between villagers and the fragile Himalayan ecology
for both to exist and thrive - remains as relevant as before. What needs to be recognized is that for this relationship
to
thrive, the rights of the villagers over forests, land and rivers are to be protected, not short-changed. The
mountains
are, first and foremost, for their dwellers who have tended to them, treading on them lightly, striving to
maintain a fine
balance between livelihood and conservation. The mountains should not be reduced to monuments
and spectacles of
technological ingenuity and ostentatious development projects.
Q 21. 11769214  Out of the following options, which one appropriately sums up the passage?

a)  An overview of the Chipko movement

b)   c)  The cultural landscape of Uttarakhand
Concern for the fragile ecology of the Uttarakhand hills d)  Uttarakhand and its people

Q 22. 11769214  The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following statements?

a)  The local villagers have gained monetarily owing to the construction of dams in the locality.

b)  The chances of flood have largely been reduced over the past few years in Uttarakhand.

c)  The influx of many tourists can spell doom for the hills.

d)  The locals who have been employed as contractors earn a lot of money.

Q 23. 11769214  In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:

a)  Chipko embodied a complementary relationship between the villagers and the Himalayas.

b)  The Chipko movement resulted in violence between the state and the local villagers.

c)  The locals have been given permission to graze their cattle anywhere in the region.

d)  The Char Dham highway development project has largely been welcomed by the locals.

Q 24. 11769214  From the passage, it can be understood that:

a)  Uttarakhand has the maximum number of reserve forests in India.

b)  Uttarakhand was rocked by two natural disasters in the past one decade.

c)  The last natural disaster in Uttarakhand occurred a decade back.

d)  Uttarakhand is a state that has witnessed the maximum number of flash floods in India.

Q 25. 11769214  Out of the following options, which one is a synonym of the word 'onslaught' as used in the
passage?

a)  Dormant b)  Prevalent c)  Deterrent d)  Torrent

Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please
answer
each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances,
more than
one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most
accurately and
comprehensively answers the question.

Passage – 6

In a correct but much-delayed move, the National Technical Advisory Group on Immunisation has recommended
reducing the minimum gap between two Covishield does from 12 weeks to 8 weeks; the maximum interval is
unchanged at 16 weeks. Reportedly, the Centre is also evaluating the need to expand the booster programme. As
we
have argued repeatedly, this is prudent. Although fresh Covid cases and deaths in India are at a two-year low
-
weekly inflections are down by 40% at just over 15,800 cases while weekly fatalities are below 200 - global Covid
cases have surged by 4% in the last seven days. The current fall in Indian Covid numbers should therefore be no
basis for comfort.

Around 81% of Indians over 15 have been covered by the two doses - Covishield being the most prominent - while
around 96% have received at least one shot. In absolute terms, therefore, the number of adults yet to take the
second dose is not small, and the new Covishield interval will help. Also note that by May 20, of India's estimated
345
million people above the age of 45, around 53% who have received their second shot will complete six
months. This
likely means they may have little to no protection going forward.

The latest WHO data shows an appreciable decline in vaccine-induced immunity - including that produced by
Covishield - (a) both severe and symptomatic disease at the six-month threshold. Another study by University of
Edinburgh notes a fourfold rise in chance of death and hospitalisation four months from the second dose compared
to
two weeks. Therefore, greenlighting boosters for all above 45 and reducing the interval between second and
third
doses to 6 months from 9 months are essential. Shortage of vaccines is not the issue, neither is availability
of
different vaccines if GoI decides on a mix and match option, as it should. The unconscionable delay in reducing
the
Covishield interval shouldn't be repeated in booster dose expansion.
Q 26. 11769214  Which of the following can be inferred about the author's perspective on the decision of National
Technical
Advisory Group on Immunisation?

a)  The author believes that the decision is grossly incorrectthat has not considered the repercussions.

b)  The author believes that the move, already much delayed, has come at an even more inopportune time.

c)  The author believes that the advisory group should lay down stringent rules to reduce the gap between
the doses.

d)  The author believes that the recommendation the group is an apt one and appears to be in its favour.

Q 27. 11769214  Which of the following represents the correct meaning of 'greenlighting'in the context of its usage in
the
passage?

a)  To give permission for something. b)  To deliberate upon an issue.

c)  To incite hatred against something. d)  To throw light upon a particular aspect.

Q 28. 11769214  According to the passage, which of the following is a concern in reducing the gap between the
vaccine
doses?

a)  Shortage of vaccines. b)  Availability of different vaccines.

c)  Both (a) and (b) d)  Neither (a) nor (b)

Q 29. 11769214  Which of the following would fit in the blank (a) as provided in the last paragraph?

a)  for b)  with c)  against d)  in order of

Q 30. 11769214  Which of the following might be the author's profession?

a)  Biotechnologist b)  Public policy analyst c)  Economist d)  Medical representative

CURRENT AFFAIRS INCLUDING GENERAL

KNOWLEDGE
Passage – 1

India may be pushing for 'atmanirbharta (indigenous development)' in defence equipment - the central government
earmarked 68 per cent of the capital budget for 2022-23 for domestic manufacturing industries - but the country
remains the largest importer of arms globally, a report by the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute
(SIPRI) has shown. Most of India's defence imports come from [1], the report says.

However, according to SIPRI's Trends in International Arms Transfers, 2021 - published this month - India's total
volume of imports fell by 21 per cent from 2012-16, which could be a reflection of the push to manufacture arms
and
weapons systems indigenously.

The volume of global arms transfers between 2017 and 2021 was 4.6 per cent less than during the 2012-16
period,
the report says. The 2017-21 global arms transfers were, however, 3.9 per cent more than for the 2007-11
period, it
adds. The five largest arms importers in the 2017-21 periods were India, Saudi Arabia, Egypt, Australia,
and China,
while the five biggest exporters of arms in the same period were the [2], Russia, France, China, and
Germany.

According to SIPRI estimates, India, Saudi Arabia, Egypt, Australia, and China accounted for nearly 38 per cent of
global arms imports between 2017 and 2021. India accounted for 11 per cent of global arms imports in 2017-21,
the
SIPRI report says, adding that China (a neighbour with whom India shares a tense relationship) accounted for
4.8 per
cent.

[1] was India's largest supplier of arms in both 2012-16 and 2017-21. However, the volume of India's imports from
[1]
fell by 47 per cent between these two periods. Meanwhile, India's imports from [3] increased substantially,
making
France the [3]-largest supplier of arms to India in this period.

The report pegs Saudi Arabia as the second biggest arms importer, while estimating the country's percentage in
world imports at 11 per cent - the same as India. Saudi Arabia became the second largest importer of arms in
2017-
21, and increased its total arms imports volume by 27 per cent during this period. The US accounted for 82
per cent
of Saudi Arabia's imports.
Q 31. 11769214  According to the latest report by the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI), the
most of
India's defence imports come from [1], which of the following countries has been redacted with [1] in the
passage above?

a)  USA b)  Russia c)  Japan d)  France

Q 32. 11769214  According to the latest report by the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI), the
biggest
exporters of arms in the world is [2], which of the following countries has been redacted with [2] in the
passage above?

a)  Canada b)  Japan c)  North Korea d)  USA

Q 33. 11769214  India's imports from [3] increased substantially, making France the [3]-largest supplier of arms to
India in
this period. Which of the following countries has been redacted with [3] in the passage above?

a)  France b)  USA c)  Japan d)  Germany

Q 34. 11769214  Indian army is considered the __________largest active army in the world.

a)  Second b)  Third c)  Fourth d)  Fifth

Q 35. 11769214  Which of the following countries has the largest armed forces in the world by active duty military
personnel?

a)  USA b)  Russia c)  China d)  Vietnam

Passage – 2

For the fifth straight year, the United Nations' World Happiness Report has found [1] to be the happiest country in
the
world. The report, the latest edition of which was released, two days before the annual International Day of
Happiness, is issued annually by the [2]. It ranks 150 countries (146 in 2022) on factors such as personal sense of
well-being, levels of GDP, life expectancy etc. The list, which is in its 10th year, assigns a score on a scale of 0-10,
based on an average of data over a three-year-period.

In the latest rankings, among the countries which occupied the top 10 spots in 2021, only Austria dropped out; of
the
remaining nine, countries have moved up and down. From the other end, Afghanistan was ranked as the
unhappiest
nation, followed by Lebanon, Zimbabwe, Rwanda and Botswana, respectively. India, meanwhile, saw
a marginal
improvement in its ranking, jumping three spots to [3], from 139 a year ago. Russia and Ukraine,
currently at war with
each other, have been ranked 80 and 98 respectively. The 2022 rankings, however, were
compiled much before
Russia, on February 24, launched invasion of its neighbour.
Q 36. 11769214  For the fifth straight year, the United Nations' World Happiness Report has found [1] to be the
happiest
country in the world. Which of the following countries has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?

a)  Finland b)  Sweden c)  Norway d)  New Zealand

Q 37. 11769214  Which of the following releases the World Happiness Report which has been redacted with [2] in the
passage
above?

a)   b)  
United Nations Millennium Development Goals Network United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions
Network

c)  United Nations Health Programme Network d)  

United Nations Conference on Trade and Development

Q 38. 11769214  What is the India rank in the latest World Happiness Report which has been redacted with [3] in the
passage
above?

a)  116 b)  126 c)  130 d)  136

Q 39. 11769214  Which of the following countries is ranked as the unhappiest nation in the latest World Happiness
Report?

a)  Syria b)  Afghanistan c)  Ukraine d)  Yemen

Q 40. 11769214  The International Day of Happiness is celebrated throughout the world on ___________.

a)  18 March b)  20 March c)  22 March d)  24 March

Passage – 3

The Indian Army is set to get a long-awaited dedicated military communication satellite as the Defence Acquisition
Council approved Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for Capital Acquisition proposals of Armed Forces. Defence
Minister [1] gave his nod to the Acceptance of Necessity for GSAT-[2] Satellite that will enhance operational
preparedness of the Armed Forces and boost its communication capabilities.

Apart from the communication satellite, the Defence Acquisition Council also accorded its nod to the procurement
of
Night Sight (Image Intensifier), Light Vehicles GS 4X4 and Air Defence Fire Control Radar (Light) that will provide
better visibility, enhanced mobility, improved communication and increased capability of detecting enemy aircraft.
The
GSAT-[2] is a communication satellite part of the GSAT-7 series, which was first launched in 2013 by the
Indian
Space & Research Organisation (ISRO). The launch of the satellite ended the dependency of the Indian
Navy on
foreign satellites like Inmarsat for communication services.
According to ISRO, "GSAT-7 is an advanced communication satellite built by ISRO to provide a wide range of
service
spectrum from low bit rate voice to high bit rate data communication. The GSAT-7 Communication payload
is
designed to provide communication capabilities to users over a wide oceanic region including the Indian landmass."

[3] was the first military satellite developed by ISRO and launched atop an Ariane 5 ECA rocket from Kourou in
French Guiana. The satellite connects the Navy's warships, aircraft, submarines and land-based communication
systems in real-time.

At the moment, GSAT-7 and GSAT-7A are the only two dedicated satellites for the Indian armed forces and with
GSAT-[2], their tribe is set to grow. GSAT-[2] will be used by the Indian Army, which so far uses 30 per cent of
GSAT-
7A's transponder capacity.
Q 41. 11769214  Who is the current Defence Minister of India whose name has been redacted with [1] in the passage
above?

a)  Amit Shah b)  Rajnath Singh c)  Ravi Shankar Prasad d)  Anurag Singh Thakur

Q 42. 11769214  Which of the following has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?

a)  GSAT-7B b)  GSAT-7C c)  GSAT-7D d)  GSAT-7G

Q 43. 11769214  Which of the following was the first military satellite developed by ISRO and launched atop an
Ariane 5 ECA
rocket from Kourou in French Guiana which has been redacted with [3] in the passage above

a)  Shakthi b)  Rukmini c)  Arihant d)  Virat

Q 44. 11769214  Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the Defence Acquisition Council?

a)  
It is the highest decision-making body in the Defence Ministry for deciding on new policies and capital
acquisitions for
the three services.
b)  The Minister of Defence is the Chairman of the Council.

c)  
It was formed, after the Group of Ministers recommendations on 'Reforming the National Security System'
in 2009,
post Mumbai terrorist attack (2008).
d)  None of the above

Q 45. 11769214  Which of the following is/are significance of the GSAT-[2] satellite?

a)  It will primarily fulfill the communication needs of the Army.

b)  
The use of such a satellite would also mean that the Army's vast array of radio communication equipment
could come
under a single platform.

c)  Both (a) and (b) are correct

d)  Neither (a) nor (b) are correct

Passage – 4

[1], India`s first ever winner of an Olympic athletics gold medal, has been nominated for the 2022 Laureus World
Breakthrough of the Year Award. He is one of the six nominees for the prestigious Award. With his second throw
measuring 87.58 metres, [1] became the first Indian track and field athlete to win an individual Olympic gold medal
during the 2020 Tokyo Olympics, the other being Abhinav Bindra in air rifle in 2008.

He is only the third Indian athlete to be nominated for a Laureus Award, after wrestler Vinesh Phogat in 2019 and
cricket maestro [2], who won the Laureus Sporting Moment Award 2000-2020, which marked the emotional moment
during the 2011 ICC World Cup, when his team carried him on their shoulders in a lap of honour after India`s win.

Apart from [1], the other five sportspersons who have been nominated for for the Breakthrough Award are --
Britain`s
Emma Raducanu, who became a global tennis sensation when she won the US Open at the age of 18,
Russia`s
Daniil Medvedev, who won the men`s title at Flushing Meadows, FC Barcelona`s football prodigy Pedri,
aged 19,
voted best young player at the Ballon d`Or, Yulimar Rojas, who broke the 26-year-old triple jump world
record, and
swimmer Ariarne Titmus, aged 20, who twice beat champion Katie Ledecky at 200 and 400m in Tokyo.

A panel of more than 1,300 of the leading sports journalists and broadcasters in the world have selected the
nominees in each of seven categories for this year`s Laureus World Sports Awards. The Winners will be revealed
in
April, following a vote by the Laureus World Sports Academy, the world`s ultimate sports jury, made up of 71 of
the
greatest sporting legends of all time.
Q 46. 11769214  Who is the India`s first ever winner of an Olympic athletics gold medal, who has been nominated for
the
2022 Laureus World Breakthrough of the Year Award whose name has been redacted with [1] in the passage
above?

a)  Avinash Sable b)  Neeraj Chopra c)  Murali Sreeshankar d)  Shivpal Singh

Q 47. 11769214  Who among following Indian cricketers won the Laureus Sporting Moment Award 2000-2020, which
marked
the emotional moment during the 2011 ICC World Cup, when his team carried him on their shoulders in a
lap
of honour after India`s win whose name has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?

a)  MS Dhoni b)  Sachin Tendulkar c)  Yuvraj Singh d)  Sourav Ganguly

Q 48. 11769214  The Laureus World Sports Awards is an annual award ceremony honouring individuals and teams
from the
world of sports along with sporting achievements throughout the year. It was established in____________.

a)  1981 b)  1991 c)  1999 d)  2001

Q 49. 11769214  Who among the following holds the record for the most awards with six, five for Sportsman of the
Year and
one for Comeback of the Year at the Laureus World Sports Awards?

a)  Roger Federer b)  Lance Armstrong c)  Lionel Messi d)  Cristiano Ronaldo

Q 50. 11769214  In India, who among the following won the Sportstar of the Year (Male) at the 2022 Sportstar Aces
Awards?

a)  Neeraj Chopra b)  Rohit Sharma c)  Virat Kohli d)  Vinesh Phogat

Passage – 5

Nagaswaram made in Narasinghapettai in Thanjavur district has been granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag
on the application filed by the Thanjavur Musical Instruments Workers Co-operative Cottage Industrial Society Ltd.

"This will help the artisans receive assistance from the Indian government and other benefits," said advocate P.
Sanjay Gandhi, who filed the application on behalf of the Society and helped to secure GI tag for many unique
products of Tamil Nadu.

Narasinghapettai, a village near Thiruvidaimarudur, has an inseparable place in the world of Carnatic music. Here
live
the families of artisans who excel in making the nagaswaram. It was N.G.N. Ranganatha Achari, who designed
the
'pari' nagaswaram, now used by nagaswaram players, at the request of nagaswaram wizard Thiruvavaduthurai
T.N.
Rajarathinam Pillai.

Nagaswaram players used the short 'timiri' nagaswaram before the 'pari' nagaswaram was made. "Suddha
madhyamam cannot be played in 'timiri'. Musicians would play it by instinct. That was why Rajarathinam Pillai
decided to design an instrument capable of producing suddha madhyamam," said nagaswaram player Injikudi M.
Mariappan.

Nagaswaram is made of 'acha maram', a tree known for its sturdy features. Nagaswaram makers of
Narasinghapettai
buy old wooden pillars from the dismantled houses. While Mr. Gunasekaran continues to make
nagaswaram through
traditional methods, others have modernised their workshops and opted for machines.
Q 51. 11769214  India as a member of the ______________ enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods
(Registration
and Protection) Act, 1999.

a)  World Bank b)   c)   d)  IMF

United Nations World Trade Organization
Organization

Q 52. 11769214  In India, Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 has come into
force with
effect from ______________.

a)  15 September 2000 b)  15 September 2003 c)  15 September 2005 d)  15 September 2007

Q 53. 11769214  The first GI tagged product in India is

a)  Darjeeling tea b)  Mysore silk c)  Kanchipuram silk d)  Thanjavur painting

Q 54. 11769214  Which of the following is/are the benefits of Geographical Indication (GI) Tag?

a)  
It provides legal protection to Indian Geographical Indications thus preventing unauthorized use of the
registered GIs
by others.
b)  It promotes economic prosperity of producers of goods produced in a geographical territory.

c)  The GI protection in India leads to recognition of the product in other countries thus boosting exports.

d)  All of the above

Q 55. 11769214  The registration of a geographical indication is valid for a period of____________.

a)  10 years b)  20 years c)  25 years d)  50 years

Passage – 6

The gross GST revenue collected in the month of February 2022 is Rs 1,33,026 crore of which CGST is Rs
24,435
crore, SGST is Rs 30,779 crore, IGST is Rs 67,471 crore (including Rs 33,837 crore collected on import
of goods)
and cess is Rs 10,340 crore (including Rs 638 crore collected on import of goods). The government has
settled Rs
26,347 crore to CGST and Rs 21,909 crore to SGST from IGST. The total revenue of Centre and the
States in the
month of February 2022 after regular settlement is Rs 50,782 crore for CGST and Rs 52,688 crore
for the SGST.

The revenues for the month of February 2022 are 18% higher than the GST revenues in the same month last year
and 26% higher than the GST revenues in February 2020. During the month, revenues from import of goods was
38% higher and the revenues from domestic transaction (including import of services) are 12% higher than the
revenues from these sources during the same month last year. This is for the fifth time GST collection has
crossed
Rs 1.30 lakh crore mark. Since implementation of GST, for the first time, GST cess collection crossed Rs
10,000
crore mark, which signifies recovery of certain key sectors, especially, automobile sales.
Q 56. 11769214  GST is known as the Goods and Services Tax. It is a/an ___________.

a)  Direct tax b)  Indirect tax c)  Retrospective tax d)  All of the above

Q 57. 11769214  The Goods and Service Tax Act came into force on____________.

a)  1 July 2015 b)  1 July 2016 c)  1 July 2017 d)  1 July 2018

Q 58. 11769214  Which of the following constitutional amendment acts is related to the Goods and Services Tax
(GST) in
India?

a)   b)  
The Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) The Constitution (One Hundred and Second
Act Amendment) Act

c)   d)  
The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) The Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth Amendment)
Act Act

Q 59. 11769214  Which of the following products is/are outside the purview of GST?

a)  Petroleum products b)  Electricity c)   d)  All of the above

Alcohol for human
consumption

Q 60. 11769214  Which of the following statements is Not correct regarding the Goods and Services Tax
(Compensation to
States) Act?

a)  
The GST Compensation Act guaranteed States that they would be compensated for any loss of revenue
in the ten
five years of GST implementation, until 2026, using a cess levied on sin and luxury goods.
b)  
This Act assumed that the GST revenue of each State would grow at 14% every year, from the amount
collected in
2015-16, through all taxes subsumed by the GST.

c)  
The amount would be paid every two months based on provisional accounts, and adjusted every year
after the
State's accounts were audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General.
d)  A State that had collected tax less than this amount in any year would be compensated for the shortfall.

Passage – 7

Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelenskyy has officially signed an application for Ukraine's membership in the
European Union, according to a post from his verified Facebook page. Zelenskyy has just signed a historical
document - Ukraine's application for European Union membership," tweeted Andrii Sybiha, the deputy head of the
president's office. Ukraine's prime minister and head of parliament also signed a joint statement, he added.
The move comes hours after Zelenskyy released a video appealing to the EU for membership and calling on
Russian
forces to go home. He urged the EU to allow Ukraine's immediate entry under what he described as a
"new special
procedure," on which he did not elaborate.

Ukraine is not currently recognized as an official candidate for EU membership, though it's been part of an
association
agreement with the EU (in which both parties agreed to align their economies in certain areas and
deepen political
ties) since 2017, as Politico notes.

Zelenskyy tweeted that he had spoken with European Council President [1], writing: "It is a crucial moment to
close
the long-standing discussion once and for all and decide on Ukraine's membership in the EU." European
Commission
President [2] told that Ukraine is "one of us and we want them in" the European Union.

But she suggested its entry wouldn't be immediate, saying the process would involve integrating Ukraine's market
into that of the EU and noting that the two cooperate closely in areas such as energy. Indeed, the EU's own website
stresses that "becoming a member of the EU is a complex procedure which does not happen overnight."
Q 61. 11769214  At present, how many countries are there in the European Union (EU)?

a)  26 b)  27 c)  28 d)  30

Q 62. 11769214  Who are the current President of the European Council and President of the European Commission
whose
names have been redacted with [1] and [2] in the passage above?

a)  Jan Jambon and Didier Reynders b)  Alexander De Croo and Kris Peeters

c)  Koen Geens and Charles Michel d)  Charles Michel and Ursula Gertrud von der Leyen

Q 63. 11769214  Brexit refers to which of the following events?

a)  Withdrawal of the Brussels from the European Union (EU)

b)  Withdrawal of the Belarus from the European Union (EU)

c)  Withdrawal of the United Kingdom (UK) from the World Bank Group

d)  Withdrawal of the United Kingdom (UK) from the European Union (EU)

Q 64. 11769214  Which of the following treaties is an international agreement that amends the two treaties which
form the
constitutional basis of the European Union (EU)?

a)  The Treaty of Lisbon b)  The Treaty of London c)  The Treaty of Belgium d)  The Treaty of Versatile

Q 65. 11769214  The Schengen Area is an area comprising most of the European countries that have officially
abolished____________.

a)  All passport and all other types of border control at their mutual borders

b)  Drug trafficking and black marketing at their mutual borders

c)  Terrorist activities and money laundering at their mutual borders

d)  All of the above

LEGAL REASONING
Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage.
Only the
information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of
law
howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage – 1

Article 20 of the Constitution of India deals with the protections that are afforded with respect to the conviction of
offenses. It is made up of 3 elements:

1. That no person can be convicted of an offense other than one that was in force at the time when the offense
had
been committed, and the penalty given to such a person cannot be greater than that which had been in
force when
the offense had been committed.

2. No person can be punished for the same offense more than once.

3. No accused can be forced to be a witness against themselves. This is the right against self-incrimination.

We took the doctrine from the Fifth Amendment to the Constitution of the United States of America, however our
version of the doctrine is narrower in nature than that of the United States because in America a second trial is not
permitted if the accused has been acquitted in the first trial, in India the second trial can only be stopped if the
accused has been punished in the first trial if they were acquitted originally then a fresh case can be brought

Section 26 of the General Clauses Act states that when a person commits an offense under more than one
enactment, they must be prosecuted under one of the provisions but not both.

Further, Section 300 of the Code of Criminal Procedure also states that once a person has been convicted or
acquitted of an offense, they cannot be tried for the same offense again, or even a different offense based on the
same set of facts, so long as the original conviction or acquittal remains in force.

This makes Section 300 wider in scope than Article 20 (2), as was backed up by the court as well in the Kolla Veera
Raghav Rao case. The Indian Penal Code also has a provision against Double Jeopardy in the form of Section 71,
the section states that in a case where an offense is made up of several offenses, the offender cannot be punished
for more than one of these offenses unless it has expressly been provided so.

In order for Double Jeopardy to be applicable, there are certain conditions that need to be fulfilled. The person
needs
to have been accused of an offense, there ought to have been proceedings before a court or tribunal, the
court must
have punished the person for the offense, and the new charge on the person must be the same as the
old offense for
which they had been prosecuted, this was stated in the case State of Bombay V. S.L. Apte.

If all of these conditions are fulfilled then the defense of double jeopardy can be availed. It is not applicable to
situations where distinct offenses have been committed by the same act of the accused, the court clarified this
point
in their judgment in Bhagwant Swarup V. State of Maharashtra.
Q 66. 11769214  D was a school peon. Once he was caught spying on the girl's restroom. The school immediately
expelled
him without the salary of that particular month. The parent's union came together and decided to file a
criminal charge against D. D is contesting that he is being punished twice for the same offense. Decide.

a)  D is being punished twice as he has already been expelled from the school.

b)  D is not being punished twice and a criminal charge can be heard against him.
c)  D is being punished twice as already his salary has been deducted in the form of punishment.

d)  Both a and c

Q 67. 11769214  A had been spying on his neighbour B by stalking her through social media. When B realized the
same, she
filed a police complaint. Now, A has been charged with relevant sections of IT act 2000 and IPC 1860. The
court wants to award him 6 months of imprisonment under IPC and 2 months of imprisonment and a fine
under IT act
2000. Is there double jeopardy in the given case?

a)  There is no double jeopardy in the given case as A is being charged under different provisions but at
once.

b)  There is no double jeopardy as both punishments are being given in a single hearing.

c)  
In the given case, A is being punished for the same offense of stalking under two different provisions and
there is
double jeopardy.

d)  None of the above.

Q 68. 11769214  Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage?

a)  
Section 300 of the Code of Criminal Procedure also states that once a person has been convicted or
acquitted of an
offense, they cannot be tried for the same offense again.
b)  
Article 20 talks about the protection that ought to be given to those who have been accused or convicted
of having
committed an offense.

c)  The Indian Penal Code also has a provision against Double Jeopardy in the form of Section 72.
d)  None of the above.

Q 69. 11769214  D stayed in the kingdom of Rajnagar which followed the Indian constitution. Once, D went to Raj
Ghat on
10th January and took a bath. One 13th of January a new announcement came out stating only the King and
his family shall be allowed to take bath and any other person bathing shall be punished. On 15th of January
the
king's guard took away D to punish him for bathing in Rajghat. Is there any constitutional provision that
can save D?

a)  There isn't any constitutional provision that can save D and he should face the wrath of the king.

b)  D shall be protected under article 20 (2) of the constitution that is double jeopardy.

c)  
D shall be protected under article 20(1) as when he committed the crime the said law was not in force
and it cannot
have a retrospective effect.
d)  The Constitution of India is not applicable outside the sovereignty of India and therefore, D cannot be
saved.

Q 70. 11769214  B was accused of robbing jewellery. He was brought into the police station for interrogation. A, the
head
constable asked B to confess failing which his wife and mother's life would be made miserable. B confessed
to
the crime. Can B seek protection of any constitutional protection.

a)  B cannot seek any constitutional protection as he has already confessed to the crime which he has
committed.
b)  B has a right against self-incrimination and the same shall be protected as it is his fundamental right.

c)  B has the right to life which is being violated as he has been falsely convicted.

d)  None of the above.

Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage.
Only the
information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of
law
howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage – 2

Estoppel is a principle of law by which a person is held bound by the representation made by him or arising out of
his
conduct. Estoppel has been dealt in sections 115 to 117 of the Indian evidence act. When one person has, by
his
declaration or by his act, intentionally caused or permitted another person to believe a thing to be true and to act
upon such belief neither he nor his representative shall be allowed, in any suit or proceeding between himself and
such person or his representative, to deny the truth of that thing. In a case, a judge, who has shown high age in his
certificates right from the beginning of his career, sought to deny it by showing actual municipal birth records, so
as to
retire at a later age. Held that the judge is estopped.

Doctrine of estoppel has gained a new dimension in recent years with the recognition of an equitable doctrine of
promissory estoppel both by English and Indian courts. According to it, if a promise is made in the expectation that
it
should be acted upon in the future, and it was in fact acted upon, the party making the promise will not be allowed
to
back out of it. The development of such a principle was easy in Britain and USA, where estoppel is a rule of
equity
(common law), but in India, it is a rule of law, and terms of sec 115 must be strictly complied with.

The concept of promissory estoppel differs from the concept of estoppel as continued in Section 115 in that
representation in the latter is to an existing fact, while the former relates to a representation of future intention. But
it
has been accepted by the Supreme Court as "advancing the cause of justice. Though such promise (future) is
not
supported in point of law by any 'consideration' (the basis of contract), but only by the party's conduct; however,
if
promise is made in circumstances involving legal rights and obligations it is only proper that the parties should be
enforced to do what they promised. In Cases, where the government is one of the parties, the court will balance
the
harm to the public interest by compelling the government to fulfill its promise and not to allow the government
to back
out of it to see if the government does not act arbitrarily. The doctrine has been variously described as
"equitable
estoppel", "quasi estoppel" and "new estoppel''. The Doctrine is not really based on the principle of
estoppel, but it is
a doctrine evolved by equity in order to prevent injustice where a promise made by a person
knowing that it would be
acted on, it is inequitable to allow the party making the promise to go back upon it. The
Doctrine of promissory
estoppel need not, therefore, be confined to the limitations of estoppel in the strict sense of
word.

The Supreme Court has laid down that it is well settled that there cannot be any estoppel against the Government
in
the exercise of its sovereign, legislative and executive functions. Where a local development authority announced
a
housing scheme and accepted applications under it, subsequently finding that the scheme was in violation of the
Master Plan canceled it. It was held that to be free to do so without any shackles of promissory estoppel.
Q 71. 11769214  Which of the following is the correct definition of 'doctrine of estoppel'?

a)  
Doctrine of estoppel is used to prohibit a judge who has shown high age during his joining to change his
retirement
date by producing the original certificate.
b)  
Doctrine of estoppel is used to sue the public officials when they go contradictory to the word which they
have given
to the public.
c)  
The doctrine of estoppel is a principle of law by which a person is held bound by the representation made
by him or
arising out of his conduct.
d)  
The doctrine of estoppel is a principle of law under which a public official is held bound by the representation
made
by him or arising out of his conduct.

Q 72. 11769214  B is a public servant who was standing for the post of panchayat president. During his election
campaign his
main motto was to 'vote me and save trees'. After the election in which he secured victory, he permitted
a
construction of an industry in the village at the cause of acres of forest land. Now the villagers want to apply
the
estoppel principle on him to restrain him from going against his word. Decide.

a)  The villagers can file an estoppel as he is acting contradictory to the statement which he had given
previously.

b)  The villagers cannot file an estoppel against him as he is the president of the panchayat.
c)  In the given case, the provision of estoppel cannot be applied for the said act of the B.

d)  An estoppel principle cannot be applied on a public person but only on a public office.

Q 73. 11769214  Which of the following statements is untrue with regards to application of doctrine of estoppel?

a)  The doctrine of estoppel has gained a new dimension in recent years.

b)  The certain provisions of Indian Evidence act 1872 explain about estoppel.

c)  Estoppel can never be applied to a governmental agency or authority.

d)  None of the above

Q 74. 11769214  How does the concept of promissory estoppel differ from the concept of estoppel according to the
passage?

a)  
Promissory estoppel is enforceable and a legal action can be claimed against it while estoppel is used
only as a
restraint method without any legal action.
b)  
Estoppel refers to representation of existing facts while in promissory estoppel the representation is to
the future
facts.

c)  
Estoppel refers to representation of future facts while in promissory estoppel the representation is to the
existing
facts.
d)  
Estoppel refers to representation of past facts while in promissory estoppel the representation is to the
existing facts.

Q 75. 11769214  Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage?

a)  The doctrine of promissory estoppel has been variously described as "equitable estoppel".

b)  The doctrine of promissory estoppel has been accepted by the supreme court in advancement of justice.
c)  The Doctrine of promissory estoppel need not be confined to the limitations of estoppel in the strict
sense of word.

d)  None of the above.

Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage.
Only the
information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of
law
howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage – 3

A Fiduciary Relationship is a confidential relationship, wherein the fiduciary has access or possesses the confidential
information or entrusting of power. He shall not undertake any transaction which shall be a possible conflict of
interest
to the Beneficiary and to ensure the desired outcome is achieved. Status of an informal Fiduciary
Relationship:
Generally, a fiduciary relationship exists only where one party is accustomed to being guided by the
judgment or
advice of the other or is justified in placing confidence in the belief that such party will act in its interest.
Mostly, the
acceptance of the Fiduciary duties is also considered in the case of formal contracts or agreements.
However, where
a party has entrusted confidential information or property or knowledge with a peculiar reliance on
another party
irrespective of any agreement or contract executed and the latter is under the fiduciary obligations.

1. A fiduciary relationship is a commitment to act in the best interest of another person. Following the certain
duties of
Fiduciary while discharging his obligations:

2. He must act in the Good Faith of the Party: Where confidential information or property is in the custody of a
person, then such a person is deemed to be a Fiduciary. If there is a question on transactions that happened
in good
faith, as per Section 111 of the Indian Evidence Act, the burden of proof rests on the Fiduciary.

3. Fiduciary must not make any profits: perse fiduciary should not make any profits, however, any profit or gain
made
by the fiduciary during the transaction then he is under obligation to disclose the same to the Beneficiary,
although
there is no harm caused to the Beneficiary.

4. Fiduciary shall not be the purchaser: usually, the fiduciary shall not be the purchaser of property in his
possession
or handed over by the beneficiary.

5. Discharge his duty with care: While taking decisions, the fiduciary shall do research, gather all information
and
consider all pros and cons of the decisions.

Although the Indian laws have not defined the fiduciary relationship concisely, however, many statutes have
recognized the obligations and entrusted the duties to the parties following are a few notable scenarios:

Section 16 - "Undue influence" 16 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.

Where one of the parties is in a position to dominate the will of the other and uses that position to obtain an unfair
advantage over the other, the Fiduciary is recognized as an influential or dominating person.

Section 88 - "Advantage gained by fiduciary" of Indian Trusts Act, 1882

The Trustee is merely fiduciary, shall assume all the obligations entrusted upon the fiduciary while discharging his
duties, and shall act for the best interest of the Beneficiary(s) without any undue gain or profit.

Section-20- "Fiduciary relation of guardian to ward" of Guardians and Wards Act, 1890

The guardian shall hold a fiduciary relationship with his ward.

In Companies Act: Globe Motors Ltd. vs Mehta Teja Singh

The director of the Company has executed an agreement acting in their interest rather than the interest of the
Company & Stakeholders. The court ordered the director to rescind the contract.
Q 76. 11769214  D was a virologist. Once D was invited by the government of India to give his views on the
behaviour of
omicron so that they can plan their next set of guidelines accordingly. D who was tired of the continued
lockdown told the government that omicron is just a common cold and there is no need for any regulation.
The
government did not impose any regulations. However, in the next 15 days India saw an average of 15k
omicron
related deaths. Now the government wants to sue D as he has failed his fiduciary obligation.
Decide.

a)  D did not have any fiduciary obligation as he did not specifically sign any agreement with the government.

b)  
D has not failed his fiduciary obligation as he was giving his mere opinion and the government was not
bound to act
by the same.
c)  
D has failed in his fiduciary obligation which was present as he has given a misleading statement to the
government.
d)  
There can be no fiduciary obligation in the given case and D did not have the intention of misleading the
government.

Q 77. 11769214  C was an aged person and he held a lot of assets. He was unable to keep track of his large wealth
and had
hired B, a lawyer to look after his assets and guide him according to the market situation. B advised C when
to sell the assets or buy assets, when to invest etc. Is B a fiduciary and is he having a dominating authority
over C?

a)  B is not a fiduciary and there is no dominating authority over C.

b)  B is not a fiduciary. However, he has a dominating authority over C.

c)  B has fiduciary responsibility and he also is in an influential and dominating authority over C.

d)  
B does have a fiduciary relationship. However, there is no dominating authority as the final authority to
decide upon
the asset rests with C.

Q 78. 11769214  Which of the following statements is false in light of the above given passage?

a)  The fiduciary shall not undertake any transaction which shall be a possible conflict of interest to the
Beneficiary.

b)  The Indian laws have not defined the fiduciary relationship concisely.

c)  
A fiduciary relationship exists only where one party is accustomed to being guided by the judgment or
advice of the
other.

d)  None of the above.

Q 79. 11769214  D who acted as a fiduciary to one B had the bank account details of B. However, B thought D had
given the
details purposefully expecting B to leak out the information to one A. D who was an ardent fan of thriller
movies was excited by this double bluff trick and gave away all the information to A. Now B wants to file a suit
against
D and D wants to contend that the information was not given in good faith. Decide.

a)  
D can plead before the court that the information was not given in good faith and therefore was not bound
by fiduciary
duty.
b)  B can file a case against D for breaking the fiduciary commitments he had against B.
c)  B can file a case. However, the burden is upon D to prove that the information was not given in good
faith.

d)  
B cannot file a case in the given case as he has no proof to suggest that it was D who has leaked out the
information
to C.

Q 80. 11769214  C owned a big multi business company. C had an ambition of entering the rural Indian market. In
order to
start the venture, he asked A, B and D regarding their opinion for the best place and time to enter the market.
After analysing their advice, he came up with a unique decision and went ahead with it. Was there a fiduciary
relationship in the given case?

a)  There is a fiduciary relationship between C and A, B and D.

b)  There is no fiduciary relationship between C and the others mentioned.

c)  There is a fiduciary relationship between A, B and C.

d)  There is no fiduciary relationship between A and B but between C and D.

Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage.
Only the
information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of
law
howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage – 4

Cybersquatting is the practice of registering an Internet domain name that is likely to be wanted by another person,
business, or organization, hoping to sell the same to them for a profit. The underlying idea behind cybersquatting
is
exploiting the accepted practice of first come, first serve basis and registering under the names of celebrities or
personalities with whom they have no connection. The simple registration process coupled with the inability of
WIPO
to keep track of all the registrars and their relationship with the desired domain makes the cybersquatting
process
easier. Cyber squatters usually put these domain names up for auctions or sell them directly to companies
or
interested parties for highly exorbitant prices.

To deal with the ever-increasing problem of cybersquatting, Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers
(ICANN), the international body that looks after top-level domains (gTLD & ccTLD), prepared a report containing
recommendations to deal with domain name disputes. ICANN adopted the Uniform Domain Name Dispute
Resolution
Policy (UDRP) based on the report's recommendations. UDRP gives rules and regulations that have to
have
complied with ICANN-accredited domain name dispute resolution service provider. There are various dispute
redressal forums such as the World Intellectual property organization, Arab center for domain name dispute
resolution, and National arbitration forum. But the majority of the cases are heard and resolved by WIPO.

The UDRP mainly focuses on problems that have been created by disputes between domain names and trademarks.
Through UDRP, complainants can file a case with resolution service providers specifying the required information
such as domain name in question, the respondent, the contentions, etc. The dispute shall be heard by a panel
consisting of one to three panelists. The decision is binding. However, the decision can be challenged in other
courts
of law as the process is an alternate dispute resolution method.

After successfully governing dispute resolutions for ten years, in the year 2009, the WIPO proposed to amend the
rules of UDRP to allow only electronic filing of pleadings under uniform domain name dispute resolution policy
(UDRP). From March 1st, 2010, e-filing of UDRP pleadings was made mandatory. Paperless filing ushered in a
new
era of Domain name disputes. Paperless filing involved the process of filing complaints through the mail,
notifications,
and other prescribed methods in the newly updated UDRP rules.

On January 18th of 2010, WIPO released the decision of the first paperless case brought by Nokia. The case was
resolved within thirty-seven days under the greener and more efficient filing and notification option. The new
paperless filing requires complaints to be made via e-mail or be contained in the body of an e-mail. The size of one
email should not exceed 10 MB. Larger files must be sent via separate emails, and the total size of complainant
files
should not exceed 50 MB, barring exceptional circumstances. Paragraph 3(b)(xii) of updated UPDRP rules
requires a
party initiating a complaint to send its complaint to the respondent and the WIPO arbitration and mediation
center. For
this purpose, the center has provided an updated complaint transmittal coversheet in Annex A.
Q 81. 11769214  Which among the following is the biggest contribution of ICANN to check the menace of
cybersquatting?

a)  Appointment of permanent internet watchdog in the year 1999

b)  Proposal to introduce paperless filing of cases in the year 2008

c)  Preparation of a report containing recommendations to deal with domain name disputes in the year 1999

d)  Proposal to amend the existing guideline to add domain name disputes in the year 1999.

Q 82. 11769214  Pachin Tendulkar was a famous footballer who represented Brazil. Go Daddy was a company that
held right
to merchandise Pachin's name and had trademark over the same. One RTY solutions obtained a domain
name- PachintendulkarlovesJohnnysins.com. Now Go Daddy wants to file a domain name infringement
case against
RTY solutions. Decide.

a)  
Go Daddy cannot file a case domain name dispute and only Pachin can as his name is being used to
merchandise
immoral practices.

b)  Go Daddy can file a UDRP process against RTY solutions.

c)  Go Daddy can file the UDRP process only with the express consent of Pachin Tendulkar.

d)  In the given case, the UDRP process cannot be initiated as the domain name is not identical.

Q 83. 11769214  Which of the following statements regarding paperless filing that is mentioned in the passage is
true?

a)  The panel became more vigilant and efficient after the UDRP process moved paperless.

b)  The number of cases being filed dramatically shot up after the UDRP process adopted the greener
strategy.

c)  eUDRP is a greener and more efficient way of solving domain name disputes.

d)  
WIPO moved into a global standard and surpassed the Arabian dispute resolution center in the number
of cases
being heard after eUDRP was accepted.

Q 84. 11769214  B owned a website named 'Naughty Indian' and the Domain name of the same was
NottyIndians.com. The
website shared videos and clips of naughty kids committing mischievous acts etc. One D
started an adult
video company whose domain name was NaughtIndiansandPakistaneese.com. B was offended by
an
immoral and unethical website being named after his company and also for infringement of his trademark.
He filed
a UDRP proceeding at WIPO by mailing them the complaint in three separate emails of 15 mb,
18mb and 12 mb.
Can WIPO accept the complaint of D?

a)  WIPO cannot accept the complaint of B as his website and D's website have different names altogether.
b)  WIPO cannot accept the complaint as the complaint has not been submitted by following the required
procedure.

c)  WIPO can accept the complaint as there is domain name infringement by the act of D.
d)  
In the given case, WIPO need not entertain the said case as there is no domain name infringement in the
said case.

Q 85. 11769214  Which of the following statements is false in the light of the given passage?

a)  
The UDRP mainly focuses on problems that have been created by disputes between domain names
and trademarks.
b)  
UDRP gives rules and regulations that have to have complied with ICANN-accredited domain name
dispute
resolution service provider

c)  On January 18th of 2010, WIPO released the decision of the first paperless case brought by Samsung.

d)  
The simple registration process coupled with the inability of WIPO to keep track of all the registrars and
their
relationship with the desired domain makes the cybersquatting process easier and predominant.

Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage.
Only the
information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of
law
howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage – 5

According to Section 441 of The Indian Penal Code, whoever enters into property in the possession of another with
the intent to commit an offence or to intimidate, insult or annoy any person in possession of such property, or
having
lawfully entered into such property, but remains there with intent thereby to intimidate, insult or any such
person, or
with an intent to commit an offence, is said to commit 'criminal trespass'. Thus, it can be deduced that
criminal
trespass occurs when a person unlawfully without any right or an express or implied license enters into
the private
property of another person or remains into such property with a criminal intention. The object of making
criminal
trespass an offence is to ensure that people can enjoy their private property without any kind of interruption
from
outsiders. Punishment for criminal trespass, as prescribed in Section 447 of IPC is either imprisonment
which may
extend to three months, or fine which may extend to INR 500 or both.

Criminal trespass has two limbs, firstly, entering into the property of another with criminal intent and secondly,
entering lawfully but remaining in the property with a criminal intent to harm or cause annoyance. Thus the essential
ingredients for committing Criminal trespass are:

'Whoever enters' -To commit the offence of criminal trespass, there must be an actual entry into the property of
another by the accused person. No trespass can occur if there is no physical instrument by the accused into the
private property of the victim. In the State of Calcutta vs Abdul Sukar, the court held that constructive entry by a
servant does not amount to entry, under this Section as even though there was no possession in law, there was
possession in fact.

Property -The term property under this Section includes both movable and immovable property. Wrongful entry
into
one's car or other movable property would have similar liability as wrongful entry into one's house. In Dhannonjoy
v
Provat Chandra Biswas, the accused drove away from the boat of the possessor after attacking him. The court
held
that this would amount to criminal trespass even though it was a movable property. But the term property
does not
include incorporeal property or something which cannot be touched, such as patent rights.

Possession of another- The possession of the property should be in the possession of the victim and not the
trespasser. Having the ownership of the property is not necessary, mere possession is sufficient to claim criminal
trespass against the trespasser. However, it is not necessary for the person having possession or the owner of
the
property to be present at the time when the trespassing occurred; no presence of owner or possessor would
also
amount to trespassing as long as the premises are entered into by the trespasser to annoy.

Intention- If it is proved that the intention of the accused parties was not to insult, harm or annoy the owners or
possessors of the property, then it would not amount to criminal trespass. Intention is the essence of this crime,
and if
there is no dominant motive to commit the crime, no criminal trespass. The test for determining whether the
entry was
done with an intent to cause annoyance.
Q 86. 11769214  D was hosting a party at his place. B, one of his friends, was on the invite list. B after the party
stayed back
trying to steal D's watch. D who caught B hiding sued him for the tort of trespass. Can the charge be
entertained? Decide.

a)  B cannot be charged with the tort of trespass but for theft under IPC.

b)  B can be filed for the tort of trespass as his action fulfils the requirement.

c)  B cannot be filed for the tort of trespass as D himself added him to the invite list.

d)  B cannot be filed for the tort of trespass as he has not actually committed the offense.

Q 87. 11769214  Kalia and Raju were two research scholars in the University of Dholakpur. Both were researching
the mystical
powers of Dhoni Baba. Once Raju found out about a very special power of DhoniBaba which would help
him
in proving his hypothesis. He was discussing the same with his friend Bheem. Kalia overheard the same
and
used the same information in his paper. Now Raju wants to file a case of trespass against Kalia.
Decide.

a)  Kalia can be held liable for the tort of intellectual trespass as he willfully used the idea of Raju.

b)  The act of Kalia can be considered as trespass can be committed even for incorporeal property.

c)  The act of Kalia cannot be considered as the tort of trespass.

d)  The act of Kalia can be charged under copyright infringement.

Q 88. 11769214  B went to a party held at C's place. During the party B lost his watch. B found that watch lying in C's
showcase. B took the same and returned home. Actually, it was C' s watch and not the one that B lost. Now
C wants
to file a case of trespass against B. Decide.

a)  B can be held liable for the tort of trespass as he willfully took the property of another

b)  B cannot be held liable for the tort of trespass but should be charged for theft.
c)  B cannot be held liable for trespass in the given case.

d)  B can be held liable for criminal trespass under IPC.

Q 89. 11769214  A was going on a trip. He asked his neighbor B to look after his house and gave the keys to A. One,
C entered
into A's house and started watching Television. Now B wants to file a charge of trespass against C.
Decide.

a)  B can file a case of trespass against C for his action.

b)  B cannot file a case of trespass as all the requirements of trespass have not been fulfilled in the given
case.
c)  B cannot file a case of trespass as he does not have the ownership of the property.

d)  Both A and B

Q 90. 11769214  What was held by the court in the case of State of Calcutta vs Abdul Sukar?

a)  The court held that constructive entry by a servant does not amount to entry.

b)  The court held that trespass cannot be filed in case of intangible property.
c)  The court gave the difference between the tort of trespass and the criminal act of trespass.

d)  None of the above

Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage.
Only the
information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of
law
howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage – 6

Hate speech despite being a colonial concept and consistently used in the 'legal circle' has not yet been statutorily
defined. In Pravasi Bhalai Sangathan v. UOI, the Court recognised this issue and recommended the Law
Commission
to define "hate speech", which was considered by the Commission in the 267th Law Commission
Report. This
adoption of a definition comes at a crucial stage as with the wide-scale adoption of social media, it has
become
the center stage to spread hate speech. This was noticed during the recent Delhi riots where Facebook was
used
to incite communal hatred. The Parliamentary Standing Committee and the Peace and Harmony Committee
constituted by the Delhi Legislative Assembly, based on Wall Street Journal's report, suspect that Facebook did
not
duly detect and control hate speech on its platform during the said period. Though Wall Street's report claims
that
political bias is the primary reason for the inefficient content regulation, the report also acknowledges that
"Facebook
faces a monumental challenge policing hate speech across the enormous volume of content posted to
its platforms
worldwide". It is important to understand that the claims of bias are not yet confirmed and might be
mere politically
motivated allegations. However, the inefficiency of Facebook to moderate hate speech is a real
issue especially
because it has been proven that Facebook's algorithm has several limitations that have now
become the reason for
organised hate speech crimes. It is argued that Facebook's inefficient content moderation
system that relies on
artificial intelligence is responsible for the communal disharmony spread in Delhi last year,
and Facebook needs to
take responsibility and develop an ethical system to prevent such misuse in the future.

Last year, the Delhi Legislative Assembly constituted the "Peace and Harmony Committee" to analyse the factors
responsible for the riots. During the investigation, the Committee received leads to suggest that Facebook's
platform
was used as the primary tool for spreading hate speech against communal harmony. The Committee
summoned
Facebook India's Vice President and Managing Director, Mr Ajit Mohan, to understand Facebook's role
as a medium
of hatred. However, Mr Mohan refused to appear on the ground of lack of jurisdiction and filed an
Article 32 petition
before the Supreme Court to set aside the summons issued by the Committee.

The Court in Ajit Mohan v. Legislative Assembly National Capital Territory of Delhi, ruled that the power of the
legislature is not limited to enacting laws and the Committee's summon is valid to investigate the matter. However,
the court noted that the Committee cannot punish or recommend actions against Facebook because such power
is
limited to the Central government. Section 79 of the Information Technology Act exempts the liability of an
intermediary in certain circumstances. An intermediary is not liable when it is merely acting as a platform for
thirdparty
information. This is exactly what Facebook claimed in defence in the Ajit Mohan case referred to above.
However, the section states that an intermediary should observe due diligence while discharging its duties. Arguably,
using an inefficient algorithmic system is not 'due' diligence especially because Facebook itself claims that more
than
90% of hate speech on its platform is detected by artificial intelligence
Q 91. 11769214  Why according to the passage, does the definition of hate speech come at a very important
juncture?

a)  
The improved awareness of citizens regarding their rights and legislations has made filing of hate speech
cases more
prevalent.

b)  
The wide-scale adoption of social media has become the center stage to spread hate speech and hence
the
definition introduction comes at an important juncture.

c)  
The wide scale increase of communal hatred and party politics, the definition of hate speech is more
important now
than ever.
d)  None of the above

Q 92. 11769214  Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage?

a)  An intermediary is not liable when it is merely acting as a platform for third-party information
b)  
Hate speech despite being a colonial concept and consistently used in the 'legal circle' has not yet been
statutorily
defined.

c)  
The Delhi Legislative Assembly constituted the "Peace and Harmony Committee" to analyse the factors
responsible
for the riots.

d)  
The Court in Ajit Mohan v. Legislative Assembly National Capital Territory of Delhi, ruled that the power of
the
legislature is limited to enacting laws.

Q 93. 11769214  What according to the passage is the reason for communal disharmony spread in Delhi last year?

a)  The spread of fake news via Facebook is the primary reason for the outburst of communal disharmony
in Delhi.

b)  The social media mishandling was the reason for the outburst of communal disharmony in Delhi.
c)  
Facebook's inefficient content moderation system that relies on artificial intelligence is responsible for
the communal
disharmony spread in Delhi.
d)  
Electoral ideologies leaning towards hate speech against religion was the reason behind the communal
outburst in
Delhi.

Q 94. 11769214  How did Facebook claim defense in the case of Ajit Mohan?

a)  
Facebook claimed that an intermediary is not liable when it is merely acting as a platform for third-party
information.
b)  Facebook defended that as an intermediary they will not be held liable for the action of the third party.

c)  Facebook claimed that they shall not be held liable for the act of an intermediary.
d)  
Facebook defended by saying that the IT laws of Indiado not mandate them to comply with the contended
regulations.

Q 95. 11769214  What has been the primary center of discussion in the above given passage?

a)  The passage discusses the inability of Facebook to control hate speech and the effects of the same.

b)  
The passage discusses the rise of hate speech and social media as a tool of the same with the exampleof
the
Facebook fiasco.

c)  
The passage discusses the problems of social media and the lack of laws to regulate the same with the
example of
hate speech.

d)  
The passage discusses the concept of hate speech and the laws that regulate the same with the example
of the
Facebook case.

Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage.
Only the
information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of
law
howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage – 7

"The defence of inevitable accident holds that where an accident is purely inevitable, and not caused by the fault of
either party, the loss lies where it falls. Although normally the defendant need not prove an inevitable accident but
only deny negligence, the defence is still used occasionally. The courts, however, are not quick to accept it. An
inevitable accident is an occurrence not avoidable by any precaution a reasonable person would be expected to
take.
The person invoking the defence must show that something happened over which he or she had no control,
and the
effect of which could not have been prevented by using great skill and care. He or she must show either
the cause of
the accident and the inevitability of its result, or all the possible causes and the inevitability of the result
of each. The
standard is not one of perfection; thus, it is wrong for a trial judge to tell the jury the defendant must
show the
accident could not possibly be prevented by the exercise of reasonable care. It is important to distinguish
between
the defence of an inevitable accident and the defence of explanation. If an automobile collision occurs
because of an
external factor such as snow or ice on the road, the defence of explanation is available to the
defendant driver who
can rebut the inference of negligence by merely advancing an explanation of how the collision
may have occurred
reasonably without negligence. However, where the defendant is claiming an inevitable accident
because of factors
wholly within him or her, such as unconsciousness, the defendant has a heavier burden of
proving on a balance of
probabilities that his or her driving manner was not a conscious act."

With respect to the onus borne by the parties in circumstances in which the defence of inevitable accident is put
forth,
the authorities confirm that once the plaintiff establishes a prima facie case of negligence, the onus will shift
to the
defendant to prove inevitable accident. In so doing, the defendant is required to show how the accident took
place
and that the loss of control of the vehicle could not have been avoided by the exercise of the greatest care
and skill.

The notion of an inevitable accident posits a non-tortious explanation for an accident. In the matter at hand that
explanation is, according to the defendant, the sudden loss of steering and braking ability. Such a mechanical
failure
is only non-tortious if it could not have been prevented by the exercise of reasonable care. If the exercise of
reasonable care could or would have revealed the mechanical problem, then a driver is not absolved of responsibility
when the problem becomes manifest. His or her negligence remains a cause of the accident, albeit the negligence
rests, at least in part, on a different footing, namely a failure to exercise reasonable care in inspecting and
maintaining
the vehicle as opposed to negligence in the manner of driving. Even if a defendant experiences a sudden
mechanical
failure which occurred in spite of the exercise of reasonable care in maintaining and servicing a vehicle,
that is not
necessarily the end of the matter. The issue that remains is whether the defendant exercised reasonable
care in
responding to the emergency
Q 96. 11769214  According to the passage, what is the opinion of courts regarding inevitable accidents?

a)  
The passage notes that courts consider an inevitable accident to be a genuine problem and the same
had to be
addressed or considered while dealing with cases.
b)  
The passage says that courts are not quick to accept or take note of the defense or the concept of
inevitable
accident.
c)  The passage says that courts extensively consider the defense of an inevitable accident.

d)  The passage does not speak about the opinion of courts with regards to inevitable accidents.

Q 97. 11769214  Binod Malya owned many cars. Binod used some of his cars occasionally. Once Binod wanted to
take his
Mercedes for a spin. However, after not using the car for a long time the battery of the car got out of the ideal
condition. Binod after some attempts switched on the ignition and kept the car on so that the battery may
recharge
itself again. He left the car and went to meet his girlfriend Deepika. A kid went inside the car and
shifted the gears
leading to a collision of the car with Ranbir. Ranbir files a case against Deepika as well as
Binod Malya. The
defendants want to take the plea of inevitable accident. Decide.

a)  Malya and ors can take the defense of an inevitable accident as shifting of gears by a kid was unforeseeable.

b)  The defendants cannot plead the defense of an inevitable accident in the given case.

c)  The defendant can only plead for an act of god and not an inevitable accident.

d)  The kid should be held liable for negligence and not Malya and Deepika.

Q 98. 11769214  Which of the following is not a requirement to prove the defense of an inevitable accident?

a)  The act took place without the intent or awareness of the person.

b)  The person could not have reasonably foreseen the same happening

c)  The act happened due to some higher authority or power which humans have no control of

d)  The person has taken reasonable care to avoid the same.

Q 99. 11769214  How should the trial judge not ask the defense to prove that the act happened due to an inevitable
accident?

a)  
By telling the jury the defendant must show the accident could not possibly be prevented by the exercise
of
reasonable care.
b)  By asking to prove that there was no prima facie negligence from the part of the defendant

c)  By looking into the detailed circumstances of the case and then decide upon inevitable accident

d)  None of the above

Q 100. 11769214  Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage?

a)  The notion of inevitable accident posits a non-tortious explanation for an accident

b)  
The defence of inevitable accident holds that where an accident is purely inevitable, and not caused by
the fault of
either party, the loss lies where it falls.
c)  
If a defendant experiences a sudden mechanical failure which occurred in spite of the exercise of
reasonable care in
maintaining and servicing a vehicle, that it is necessarily an end of the matter.
d)  The passage distinguishes between the defence of an inevitable accident and the defence of explanation.

Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage.
Only the
information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of
law
howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage – 8

With the COVID-19 outbreak around the globe, the performance of most of the existing agreements between
business sectors is at stake and this raises serious legal concerns. The fate of such existing agreements could
be
decided by the force majeure clauses in a contract. Force majeure has been defined by Black's Law Dictionary
as an
event or effect that can be neither anticipated nor be controlled and is usually governed by Section 32 of the
Indian
Contract Act, 1872. Most of the companies have a force majeure clause which contains a list of events
which may
prevent, delay or render the performance of the obligations impossible. Some of these events can be
categorized as
acts of God including fire, drought, volcano, epidemic, earthquake etc.

The sine qua non to invoke Section 32 is to determine whether COVID-19 qualifies as a force majeure event. This
can be determined only by looking into the force majeure clauses in the contract. The situation can give rise to
three
possible scenarios. First, there is a contract which has clearly listed epidemic or pandemic in the force
majeure
clause. In such a case, the affected party can easily invoke Section 32 since Covid-19 has been declared
as a
pandemic by the WHO and the Indian Government via an office memorandum. Second, there is a clause
which has
explicitly excluded pandemic as a force majeure event in the clause. In such situations, the parties
cannot claim
Covid-19 as a Force majeure event. The law has been settled by Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram
Bangur &Co
case, which states that when the parties themselves contemplate the continuation of the performance
of contract
despite any event of force Majeure nature, the obligations continue even when the event happens.
Third, in case of
any ambiguities, when pandemic has neither been listed explicitly but words like "any other force
majeure events"
has been used, Courts have followed a strict rule of interpretation and no claim can be made in
such a case.

What happens in an absence of a force majeure clause? -In case of the absence of an force majeure clause, the
affected party can seek relief under Section 56 for discharging the contract by invoking the doctrine of frustration.
However, for invoking Section 56, the parties have to show that due to COVID-19, the performance of the contract
has become impossible or the performance would be impracticable or useless for the object and purpose of the
contract.

Does COVID-19 qualify as a force majeure Event with respect to all contracts? - Although Covid-19 has been
declared as a pandemic, it does not mean that COVID-19 would qualify as a force majeure event with respect to
all
contracts. Mere qualification as a force majeure event would not discharge all the contracts. The application
would
rather depend on the nature, terms, facts and circumstances of each case.

For instance, a contract to supply a car on 1stApril, 2020 would not attract the force majeure clause, even if a
pandemic was included in the force majeure clause. This is because there is merely a delay in the performance
and
no impossibility of performance of the contract. With every force majeure clause, there is a different level of
impact on
the performance for the force majeure clause to trigger. Such impacts could be in the form of prevention,
hindrance or
delay in the performance of the contract and all of which require a varying degree of onus probandi.
For instance, the
onus required to prove a delay in the performance of the act shall be less than to prove that the
performance has
become impossible. Thus, there cannot be a straitjacket formula for the invocation of Section 32
to discharge the
contract rather it largely depends on the nature and terms of each contract.

Q 101. 11769214  D entered into an agreement to sell 500 boxes of flour to a food manufacturing company. The
contract had
a clause that stated 'the contract shall stand terminated if any highly contagious disease occurs and
makes
the masses ill'. During the continuation of the contract, Covid-19 occurred across the world. Now D wants
to
terminate the contract. Decide.

a)  D cannot terminate the contract as the clause does not explicitly suggest the same and it is open to
interpretation.

b)  D can terminate the contract as the clause in the contract provides for such a provision.

c)  D cannot terminate the contract permanently but can suspend the same for a temporary period of time.

d)  None of the above

Q 102. 11769214  According to the passage, will covid-19 be classifiedas a force majeure event under section 56 of
the Indian
contract act 1872?

a)  The passage states that Covid-19 is classified as a force majeure event under section 56 of the code.

b)  The passage says that covid-19 does not classify as a force majeure event under section 56 of the code.

c)  The passage does not answer whether covid-19 classifies or not classifies as a force majeure event.

d)  The passage suggests that covid- 19 classifies as a force majeure event only in exceptional
circumstances.

Q 103. 11769214  Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage?

a)  
The law has been settled that when the parties themselves contemplate the continuation of the performance
of the
contract despite any event of force Majeure nature, the obligations continue even when the event
happens.

b)  
Most of the companies have a force majeure clause which contains a list of events which may prevent,
delay or
render the performance of the obligations impossible.

c)  
-In case of the absence of an force majeure clause, the affected party can seek relief under Section 56
for
discharging the contract by invoking the doctrine of frustration.
d)  All the above statements are true.

Q 104. 11769214  What does the author imply when he suggests there cannot be a straightjacket formula to invoke
section
32?

a)  
The author explains the difficulties of bringing covid-19 under a force majeure factor and making a contract
impossible under section 32.
b)  The author explains the necessity of adopting and bringing up laws to include covid-19 under section 32.

c)  
The author explains the overlapping of section 32 and section 56 which creates hindrances in invoking
impossibility
and the necessity to evolve accordingly.
d)  The passage does not provide nor are therenecessary facts to conclude a suitable answer to this question.

Q 105. 11769214  What has law settled regarding section 32 and force majeure clauses according to the passage?

a)  
Impacts could be in the form of prevention, hindrance or delay in the performance of the contract and all
of which
require a varying degree of onus probandi.
b)  
When the parties themselves contemplate the continuation of the performance of the contract despite
any event of
force Majeure nature, the obligations continue even when the event happens.
c)  
Most of the companies have a force majeure clause which contains a list of events which may prevent,
delay or
render the performance of the obligations impossible.

d)  Mere qualification as a force majeure event would not discharge all the contracts.

LOGICAL REASONING
Directions for questions 106 to 135: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and
arguments
set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or
implied in the
corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to you.
In some
instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the
option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Passage – 1

The death of the comic artist and writer, Narayan Debnath, brought waves of nostalgia. Debnath regaled readers
through such comic characters as 'Nonte-Fonte', 'Bantul the Great' and 'Handa-Bhonda'. Debnath's popularity in
postcolonial India brings to fore interesting perspectives on society. An attempt to locate the underlying themes in
Debnath's comics within the ambience that produced his ideas merits scrutiny. Debnath used the medium of
comics -
they unfolded over multiple frames - to put forth these ideas. As argued by Sourav Chatterjee, Debnath's
works
epitomized the culture of 'mass art' and were undoubtedly influenced by the Golden and the Bronze Ages of
American comic books whose stylistic formulae he inculcated and modified to forge his own narrative.

It would be interesting to view Debnath's comics in the light of the colonial production of knowledge that continues
to
influence post-Independence thought. The colonial view of childlike passions was that they need to be scoffed
at and
that children are to be saved from sin through a process of proper socialization. Whether or not Debnath
identified
with the colonial features of 'childhood' is a tricky question but it is evident from his writings that the child
is jejune and
is part of a world unfazed by adult complexities.

The storyline that Debnath follows throughout the much-loved Nonte-Fonte series is in perfect consonance with a
view of childhood as a blissful experience. Yet, these experiences needed to be restored by adult codes of conduct
and given sanction accordingly. The prevailing view of the British colonizers, was that the quintessence of childhood
is playfulness, irresponsibility and spontaneity. So child-like impulses had to be controlled. This idea took the form
of
exploitation of children by putting them into factory work during the Industrial Revolution. In Asia and Africa, the
natives were seen as 'children' who had to be put under colonial rule for them to come up to certain standards of
civilization.
Q 106. 11769214  What is the central idea in the passage as conveyed by the author?

a)  The mass culture of post-independent India is governed by colonial concerns.

b)  To look into the factors that shaped a much loved comic book series.

c)  Knowledge production in post-independent India has taken place by utilizing the ideas of the colonizers.

d)  India has failed to develop her own ideas of childhood even after gaining independence.

Q 107. 11769214  As per the passage, which of the following approaches can be viewed as most effective in
understanding
Debnath's outlook that shaped his comic books?

a)  By comparing it against the idea of childhood that the colonizers had adopted and established.

b)  By looking at secondary literature and establishing what is colonial view of childhood.

c)  By seeking out the reasons that made the colonizers come up with their idea of childhood.

d)  By contrasting it against other contemporary comic book writers and how they depicted childhood.

Q 108. 11769214  Which of the following notions is expressed in the passage to enunciate the significance of colonial
production
of knowledge?

a)  
Children were shown to be carefree so that adults had to act with responsibility towards the work they
are asked to
do.

b)  Child labour was predominant in Asia and thus it was important to show that children are carefree entities.

c)  The Industrial Revolution was depriving the children with open spaces to play around.

d)  Carefree children were viewed as a negative factor in a civilized society.

Q 109. 11769214  "The prevailing view of the British colonizers, was that the quintessence of childhood is
playfulness,
irresponsibility and spontaneity."

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statement?

a)  By creating a clear definition of childhood, adult expectations can be produced accordingly.

b)  The child needs to become an adult by becoming overcoming these shortfalls.

c)  The British wanted human civilization to be responsible towards each other.

d)  British colonizers wanted children to be happy in their empire.

Q 110. 11769214  Which of the following weakens the author's idea that it is possible that Debnath's comic books
were influenced
by notions of childhood as devised by the British colonizers?

a)  Debnath's comic book characters showcase childhood as a period which is happy and gratifying.

b)  
Debnath was working under a system of knowledge that was previously championed by the Britishers
who had
colonized India.
c)  
Debnath's work is a development of the form and content popular during the Golden and the Bronze
Ages of
American comic books.
d)  Debnath is more popular among adults and the nostalgia that surrounded his death is a testament to that
fact.

Directions for questions 106 to 135: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and
arguments
set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or
implied in the
corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to you.
In some
instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the
option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Passage – 2

The Naga peace talks between the Government of India and the National Socialist Council of Nagalim (IM) have
reached a stalemate. One of the reasons for the logjam is the tussle over a separate flag for Nagaland. In the Naga
narrative, the Naga flag was not designed by a mortal; it is a divine ensign. The flag has a blue background
representing the sky, and red, yellow and green rainbow arches across the centre. The Star of Bethlehem adorns
the
top left corner of the flag as Nagas are predominantly Christian.

Clamour for subnational flags is not new in India. On Karnataka Rajyotsava - Karnataka Formation Day - the chief
minister hoists the bicoloured 'Kannada flag' alongside the national flag. The red-and-yellow flag has been the de
facto state flag, used across Karnataka while celebrating its language and culture. In 2009, the then government
under B.S. Yediyurappa removed restrictions on hoisting the flag on government buildings. Three years later,
another
chief minister, Sadananda Gowda, made it compulsory for state government offices and educational
institutions to
hoist the Karnataka flag on Karnataka Rajyotsava.

Jammu and Kashmir had its own state flag between 1952 and 2019, under the special status accorded to the
region
by Article 370 of the Constitution. This red-and-white state flag with a representation of a plough and the
three
constituent regions of the former state - it has its roots in the struggle that took place in Srinagar on July 13,
1931 -
lost its official sanctity after the abolition of Article 370 in August, 2019.

Flags have high emotional value. The Confederate flag in the United States of America is a textbook example of
vexillological sensibilities. The flag represents the Confederate States, created in 1861 when 11 states seceded
from
the US. This flag has been a powerful symbol in reinterpreting the American Civil War. The state flag of
Georgia,
where the opposition to the emancipation was fierce, had incorporated the Confederate flag. Many white
Southerners
used to defend their allegiance to the Confederate flag. Meanwhile, for Afro-American people, the flag
was a symbol
of their dehumanization. The same Confederate flag, thus, became the object of two contradictory
emotions.
Incidentally, the Berbers, Tibetans, Kurds and the Palestinian people have their own flags even though
they don't
have a nation state.
Q 111. 11769214  Which of the following is true about the Naga flag?

a)  Like Karnataka flag, chief minister of Nagaland hoists the bicoloured flag on Nagaland day.

b)  The star on the right corner of the flag represents the predominant religion of Nagaland.

c)  According to the people of Nagaland, the flag was created by God.

d)  The flag has a yellow background.

Q 112. 11769214  Which of the following cannot be inferred about the Karnataka flag?
a)  
Sadanand Gowda made it compulsory for government offices and schools to hoist the Karnataka flag on
Rajyotsava.
b)  The Karnataka flag is bicoloured.

c)  The restrictions applied by Yediyurappa on the hoisting of Karnataka state flag were removed by Gowda.

d)  All of them.

Q 113. 11769214  Which of the following is an assumption?

a)  The Confederate flag in US was used in the Civil War of 1860s.

b)  People belonging to various ethnic groups may not have a nation but do have their own flags.

c)  Both (a) and (b).

d)  Neither (a) nor (b).

Q 114. 11769214  Read the following statements and select the correct option.

I. Jammu and Kashmir's state flag had to be removed after abrogation of Article 370in 2019.

II. The flag of Jammu and Kashmir represented the history of struggle of the people of that region.

a)  I is true. b)  II is true. c)  Both are false d)  Both are true.

Q 115. 11769214  What type of a newspaper article is this?

a)  Informative. b)  Opinionated. c)  Entertainment. d)  Fictional

Directions for questions 106 to 135: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and
arguments
set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or
implied in the
corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to you.
In some
instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the
option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Passage – 3

Research has found that while 82 per cent of Indian adults state that equality is important between people who are
dating or in a relationship, an overwhelming majority (82 per cent) say that when it comes to romantic relationships,
there are different expectations and expected behaviours based on gender identity. Often, behaviours that are
labeled romantic for men are negatively labeled for women.

The research identified several key themes, with the overriding finding being that there is still a long way to go in
redefining gender roles in romantic relationships and dating.

Men are still expected to take the lead: Thirty-nine per cent of people surveyed state that men are expected to take
the lead in dating and relationships, while only 21 per cent think women should do so. For men, more than one in
four
(28 per cent) have felt pressured to take the lead.

Men are expected to say 'I love you' first: More than one in three (37 per cent) people surveyed state that men
should
be the first to say those magic words and express their love first, while only 21 per cent think women should
profess
their love first.

Women should not appear desperate: More than one in four (28 per cent) people surveyed state it's important that
women are expected to avoid appearing too keen, clingy, attached or desperate.

While these expectations exist, there is a desire for change. Fifty-three per cent people feel strongly that in an ideal
world it is important to maintain respect and equality in long term relationships and around two in five (41 per cent)
women state that it is important to address equality early in dating and relationships.
Q 116. 11769214  As per the passage, which of the following is a challenge for dating in India?

a)  
There is emphasis on equality but neither of the genders are prepared to make necessary concessions
to achieve it.

b)  Men's show of love often makes women feel uncomfortable.

c)  There is a big gap when it comes to romantic expectations which each gender assumes.

d)  Women are forced to conform to ways that make dating natural from a man's perspective.

Q 117. 11769214  ". . . there is still a long way to go in redefining gender roles in romantic relationships and dating."
In the context of the statement, which of the following strengthens the passage's concerns?

a)  Men may get intimidated by such actions.

b)  Curbing set expectations about gender roles in relationships.

c)  Doing the opposite of what is expected may help in achieving an equal relationship.

d)  Women should define expectations beforehand to make the experience easier on them.

Q 118. 11769214  Which of the following is the central theme of the above passage?

a)  How can we do away with expectations during dating.

b)  The idea of men being more active during dating is a myth that is detrimental for both genders.

c)  Women are finding dating difficult since they are forced to comply with a set expectation from men.

d)  
Dating between men and women face the barrier of expectations which can be overcome by redefining
gender roles.

Q 119. 11769214  Which of the following is false based on the passage?

a)  Women are likelier to initiate the dating process.

b)  Some men feel burdened when asked to initiate the dating process.

c)  Women are unlikelier to initiate the dating process.

d)  Indian adults do not vouch for equality in a relationship.

Q 120. 11769214  Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?

a)  Indian adults are wary of women being too attached.

b)  Women are happy to find the man they are dating act desperate.

c)  Men are happier than women if they hear women say 'I love you' before they initiate it.

d)  Majority of men are pressurized to take a lead in a romantic relationship.

Directions for questions 106 to 135: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and
arguments
set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or
implied in the
corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to you.
In some
instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the
option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Passage – 4

Work out in polluted air and you may miss out on some of the brain benefits of exercise, according to two, largescale,
new studies of exercise, air quality and brain health. The studies, which involved tens of thousands of
British men
and women, found that, most of the time, people who ran and rode vigorously had larger brain volumes
and lower
risks for dementia than their less active peers. But if people exercised in areas with even moderate
levels of air
pollution, the expected brain improvements from exercise almost disappeared.

A large body of evidence demonstrates that, on the whole, exercise bulks up our brains. In studies, active people
generally sport more grey matter in many parts of their brains than sedentary people. Grey matter is made up of
the
brain's essential, working neurons. Fit people also tend to have healthier white matter, meaning the cells that
support
and connect neurons. White matter often frays with age, shrinking and developing Swiss-cheese-like
lesions even in
healthy adults.

As expected, vigorous exercise was linked, in general, to sturdy brain health. But any beneficial associations
almost
disappeared when exercisers lived in areas with even moderate air pollution. Their grey matter volume
was smaller
and white matter lesions more numerous than among people living and exercising away from pollution,
even if their
workouts were similar.

The same scientists repeated aspects of this experiment with another 35,562 older UK Biobank participants,
comparing people's exercise habits, local pollution levels and diagnosis of dementia, if any. The data showed the
more people exercised, the less likely they were to develop dementia over time - provided their local air was clear.
When it was moderately polluted, though, they had an increased long-term risk of dementia, whether they exercised
or not.
Q 121. 11769214  Which of the following is the central theme of the passage?

a)  Exercising in polluted areas deprives the person performing them of vital cerebral benefits.

b)  Working out in polluted air robs cerebral benefits of exercising.

c)  Exercising without purifying the body is worthless.

d)  Good exercise habits enhance our cerebral capacities.

Q 122. 11769214  Which of the following is not true about white matter as discussed in the passage?

a)  White matter health is directly related to physical fitness.

b)  Healthier white matters mean that the neuron connections are not needed.

c)  White matter lesions are a sign of good brain health.

d)  White matter suffers wear and tear with age.

Q 123. 11769214  Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?

a)   b)  Air pollution is a direct cause of dementia.

Unhealthy and unfit body is more susceptible to c)  Neurons make our brain work.
dementia.
d)  
Exercising under polluted air makes people more
unhealthy.
Q 124. 11769214  Which of the following is an assumption?

a)   b)  
Less active men are susceptible to health complications. A long habit of exercise can help people ward off
dementia.

c)  Neither (a) or (b). d)  Both (a) and (b).

Q 125. 11769214  Read the following statements and select the correct option.

I. Brain health is solely dependent on a person's physical fitness.

II. Less active people have lesser grey matter volume compared to their more active counterparts.

a)  I is true b)  II is true c)  Both are true d)  None of them are true

Directions for questions 106 to 135: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and
arguments
set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or
implied in the
corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to you.
In some
instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the
option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Passage – 5

Ukraine's President Volodymyr Zelensky delivered a Churchill-like speech at the British Parliament on Tuesday,
vowing to fight to the end "in forests, fields and streets". But hours before his speech, through video-conferencing,
he
sent the clearest signal to Russian President Vladimir Putin - in an interview - that he was ready to compromise
on
the most sensitive issues such as Ukraine's bid to join NATO, and the status of Russian-controlled Crimea and
the
breakaway Donetsk and Luhansk republics. He also called for "a collective security agreement" that would
include
Russia, the U.S. and Western European countries as part of a lasting solution. What makes his apparent
concessions important is that he announced them a day after the Kremlin laid out three conditions to stop what it
calls
its "special military operation" in Ukraine: It wants Kyiv to accept Crimea as a Russian territory, recognise
Donetsk
and Luhansk as independent republics and amend the country's Constitution to drop attempts to join any
bloc
(NATO) and reinstate its neutrality. While Mr. Zelensky stopped short of offering recognition to the breakaway
regions,
his offer for compromise and dialogue opened a path towards a political settlement. The Russian Foreign
Ministry's
statement on Wednesday that its goals would be better achieved through talks also signals hope for a
de-escalation.

In the last two weeks, Mr. Zelensky has emerged as the face of the Ukrainian resistance. But he is also in a difficult
situation. The Russian advances are slow given Russia's relative power, but in the last 13 days, Ukraine has lost
sizeable territories, from its northern border with Belarus to its southwestern Black Sea coast. Russia has not
taken
any major Ukrainian city except Kherson in the south, but most cities, including Kharkiv in the north and
Mariupol in
the southeast, are being encircled. Kyiv, the capital city, is being enveloped from the east and west.
Mr. Zelensky has
repeatedly asked for military help from NATO. But his request for a no-fly zone was shot down.
Even the Polish offer
to send its fleet of MiG-29 jet fighters was dismissed by the U.S., which does not want any
kind of military
involvement in the conflict.
Q 126. 11769214  Which of the following is a correct inference?

a)  Zelensky taking control of the situation like Churchill did for England.

b)  Zelensky agreeing to compromise is a move towards a political treaty.

c)  All the three conditions of Kremlin were not met by Ukraine to stop the war

d)  None of them
Q 127. 11769214  Which of the following is an incorrect assumption?

a)   b)  The US will not interfere in the conflict.

Russia has vowed not to take any Ukrainian city as c)  None of them
hostage.
d)  Both of them

Q 128. 11769214  Argument: Russia wants to end the war on its own terms.

I. Yes, Russia wants peace like any other European nation.

II. No, Russia wants to capture more Ukranian cities like Kherson.

a)  I is true b)  II is true c)  Both are true d)  Both are false

Q 129. 11769214  Which of the following is not true?

a)  Zelensky although is in a difficult situation but has emerged as the face of Ukrainian revolution against
Russia.

b)  Zelensky had asked for military help but was not provided.

c)  According to Russia, de escalation is only possible through military escalation.

d)  Poland wanted to send jet fighters but the idea was shot down by the US.

Q 130. 11769214  The Author _____________________________ with the notion of anti-war.

a)  Strongly agrees b)  Strongly disagrees c)  Is nonchalant d)  None of the above

Directions for questions 106 to 135: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and
arguments
set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or
implied in the
corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to you.
In some
instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the
option that
most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Passage – 6

In 1869, the United States of America's Senate rejected the nominee of President Ulysses Grant, Ebenezer R.
Hoar,
for a seat on the Supreme Court. Hoar had strongly opposed patronage appointments, the uncodified system
by
which appointments to several public offices were made purely on the basis of patronage by a senator. As
attorney-
general, Hoar had challenged these senators and insisted on merit appointments. When it was his turn to
be
appointed to the Supreme Court, the senators exacted their revenge.

In 2022, in the eighth decade of the Indian republic, AkilKureshi retired as chief justice of the Rajasthan High Court.
Kureshi had been a fine judge of the Gujarat High Court for 14 years and in the ordinary course could have
expected
an appointment to the Supreme Court to end his judicial career. Instead, he was first transferred to the
Bombay High
Court, then proposed to be sent to Madhya Pradesh as chief justice, ended up in Tripura and, finally,
retired from
Rajasthan.

Unlike the US, where the reasons for rejecting a nominee to the Supreme Court are clear, in India one can only
speculate. Most commentators have suggested that a 2010 judgment handing over custody of Amit Shah to the
Central Bureau of Investigation may have definitively stalled Kureshi's career prospects. If this is indeed true,
Kureshi
and Hoar, despite being a century and a half apart, would be united in having crossed swords with their
respective
elected representatives to their personal detriment.

But that is where the similarity ends. Appointment of judges to the US Supreme Court is an overtly political process.
This is not because the US wants politically partisan judges. It is rather because as a system it values transparency -
the citizen knows what the political affiliations of judges are before they are appointed. This, combined with
guaranteed life tenure, is meant to ensure both transparency in appointment and independence in judicial action.
By
and large this system works well. That Hoar wasn't appointed was an abomination - but it was one for which
patronage-loving senators could be held publicly accountable. Indeed they were, with the patronage system coming
to an end a few years later.
Q 131. 11769214  Which of the following statements is a cause and which is an effect:

I. Hoar was opposed patronage appointments.

II. Hoar was rejected from attaining a seat at the supreme court.

a)  I is cause, II is effect. b)  II is cause, I is effect. c)   d)  

Both are individual causes. Both are individual effects.

Q 132. 11769214  Which of the following is not true about India as far as appointment to the supreme court is
concerned?

a)  The process is fair and transparent.

b)  Political figures like Amit Shah decide the future of candidates.

c)  Indian and USA penal system are similar.

d)  All of them.

Q 133. 11769214  Read the following Inferences and select the correct option:

I. Kureshi and Hoar both stood against their respective elected representatives and had to suffer
consequences.

II. Kureshi retired as the Chief Justice of Rajasthan High Court.

a)  I is true. b)  II is true. c)  Both are true d)  Both are false.

Q 134. 11769214  "But that is where the similarity ends."

Which of the following is true based on the above statement?

a)  India and US have similar legal system.

b)  Appointment of judges differ from nation to nation.

c)  Appointment of judges in US is openly political.

d)  In India one does not have to predict the reason for not hiring a nominee.

Q 135. 11769214  The Author __________ with a transparent hiring process of court officials.

a)  Strongly disagrees b)  Agrees c)  Strongly agrees d)  Disagrees.

QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions for questions 136 to 140: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Five dance forms Ballet, Jazz, Contemporary, Ballroom and Salsa are included in a dance Competition. The total
number of dancers in this dance competition is 240. 25% of the total dancers participate in Jazz, 40 dancers
participate in Ballroom, 10% of the total dancers participate in Contemporary. The number of Ballet dancers is
twice
the number of Ballroom dancers. The remaining dancers participate in Salsa. 30% of Jazz dancers are
female. The
number of female Ballroom dancers is equal to half the number of Jazz dancers. The number of
female
Contemporary dancers is equal to 10% of Ballet dancers. Ballet and Salsa have an equal number of
female dancers,
whereas the number of male participants in Salsa is 14.
Q 136. 11769214  What is the ratio between female Ballet dancers and male Ballroom dancers?

a)  10 : 11 b)  11 : 20 c)  13 : 10 d)  11 : 5

Q 137. 11769214  What is the total number of male participants in Ballet, Jazz and Salsa?

a)  123 b)  94 c)  114 d)  102

Q 138. 11769214  What is the approximate percentage of female Salsa dancers when compared to male Jazz
dancers?

a)  52% b)  34% c)  24% d)  45%

Q 139. 11769214  What is the difference between the number of female Ballroom dancers and male Contemporary
dancers?

a)  13 b)  14 c)  12 d)  26

Q 140. 11769214  In which of the following pairs of dance forms are male participants the highest and female
participants the
least respectively?

a)  Jazz and Ballroom b)  Jazz and Ballet c)  Salsa and Jazz d)  
Ballet and Contemporary

Directions for questions 141 to 145: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The table given below shows the percentage of marks obtained by six students in six different subjects.

Q 141. 11769214  How many marks did A get in all the subjects together?

a)  508 b)  477 c)  454 d)  537

Q 142. 11769214  What are the average marks obtained by all students together in Marathi?

a)  72 b)  48 c)  28 d)  36

Q 143. 11769214  How many students have scored the highest marks in more than one subject?

a)  None b)  One c)  Two d)  Three

Q 144. 11769214  What is C's overall percentage of marks in all subjects together?

a)  85.92 b)  72.64 c)  81.44 d)  76.32

Q 145. 11769214  Who has scored the highest marks in all the subjects together?
a)  A b)  B c)  E d)  F

Directions for questions 146 to 150: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of employees in different department of an organisation.
Total number of employees in the organisation is 12600.

Q 146. 11769214  The number of employees in the department of Academic Affairs is approximately what per cent
more than
the number of employees in examination department?

a)  39 b)  29 c)  12 d)  139

Q 147. 11769214  If 30 percent of the number of employees of Research department is females, then what is the
number of
male employees in the Research department?

a)  1343 b)  1232 c)  1323 d)  1242

Q 148. 11769214  The number of employees in Examination department is approximately what percentage of the
total number
of employees in the department of HR and Academic Affairs together?

a)  69 b)  65 c)  61 d)  56

Q 149. 11769214  What is the average number of employees in Accounts, Admission and Research department
together?

a)  1722 b)  1742 c)  1786 d)  1784

Q 150. 11769214  What is the difference between the total number of employees in the department of HR and
Admission
together and the total number of employees in Accounts and Examination department together?

a)  2268 b)  2464 c)  2286 d)  2644